06-07-2025

5001CMD303004250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find value of sin (–30°) + cos (–30°) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2)

The minimum value of y = 5x2 – 2x + 1 is -

(1) 1/5
(2) 2/5
(3) 4/5
(4) 3/5

3) =

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) –2
(4) 1

4)

The average value of y = sinx in the interval is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

5) Area enclosed by straight line 2y – 6x = 12 with x and y axis will be :

(1) 12
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 2

6) Value of =

(1) x2 + c
2
(2) logex + c
2
(3) 2 logex + c

(4)
+c

7) sin 360° =

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) –1

(4)

8) Find the angle θ between minute hand and hour hand for the following time 5 : 00 :-

(1) 120°
(2) 150°
(3) 180°
(4) 90°

9) The slope of the tangent to the curve y=ln(cosx) at x = is :

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3)

(4)

10) y = e1000 ,
(1) e1000
(2) 0
(3) 1000 e999
(4) None

11) y = sinx + cosx then is :

(1) sinx – cosx

(2) cosx – sinx
(3) –(sinx + cosx)
(4) None of these

12) Determine the average value of y = in the interval 0 ≤ x ≤ 1.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13)

(1) 2sinθ
(2) 2cosθ
(3) sinθ
(4) cosθ

14) If is a unit vector in the direction of the vector , then:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the these

15) and are always :-

(1) Parallel vectors

(2) Equal vectors
(3) Collinear vectors
(4) Coplanar vectors
16) The vector makes 120° with the x-axis and the vector makes 30° with the y-axis. What is
their resultant ?

(1) P + Q
(2) P – Q

(3)

(4)

17) A physical quantity which has a direction :-

(1) must be a vector.

(2) may be a vector.
(3) may be both scalar and vector.
(4) none of the above.

18) If and
then find out a unit vector parallel to resultant vector of and :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Two forces, each of magnitude F have a resultant of the same magnitude F. The angle between
the two forces is :-

(1) 45°
(2) 120°
(3) 150°
(4) 60°

20) If magnitude of vector addition of two unit vectors is 2 units then magnitude of their vector
difference is :

(1)
(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) 2

21) Correct statement, considering figure is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) Two force vectors of same magnitude are arranged in the following manner :-

Magnitude of resultant force is maximum for :-

(1) Ι
(2) ΙΙ
(3) ΙΙΙ
(4) ΙΙ and ΙΙΙ

23) Resultant of two vectors and of magnitude 5 and 7 can not be :

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 10
(4) 1

24) If = 2 and = 4 and angle between them is 60°, then is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) At what angle should the two forces 2P and act so that the resultant force is :-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°
26) and Value of would be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) Vectors are shown in figure then diagram of is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28)

Three forces are acting on a body. The body will not be in equilibrium, if these are of magnitudes:-

(1) 7N, 8N, 14N

(2) 10N, 4N, 12N
(3) 3N, 15N, 8N
(4) 2N, 6N, 7N

29) The resultant of forces shown in figure is :-

(1) 20 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 5 N

30) If and are two non–zero vectors such that = and = then the angle
between and is :

(1) 37°
(2) 53°
(3) cos–1(–3/4)
(4) cos–1(–4/3)

31) If then angle between and will be :

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 135°
(4) 150°

32) There are two force vectors, one of 5N and other of 12N. At what angle the two vectors be added
to get resultant vector of 17 N, 7N and 13 N respectively :-

(1) 0°, 180° and 90°

(2) 0°, 90° and 180°
(3) 0°, 90° and 90°
(4) 180°, 0° and 90°

33) Assertion : Two vectors are always coplanar.

Reason : Vector remains unchanged if it shifted parallel to itself.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

34) Match list-I and list-II

List-I List-II

A. Density I. [M1 L1 T–1]

0 0
B. Momentum II. [M L T–1]
0
C. Frequency III. [M1 L–3 T ]
0 0
D. Volume IV. [M L3 T ]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below options :
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

35) Light year is a unit of :-

(1) Time
(2) Mass
(3) Distance
(4) Energy

36)

Which of the following is not a derived quantites?

