22-06-2025

0999DMD363101250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) The maximum value of function

P sin θ + Q cos θ is :

(1) P + Q
(2) P – Q

(3)

(4)

2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) If y = sin θ, find average value of y between to .

(1) π

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Match the following

Column-I Column-II

(A) sin θ (P) 2sin θ/2 cos θ/2

(B) cos θ (Q) cos2 θ/2 – sin2 θ/2

(C) (R) –2sin2θ

(D) (S)
cos 2θ
(1) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S
(2) A→P, B→Q, C→S, D→R
(3) A→P, B→S, C→Q, D→R
(4) A→S, B→P, C→R, D→Q

5) A metallic disc is being heated. Its area A(in m2) at any time t(in sec) is given by A = 3t2 + 4t + 8.
Calculate the rate of change of area (in m2/s) at t = 2 seconds.

(1) 20
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 10

6) If y = 8cos x, then slope of the y – x curve at x = is

(1) 4
(2) –4
(3) 8
(4) –8

7) is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) GM1M2(R2–R1)

8) Evaluate

(1) 2.5
(2) –2.5
(3) 1.5
(4) –1.5

9) If then at x = 1 is . Find K.

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3)
(4) 7

10) The magnitude of scalar product of two vector is 8 and that of vector product is . The angle
between them is :

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 120°
(4) 150°

11) If , and , then the angle between and is :

(1) 38°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

12)
The area of the shaded region is :-

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2

13) and magnitude of is 6. The angle between and – is 120°. The is.

(1) 9
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) If , and are three non-zero vectors such that is perpendicular to , then which of
the following is correct ?

(1) A = B

(2)

(3) A > B
(4)

15) Statement 1 : The angle between the vector and is radian.

Statement 2 : Angle between two vectors and is given by

(1) Statement 1 is true; statement 2 is false.

(2) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true.
(3) Both statements are true.
(4) Both statements are false.

16) A physical quantity y varies with a quantity x according to the relation y = . Which of the
following graphs is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Given . When is added to , we get unit vector along x-axis, then is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
18) A particle's position as a function of time is given as x = 5t2 – 10 t + 3, then find out minimum
value of x.

(1) –2
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) –3

19) If a unit vector is represented by , then the value of λ is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) Vector makes angle with x-axis, y-axis and z-axis respectively :

(1) 0°, 45°,90°

(2) 0°, 45°,135°
(3) 45°, 90°,135°
(4) None of these

21) Two physical quantities A and B are related as , where E, x and t are energy, distance
and time respectively. Dimensions of [AB] are :

(1) [M–1L2T1]
(2) [M1 L2 T1]
(3) [M–1 L–1T–1]
(4) [M–1 L–2 T–1]

22) The dimensional formula of angular impulse is :

(1) [M1 L1 T–1]

(2) [M2 L2 T–2]
(3) [M2 L–2 T2]
(4) [M1 L2 T–1]

23) Rounding off the number 6.03587 to the second place of decimals :

(1) 6.035
(2) 6.04
(3) 6.03
(4) None of these
24) In a certain system of units, 1 unit of time is 5 sec, 1 unit of mass is 20 kg and 1 unit of length is
10 m. In this system, one unit of power will be:

(1) 16 watts

(2)
watts
(3) 25 watts

(4)
watts

25) If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are considered as fundamental physical quantities, then
dimensional formula of density will be :

(1) [F V–2 T2]

(2) [F V4 T–6]
(3) [F V–4 T–2]
(4) [F2 V–2 T6]

26) Which of the following is not one of the seven fundamental SI units ?

(1) Henry
(2) Ampere
(3) Candela
(4) Mole

27) A quantity y is related to another quantity x by the equation y = kxa where k and a are constant.
If percentage error in the measurement of x is p, then that in y depends upon :

(1) k and a
(2) x and a
(3) p and a
(4) p, k and a

28) If , then relative error in Z will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) With the usual notations, the following equation is :

(1) Only numerically correct
(2) Only dimensionally correct
(3) Both numerically and dimensionally correct
(4) Neither numerically nor dimensionally correct

30) If A = 2.421 cm and B = 3.1 cm, then value of A + B =

(1) 5.52
(2) 5.521
(3) 5.5
(4) 5.6

31) The ratio of one hecto-meter to the one pico meter is :

(1) 1012
(2) 1014
(3) 1016
(4) 1018

32) Match list-I with list-II :

List-I List-II

(a) Base unit (i) Newton (N)

(b) Derived SI unit (ii) Kilogram (kg)

(c) supplementary unit (iii) Horse power (hp)

(d) Practical unit (iv) Radian (rad)

Choose the correct answers from below options :

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(3) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)

33) The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in an experiment is recorded as 1.32 sec, 1.35 sec
and 1.38 sec respectively. It's true value is :

(1) 1.30 sec

(2) 1.35 sec
(3) 1.42 sec
(4) 1.56 sec

34) If V is speed, r is radius and g is acceleration due to gravity. Which of the following is
dimensionless :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) V2rg

35) Newton-second is the unit of :

(1) Velocity
(2) Angular momentum
(3) Momentum
(4) Energy

36) Order of magnitude of 6.8 × 10–9 is

(1) –8
(2) –9
(3) 8
(4) 9

37) The reading of screw gauge will be if pitch is 1 mm and L.C. is 0.01 mm :

(1) 3.20 mm
(2) 3.25 mm
(3) 3.35 mm
(4) 3.40 mm

38) The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are :

(1) 5, 1, 2
(2) 5, 1, 5
(3) 5, 5, 2
(4) 4, 4, 2

39) The vernier calliper used for measurement has a negative zero error of 0.2 mm. If while taking
measurement, it was noted that zero of the vernier scale lies between 7.4 cm and 7.5 cm and
coinciding vernier division is 6th, then correct value of measurement is (Vernier constant = 0.01 cm)

(1) 7.36 cm
(2) 7.44 cm
(3) 7.48 cm
(4) 7.58 cm

40) In a vernier calliper, 'a' cm on main scale is divided into 20 equal divisions and when the jaws
are closed nth division of main scale coincides with (n +1)th division of vernier scale. Assuming no
zero error , the vernier constant of instrument is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
cm

