27-07-2025

2401CMD303056250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Which of the following is not correct :-

(1) log 12 = 2 log2 + log3

(2) log 32 = 5 log2
(3) log10(1) = 1
(4) log10(0.1) = –1

2)

If velocity v = 6t2 + 2t + 3 m/sec.

then find average velocity from t = 0 to t = 1 sec.

(1) 11 m/sec.
(2) 8 m/sec.
(3) 6 m/sec.
(4) 7 m/sec.

3)

Sin 120°, sin 220°, cos 230°, tan 500°

Applying ASTC rule, which of the following statement is true :-

(1) +, +, – , –
(2) –, – , + , –
(3) +, – , – , +
(4) +, –, –, –

4) A circular arc of length 15 cm has radius 5 cm. The angle substended by it at centre is :

(1) 1/3 rad

(2) 3 rad
(3) 5 rad
(4) 1/5 rad

5) (sin 120°) = ............

(1) cos 120°

(2) 120 cos 120°
(3) 0
(4) None of these
6) At point P, the value of is :-

(1) Zero
(2) Positive
(3) Negative
(4) Infinite

7) If 'x' denotes displacement at time 't' and x = b sint then acceleration is :-

(1) b sint
(2) –b sint
(3) b cost
(4) –b cost

8) The value of at point A in the given graph is :

(1) 0
(2) ∞
(3) 1
(4) None of above

9) Slope of curve, represented by y= 2x2–x at x = 2 is :

(1) 30
(2) 24
(3) 7
(4) 10

10) Statement-1 : At maxima or minima, slope is zero.

Statement-2 : Near minima, for a curve y = f(x), the slope is continuously increasing.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true

(2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false

11) Coordinate of a particle moving in xy plane vary with time x = 2t and y = 4t2 then the locus of
the particle -

(1) Straight line

(2) Parabola
(3) Circle
(4) Ellipse

12) The slope of straight line y = 3x + 4 is :-

(1) 3
(2)

(3)

(4)

13) If y = 6x2 then area of y–x graph with x-axis from x = 2 to x = 4 is :-

(1) 56
(2) 112
(3) 24
(4) 48

14) For above graph find =

(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) None

15) The value of area bounded by y = sinx from x = π to x = 2π is :-

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2
16)

For a quadratic equation x2 – 2x – 10 = 0 roots are :

(1) Real and distinct

(2) Real and equal
(3) Imaginary
(4) Insufficient information

17) The values of θ in interval [0°, 90°] for which 10sin2θ – 11sinθ + 3 = 0
(i) 30° (ii) 60° (iii) 37° (iv) 53°

(1) i, iv
(2) i, iii
(3) ii, iv
(4) i, ii, iv

18) Use the approximation (1 + x)n ≈ 1 + nx, |x| << 1, to find approximate value of is :

(1) 0.995
(2) 99.5
(3) 9.95
(4) 9.05

19) If g' = then by applying binomial theorem [h<<<R] :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) If ℓnx + ℓny = 2ℓnz, then

(1) x + y = 2z
(2) 2xy = z2
(3) z2 = x + y
(4)

21) Find Inet = –GMm

 Ιnet =
(1)

(2)
Ιnet = –
(3) Inet = –2GMm
(4) Inet = –4GMm

22)

Equation for y-x graph is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) In the given figure, R is the mid-point of PQ then relation between , and :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24)

If and P2 + Q2 = R2, then angle between & is :-

(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) 180°
(4) None of these

25)

Minimum number of vectors in a plane to produce zero resultant is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

26)

If magnitude of sum of two unit vectors is then magnitude of difference of these unit vectors will
be :-

(1) 1
(2)
(3)
(4) Zero

27)

The vector sum of two forces 15N and 5N can be:

(1) 8N
(2) 11N
(3) 5N
(4) 21N

28) Resultant of two vectors and is of magnitude P. If is reversed, then resultant is of

magnitude Q. What is the value of P + Q2?
2

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

29) The resultant of which pair cannot have a magnitude of 4N ?

(1) 2N and 3N
(2) 3N and 3N
(3) 2N and 6N
(4) 3N and 8N

30)
A vector may change if :-

(1) Frame of reference is translated

(2) Vector is rotated
(3) Reference frame is rotated
(4) Vector is shifted parallel to itself

31) Given below are two statements.

Statements I : Unit vector is unitless & its magnitude is one.
Statements II : Unit vector is obtained by dividing a vector by its own magnitude

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

32) In the isosceles right angled triangle shown in figure :-

(1) The angle between and is 45°

(2) The angle between and is 135°
(3) The angle between and is 45°
(4) The angle between and is 90°

33) If then unit vector in the direction of will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A vector points in the north-west direction. The negative of this vector will point in which
direction?

(1) North - East

(2) South - East
(3) South - West
(4) North - West

35) In the cube of side ‘a’ shown in the figure, the vector from the central point of the face ABOD to

the central point of the face BEFO will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Angle between & and & is :

(1) 120°, 60° respectively

(2) 60°, 60° respectively
(3) 60°, 120° respectively
(4) 120°, 120° respectively

37) The vector sum of two force is perpendicular to their vector differences. In that case, the forces:-

(1) Cannot be predicted

(2) Are perpendicular to each other
(3) Are equal to each other in magnitude
(4) Are not equal to each other in magnitude

38) A vector of length is turned through the angle θ about its tail. What is the change in the
position vector of its head :-

(1) cos(θ/2)
(2) 2 sin(θ/2)
(3) 2 cos(θ/2)
(4) sin(θ/2)

39) If and
then find out a unit vector parallel to resultant vector of and :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A regular hexagon of side 'a' shown in figure. If , the value of K

is :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

41) Correct statement, considering figure is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42) If = 2 and = 4 and angle between them is 60°, then is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
43) In the given square