(1) Velocity
(2) Speed
(3) Force
(4) Time

37) One nanometre is equal to :-

(1) 109 mm
(2) 10–6 cm
(3) 10–7 cm
(4) 10–9 cm

38) Which of the following is not a unit of energy ?

(1) W-s
(2) kg-m/sec
(3) N-m
(4) Joule

39) At point P, the value of is :-

(1) Zero
(2) Positive
(3) Negative
(4) Infinite

40) Rate of change of radius of a sphere is 2m/s. Find rate of change of its surface area when its
radius is 1m.

(1) 12π
(2) 16π
(3) 18π
(4) 20π

41) As θ increases from 0° to 90°, the value of tanθ.

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remain constant
(4) first increases then decreases

42) Which of the following match is correct ?

(i) (a) y = x2

(ii) (b) y = –x2

(iii) (c) x = y2

(iv) (d) x = – y2

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

1 a b c d

2 a c b d

3 d c b a

4 c a d b
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
43) Which of the following relation is wrong ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

44) is

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Solve (1+0.01)7 :-

(1) 1.007
(2) 1.07
(3) 2
(4) 1.1

CHEMISTRY

1) The approximate radius of the nucleus of 28Ni64 is :-

(1) 3 × 10–15 m
(2) 4 × 10–15 m
(3) 5 × 10–15 m
(4) 2 × 10–15 m

2) Radius of hydrogen atom is 0.53 Å in its ground state. Radius of Li2+ ion (Z = 3) in the same state
is :-

(1) 0.176 Å
(2) 1.06 Å
(3) 0.53 Å
(4) 0.265 Å

3) Calculate the energy of a photon of sodium light of wavelength 2 × 10–16 m

(1) 9.9 × 10–10 J

(2) 6.6 × 10–11 J
(3) 9.9 × 10–12 J
(4) 4.8 × 10–11 J

4) The energy ratio of a photon of wavelength 3000Å and 6000Å is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

5) The wavelength associated with an electron moving with a velocity of 108 cm s–1 is :-

(1) 72.7 Å
(2) 7.27 Å
(3) 0.727 Å
(4) 0.277 Å

6) The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between
their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be :-

(1) λ1 = λ2
(2) λ1 = 2λ2
(3) λ1 = 4λ2

(4)

7) Calculate the ratio of ionisation energy of Li2+ & He+, ions : –

(1) 2.25
(2) 5.2
(3) 1.7
(4) none of these

8) Which of the following has least de-Broglie wavelength :-

(1) Electron
(2) Proton
(3) Neutron
(4) H2O

9) What is the energy content per photon (J) for light of frequency 4.2 × 1014 ?

(1) 2.8 × 10–21

(2) 2.5 × 10–19
(3) 2.8 × 10–19
(4) 2.5 × 10–18

10) Find the value of wave number in terms of Rydberg's constant, when transition of electron
takes place between two level of He+ ion whose sum is 4 and difference is 2.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

11) What is the maximum wavelength in the Lyman series of He+ ion ?

(1) 3R

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) What is the wavelength of the radiation emitted producing a line in the layman series when an
electron falls from fourth stationary state in hydrogen atom ? (RH = 1.1 × 107 m–1)

(1) 97.25 nm
(2) 969.7 nm
(3) 9.697 nm
(4) None of these

13) Which of the following matter waves will have the shortest wavelength, if travelling with same
kinetic energy ?

(1) Electron
(2) Alpha particle
(3) Neutron
(4) Proton

14) Smallest wavelength occurs for :-

(1) Lyman series

(2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series
(4) Brackett series

15) Ionisation energy of single e– species is 27 eV then energy in its 2nd excited state will be :- (Z = 1)
(1) 3eV
(2) –3eV
(3) –27eV
(4) –18eV

16) The ionisation potential of an atom is 16 ev. what is the value of first excitation potential :-

(1) 10.2 ev
(2) 12 ev
(3) 14 ev
(4) 16 ev

17) If kinetic energy of a proton is increased by nine times then wavelength of the de-Broglie wave
associated with it would become :-

(1) 3 times
(2) 9 times

(3)
times

(4)
times

18) Electronic transition in He+ ion takes from n2 to n1 shell such that:
2n2 + 3n1 = 18
2n2 – 3n1 = 6
What will be the total number of photons emitted when electrons transit to n1 shell?