41) For a vernier calliper, its vernier constant is 0.1 mm and it has zero error of + 0.3 mm. While
measuring internal diameter of a copper pipe, the main scale reading is 5.3 cm and 4th division of
vernier coincides with any of main scale division. The internal diameter of pipe is given by :

(1) 5.24 cm
(2) 5.31 cm
(3) 5.37 cm
(4) 5.42 cm

42) In a vernier calliper 1 cm is divided into 10 equal divisions and 9 main scale divisions are
equivalent to 10 vernier scale divisions. Figure (a) shows instrument scale when jaws are closed &
(b) when a disc is placed between two jaws. From information given, the diameter of disc is given by
:

(1) 5.03 cm
(2) 5.04 cm
(3) 5.07 cm
(4) 5.17 cm

43) In a screw gauge, two full rotations of circular scale, advances screw by 1 mm on linear scale. To
measure 0.0025 mm as thickness of a metal foil, the minimum number of circular scale divisions
required are :

(1) 50
(2) 100
(3) 150
(4) 200

44) A screw gauge is having 100 divisions on its circular scale. When screw is closed touching anvil,
the zero of the circular scale lies 5 divisions above reference line. While measuring diameter of a
silver wire, it was observed that 3 linear divisions are clearly visible and 30th division of circular
scale coincides with reference line. If pitch of screw gauge is 1 mm, the diameter of wire will be :

(1) 3.25 mm
(2) 3.30 mm
(3) 3.35 mm
(4) 3.38 mm

45) In an experiment to determine cross sectional area of a thin wire, the diameter of wire is
measured by a screw gauge, having pitch of 1mm with 100 divisions on its circular scale. The
reading of main scale is 2 mm and that of circular scale is 40th division. The cross sectional area of
wire is given by

(1) 4.6 mm2

(2) 4.52 mm2
(3) 4.521 mm2
(4) 5.0 mm2

CHEMISTRY

1) Assertion :- Emitted radiation will fall in visible region when an electron jump from n = 4 to n =
2 in H–atom.
Reason :- Frequency of radiation of Lyman series belongs to visible region for H-atom.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2) Statement – I : There is no radial or spherical node present in 2p – orbitals.

Statement – II : In p–orbitals, the value of radial nodes are given by (n–2), where 'n' is principal
quantum number.

(1) Both statements I & II are correct and statement II is a correct explanation of statement I.
(2) Both statement I & II are correct but statement II is not a correct explanation of statement I.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

3) Match list-I with list-II :

List-I List-II

(a) Principal quantum number (i) Orientation of orbitals

 (b) Azimuthal quantum number (ii) Direction of spin of electron

(c) Magnetic quantum number (iii) Energy of electron

(d) Spin quantum number (iv) Shape of orbitals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(2) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(3) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(4) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)

4) The mass of a particle is 10–10 g. If its velocity is 10–6 cm sec–1 with 0.0001% uncertainty in
measurement, the uncertainty in its position is :

(1) 5.2 × 10–8 m

(2) 5.2 × 10–7 m
(3) 5.2 × 10–6 m
(4) 5.2 × 10–9 m

5) In H-atom sample electrons are de-excited from 4th excited state to ground state. Which statement
is correct.

(1) Total 12 lines observed in spectrum

(2) No line observed in P-fund series
(3) 5 lines in UV-region and 2 lines in visible region observed
(4) 2 lines observed in Brackett series

6) Calculate the energy of a photon of sodium light of wavelength 2 × 10–16 m

(1) 9.9 × 10–10 J

(2) 6.6 × 10–11 J
(3) 9.9 × 10–12 J
(4) 4.8 × 10–11 J

7) The energy of second orbit of hydrogen is equal to the energy of :-

(1) Fourth orbit of He+ ion

(2) Fourth orbit of Li2+ ion
(3) Second orbit of He+ ion
(4) Second orbit of Li2+ ion

8) Correct electronic configuration of Cr is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) Calculate the energy of Ist excited state of Li+2 ion :

(1) –13.6 eV
(2) –3.6 eV
(3) –30.6 eV
(4) –1.51 eV

10) The anion X–3 has 16 neutrons in its nucleus, if this anion contains 18 electrons, then what will be
the number of nucleons in its molecule X4 ?

(1) 64
(2) 93
(3) 124
(4) 60

11) Maximum number of electron present in M shell is :-

(1) 8
(2) 18
(3) 32
(4) 10

12) Which quantum number is not related with Schrodinger equation :-

(1) Principal
(2) Azimuthal
(3) Magnetic
(4) Spin

13)

Which of the following is correct for a 4d–electron

(1)
n = 4, ℓ = 2, s = +
(2) n = 4, ℓ = 2, s = 0
(3) n = 4, ℓ = 3, s = 0

(4)
n = 4, ℓ = 3, s = +

14) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) The charge on an electron and proton are equal and opposite
(2) Neutrons have no charge
(3) Electrons and protons have the same mass
(4) The mass of a proton and a neutron are nearly the same

15)

An electron travels with a velocity of x ms–1. For a proton to have the same de-Broglie wavelength, its
velocity will be approximately ?

(1) x

(2)

(3)

(4) 1840 x

16) Which of the following set of quantum numbers is possible :

n ℓ m s

(1) 2 2 1 +1/2

(2) 4 3 –2 –1/2

(3) 1 0 –1 –1/2

(4) 3 2 3 +1/2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Electromagnetic radiation (photon) with highest wavelength results when an electron in the
hydrogen atom falls from n = 6 to

(1) n = 1
(2) n = 2
(3) n = 3
(4) n = 5

18) Radius of second orbit of hydrogen atom is:

(1) 2.11 Å
(2) 0.529 Å
(3) 4.76 Å
(4) 8.4 Å

19) In two elements and , M1 ≠ M2 and Z1 ≠ Z2 but M1 – Z1 = M2 – Z2, these elements

are:
(1) Isotonic
(2) Isobaric
(3) Isotopic
(4) Isoelectronic

20) The ratio of charge and mass (e/m) would be maximum for-

(1) Proton
(2) Electron
(3) Neutron
(4) Alpha particle

21) Which electro magnetic radiation have minimum energy :-

(1) X-ray
(2) Visible waves
(3) Infrared waves
(4) Radio waves

22) X+, Y2+ and Z– are isoelectronic with CO2. Increasing order of number of protons in X+, Y2+ and Z–
is :