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of the above

44) Resultant of three non-coplanar non-zero vectors and :-

(1) always lies in the plane containing

(2) always lies in the plane containing

(3) can be zero
(4) cannot be zero

45) A particle moves from (1, 1, 1) to (3, 4, 5). Then it's displacement vector will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) IUPAC name of compound :-

(1) N - ethyl - 2 - methoxy ethanamide

(2) N - ethyl amino - 2 - methoxy ethanone
(3) methyl - N - ethyl amino ethanoate
(4) N - ethyl propanoate
2) IUPAC name of following compound is:

(1) 1-Methyl-6-bromo-3-chloro cyclohexene

(2) 2-Bromo-5-chloro-1-methyl cyclo hexene
(3) 6-Bromo-3-chloro-1-methyl cyclohexene
(4) 4-Bromo-1-chloro-3-methyl cyclohex-2-ene

3) The total number of acetylinic bonds in the given compounds.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Which of the following is incorrect IUPAC name :-

(1)
3-Methyl butan-2-one

(2)
2-Hydroxy propanoic acid

(3)
5-Ethyl-1-methylcyclohex-1-ene

(4)
4-Methyl-3-oxopentan-2-ol

5) The number of hetero atoms present in the following compound is/are :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

6) Which of the following is not a correct match

(1)

⇒ Neopentyl

(2)

⇒ Neobutyl
(3) ⇒ Propargyl
(4) CH2 = CH – CH2 – ⇒ Allyl

7) The IUPAC name for isobutyl chloride is :-

(1) 2–Methyl-2–chloro butane

(2) 2–Chloro–2–methyl butane
(3) 1–Chloro–2–methyl propane
(4) 2–Methyl–3–chloro propane

8) Statement - I : is called Cyclo hexanenitrile.

Statement - II : It contains six carbon atoms in the ring and –CN as substituent.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

9)

Which of the following pair represents members of same homologous series?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)
Total number of sigma (σ) and (π) bonds present in the given molecule.

(1) σ = 14, π = 2
(2) σ = 15, π = 2
(3) σ = 13, π = 1
(4) σ = 14, π = 3

11)

The IUPAC name of the compound is :

(1) 2,3,5 – Trioxo Hexane

(2) 2, 5 dimethyl Butane 1, 2, 4 – Tri Carbaldehyde
(3) Hexane – 2, 3, 5 – Tri carbaldehyde
(4) 3 – oxo - 2, 5 – dimethyl hexane – 1, 6 – diol

12)
The IUPAC name of the above structure is

(1) 3–Methyl–3–isopropyl hexane

(2) 3–Isopropyl–3–methyl hexane
(3) 3–Ethyl–2,3–dimethyl hexane
(4) 2,3–Dimethyl–3–ethyl hexane

13)

The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula is

(1) 3,3,3-trimethyl-1-propene
(2) 1,1,1-trimethyl-2-propene
(3) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene
(4) 2,2-dimethyl-3-butene
14)

Which structure represents 2-chloro-3-methyl but-2-en-1-ol?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

The IUPAC name of is:

(1) Hex -1-yn-3-en-5-ol

(2) Hex -3-en-3-yn-5-ol
(3) Hex -3-en-5-yn-2-ol
(4) Hex -5-yn-3-en-2-ol

16) Compound in which all C-atom is sp hybridised.

(1) CH2 = C = CH2

(2) CH C—C CH

(3)

(4) CH2 = CH — C CH
17) IUPAC name?

(1) 1 – methyl – 3 – chloropropane – 1, 2, 3 – Trione

(2) 2, 3 – dioxo butnaoyl chloride
(3) 1 – chloro butane – 1, 2, 3 – Trione
(4) 1 – chloro – 3 - methylpropane – 1, 2, 3 – trione

18) The IUPAC name of the given compound is :

(1) 3-Cyclopropane-1-propene
(2) 3-Cyclopropyl-1-propene
(3) 1-Allylcyclopropane
(4) 3-Allylcyclopropane

19) Which of the following IUPAC name is incorrect ?

(1)
3,6-Dimethylcyclohexene

(2)
1, 6-Dimethylcyclohexene

(3)
6,6-Dimethylcyclohexene

(4)
1,5-Dimethylcyclohexene

20) IUPAC name ?

(1) 5 – Formyl – 2 – oxo cyclohexane carbonitrile

(2) 2, 5 – dioxo cyclohexane carbonitrile
(3) 3 – cyano – 4 – oxo – cyclohexane carbaldehyde
(4) 3 – cyano – 4 – oxo cyclohexanal
21) The IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

(1) 3, 4-diformyl pentanoic acid.

(2) 3, 4-dioxo pentanoic acid.
(3) Butane 1, 2-dicarbaldehyde-4-carboxylic acid.
(4) 3-Formyl-4-methyl-5-oxo pentanoic acid.

22) IUPAC Name?

(1) 1 – ethyl – 4 – methyl cyclohexanedione

(2) 1 – ethyl – 4 – methyl – 2, 5 – dioxo cyclohexane
(3) 2 – ethyl – 5 – methyl cyclohexane – 1, 4 – dione
(4) 2 – methyl – 5 – ethyl cyclohexane – 1, 4 – dione

23) Match List I (Atomic Number of Element) with List II (Block to which the Element Belongs) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below :

List I (Atomic Number of Element) List II (Block to which the element belongs)

A. 24 1. p

B. 38 2. f

C. 49 3. s

D. 59 4. d
(1) A→2; B→1; C→3; D→4
(2) A→4; B→3; C→1; D→2
(3) A→2; B→3; C→1; D→4
(4) A→4; B→1; C→3; D→2

24) The element with the electronic configuration as [Ar]3d104s24p3 represents a

(1) metal
(2) non-metal
(3) metalloid
(4) transition element
25) Match the column