(1) 21
(2) 15
(3) 20
(4) 10

19) The third line in Balmer series corresponds to an electronic transition between which Bohr's
orbits in hydrogen :-

(1) 5 → 3
(2) 5 → 2
(3) 4 → 3
(4) 4 → 2

20) If a0 be the radius of first Bohr's orbit of H-atom, the de-Broglie's wavelength of an electron
revolving in the second Bohr's orbit will be :

(1) 4a0
(2) 4πa0
(3) 2πa0
(4) 3πa0

21) The mass of an electron is m, charge is e and it is accelerated from rest through a potential
difference of V volts. The velocity acquired by electron will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

22) Which of the following observations was not correct during Rutherford's Scattering experiment :-

(1) most of the α-particles passed through the gold foil undeflected.
(2) A small fraction of the α-particles was deflected by a small angle
(3) A large number of the α-particles were bounced back
(4) A very few α-particles (1 in 20,000) were bounced back

23) In He+ ion, which orbit is having value of angular momentum as :-

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

24) What is the separation energy for Be+3 ion in the first excited state?

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 27.2 eV
(3) 40.8 eV
(4) 54.4 eV

25) Specific charge is maximum for :-

(1) Electron
(2) Proton
(3) Neutron
(4) α-particle

26) Atomic mass of an element is equal to the sum of ?

(1) Electron and neutron

(2) Electron and proton
(3) Proton and neutron
(4) Both (1) and (3) are correct

27) Which of the following statements concerning light is false ?

(1) It is a part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

(2) It travels with same velocity, i.e., 3 × 1010 cm/s
(3) It cannot be deflected by a magnet.
(4) It consists of photons of same energy.

28) Which of the following properties of an atom could be explained correctly by Thomson's model of
atom?

(1) Overall neutrality of atom

(2) Spectra of hydrogen atom
(3) Position of electrons, protons and neutrons in atom
(4) Stability of atom

29) If , and represent kinetic energies of an electron, alpha particle and proton respectively
and each moving with same de-Broglie wavelength, then choose the correct increasing
representation

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) If wavelength is equal to distance travelled by the electron in one second then :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which of the following electron transitions in a hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of
energy?

(1) from n = 1 to n = 2
(2) from n = 2 to n = 4
(3) from n = 5 to n = 1
(4) from n = 3 to n = 5
32) What is the ratio of mass of an electron to the mass of a proton :-

(1) 1:2
(2) 1:1
(3) 1:1837
(4) 1:3

33) Electromagnetic radiation (photon) with highest wavelength results when an electron in the
hydrogen atom falls from n = 6 to :-

(1) n = 1
(2) n = 2
(3) n = 3
(4) n = 5

34)

An element X has the following isotopic composition :

200X : 90%
199X : 8.0%
202X : 2.0%
The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to :

(1) 199 amu

(2) 200 amu
(3) 201 amu
(4) 202 amu

35)

Find out ratio of following for photon (vmax.)Lyman : (vmax.)Brakett

(1) 1 : 16
(2) 16 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

36)

When a electron in H - atom jumps from n = 4 to n = 1, ultra violet light is emitted, if the transition
corresponds to n = 4 to n = 2, which of the following colours will be emitted

(1) Ultra violet

(2) Green
(3) Infra red
(4) No colour

37) Assertion (A) :- The atoms of different elements having same mass number but different atomic
number are known as isobars.
Reason (R) :- The sum of protons and neutrons, in the isobars is always different.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

38) Assertion : Bohr model is not suitable in case of multielectron species.