(1) X+ = Y2+ = Z–
(2) X+ < Y2+ < Z–
(3) Z– < X+ < Y2+
(4) Y2+ < X+ < Z–

23) The velocity of electron in the fourth Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is 'v'. The velocity of the
electron in the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom would be -

(1) 4v
(2) 16v
(3) v/4
(4) v/16

24) Statement-I : For any gas, vapour density = so unit of vapour density is
g/mole.
Statement-II : Molar volume of an ideal gas at NTP is 22.4 L.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

25) The volume of a gas at 0°C and 760 mm pressure is 22.4 cc. The no. of molecules present in this
volume is-

–3
(1) 10 NA
–4
(2) 10 NA
–5
(3) 10 NA
–2
(4) 10 NA

26) "Equal volume of all gases contain equal number of molecules at same temperature and
pressure". The above statement represent

(1) Law of multiple proportion

(2) Gay Lussac's law
(3) Berzelius law
(4) Avogadro's law

27)

In reaction 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O( ) when 1mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are
made to react then-

(1) 1 mole of H2O is produced

(2) 1 mole of NO will be produced
(3) All the oxygen will be consumed
(4) All the ammonia will be consumed

28) Calculate number of molecules present in 1.2 g of ozone (O3) :-

(1)

(2) 40 × NA

(3)

(4) 20 × NA

29) What is the volume of air required to burn 1L C3H8 completely?

(1) 1 L
(2) 2 L
(3) 5 L
(4) 25 L

30) When 2g of hydrogen reacts with 71 g of chlorine and produces 73 g of hydrogen chloride, it
proves

(1) Law of constant composition

(2) Law of mass conservation
(3) Law of multiple proportion
(4) Avogadro's law

31) What is the % by mass of oxygen in glucose ?

(1) 5.33
(2) 53.33
(3) 1.33
(4) 18.33

32)

4g of a substance contain its 0.05 mol. The substance is :-

(1) NH3
(2) CH4
(3) SO3
(4) C6H12O6

33)

Which of the following contains maximum number of hydrogen atoms ?

(1) 5 moles of C2H2O4

(2) 1.1 moles of C3H8O3
(3) 1.5 moles of C6H8O6
(4) 4 moles of C2H4O2

34) 2A + 3B 2C
3 mol of each A and B reacted together. Maximum number of moles of C obtained will be :

(1) 1 mol
(2) 2 mol
(3) 3 mol
(4) 6 mol

35) If water samples are taken from sea, rivers, clouds, lakes, they will be found to contain H2 and
O2 in the fixed mass ratio of 1 : 8. This indicates the law of -

(1) Multiple proportion

(2) Definite proportion
(3) Gaseous volume
(4) Mass conservation

36) Mass of 1 amu is nearly equal to :

(1) 1.66 × 10–24 g
(2) 1.66 × 10–23 g
(3) 1.66 × 10–24 kg
(4) 1g

37) How many litres of NH3 at NTP have the same number of atoms as that of oxygen atoms present
in 9.8 g H2SO4 ?

(1) 5.6 L
(2) 22.4 L
(3) 2.24 L
(4) 11.2 L

38) Which of the following has the highest number of molecules?

(1) 0.1 mol of H2

(2) 1g of CH4
(3) 1.12 L NH3 at NTP
(4) 2g of SO3

39) How many grams of 10% pure CaCO3 will produce 5.6 L CO2 gas at NTP?
CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

(1) 100 g
(2) 250 g
(3) 200 g
(4) 150 g

40)

In the following reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) if 6g H2 reacts with N2 , then mass of
NH3 produced is :-

(1) 17g
(2) 34g
(3) 68g
(4) 28g

41) In 4 litre solution 3.01 × 1023 HCl molecules are present. Molar concentration of the solution will
be:

(1) 1M
(2) 2M
(3) 0.125 M
(4) 0.25 M
42) Which of the following is the correct empirical and molecular formula of a compound, if the
molecular mass of a compound is 80 and compound contains 60% of C, 5% of H and 35% of N ?

(1) C2H2N ; C4H4N2

(2) C3H4N2 ; C6H8N4
(3) C2H4N2 ; C4H8N4
(4) C2H2N ; C2H2N

43) Which of the following will have highest mass.

(1) 1 mol of NH3

(2) 5 gram-atom of nitrogen
(3) 20 ml of water
23
(4) 6.02 × 10 molecules of CO2

44) A compound having vapour density of 32 and has 50% oxygen by mass, then find atomicity of
oxygen in that compound.

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) Match Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(A) 11 g of CO2 (P) 0.05 mol

3.01 × 1022
(B) (Q) 0.25 mol
molecules of CO2

(C) 2.24 L of CO2 at STP (R) 0.5 mol

3.01 × 1023 atoms

(D) (S) 0.1 mol
of N
(1) (A)–(S); (B)–(R); (C)–(P); (D)–(Q)
(2) (A)–(Q); (B)–(R); (C)–(S); (D)–(P)
(3) (A)–(Q); (B)–(S); (C)–(P); (D)–(R)
(4) (A)–(Q); (B)–(P); (C)–(S); (D)–(R)

BIOLOGY

1) In Mangifera indica, Solanum nigrum, and Panthera pardus, all the three names, indica, nigrum
and pardus represent the :-

(1) Names of species

(2) Names of specific epithets
(3) Names of genus
(4) Names of family

2) Taxonomy, which is based on chromosomal number, structure and behaviour is called as :-

(1) Chemo-taxonomy
(2) Numerical taxonomy
(3) Cytotaxonomy
(4) Phytochemistry

3) Which of the following is true for wheat?