Column-I Column-II
Elements Property

(i) Li (A) Most Acidic oxide

(ii) Be (B) Most Metallic character

(iii) C (C) Nature of oxide and hydroxide is similar to Al

(iv) Cs (D) Highest IE2

(1) (i) D (ii) C (iii) A (iv) B
(2) (i) D (ii) A (iii) C (iv) B
(3) (i) A (ii) C (iii) B (iv) D
(4) (i) C (ii) D (iii) B (iv) A

26) Among halogens, the correct order of amount of energy released in electron gain (electron gain
enthalpy) is

(1) F > Cl > Br > I

(2) F < Cl < Br < I
(3) F < Cl > Br > I
(4) F < Cl < Br < I

27) Aqueous solutions of two compounds, M–O–H and M'–O–H have been prepared in two separate
beakers. If the electronegativity of M = 3.5, M' = 1.72, O = 3.0 and H = 2.1, then the solutions
respectively are

(1) acidic, acidic

(2) acidic, basic
(3) basic, basic
(4) basic, acidic

28) The correct order of electron affinity of B, C, N, O is

(1) O > C > N > B

(2) B > N > C > O
(3) O > C > B > N
(4) O > B > C > N

29)

List-II
List-I (Electron Affinity in eV
(Atom / Ions) / atom and
where EA = –ΔHe.g.)

(P) F (1) 3.4

 (Q) F+ (2) 17.4

(R) Cl (3) 13

(S) Cl+ (4) 3.6

P Q R S

(1) 1 3 4 2

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 3 1 2 4
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) Which pair of elements has the similar chemical properties ?

(1) Z = 14, Z = 22
(2) Z = 11 Z = 19
(3) Z = 4, Z = 21
(4) Z = 2, Z = 4

31) Element with valence shell-electronic configuration as d5 s1 is placed in

(1) IA, s-block

(2) VIA, s-block
(3) VIB, s-block
(4) VIB, d-block

32) The second ionisation energy is always higher than the first ionisation energy because the

(1) ion becomes more stable attaining an octet or duplet configuration

(2) electron is more tightly bound to the nucleus in an ion
(3) electron is attracted more by the core electrons
(4) none of the above is the correct explanation

33) Which pair represents incorrect first IE ?

(1) Be > B
(2) N > O
(3) Li > Na
(4) He > He+

34) Nitrogen is found to have higher value of ionisation energy because

(1) it has half-filled p-orbitals
(2) it has chemically inert
(3) its shielding effect overcomes the nucleon charge
(4) All of the above are correct

35) The statement that is not correct for periodic classification of elements is.

(1) The properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers.
(2) Non-metallic elements are less in number than metallic elements.
For transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are filled with electrons after 3p-orbitals and before 4s-
(3)
orbitals.
The first ionisation enthalpies of elements generally increase with increase in atomic number as
(4)
we go along a period.

36) Assertion (A) :- Noble gases have positive electron gain enthalpy.
Reason (R) :- Noble gases have stable closed shell electronic configuration.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

37) Assertion (A) :- The atomic radii of the elements of the oxygen family are smaller than the
atomic radii of the corresponding elements of the nitrogen family.
Reason (R) :- The members of the oxygen family are more electronegative and thus have lower
values of nuclear charge than those of the nitrogen family.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

38) Four successive members of the first row of transition elements are listed below with their
atomic numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest third ionization energy?

(1) Iron (Z = 26)

(2) Vanadium (Z = 23)
(3) Manganese (Z = 25)
(4) Chromium (Z = 24)

39) Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O3 and SO2 the correct order of acidic strength is:

(1) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O3 < SO2

(2) SO2 < P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3
(3) SiO2 < SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O3
(4) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO2 < P2O3
40) Which of the following option is correct for basic property ?

(1) SiH4 < PH3 < H2S

(2) SiH4 < PH3 > H2S
(3) SiH4 > PH3 > H2S
(4) None of these

41) In the following questions, two statements (Assertion) A and Reason (R) are given.
Assertion (A) : Li and Mg show diagonal relationship.
Reason (R) : Li and Mg have same atomic radius.

(1) A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

42) The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following
family/group and electronic configuration?

(1) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p2

(2) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p4
(3) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p6
(4) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p5

43) In which of the following process maximum energy is released:

(1) O(g) + e¯ → O¯(g)

(2) S(g) + e¯ → S¯(g)
–2
(3) O¯(g) + e¯ → O (g)
–2
(4) S¯(g) + e¯ → S (g)

44) Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is

(1) Mg < Ca < Cl < P

(2) Cl < P < Mg < Ca
(3) P < Cl < Ca < Mg
(4) Ca < Mg < P < Cl

45) The atomic number of the element unnilennium is :

(1) 109
(2) 102
(3) 108
(4) 119
 BIOLOGY

1)

Find out correct match from the following and choose right option regarding then :-

Column-I Column-II

Cart wheel
A. Cillia
structure

B. Axoneme Centriole

C. Photorespiration Peroxisome

D. Thylakoid Leucoplast
(1) A, B correct and C incorrect
(2) B, C incorrect and D correct
(3) B, C, D correct
(4) A, B, D incorrect and C correct.

2) F0–F1, particular present in mitochondria are also known as-

(1) Episomes
(2) Sphaerosomes
(3) Oxysomes
(4) Lysosome

3)

List-I List-II

a Cell wall i Protein synthesis

b Cell membrane ii Hydrolytic enzyme

c SER iii Lipid synthesis

d RER iv Cellulose

e Lysosome v Quasifluid nature

Match the following and choose the correct option :-
(1) a = v b = iv c = iii d=i e = ii
(2) a = i b = ii c = iii d = iv e=v
(3) a = iv b=v c=i d = iii e = ii
(4) a = iv b=v c = iii d=i e = ii

4) Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Palade particles ?