Reason :- It does not tells about electron-electron interaction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

39) Match the list I and II and pick the correct matching from the code given below :-

List I List II

A Isotope a

B Isobar b

C Isotone c

D Isosters d

E Isodiapheres e CO2 & N2O

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) Match the following -

Energy of electron
(A) in ground state (i) 6.04 eV
of He+
 Potential energy
(B) of electron in first (ii) –27.2 eV
orbit of H-atom

Kinetic energy of
(C) electron in second (iii) 8.7 × 10–18 J
excited state of He+

Ionisation energy
(D) (iv) –54.4 eV
of He+
(1) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(2) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
(3) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iii)
(4) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (iv)

41) Match the values of column-II with column-I and mark the appropriate choice.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Mass of electron (i) 1.673 × 10–27 kg
(B) Mass of proton (ii) –1.603 × 10–19 C
(C) Charge of electron (iii) 9.1 × 10–31 kg
(D) e/m for an electron (iv) 1.76 × 108 C/g

(1) (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (iii)

(2) (A) → (iii), (B) → (i), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iv)
(3) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
(4) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iv)

42) Which of following graphs correctly represents the variation of particles momentum with de-
Broglie wavelength ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43)
Find correct statement from the following statements:

(1) The energy of electron in a hydrogen atom has a negative sign for all possible orbits.
A free electron at rest is an electron that is infinitely far away from the nucleus and is assigned
(2)
the energy value of zero.
(3) Most stable orbit we call as ground state.
(4) All the above.

44) Find CORRECT statement about drawbacks of Rutherford model.

(1) This model cannot explain the stability of an atom.

This model says nothing about distribution of the electrons around the nucleus and the energies
(2)
of these electrons.
(3) This model can explain the line spectrum of an atom
(4) Both (1) and (2)

45) Statement-I: Emitted radiation will fall in visible range when an electron jump from n = 4 to n
= 2 in H-atom.
Statement-II: Balmer series radiations belong to visible range for hydrogen atom only.

Both statement-I and statement-II are true and the statement-II is the correct explanation of
(1)
statement-I.
Both statement-I and statement-II are true, but the statement-II is not correct explanation of
(2)
statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.

BIOLOGY

1) Which one is not a specialised connective tissue ?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Blood
(3) Bone
(4) Areolar tissue

2) Loose connective tissue is found in :-

(1) Tendon and Ligament

(2) Beneath the skin
(3) Blood
(4) Cartilage and bone

3) Distribution of tissue in our epidermis of skin is –

(1) Simple epithelial tissue

(2) Compound epithelial tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Connective tissue

4) Which of the following is incorrect for epithelium ?

(1) Cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix

(2) It is highly vascularised
(3) It provides a covering or a lining for some parts of the body
(4) It helps in secretion and absorption

5) Cuboidal epithelial cells with microvilli are present in :-

(1) PCT of Nephron

(2) Bowman's capsule
(3) Thin part of Henle's loop
(4) Alveoli of lungs

6) Which junction helps to stop substances from leaking across a tissue -

(1) Tight junction

(2) Adhering junction
(3) Gap junction
(4) Desmosome

7) Our body is composed of four types of tissues. How many tissues from the following originated
only from mesodermal germ layer?
(Epithelial, Connective, Muscular, Nervous)

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

8) Which modification of cell membrane increase maximum surface area for absorption?

(1) Villi
(2) Microvilli
(3) Cilia
(4) Stereocilia

9)

Select the correct statement about compound epithelium :-

(A) It is made of more than one layer of cells.
(B) It has limited role in secretion and absorption
(C) Every cell of this epithelium is in contact with the basement membrane without any exception.
(D) It is highly vascular tissue.

(1) (C), (D)

(2) (D) only
(3) (A) and (B)
(4) (A), (B) and (C)

10) Select incorrect match with respect to simple epithelium shown and its location in the body?