(1) Order – Poales, class – Monocotyledonae

(2) Order – Poales, Kingdom – spermatophyta
(3) Class–Monocotyledonae, Kingdom–Angiospermae
(4) Order – sapindales, Class – Monocotyledonae

4) Taxonomy involves all except :-

(1) Characteristics and identification of organisms

(2) Nomenclature of organisms
(3) Classification of organisms
(4) Evolutionary relationship between organism

5) Statement-I: There are five broad categories in hierarchy of taxonomy.

Statement-II: Classification is a single step process.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

6) How many of the following are taxa ?

Cats, Mammals, Wheat, Dog, Leaves, Fruit, Seed, Solanum.

(1) Nine
(2) Seven
(3) Six
(4) Five

7) Which of the following has a group of related family ?

(1) Triticum
(2) Poaceae
(3) Poales
(4) Monocotyledonae
8) Which type of characteristics are used to categorized the families ?

(1) Only anatomical characters

(2) Only vegetative characters
(3) Both vegetative and reproductive
(4) Only floral characters

9) In which of the following is order of housefly ?

(1) Muscidae
(2) Diptera
(3) Musca
(4) Insecta

10) Statement-I : Animals, mammals and dogs represent different taxa at different levels.
Statement-II : Name of author appears after the specific epithet in abbreviated form.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

11) Which classification is easily carried out by using computers ?

(1) Artificial classification

(2) Practical classification
(3) Numerical classification
(4) Natural classification

12) Fishes, amphibians, reptile, birds along with mammals constitute the next higher category called
-

(1) Family
(2) Phylum
(3) Species
(4) Kingdom

13) Select the mismatch from the following :-

(1) Solanum - Potato

(2) Panthera – Tiger
(3) Felis – Dog
(4) Homo – Human

14) Which of the following category contains organisms most similar to one another ?
(1) Class
(2) Division
(3) Order
(4) Family

15) Plant taxon like convolvulaceae and solanaceae can be included together in which one of the
following categories ?

(1) Family
(2) Species
(3) Genus
(4) Order

16) In artificial classification the organisms are classified on the basis of :-

(1) Over all morphological character

(2) Phylogeny
(3) A few morphological characters
(4) Anatomical, cytological along with morphological characters

17) Archaebacteria are not affected by high temperature, high salinity, radiations and change in pH
due to the complex structure of their :-

(1) Cell wall

(2) Pellicle
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Cytoplasmic protein

18) Which of the following is not true for dinoflagellates?

(1) They are mostly marine

(2) They are photosynthetic
(3) They have protein rich layer called pellicle
(4) They have two flagella, one lies longitudinally and the other transversely.

19) Choose the incorrect match from following :-

(1) Diatom - chief producer in ocean

(2) Dinoflagellates - Red tide
(3) Euglenoids - Pigments identical to higher plants
(4) Slime moulds - Water bloom

20)

Single Protective unit of bacteria is made up of :–

(1) Cell wall and Cell membrane only
(2) Glycocalyx, Cell wall and flagella only
(3) Cell wall, Cell membrane and Pili only
(4) Glycocalyx, Cell wall and Cell membrane

21) Gas vacuoles are found in :-

(1) Blue green photosynthetic bacteria

(2) Purple bacteria
(3) Green photosynthetic bacteria
(4) All of these

22) Which of the following statement is correct regarding cyanobacteria ?

(1) They can be present in the gut of several ruminant animals such as cows and buffaloes.
(2) They are responsible for the production of methane (biogas) from the dung.
(3) They can live in extreme salty areas, hot springs and marshy areas.
(4) Some of these organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen.

23) Which statement is not associated with fungi?

(1) Cell wall is composed of chitin and polysaccharides

(2) May show symbiotic association with algae
(3) They are multicellular eukaryotic autotrophic organsims
(4) They causes smut, late blight & rot diseases

24) Lichens are symbiotic associations between algae and fungi in which :-

(1) Algae prepare food for fungi and fungi absorb mineral nutrients and water for its partner
Fungi prepare food for Algae and Algae provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients and water
(2)
for its partner
(3) Fungi prepare food , absorb mineral nutrients and water for its partner and also provide shelter
Fungi prepare food , absorb mineral nutrients and water for its partner and Algae provide
(4)
shelter to Fungi

25) What is the correct sequence of sexual cycle in fungi ?

(1) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Meiosis.

(2) Karyogamy → Plasmogamy → Meiosis.
(3) Plasmogamy → Meiosis → Karyogamy.
(4) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Mitosis

26) Identify the organism on the basis of following characters :

(A) Infectious ssRNA of low molecular weight
(B) Lacks protein coat
(C) Causes potato spindle tuber disease
(1) Prions
(2) Virus
(3) Viroids
(4) Bacteria

27) Assertion : Viruses are non-cellular organism that are characterised by having inert crystalline
structure outside the living cell.
Reason : A virus is a nucleoprotein and the genetic material is infectious.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) What is indicated by A and B in this figure ?

(1) (A) DNA, (B) capsid

(2) (A) coiled RNA, (B) capsid
(3) (A) capsid, (B) coiled RNA
(4) (A) coiled protein, (B) Capsid

29) Prions consist of :-

(1) Normally folded lipid

(2) RNA + Protein
(3) DNA + Protein
(4) Abnormally folded protein only

30) In humans Cr-Jacob disease (CJD) is caused by:-

(1) Prion
(2) Viroid
(3) Virus
(4) PPLO

31) How many of the following were the main criteria for five kingdom classification of R.H.
Whittaker ?
Cell type, blood colour, Growth habit, Reproduction, Phylogenetic relationships, Mode of nutrition,
Flagella
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

32) Out of the five kingdoms of Whittaker, multicellular eukaryotes belong to :-

(1) One kingdom

(2) Two kingdom
(3) Three kingdom
(4) Four kingdom

33) Which membranous structure formed by the extensions (infolding) of plasma membrane into the
bacterial cell ?