(i) Observed under light microscope
(ii) Organelle within organelle
(iii) Composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins.
(iv) Occurs only in eukaryotes
(v) Ca+2 ions required for binding of subunits

(1) i, iii, v
(2) ii, iii
(3) i, iv, v
(4) ii, iii, v

5) Which cell organelles takes part in the formation of lysosomes :-

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Both 1and 2
(4) Mitochondria

6) Choose the mismatch pair :-

(1) Flagellin protein - Prokaryotic flagella

(2) Centriole - Animal cell
(3) Mesosome - Prokaryote
(4) Naked DNA - Plant cell

7) Mitochondria reproduce by:

(1) Recombination
(2) Fusion
(3) Fission
(4) Transformation

8) Arrangement of microtubules in centriole is referred to as :-

(1) 9 + 2
(2) 2 + 9
(3) 11 + 0
(4) 9 + 0

9) Identify A to C in the diagramatic representation of chromosome :-

(1) A-Centromere, B-Secondary Constriction, C-Satellite

(2) A-Satellite, B-Centromere, C-Secondary, Constriction,
(3) A-Satellite, B-Secondary Constriction, C-Centromere
(4) A-Secondary Constriction, B-Satellite, C-Centromere

10) Match the following column correctly :

Column–I (Cell) Column–II (Size)

(i) Mycoplasma (A) Longest cell

(ii) Bacteria (B) 7 μm

(iii) Human RBC (C) 3–5 μm

(iv) Nerve cell (D) 0.3 μm

(1) i–C, ii–D, iii–B, iv–A
(2) i–D, ii–C, iii–B, iv–A
(3) i–C, ii–D, iii–A, iv–B
(4) i–B, ii–C, iii–D, iv–A

11) Which pigment is water soluble?

(1) Chlorophyll
(2) Carotene
(3) Anthocyanin
(4) Xanthophyll

12) Assertion : Mitochondria have two aqueous campartments.

Reason : Each mitochondrion is a double membrane bound structure with the outer and inner
membranes dividing its lumen distinctly into two compartments.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

13) Chemical modification of substance like glycosylation of protein and lipid occur in :-

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Golgi body
(3) Lysosome
(4) Ribosome

14) Which of the following cell organelle is correctly matched with its structure and function ?

(1) Ribosome : Membrane less : Protein synthesis

(2) Glyoxysome : Double membrane bound: β Oxidation of fat
(3) Mitochondria : Double membrane bound : Hydrolysis of macromolecule
(4) Centrosome : Membrane less : Oxidation of food
15) Which of the following statements is incorrect about the cell membrane ?

(1) It is present in both plant and animal cells.

(2) Lipids are present in it as bilipid layer
(3) Proteins may be peripheral or integral in it.
(4) Carbohydrates are never found in it.

16)

Study the following diagram carefully and select the correct statement regarding the diagram.

(1) Structure A is integral protein & can not be removed easily

(2) Structure C is integral protein and can be removed easily
(3) Structure D is phospholipid bilayer which is made up of hydrophilic molecule only.
(4) Structure C is integral protein and cannot be removed easily

17) Which of the following structures is not found in prokaryotic cells?

(1) Plasma membrane

(2) Nuclear envelope
(3) Ribosome
(4) Mesosome

18)

Small particles attached to inner mitochondrial membrane are :-

(1) Microsome
(2) Cristae
(3) Elementary particles
(4) Quantasome

19) Match the following column–I with column–II and choose the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Aleuroplast (i) Photosynthesis

(B) Elaioplast (ii) Storage of starch

(C) Chloroplast (iii) Storage of protein

(D) Amyloplast (iv) Storage of fat

(1) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv
(2) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
(3) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
(4) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i

20) Mesosomes of prokaryotes are functionally similar to :-

(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Lysosomes
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Ribosomes

21) Who proposed Cell Theory?

(1) Schleiden and Schwann

(2) Leeuwenhoek
(3) Robert Brown
(4) Robert Hook

22) A cell without cell wall would also lack -

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) ER
(4) Biomembrane

23) Chromosome end part is called :

(1) Telomere
(2) Centromere
(3) Satellite
(4) Primary constriction

24) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed in the cells which synthesise:

(1) Steroids
(2) Proteins
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) All of these

25) The cell organelles having abundance of oxidizing enzymes is :–

(1) Golgi body

(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Centrioles
(4) Mitochondria
26) Which is not an example of prokaryotic cell :

(1) Mycoplasma
(2) Bacteria
(3) Fungi
(4) Blue Green Algae

27) Which is a difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

(1) Prokaryotes have RNA, eukaryotes have DNA

(2) Prokaryotes have a nucleoid, eukaryotes have a nucleus
(3) Prokaryotes have DNA, eukaryotes have RNA
(4) Prokaryotes have a nucleus, eukaryotes have a nucleoid

28) Assertion : Mitochondria, chloroplast and peroxisome are not involved in endo membrane
system
Reason : Because their function are not coordinated with endo membrane system

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) Main function of golgi-complex is :-

(1) Digestion
(2) Phosphorylation
(3) Respiration
(4) Packaging of materials for secretion

30) Which of the following organelle is a major site for the synthesis of steroidal hormones?

(1) Peroxisome
(2) Ribosomes
(3) SER
(4) RER

31) The outer membrane of mitochondria forms the ____ limiting boundary of the organelle, while
the inner membrane forms a number of_____

(1) Discontinuous ; infoldings

(2) Infoldings; Cristae
(3) Continuous ; Cristae
(4) Cistae ; Infoldings

32) Cell membrane is mainly composed of -

(1) Lipids and Proteins
(2) Proteins & Cholesterols
(3) Lipids & Carbohydrates
(4) Carbohydrates & Proteins

33) 9 + 0 microtubule constitution with cart wheel structure is present in -

(1) Basal bodies

(2) Centrioles
(3) Cilia and flagella
(4) Both (1) and (2)

34) A few ions or molecules are transported across the membrane against their concentration
gradient such a transport is an energy dependent process and is called :-

(1) Osmosis
(2) Active transport
(3) Simple diffusion
(4) Faciliate diffusion

35) (A) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.