Simple epithelium Location

(1) Walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs

(2) Ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons

(3) PCT of nephron

(4) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) The tissue related with diffusion and filtration is :-

(1) Simple columnar

(2) Simple squamous
(3) Compound squamous
(4) Compound columnar

12)

Most cells are linked to

(1) Neural tissue

(2) Areolar connective tissue
(3) Endocrine gland
(4) Exocrine gland

13) Ligament contain :-

(1) Only elastic fibres

(2) Only collagen fibres
(3) Elastic fibres and collagen fibres
(4) Reticular fibres

14) In all connective tissue except ___A___ the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin.

(1) Bone
(2) Blood
(3) Areolar Tissue
(4) Cartilage

15) Find out the incorrect match

Tissue Origin Specific function

1. Epithelial Ectodermal Protection

2. Connective Mesodermal Connection

3. Muscular Mesodermal Covering

4. Nervous Ectodermal Excitability

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Statement-I :- Simple squamous epithelium is made of single thin layer of flattened cells.
Statement-II :- Simple cuboidal epithelium found in tubular part of nephrons

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(3) Both Statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

17) Identify the example where the epithelial tissue shown in the diagram is present
(1) Inner linings of bronchioles
(2) Linings of stomach
(3) Tubular part of nephrons
(4) Air sacs of lungs

18) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Some of the cuboidal or squamous cell gets specialised for secretion
(2) Endocrine glands do not have ducts
(3) Ciliated epithelial tissue mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs
(4) Cuboidal epithelium is commonly found in tubular parts of nephron.

19) The most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the bodies of complex animal is

(1) Epithelium
(2) Connective
(3) Muscular
(4) Neural

20) Assertion : Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both plants and animals cells
Reason : Various chemical reactions occurs in it to keep the cells in living state.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

21) Match the following and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

Fibreless
a. Adipose tissue (i)
matrix

Cuboidal Abundant fat

b. (ii)
epithelium cells

c. Cartilage (iii) PCT

d. Blood (iv) Tracheal rings

(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv),d-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)

22)

Chief matrix producing cell is :

(1) Mast cell

(2) Fibroblast
(3) Macrophages
(4) Plasma cell

23)

Find out the incorrect one related to compound epithelium

(1) Dry surface of skin

(2) Salivary gland duct
(3) Pancreatic duct
(4) PCT

24) Fibroblast, macrophages and mast cells are seen in :-

(1) Epithelial cells/tissues

(2) Loose connective tissue
(3) Skeletal muscle tissue
(4) Smooth muscle tissue

25) Select the correct statement for the gland.

Gland Location Function

(1) Unicellular GIT Secrete mucus

Outside
(2) Multicelluar Secrete saliva
Buccal cavity

Buccal
(3) Unicellular Secrete saliva
cavity

(4) Multicelluar GIT Secrete mucus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Assertion (A) : The endomembrane system include endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex,
lysosomes and vacuoles.
Reason (R) : Since the functions of the mitochondria, chloroplast and peroxisomes are coordinated.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explaination of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explaination of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

27) Tissue serves as a support framework for epithelium:-

(1) Areolar connective tissue

(2) White fat
(3) Brown fat
(4) Dense connective tissue

28) Skeletal muscles are attached to bones by ?

(1) Ligaments
(2) Tendon
(3) Both of these
(4) None of these

29) Read the following (A-D) statements :-

(A) It is composed of single layer of tall and slender cells
(B) Their nuclei are located at the base
(C) Free surface may have microvilli
(D) They are found in the walls of Blood vessels and air sac of lungs
How many of the above statements are incorrect for simple columnar epithelium :-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

30) Read the following organ/part of body.

Mouth, Throat, Sweat gland duct, Salivary gland duct, Renal pelvis, Urinary bladder, Mammary
gland duct, Ureter
How many of them contain transitional epithelium :

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 8

31) Which one of the following is an example of dense irregular connective tissue ?

(1) Tendon
(2) Ligament
(3) In the skin
(4) Blubber

32) Match the following columns and select the correct option.

COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
Anton Von
a. (i) Cork cell
Leeuwenhoek
b. Robert Brown (ii) Living cell
Gave cell
c. Robert Hooke (iii) theory a final
shape
d. Rudolf Virchow (iv) Nucleus
(1) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
(2) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(3) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(4) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)

33) Select the correct statement only :

(1) All the complex animals consist of only three basic types of tissues
In multicellular organisms, all functions like digestion, respiration and reproduction are
(2)
performed by a single cell
When two or more tissues perform a common function by their physical and chemical
(3)
interaction, they together form organ system
(4) Cells, tissues, organs and organ system split up the work in away that exhibit division of labour

34) Find out the incorrect matched pair :

Type of tissues Examples

(1) The squamous epithelium Forms diffusion boundaries

Ducts of glands and tubular part

(2) The cuboidal epithelium
of nephrons in kidney

(3) The columnar epithelium Lining of stomach and intestine

Fallopian tubes, stomach and Air

(4) The cuboidal epithelium
sacs of lungs
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Assertion :- Carrier protein of the membrane is needed to transport polar molecules.
Reason :- Polar molecules cannot pass through the non-polar lipid bilayer.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

36) This character exist in Tendon

(1) Parallel arranged collagen bundles

(2) Rows of collagen fibres
(3) Elastic fibres
(4) More than one option

37) In columnar epithelium, nucleus is present at which of these positions in each cell of the
epithelium ?

(1) At the top of cell

(2) Between the boundary of two cells
(3) At the middle of cytoplasm
(4) At the base

38) Epithelial tissue with thin flat cells appearing like packed tiles occurs on

(1) Inner lining of intestine

(2) Inner lining of stomach
(3) Inner lining of fallopian tubes
(4) Thin part of loop of henle

39) Which epithelium function is to move particles or mucus in specific direction :

(1) Ciliated columnar epithelium

(2) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Epithelium with Microvilli

40) From the following which one is not a exocrine secretion-

Mucus, Saliva, Ear wax, Hormones, Oil, Milk, Stomach enzyme :

(1) Hormone
(2) Hormone and Milk
(3) Ear Wax
(4) Mucus

41) Cilia are normally found in :-

(1) Inner surface of hollow organs

(2) Inner surface of blood vessels
(3) Inner surface of large intestine
(4) Inner surface of oesophagus

42) Which type of epithelium is found in oesophagus ?

(1) Transitional epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelum
(3) Non-keratinized stratified epithelium
(4) Keratinized stratified epithelium

43) Connective tissue found in the wall of blood vessels, lymph vessels and alveoli is ?

(1) Areolar
(2) Adipose
(3) White fibrous
(4) Yellow fibrous

44) Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given

Column -I (Cell) Column-II (Size)

a. PPLO K. 3 to 5 μm

b. Viruses L. 10 to 20 μm

c. Bacteria M. 0.02 - 0.2 μm

d. Typical eukaryotic cell N. 0.1 μm

(1) a-N, b-L, c-K, d-M
(2) a-K, b-M, c-N, d-L
(3) a-N, b-M, c-K, d-L
(4) a-K, b-L, c-N, d-M

45)

White fibrous cartilage is present in :-

(1) Larynx
(2) Articular cartilage
(3) Intervertebral disc
(4) Nasal septum

46) Epithelia are involved in all the following except:

(1) Protection
(2) Secretion
(3) Absorption
(4) Connection

47) Animal tissues are classified into four types. These are:

(1) Epithelial, connective, muscular, blood

(2) Epithelial, connective, blood, Nervous
(3) Epithelial, muscular, blood, Nervous
(4) Epithelia, connective, muscular, Nervous

48) The supportive skeletal structure in the human tip of nose, outer ear joints are example of :-

(1) Tendon
(2) Bone
(3) Ligaments
(4) Cartilage

49) Assertion (A) : Columnar epithelium lining the intestinal mucosa appears to have a brush like
appearance.
Reason (R) : A large number of microvilli are present on brush bordered columnar epithelium.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

50) Which of the following epithelium is present in Bowman's capsule?