(1) Mesosome
(2) Episomes
(3) Heterocyst
(4) Fimbriae

34) Match the Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Euglenoids (i) Red tide

(B) Diatoms (ii) Decomposer

(C) Dinoflagellates (iii) Silicated cell wall

(D) Slime moulds (iv) Pellicle

(1) A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(i); D-(ii)
(2) A-(iv); B-(i); C-(ii); D-(iii)
(3) A-(ii); B-(iii); C-(iv); D-(i)
(4) A-(iii); B-(ii); C-(i); D-(iv)

35) Statement-I : In Two-kingdom classification Chlamydomonas and Spirogyra were placed

together under kingdom Plantae.
Statement-II : The Two-kingdom classification did not differentiate between the heterotrophic
fungi and autotrophic green plants.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

36) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :-

Column-I Column-II
A Phycomycetes i Sac fungi
B Ascomycetes ii Algal fungi
C Basidiomycetes iii Fungi imperfecti
D Deuteromycetes iv Club fungi
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

37) Which of the following statement is true about Euglena ?

(1) They show flagellar locomotion

(2) They have a rigid cell wall
(3) They have no chloroplast
(4) They are obligate autotrophs

38)

The basis of modern taxonomic studies are :-

(a) External and internal structure
(b) Structure of cell
(c) Development process
(d) Ecological informations

(1) a and b only

(2) a, b and c only
(3) a, c and d only
(4) All a, b, c and d

39) How many are the incorrect statements from the followings ?
(A) Lower the taxa, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share
(B) Higher the taxonomic category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationships to other
taxa at the same level
(C) In lower taxa the problems of classification becomes more complex
(D) As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number of common characters increases

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

40) Statement-A : Each category referred to as a unit of classification.

Statement-B : Group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities is called a species.

(1) Both statement A and B are correct

(2) Both statement A and B are incorrect
(3) Statement A correct B incorrect
(4) Statement A incorrect B correct

41) Which of the following are correct statements ?

(a) Genus is a group of related species
(b) Family is a group of related genera
(c) Class is a group of related orders
(d) Order is a higher category to family

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) c, d, b
(4) a, b, c, d

42) Read the following statements.

(A) Each genus may have one or more than one specific Epithet.
(B) Genera are aggregates of closely related species
(C) Family has a group of related genera with still more number similarities as compared to genus &
species
How many above statement are correct & incorrect?

(1) 3-correct ; 0-incorrect

(2) 2-correct ; 1-incorrect
(3) 1-correct ; 2-incorrect
(4) 0-correct ; 3-incorrect

43) Match the following & choose the correct option:

(i) Solanum (A) Family
(ii) Polymoniales (B) Kingdom
(iii) Solanum nigrum (C) Order
(iv) Plantae (D) Species
(v) Solanaceae (E) Genus

(1) (i)–D, (ii)–C, (iii)–E, (iv)–B, (v)–A

(2) (i)–E, (ii)–D, (iii)–B, (iv)–A, (v)–C
(3) (i)–D, (ii)–E, (iii)–B, (iv)–A, (v)–C
(4) (i)–E, (ii)–C, (iii)–D, (iv)–B, (v)–A

44) Which of the following statement are not correct for inclusion body of Eubacteria ?
(i) Glycogen granule stores carbohydrates.
(ii) Cyanophycean granule is the storage of nitrogen.
(iii) Gas vacuole found in purpule bacteria
(iv) Phosphate granule is the storage of carbohydrate.
(v) All these storage granules or inclusion body are membrane bound structure.

(1) Only v
(2) ii,iv and v
(3) iii and i
(4) iv and v
45) Find out the correct match from the following table :

Column I Column II
(A) Halophiles (i) Hot spring
(B) Thermo-acidophiles (ii) Marshy Area
Extreme
(C) Methanogens (iii)
salty areas
(1) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii)

46) Cellular level of organisation is found in the members of which phylum ?

(1) Protozoa
(2) Porifera
(3) Coelenterata
(4) Ctenophora

47) In the animals of which phylum, the digestive system has only a single opening that serves as
both mouth and anus ?

(1) Annelida
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Mollusca
(4) Platyhelminthes

48) In which of the following animals the blood is circulated only through a series of blood vessels of
varying diameters without entering in open spaces ?

(1) Locusta
(2) Pila
(3) Balanoglossus
(4) Nereis

49) When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two
identical halves, It is called ?

(1) Asymmetry
(2) Radial symmetry
(3) Bilateral symmetry
(4) Coelom

50) Which of the following groups of animals exhibit bilateral symmetry only ?

(1) Pennatula, Adamsia, Pleurobrachia

(2) Euspongia, spongilla, Taenia
(3) Ascaris, Nereis, Scorpion
(4) Echinus, Gorgonia, Sycon

51) Find out the correct answer about the figure given below.

(1) Bilateral symmetry

(2) Radial symmetry
(3) Asymmetry
(4) Notochord

52) Find out the correct option about the parts labelled as A and B in the figure given below :

(1) A-Ectoderm, B-Endoderm

(2) A-Mesoderm, B-Mesogloea
(3) A-Mesogloea, B-Endoderm
(4) A-Endoderm, B-Mesoderm

53) Select the correct answer about the figure given below :

(1) Acoelomate animals

(2) Truely coelomate animals
(3) Pseudocoelomate animals
(4) 1 and 2 both

54) Notochord is a ____A____ derived rod like structure formed on ____B____ during embryonic
development in some animals.
Find out correct answer about A and B.
(1) A-Ectodermally, B-Ventral side
(2) A-Endodermally, B-Dorsal side
(3) A-Mesodermally, B-Lateral side
(4) A-Mesodermally, B-Dorsal side

55) In which phylum the metamerism was first observed ?

(1) Arthropoda
(2) Mollusca
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Annelida

56) Which of the following is a triploblastic and acoelomate animal ?

(1) Ctenoplana
(2) Fasciola
(3) Ascaris
(4) Hirudinaria

57) What is a true coelom ?

(1) A type of digestive system

A cavity between the body wall and gut wall which remains lined by mesoderm from all the four
(2)
sides.
(3) A cavity between body wall and gut wall which does not lined by the mesoderm.
A cavity between body wall and Gut wall in which mesoderm is found in the form of scattered
(4)
pouches.

58) The members of phylum porifera are commonly known as :

(1) Flatworms
(2) Round worms
(3) Sponges
(4) Cnidarians

59) Which of the following is not a characteristics of phylum porifera ?