(B) Cell is the fundamental structure and functional unit of all unicellular organism.
(C) All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
(D) The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in prokaryotes only.
Option :-

(1) Statement A, C and D are wrong.

(2) Statement A, B and D are not correct.
(3) Statement A, B and C are not wrong
(4) Statement B, C and D are not correct

36) Match the following columns correctly :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Endoplasmic reticulum (i) Cellular respiration

(b) Chloroplast (ii) Osmoregulation

(c) Mitochondria (iii) Lipid synthesis

(d) Contractile vacuole (iv) Photosynthesis

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

37) The stroma of chloroplast contains :-

(a) enzymes for krebs cycle.
(b) ribosomes similar to that of prokaryotes.
(c) enzymes for dark reaction of photosynthesis.
(d) Single stranded linear DNA similar to the nuclear DNA.
Choose the correct statements :-

(1) b and c
(2) a and d
(3) a and b
(4) b, c and d

38) Identify the type of chromosome with respect to centromere position :-

A B C

(1) Telocentric Acrocentric Submetacentric

(2) Acrocentric Submetacentric Metacentric

(3) Submetacentric Telocentric Acrocentric

(4) Telocentric Acrocentric Metacentric

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39)

Plant Cell and animal cells different in how many given options :-
(A) Cell Wall
(B) Plastids
(C) Large Central Vacuole
(D) Centrosome

(1) Only 1
(2) Only 2
(3) Only 3
(4) All 4

40) Match the following.

 (a) Ribosome (i) Maintain cell shape

(b) Cytoskeleton (ii) Protein synthesis

(c) Centriole (iii) Active rRNA synthesis

(d) Nucleolus (iv) Form basal body of cilia.

(1) a = ii, b = i, c = iii, d = iv
(2) a = iii, b = iv, c = i, d = ii
(3) a = ii, b = i, c = iv, d = iii
(4) a = i, b = ii, c = iii, d = iv

41) Assertion (A): Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out
protein synthesis.
Reason (R): Nucleolus are a site of active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) The assertion is false and reason true

42) Self duplication does not occur in :-

(1) Centriole
(2) Ribosome
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chloroplast

43) Main arena of cellular activities is which of the following ?

(1) Nucleus
(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Chromosome

44) Which of the following is correct for the cilia :-

(1) These are small structures which work like Oars

(2) Its covered with plasma membrane
(3) Its core is called Axoneme
(4) All of these

45) Plasma membrane is fluid structure due to presence of :-

(1) Protein
(2) Phospholipid
(3) Cholestrole
(4) Glycoprotein

46) Which structure secrete inner most layer around the sperm Ball.

(1) Utriculi brevivores

(2) Utriculi Majores
(3) Ejaculatory duct
(4) Phallic gland

47) Which structure is not correctly matched with its physiological function in cockroaches ?

(1) Gastric caecae – digestion

(2) Malpighian tubules – Excretion
(3) Trachea – Respiration
(4) Antennae – Vision

48) Stink gland is found in :-

(1) 4th and 5th terga of periplaneta

(2) 5th and 6th terga of periplaneta
(3) 5th and 6th sterna of periplaneta
(4) 9th and 10th terga of periplaneta

49) In cockroach a pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment which open into the which type
of structure :-

(1) Male gonopore

(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Ejaculatory duct
(4) Genital chamber

50) A and B are organs of female frog as indicated in diagram, select the correct option :

(1) A is Bidder’s canal and carry urine only

(2) A is urinogential duct and carry urine and semen both
(3) B is rectum and store faecal matter
(4) B is urinary bladder and store urine

51) Which of the following is correctly stated as happens in the common cockroach?

(1) The food is grinded by mandibles and gizzard

(2) Malpighian tubules are excretory organ projecting out from the colon
(3) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in the blood
(4) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea

52) Which type of mouth parts present in cockroach ?

(1) Lapping and chewing type

(2) Siphoning
(3) Piercing and sucking type
(4) Biting and chewing type

53) Identify the correct position of testes in the abdomen of cockroach:

(1) 3rd ,4th and 5th segments

(2) 4th ,5th and 6th segments
(3) 5th ,6th and 7th segments
(4) 6th ,7th and 8th segments

54) In cockroch, tergo sternal muscle are moslty helpful in :-

(1) Blood circulation

(2) Respiration
(3) Flight
(4) Digestion

55) Functional unit of respiration in cockroach :-

(1) Spiracle
(2) Trachea
(3) Atrium
(4) Tracheols

56) Diagram of female reproductive system of cockroach is given. Select the option with correct

identification of labelled organs:

(1) 3-Ovary, 4-Common oviduct, 8-Spermathecae
(2) 1 -Spermathecae, 2-Gonapophysis, 7-Genital chamber
(3) 2-Gonapophysis, 3-Ovary, 5-Genital chamber
(4) 5-Vagina, 6-Collaterial glands, 7-Vestibulum

57) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement :-

(1) Mosaic vision is common in cockroach.

(2) In cockroach, brain supplies nerves to antennae and compound eyes.
(3) Fat body,, nephrocytes and urecose glands help in excretion in cockroach.
Male cockroach bears one pair of collaterial glands which functions as accessory reproductive
(4)
glands.