(1) Simple columnar epithelium

(2) Pseudostratified epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal epthelium

51)

Select out wrong match

(1) Passive transport - lower concentration gradient to higher

(2) Active transport - use energy

(3) Osmosis - movement of water by diffusion

(4) Na+/K+ pump - active transport

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

52)

Cell wall is
A. A non-living, rigid structure that surrounds the plasma membrane of plant cell.
B. Plant cell wall consists of cellulose, hemicellulose, proteins and pectin

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is incorrect
(3) Only A is incorrect
(4) Both A and B are correct

53) A. Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.

B. Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all unicellular organisms.
C. All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
D. The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in all type of cells.
Options :-

(1) Statement A, C and D are wrong

(2) Statement A, B and D are not correct
(3) Statement A, B and C are not wrong
(4) Statement B, C and D are not correct

54) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(1) a–protein, c–sugar, d–cholesterol, b–integral protein

(2) b–protein, a–sugar, c–cholesterol, d–integral protein
(3) c–protein, d–sugar, b–cholesterol, a–integral protein
(4) d–protein, b–sugar, a–cholesterol, c–integral protein

55)

A common characteristic feature of plant sieve tube cells and most of mammalian erythrocytes is

(1) Absence of mitochondria

(2) Presence of cell wall
(3) Presence of haemoglobin
(4) Absence of nucleus

56) "All plants are composed of different-kinds of cells which form the tissues of the plant." This
statement was given by :-

(1) Schleiden
(2) Shwann
(3) Rudolf Virchow
(4) Robert hook

57) Which of the following is related to cell theory :-

I. All living organisms are composed of cells and product of cells.
II. Proposed by Schleiden and Schwann.
III. Modified by Rudolf Virchow
IV. All cells arise from pre – existing cell.
V. “Omnis cellula – e – cellula”

(1) Only one of the above

(2) Only two of the above
(3) Only four of the above
(4) All five

58) Plant cells differ from animal cells in having :

(1) Cell wall

(2) Plastids
(3) A large central vacuole
(4) All of these

59) Which cell donot show correct match with its shape :

(1) WBC — Amoeboid

(2) Nerve Cell — Branched and long
(3) Tracheids — Elongated
(4) Columnar epithelial cells — Round and oval

60) Which of the following is not a function of cytoskeleton in a cell?

(1) Intracellular transport

(2) Maintenance of cell shape and structure
(3) Support of the organelle
(4) Cell motility

61) Which bacteria do not retain the stain, when washed with alcohol.

(1) Gram positive type

(2) Gram negative type
(3) Either gram positive or gram negative
(4) Neither gram positive nor gram negative

62) Glycocalyx could be a thick and tough layer and known as:-

(1) Slimy layer

(2) Cyst
(3) Capsule
(4) None of the above

63) Which of the following is not a surface structure :-

(1) Fimbriae
(2) Pili
(3) Flagella
(4) Inclusion

64) Which of the following confirms certain unique characters like pilli to some bacteria

(1) Chromosomal material

(2) Extra chromosomal material
(3) Mitochondrial DNA
(4) Genetic material present in chloroplast

65) How many functions from the following, the mesosomes can perform
(i) DNA replication
(ii) Respiration
(iii) Secretion
(iv) Increases surface area
(v) Contains enzymatic content

(1) Only four

(2) Only Three
(3) All Five
(4) Only Two

66) How many of following can be found in a prokaryotic cell ?

Ribosomes, Vacuoles, Naked DNA, Inclusion bodies, Lysosomes

(1) Two
(2) Five
(3) Three
(4) One

67) Which of the following used in photosynthesis process?

(1) Mesosome
(2) Chromatophore
(3) Pili
(4) Phosphate granule

68) The fluid nature of the membrane provides functions like :-

(A) Formation of intercellular junction
(B) Cell growth
(C) Cell division
(D) Phagocytosis
(E) Secretion

(1) A, B
(2) A, D, E
(3) A, B, C, E
(4) A, B, C, D, E

69) What is external to the plasma membrane in a prokaryotic cell like bacteria?