(1) Primitive multicellular animals

(2) Cellular level of body organisation
(3) Water transport system
(4) Generally fresh water and mostly symmetrical

60) Which of the following structure allows water to enter in the body of sponge ?

(1) Spongocoel
(2) Osculum
(3) Collar Cells
(4) Ostia

61) The spicules and spongin fibres in sponges are mainly responsible for

(1) Structural support

(2) Locomotion
(3) Fertilisation
(4) Food gathering

62) Which of the following is a fresh water sponge ?

(1) Sycon
(2) Spongilla
(3) Euspongia
(4) Euplectella

63) Which type of level of organization is found in coelenterates ?

(1) Cellular
(2) Organ system
(3) Tissue
(4) Protoplasmic

64) Which of the following Cnidarian is umbrella shaped and free swimming ?

(1) Hydra
(2) Adamsia
(3) Aurelia
(4) Both 1 and 2

65) The name Cnidaria is derived from ___A___ present on the tentacles and the body.
Find the correct answer about A.

(1) Cnidoblast cell

(2) Flame cell
(3) Choanocyte
(4) Lasso cell

66) Which of the following Cnidaria exhibit alternation of generation or metagenesis ?

(1) Pennatula
(2) Obelia
(3) Hydra
(4) Meandrina
67) The skeleton of corals is composed of :-

(1) Spongin fibres

(2) Silica
(3) Calcium Phosphate
(4) Calcium Carbonate

68) Locomotion in Ctenoplana is carried out by :-

(1) Jointed appendages

(2) Muscular foot
(3) Ciliated comb plate
(4) Parapodia

69) Reproduction in Ctenophores is :-

(1) Asexual by budding

(2) Asexual with external fertilisation
(3) Sexual with internal fertilisation
(4) Sexual with external fertilisation

70) In flatworms which structure help in osmoregulation and excretion ?

(1) Nephridia
(2) Malpighian tubule
(3) Proboscis gland
(4) Flame cell

71) Which of the following animal possess high regeneration capacity ?

(1) Taenia
(2) Fasciola
(3) Planaria
(4) Schistosoma

72) The members of which phylum are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and pseudocoelomate ?

(1) Annelida
(2) Mollusca
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelminthes

73) In which of the following animals, Alimentary canal is complete with a well develop muscular
pharynx ?

(1) Ascaris
(2) Anopheles
(3) Apis
(4) Astarias

74) Which type of muscles are found in the body wall of an annelid ?

(1) Only circular

(2) Circular and oblique
(3) Longitudinal and Circular
(4) Longitudinal, Circular and oblique all

75) Which of the following is dioecious animal ?

(1) Neries
(2) Earthworm
(3) Leech
(4) Fasciola

76) Which of the following is the characteristic feature of arthropods?

(1) The body is covered by a calcareous shell

(2) Close circulatory system
(3) Jointed appendages
(4) Radula for feeding

77) The body of arthropods is covered by __A___ exoskeleton. Find out correct option about 'A'.

(1) Siliceous
(2) Chitinous
(3) Calcareous
(4) Cellulosic

78) Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of phylum mollusca ?

(1) Body is covered by a calcareous shell and is usually unsegmented

(2) The space between hump and mantle is called mantle cavity
(3) Body is divided into head, muscular foot and visceral hump
(4) They are bilaterally symmetrical, diploblastic and acoelomate

79) Read the following four statements A-D:

(A) In arthropods fertilisation is usually external and development is direct.
(B) The body wall of Nereis possess only longitudinal muscles which help in locomotion.
(C) Molluscs are terrestrial or Aquatic having an organ level of organisation.
(D) The echinoderms have an endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles.
How many of the above statements are Incorrect ?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Three

80) Two statements are given below :-

Statement-I : Phylum hemichordata consists of a small group of worm like fresh water animals
with organ system level of organisation.
Statement-II : The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of water transport
system.
In the light of above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

81) Two statements are given below :

Statement-I : Round worms are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and pseudocoelomate animals.
Statement-II : Round worms may be free living , aquatic, terrestrial and parasites of animals only.
In the light of the above statements, select the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct.
(4) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.

82) Two statements are given below. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and another is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Annelids are metamerically segmented animals.
Reason (R) : Their body surface is distinctly marked out into segments or metameres with a serial
repetition of at least some organs.
In the light of the above statement choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explaination of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explaination of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

83) Read the following statements :

(a) In echinoderms fertilisation is usually external and development is direct with free swimming
larva.
(b) In Balanoglossus fertilisation is external and development is direct.
(c) Mollluscs are usually monoecious and oviparous.
(d) In arthropods fertilisation is usually internal and they are mostly oviparous.
Select the option which includes all the incorrect statements only ?

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d

84) Given below are two statements one is labelled as assertion (A) and another is labelled as reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : The members of phylum Aschelminthes are commonly known as round worms.
Reason (R) : The body of the members of this phylum appear circular in cross section.
In the light of the above statement choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A ) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

85) Two statements are given below :

Statement-I : In flatworms fertilisation is internal and development is through many larval stages.
Statement-II : In ctenophores sexes are separate and reproduction takes place only by sexual
means.
In the light of the above statements select the correct answer.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement- I and II both are incorrect.

86) Read the following statements A-D : -

(A) Ctenophores are commonly known as sea walnuts
(B) Ctenophores are exclusively marine, Radially symmetrical and triploblastic.
(C) Bioluminescence is well marked in Ctenophores.
(D) The body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in locomotion.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

87) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

A. Spongilla i. Stinging cells used for defense and anchorage.

B. Cnidoblast ii. Fasciola

C. Ctenoplana iii. Nereis

D. Flame cells iv. Bioluminescence

E. Nephridia v. Fresh water sponge

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A – i, B – ii, C– iii, D–iv, E–v
(2) A – v, B – i, C– iv, D–iii, E–ii
(3) A – iii, B – iv, C– v, D–ii, E–i
(4) A – v, B – i, C– iv, D–ii, E–iii

88) Match the column-I with column-II and select correct answer about them

Column-I Column-II

a Sycon i. Pseudocoelomate

b Obelia ii. 3-pairs of legs

c Ascaris iii. Radula

d Locusta iv. Cellular level of organisation

e Pila v. Metagenesis
(1) a – i, b – ii, c– iii, d–iv, e–v
(2) a – iv, b – v, c– iii, d–i, e–ii
(3) a – iv, b – v, c– i, d–ii, e–iii
(4) a – v, b – iv, c– ii, d–iii, e–i

89) Identify the organisms shown in the figures and select the correct answer about them.