58) The Hindwings of Cockroach are also known as

(1) Elytra
(2) Metathoracic wings
(3) Tegmina
(4) Both (1) and (3)

59) Supra oesophageal ganglia in cockroach supply nerve to :-

(1) Labrum and labium

(2) Compound eye and Labium
(3) Compound eye and Antennae
(4) Labium and Antennae

60) In the following diagram, identify and label the structures A, B, C and D :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Labium Maxilla Mandible Labrum

(2) Labrum Mandible Maxilla Labium

(3) Mandible Mandible Labrum Labium

(4) Maxilla Labrum Mandible Labium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
61) In cockroach, labium, labrum and hypopharynx are commonly called :-

(1) Upper lip, lower lip and crop, respectively

(2) Upper lip, lower lip and tongue, respectively
(3) Lower lip, upper lip and tongue, respectively
(4) Lower lip, upper lip and jaw, respectively

62) Exchange of gases takes place at the tracheoles by :-

(1) Diffusion
(2) Active transport
(3) Imbibition
(4) Osmosis

63) Circulatory system of cockroach is shown in diagram correctly. Identify the labelling (a-c) :–

(a) (b) (c)

(1) Ventral aorta Alary muscle Ventricles

(2) Ventricles Chambers heart Alary muscles

(3) Anterior aorta Alary muscles Chambers of hearts

(4) Anterior aorta Chambers of hearts Alary muscles

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) Main function of blood vascular system in cockroach is :-

(1) Distribution of oxygen

(2) Distribution of absorbed nutrients
(3) Distribution of heat
(4) All of these

65) Consider the statements regarding the blood vascular system of Periplaneta and select the
correct statements :-
(A) Blood vascular system is open type
(B) Blood vessels are well developed
(C) Haemolymph is composed of coloured plasma and hematocytes
(D) Heart is 13-chambered

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

66)

Select the incorrect statement regarding the respiratory system of cockroach :-

(A) Consists of tracheal system
(B) It consists of 10 pair spiracles
(C) Thoracic spiracles are two pair

(D) First pair of abdominal spiracles are ventrally located

(1) A and B
(2) Only A
(3) Only C
(4) Only D

67) In female Periplaneta, genital pouch is formed by

(1) 7th ,8th and 9th sternum

(2) 9th , 10th terga and 9th sternum
(3) 7th, 8th terga and 9th sternum
(4) 9th, 10th sterna and 9th tergum

68) The correct statement regarding the ootheca of cockroach is-

(1) Ootheca is black coloured capsule and 8 mm long.

(2) Ootheca is dark reddish to black purple capsule and 8 mm long.
(3) Ootheca is dark reddish to blackish brown capsule and 8 mm long.
(4) Ootheca is light coloured and 8 mm long.

69) Assertion :- Mushroom gland present in male reproductive system of cockroach.

Reason :- Mushroom gland help in removal of nitrogenous wastes.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
70)
Consider the above diagram and choose the correct option regarding the structures (a-d) :-

a b c d

1 Collaterial gland Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Anal cerci

2 Phallic gland Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Anal cerci

3 Phallic gland Ejaculatory duct Vas deferens Cauda-style

4 Phallic gland Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Titilator

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. mouth parts of cockroach.

(1) Labrum Uper lip

(2) Labium Lower lip

Contains salivary
(3) Maxilla
gland duct

Contains grinding
(4) Mandible
and incising region
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) In the male Reproductive system of cockroach the seminal vesicles are responsible for :-

(1) Storage of sperms

(2) Removing uric acid in addition to malphigian tubules.
(3) Secretion of middle layer of spermatophore
(4) Production of oothecal material

73) Assertion (A) : Frogs are said to be cold blooded.

Reason (R) : Their body temperature varies with the temperature of environment.
(1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true.

74) Given below is the diagram of internal organs of frog. Identity A to F.

(1) A-Gall bladder, B-Lungs, C-Testis, D-Kidney, E-Urethra, F-Urinary bladder

(2) A-Gall bladder, B-Lungs, C-Fat bodies, D-Kidney, E-Rectum, F-Urinary bladder
(3) A-Gall bladder, B-Lungs, C-Ovary, D-Kidney, E-Ileum, F-Urinary bladder
(4) A-Gall bladder, B-Lungs, C-Fat bodies, D-Kidney, E-Colon, F-Urinary bladder

75) Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs.

(1) Tests → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca
(4) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca

76) The forebrain of frog consists of

(1) optics and olfactory lobes

(2) paired diencephalon
(3) olafactory laobes and unpaired diencephalon
(4) Both (1) and (2)

77) The number of vasa efferentia that arises from testes in frog's male reproductive system is

(1) 9 - 12
(2) 10 - 12
(3) 13 - 16
(4) 16 - 19

78) Among the following haw many statements are correct?

(a) Frog do not have constant body temperature.
(b) Frog never drinks water
(c) Frog eyes are bulged and covered by a membrane
(d) Hind limbs of frog is muscular than fore limbs
(e) Above the frog's mouth a pair of nostrils are present

(1) Four only

(2) Three only
(3) Two only
(4) All the five are correct

79) Assertion : Bidder’s canal are present in the kidney of frog for passage of sperm.
Reason : Vasa efferentia from the testes open into the anterior part of bidder’s canal.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

80) Which of these characteristics of frog is the reason for its short alimentary canal?

(1) Carnivorous
(2) Sexual dimorphism
(3) Amphibian
(4) Chordate

81) Which of these structures protects the eyes of the frog in water ?

(1) Nictitating membrane

(2) Tympanum
(3) Bidder's canal
(4) None of these.

82) Where are the copulatory pads in female frog present?

(1) Second digit of the hind limbs

(2) First digit of the hind limbs
(3) First digit of the fore limbs
(4) Copulatory pads absent

83) What will be the correct sequences of the flow of deoxygenated blood in the heart of frog ?

(1) Vena cava → sinus venosus → Left auricle → ventricle

(2) Vena cava → conus arteriosus → right auricle → ventricle
(3) Vena cava → sinus venosus → Right auricle → ventricle
(4) Vena cava → Right auricle → Sinus venosus → ventricle

84) Given below is a female reproductive system of frog labelled A, B, C and D :-

 Find out incorrect one :-

(1) In male frog labelled C act as urinogenital duct

(2) In female frog labelled C and A open separately in the cloaca
(3) Labelled D is urinary bladder which is present ventral to rectum
(4) Labelled B is functionally opening in kidney directly.