A B C D

(1) Culex Apis Limulus Prawn

(2) Locusta Laccifer Scorpion Octopus

(3) Locusta Butterfly Scorpion Prawn

(4) Prawn Locusta Butterfly Scorpion

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Select only incorrect statements about the organism shown in the figure given below.
 (a) Contains radula in mouth for feeding.
(b) The circulatory system is open type
(c) They are bilaterally symmetrical and coelomate animals
(d) They are marine and fresh water both
(e) Mantle cavity has feather like gills, which help in respiration and excretion.

(1) a, b,c, and d

(2) b, c, d and e
(3) b and d only
(4) b, d and e
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 4 2 3 2 3 1 4 2 4 4 3 3 3 3 2 1 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 3 2 4 2 1 3 1 2 1 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 4 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 3 1 2 1 1 3 3 3 2 4 1 3 3 2 4 1 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 1 4 1 4 3 1 4 2 2 3 4 2 2 1 3 1 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 2 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 1 4 4 4 3 3 2 1 3 2 3 4 4 3 1 3 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 3 1 1 3 2 2 4 1 2 3 1 1 1 1 1 4 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 4 2 3 2 4 4 2 3 2 3 3 4 4 2 2 3 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 3 3 1 2 4 3 4 4 3 4 1 3 1 3 2 4 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 1 3 3 2 4 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

The maximum value of A sin θ + B cos θ is :

2)

3)

4)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5) A = 3t2 + 4t + 8

at t = 2 s,

= 6 × 2 + 4 = 16 m2/s

6) y = 8 cos x

= – 8 sin x

at x =
Slope = – 8 sin =–4

7) =

8)

= (4 – 2) +

9)

at x = 1

⇒ K=7

10) AB cos θ = 8 ...(1)

AB sin θ = ...(2)
(2) ÷ (1)
tan θ =
⇒ θ = 60°

11)

= 6 – 10 + 4 = 0
As dot product of two vectors is zero
So, angle between and is 90°.

12)
= –[cos 2π – cosπ]
= –2

13)
Where θ = angle between and .

14)

⇒A>B

15)

Statement I
is perpendicular to the plane of vector
Statement II

16)
Parabola

17)

18) x = 5t2 – 10 t + 3

= 10 t – 10
10t – 10 = 0
t=1
 ; so
2
xmin = 5(1) – 10(1) + 3 = – 2

19)
⇒ 0.16 + 0.64 + λ2 = 1
λ2 = 0.2 ⇒ λ =

20)
⇒ α = 45°

⇒ β = 90°

γ = 135°

21) [B] = [x2]

⇒ [B] = [L2] and [A] =

0
⇒ [AB] = [M–1L T1] [L2] = [M–1L2T1]

22) Angular Impulse = change in angular momentum

[Angular impulse] = [Angular momentum] = [mvr]
= [M1 L2 T–1]

23) → Rounding off (> 500)

⇒ 6.04

24)

n1U1 = n2U2

25) [ρ] = [F]x [V]y [T]z

0
[M1 L–3 T ] = [M1 L1 T–2]x [L1 T–1]y [T1]z
0
[M1 L–3 T ] = [Mx Lx+y T–2x–y+z]
Compare :
x=1 ...(1)
x + y = –3 ...(2)
–2x – y + z = 0 ...(3)
by solving equation :
x = 1 ; y = –4, z = –2
[ρ] = [F V–4 T–2]

26) Henry is not one of seven fundamental SI unit.

27) y = kxa
y ∝ xa

28)

29) St → distance travelled in tth second

[U] → Speed
So equation is dimensionally & numerically is correct.

30)
till least decimal places
⇒ = 5.5 cm
↓
Rounding off (<50)

31)

32) Theory Based

33) True value (avg. value) =

= 1.35 sec

34)
35) Unit of momentum is newton-second.

36) 6.8 × 10–9

a × 10b
If a > 5
⇒ 00M = b + 1
00M = –9 + 1 = – 8

37) MSR = 3 × Pitch = 3 × 1 mm = 3 mm

CSR = 25 × L.C. = 25 × 0.01 mm = 0.25 mm
Reading = MSR + CSR
= 3 + 0.25 = 3.25 mm

38) According to significant Figure's Rules.

39) ZE = – 0.02 cm ; MSR = 7.4 cm ; VSR = 6 × 0.01 = 0.06 cm

Corrected Reading = 7.4 cm + 0.06 cm – (– 0.02) cm
= 7.48 cm

40) 'a' cm = 20 MSD ⇒ 1 MSD =

41) ZE = + 0.03 cm
VC = 0.01 cm, MSR = 5.3 cm : VSR = 4 × 0.01 cm = 0.04 cm
Corrected reading = MSR + VSR – ZE
= 5.3 cm + 0.04 cm – ( + 0.03 cm) = 5.31 cm

42) 9 MSD = 10 VSD ⇒ LC = 1 mm = 0.1 mm

Fig (a) No measurement : ZE is negative
ZE = – 2 × 0.1 mm = – 0.2 mm
Fig (b) Measurement :
MSR = 5.1 cm ; VSR = 5 × 0.1 mm = 0.05 cm
Corrected reading = 5.1 cm + 0.05 cm – (– 0.02 cm)
= 5.17 cm

43)

⇒ No. of CSD =
= 200 divisions
(For minimum number of CSD LC should be maximum i.e equal to thickness of foil = 0.0025
 mm)

44) LC of SG =
(1) ZE ⇒ – ve ; ZE = – 5 × 0.01 mm
= – 0.05 mm
(2) During measurement :
MSR = 3 × 1 mm = 3 mm
CSR = 30 × 0.01 mm = 0.30 mm
Corrected value of diameter
= 3 mm + 0.30 mm – (– 0.05 mm)
= 3.35 mm

45)
MSR = 2 mm, CSR = 40 × 0.01 mm = 0.40 mm
Measured reading of diameter = 2.40 mm

Area of cross section =

= 4.52 mm2 (3SF)

CHEMISTRY

46)

For n = 2 Balmer series i.e., visible region and Lyman series belongs to UV region.