85) From the statements given below,choose the correct option:

A.The frog excretes urea and thus is a ureotelic animal.
B.Body of a frog is divisible into head,neck and trunk.
C.In frogs,during aestivation and hibernation gaseous exchange takes place through skin.
D.In female frog the ureters and oviduct open seperately in the cloaca.
E.In frogs,excretory wastes are carried by blood into the liver where it is separated and excreted.

(1) A,C,E are correct.

(2) A,C,D are correct.
(3) B,D,E are correct.
(4) B,C,E are correct.

86) Choose the correct pathway for passage of food in frog:

(1) Mouth → Buccal cavity → Pharynx → Oesophagous → Stomach → Intestine → Rectum → Cloaca
(2) Mouth → Buccal cavity → Pharynx → Oesophagous → Stomach → Intestine → Cloaca → Rectum
Mouth → Buccal cavity → Pharynx → Oesophagous → Liver → Gall bladder → Intestine → Rectum
(3)
→ Cloaca
Mouth → Buccal cavity → Oesophagous → Stomach → Liver → Intestine → Urinary bladder →
(4)
Cloaca

87) Different sense organs of frog are mentioned below. Match the columns and

Column - I Column - II

(A) Tympanum (i) Hearing

(B) Sensory papillae (ii) Smell

 (C) Nasal epithelium (iii) Vision

(D) Eyes (iv) Touch

Choose the correct option:
(1) A(i),B(iv),C(ii),D(iii)
(2) A(iv),B(i),C(iii),D(ii)
(3) A(i),B(ii),C(iii),D(iv)
(4) A(iv),B(i),C(ii),D(iii)

88) Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are

(1) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin

(2) Nucleated and with haemoglobin
(3) Very much smaller and fewer
(4) Nucleated and without haemoglobin

89) Match the columns and choose the correct option:

Body part in Frog Total Number

(Column-I) (Column-II)

(A) Cranial Nerves (i) Four

(B) Digits in each forelimb (ii) Three

(C) Chambers of heart (iii) Five

(D) Digits in each hindlimb (iv) Twenty

(1) A(i),B(iv),C(ii),D(iii)
(2) A(iv),B(i),C(iii),D(ii)
(3) A(iv),B(ii),C(i),D(iii)
(4) A(iv),B(i),C(ii),D(iii)

90) A mature female frogs can lay how many ova at a time?

(1) 14-16
(2) 9-10
(3) Only one
(4) 2500-3000
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 4 2 3 1 2 2 3 1 2 2 2 2 4 1 2 3 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 1 2 2 1 2 4 4 2 4 2 4 2 2 3 3 2 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 4 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 1 4 1 2 3 1 2 2 3 3 3 4 3 2 2 2 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 2 3 1 3 2 3 3 2 4 2 4 1 3 1 3 3 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 2 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 4 3 3 4 3 4 3 2 3 1 2 1 4 4 2 3 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 1 1 4 3 2 1 4 3 3 1 4 2 3 4 1 2 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 2 4 2 2 4 2 4 4 1 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 3 2 2 4 1 3 2 2 3 1 1 2 4 3 2 4 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 3 4 2 1 1 2 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

2)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

3)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

4)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

5) Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

(sin 120°) = 0

6)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

7)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

8)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

9)
Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

10)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

11) x = 2t

12)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

13)
=2 [(4)3–(2)3] = 112

14) Ans. (2)

2 is the correct answer

= Area =

15)
A = [–cos 2π – (– cos π)]
= [–1 + (–1)] = –2

16)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

17)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

18)
Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

19)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

20) ℓn x + ℓn y = 2 ℓn z
⇒ ℓn xy = ℓn z2
⇒ xy = z2 ⇒ z =

21)

Inet = –GMm

= –GMm

22) In graph a = 3, b = 2

thus ⇒

23)
.....(1)
......(2)

24)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

25)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

26)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer
27)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

28)

Hence, P2+Q2 =

29)

|A – B| ≤ R ≤ A + B

30)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

31) Ans. (4)

4 is the correct answer

32)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

33)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

34)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
35)

Position vector of G is,

36)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

37) and
As two vectors are perpendicular to each other, hence .

or

or

or

or

or

38)
Δx = change in position vector of head

= 2ℓsin

39)
 40)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

41) (1) Asking About:

Using the triangle law of vector addition, find the correct relationship between the given
vectors.
(2) Concept:
The triangle law of vector addition states that if two vectors are represented by two sides of
a triangle taken in the same order, their resultant is given by the third side in the reverse
order.
For the given triangle:

A. and are in the same order

B. is in the reverse order.

(3) Formula:
The triangle law of vector addition can be expressed as:

(4) Solution/Explanation:

A. In the given triangle, vectors and are aligned in the same cyclic order.
B. According to the triangle law, the sum of and equals in the reverse direction.
C. Mathematically:

A. Comparing this with the options, Option 3 is correct.

(5) Final Answer:

Option 3:

42)
=

43)

so
⇒0
 and

so

44)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

45) Question Explanation: To find displacement vector.

Concept: Subtraction of vector.
Formula: Displacement
Solution: A (1, 1, 1) & B (3, 4, 5)
Then displacement =
=

CHEMISTRY

46)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

47)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

48) Acetylinic bonds means C ≡ C

49)
2-Hydroxy-4-methyl pentan-3-one
50)
The number of Heteroatoms = 2

51)

52)

Isobutyl chloride –

1–Chloro–2–methyl propane.

53) Statement - I:– is called cyclohexane carbonitrile.

Statement - II : - CN is not a substituent but principal F.G.