47)

Number of radial nodes n–ℓ–1

For 2p orbital
n=2 ℓ=1
Number of radial nodes = 2 – 1 – 1 = 0

48) Principal (n): Energy level

Azimuthal (l): Orbital shape
Magnetic (m): Orbital orientation
Spin (s): Electron spin

49)
= 5.26 × 10–8 m

50) n2 = 5, n1 = 1 Total no. of lines =

=
Lines in U.V region = (5 – 1) = 4
Lines in visible region = (5 – 2) = 3
Lines in Brackett series = (5 – 4) = 1

51)

E=
where h = 6.62 × 10–34
c = 3 × 108
λ = 2 × 10–16

∴E=

52)

En = – eV

E2 = – for H

(Z = 2, n = 4)

53)

Higher exchange energy gives more stability to 3d5 4s1 configuration over 3d4 4s2.

54)

First excited state ⇒ n = 2

∴ E2 = –13.6 × = – 30.6 eV

55) X–3 ion ⇒ 18 e–, 16 n

∴ In X atom ⇒ 15 e–, 15p, 16n
and In X4 molecule, total nucleons
= 4 (15 + 16) = 124

56) For n = 3 subshells are 3s, 3p, 3d

∴ electron = (2) + (6)+(10) = 18

57)

Solutions to the Schrödinger equation for the hydrogen atom yield three quantum numbers:
principal (n), azimuthal (l), and magnetic (m).
Spin Quantum Number: The spin quantum number (s) arises from relativistic quantum
mechanics and is an intrinsic property of particles, not a solution to the non-relativistic
Schrödinger equation.

58)

4d → n = 4
ℓ=2
m = –2, –1, 0, +1, +2

s=

59) mass of neutron = 1.008 amu ≈ 1 amu mass of proton = 1.007 amu ≈ 1 amu
mass of electron. = 0.0005 amu ≈ 0 amu
So electrons and protons have the different Mass.

60)
[mp = 1840 me]

Hence, .

61)

n > ℓ (always)
m = – ℓ to + ℓ

62)

n2 = 6 to n1 = 5 electronic transition is highest wavelength (or) lowest energy transition.

63) H ⇒ Z = 1, n = 2

r2 = 0.529 × = 0.529 × 4 = 2.11 Å

64)

M1 – Z1 = M2 – Z2
n1 = n2 (isotonic) i.e., same no. of neutrons.

65) is highest for e–

66)

Minimum energy or maximum wavelength will be of radio waves.

67) X+, Y+2, Z– are isoelectronic means all have same number of electrons i.e. 22 but they are
ions of different atom, so increasing order of number of protons is Z– < X+ < Y+2

68)

velocity ∝
v1n1 = v2n2
v × 4 = v2 × 1
v2 = 4v

69)

Vapour density is unit less quantity.

Vm at STP = 22.4 L

70)

T = 0°C, P = 760 mm = 1 atm

⇒ STP condition
V = 22.4 cc = 22.4 mL.

no. of molecules = n × NA = 10–3 NA

71)

Theory based

72)

is limiting Reagent
 All oxygen will be consumed

73)

Number of molecules = moles × NA

74) C3H8 + 5 O2 → 3CO2 + 4 H2O(ℓ)

1L 5L 3L
For complete combustion of 1 L C3H8 required volume of oxygen = 5L
Now, composition of oxygen in air is 21%

= 5 × 5 = 25 L

75)

Total mass of reactants = Total mass of products

76)

C6H12O6
Molar mass = 180 g
Mass of O = 16 × 6 = 96 g

% by mass of oxygen =
= 53.33

77)

Mw of SO3 is 80

78)

No. of H atom =
(1) 5 × NA × 2 = 10 NA
(2) 1.1 × NA × 8 = 8.8 NA
(3) 1.5 × NA × 8 = 12 NA
(4) 4 × NA × 4 = 16 NA

79)

2A + 3B → 2C
3mol 3mol
B is Limiting reagent

moles of C =

80)

According to law of definite proportions, a compound can be obtained from different sources,
but the ratio of each component remains same it does not depend on the method of its
preparation or the source from which it has been obtained.

Ex.-

H2O

2g H : 16 g O

⇒ 1 : 8 by weight

81)

1 amu = 1.66 × 10–24 g

or
1.66 × 10–27 Kg

82)

Number of O-atoms in 9.8g H2SO4

=
Number of NH3 atoms
= n × NA × 4
n × NA × 4 = 0.4 × NA
= 0.1 mol
= 0.1 ×22.4
(at NTP) = 2.24 L

83) H2 ⇒ 0.1 × NA = 0.1 NA molecules CH4 ⇒ molecules

NH3 ⇒ molecules

SO3 ⇒ molecules

84)
(at NTP)

=
(pure)

⇒ wsample = 250 g

85)

WNH3 = 17 × 2 = 34 g

86) Molar concentration =

87)

C : H : N

5 : 5 : 2.5
2 : 2 :1
E.F ⇒ C2H2N
Emp. mass = 40
Mol. mass = 80

MF ⇒ C4H4N2

88)

mass =
(1) 1 × 17 = 17g
(2) 5 × 14 = 70g
(3) 20 g

(4)
= 44g

89)

Mw = 2 × 32 = 64g
 Atomicity = 2

90)

(A) =

(B)

(C)

(D)

BIOLOGY

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NCERT XI Pg. # 6

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NCERT-XI, Pg. # 8

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104)

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106)

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141) New NCERT XI, Pg # 38 Fig. 4.1(a)

142) NCERT XI Pg. 38, Para. 4.1.3 Fig. 4.2(a)

143) NCERT XI Pg. # 39, Para = 4.1.4, Fig = 4.3 (b)

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