54)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

55)
15 - σ
2-π

56)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer
57)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

58)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

59)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

60)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

61)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

62)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

63)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

64)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

65)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

66)
 Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

67) Ans. (3)

3 is the correct answer

68)

Atomic number E.C. Block

(A) 24 [Ar]4s1 3d5 d-4

(B) 38 [Kr]5s2 s-3

(C) 49 [Kr]4d10 5s2 5p1 p - 1

(D) 59 [Xe]4f3 6s2 f–2

A B C D
4 3 1 2

69)

metalloid

70) NCERT-XI, Part-I Pg.-94

71)

As we move from Cl to I, the electron gain enthalpy (i.e. energy released in electron gain)
become less and less negative due to a corresponding increase in the atomic size. However,
the electron gain enthalpy of F is less negative than that of Cl due to its small size.
Thus, the negative electron gain enthalpy follows the order F < Cl > Br > I.

72)

As the electronegativity of metal increases the electron density in the O–H bond decreases

. In order words, O–H bond becomes

weak and readily ionizes to liberate H+. Thus, M–O–H behave as an acid. Conversely, as the
electronegativity of the metal decreases, M–O bond becomes weak and readily ionizes to
liberate OH¯. Thus, M'–O–H behaves as a base. Combining both the trends, option (2) is
correct.

73) value of electron affinity increases on going from left to right in

periods but the value of electron affinity of Vth a elements is less than that of IVth a element,
this is due to half filled p-orbitals presence.
74) ΔEeg order
(F) < (F+) {positive charge so
(Cl) < (Cl+) more attraction}
&
|I.E. of F| = |ΔHeg of F+|
|I.E. of Cl| = |ΔHeg of Cl+|

So ΔHeg order ⇒ F+ > Cl+ and

order of ΔHeg ⇒ F+ > Cl+ > Cl > F
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
(E.A. value ⇒ 17.4 13 3.6 3.4
in eV/atom)
Ans. (C) P→1; Q→2; R→4, S→3

75)

Alkali metals

76)

VIB, d-block

77)

electron is more tightly bound to the nucleus in an ion

78)
I2 > I1, hence, (4) is incorrect.

79)

it has half-filled p-orbitals

80)

In case of transition elements (or any elements), the order of filling of electrons in various
orbital is

3p < 4s < 3d

Thus, 3d-orbitals is filled when 4s-orbitals gets completely filled.

81)

Noble gases have stable closed shell electronic configuration.

 82)

Left to Right Zeff dominate.

83)

Fe26 ⇒ d6s2
V23 ⇒ d3s2
Mn25 ⇒ d5s2
G ⇒ d5s1

84)

As acidic nature increases left to right in a period with increase in electronegativity.

85) NCERT-XI, Part-I Pg.94

86) They are diagonally related in the periodic table. This means that they have a similar
charge-to-size ratio, which leads to similar chemical properties.

87) The electronic configuration of the element with Z = 114 is [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p2. Hence it
belongs to the carbon family which has the same outer electronic configuration.

88)

The process involving sulphur will release the maximum energy because it has a high electron
affinity compared to oxygen.

89) Atomic radius decreases on moving from left to right in a period. So, order of sizes for Cl,
P and Mg is Cl < P < Mg. Down the group size increases. So overall order is: Cl < P < Mg <
Ca.

90) According to IUPAC

BIOLOGY

91)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

92) Fo-F1 particles (Oxysomes) are present on the inner mitochondrial membrane. They
play a crucial role in ATP synthesis during oxidative phosphorylation in the electron
transport chain (ETC).

93)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

94) NCERT Pg. # 136

95)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

96)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

97)

The correct answer is: 3. Fission

Explanation:
Mitochondria reproduce by a process called binary fission, which is similar to the way bacteria
divide. In this process:
• The mitochondrion grows in size and then splits into two smaller mitochondria.
• Each new mitochondrion contains a copy of the mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), ensuring that
both daughter mitochondria are functionally capable.
This is how mitochondria increase in number within the cell, especially during cell division.
Thus, mitochondria reproduce by fission.

98)

Allen Module Page No. 159

99)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

100)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

101)
Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

102) NCERT Pg. # 135

103)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

104)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

105)

NCERT Pg. No. 93

106)

NCERT XI Pg # 131

107)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

108)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

109)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

110)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

111)
Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

112)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

113)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

114)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

115)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

116)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

117)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

118)

NCERT Pg.# 133, para 8.5.3

119)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

120)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer
121)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

122)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

123) NCERT Pg. # 99

124) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 132

125) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 126, para-2

126)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

127)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

128)

NCERT XI, Page # 139

129)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

130) NCERT Page No.136, 138

131)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

132)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

133)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

134)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

135)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

136)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

137)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

138) Module Pg.#157

139)

NCERT Pg. # 114, para no. 10

140)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

141)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

142)
Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

143) NCERT (XI) Pg# 114 Para 7.4.2

144)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

145) NCERT Pg. # 116

146)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

147)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

148)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

149) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114

150) NCERT XII Pg. # 112, Figure 7.15(b).

151) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 112

152)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

153) NCERT XI Pg. # 113

154)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
155) NCERT Pg # 113 para 7.4.2

156) NCERT Pg # 113 para 7.4.2

157)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

158)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

159)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

160)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

161)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

162) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114

163)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

164)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

165)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer
166)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

167)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

168)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

169) New NCERT XI Page # 84

170) New NCERT XI Page # 81

171)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

172)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

173)

NCERT - 2023 -24 . Pg. 82

174) NCERT Pg # 118, 119

175) Pg-80,82,83

176) Ans. (1)

1 is the correct answer
Pg-81,82

177) Ans. (1)

1 is the correct answer
Pg-83

178)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

179) Ans. (4)

4 is the correct answer
Pg-81,82,83

180) Ans. (4)

4 is the correct answer
Pg-84