(1) Glycocalyx layer

(2) Cell wall
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

70) Cell wall surrounding cell membrane, fluid cytoplasm, well defined nucleus, naked genetic
material. How many features are related with typical prokaryotes

(1) All four

(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Only one

71) Result of compartmentlization in cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells is :-

(1) Membrane bound cell organelles

(2) DNA
(3) Cell wall
(4) Cell membrane

72) Plant cells different from animal cells because of:-

(1) The presence of cell wall and absence of centriole in higher plant cell
(2) The presence of cell wall and chlorophyll in plant cell
(3) The absence of centriole and vacuole in plant cell
(4) (1) & (2) both
73) Consider the following statements (A-D) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only :-
(A) Depending on the ease of extraction membrane proteins can be classified as extrinsic and
intrinsic.
(B) The lipids are arranged within the membrane with the non-polar head towards outersides and
hydrophilic tail towards the innerside.
(C) Cell membrane is composed of lipids that are arranged in monolayer.
(D) In cell membrane the major lipids are phospholipids that are arranged in bilayer

(1) A & C
(2) B & D
(3) A, B & D
(4) A & D

74) The cell wall and middle lamellae may be traversed by ___ which connect the cytoplasm of the
neighbouring cells.

(1) annulus
(2) pore
(3) plasmodesmata
(4) gap junctions

75) Which component of middle lamella holds neighbouring cells together?

(1) Calcium phosphate

(2) Sodium pectate
(3) Calcium pectate
(4) Sodium phosphate

76) "Many organelles are considered together as an endo-membrane system because their
functioning is coordinated."
Which of the following statement gives the correct explanation of this ?

(1) Protein synthesised in Golgi bodies are modified in the ER

(2) Materials formed in ER fuse with the trans phase of Golgi bodies
(3) Lipids synthesised in ER are modified in the Golgi apparatus
(4) Membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the packaging in ER work as lysosomes

77) Cholesterol is the starting point for synthesis of steroid hormones which include the male and
female sex hormones. Those hormones are synthesized by :-

(1) Golgi body

(2) SER
(3) RER
(4) Plastid

78) The vacuole is the membrane-bound space found in the cytoplasm. This membrane is termed as
:-

(1) Cristae
(2) Grana
(3) Tonoplast
(4) Desmotubule

79) Packaging of materials, to be delivered either to the intra-cellular targets or secreted outside the
cell is done by.

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Golgi body
(3) Lysosome
(4) Vacuole

80) Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the.....(i)........fuse with the.....(ii).....of the
golgi apparatus and move towards the....(iii)... Choose the correct terms for blanks :-

(1) (i) - lysosome, (ii) - maturing face, (iii)-trans face

(2) (i) - ER, (ii) - cis face, (iii) - forming face
(3) (i) - vacuole, (ii) - concave face, (iii) - convex face
(4) (i) - ER, (ii) - forming face, (iii) - trans face

81) Chemical modification of substance like glycosylation of protein and lipid occur in :–

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Golgi body
(3) Lysosome
(4) Ribosome

82) Lysosomes are ______ vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the _____:-

(1) Membrane bound, Golgi apparatus

(2) non-membrane bound, Golgi-apparatus
(3) Membrane bound, ER
(4) non-membrane bound, ER

83) The lysosomal hydrolases are able to digest

(1) Proteins and carbohydrates only

(2) Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic acids
(3) Proteins and lipids only
(4) Carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic acid only

84) Tonoplast membrane is important for

(1) Transporting ions along concentration gradient.
(2) Transporting ions against concentration gradient.
(3) Providing rigidity to structure
(4) All of these

85) In amoeba the contractile vacuole is important for :-

(1) Excretion
(2) Endocytosis
(3) Exocytosis
(4) Osmosis

86) Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
A. Primary cell wall of plant cells is incapable of growth and diminishes gradually as the cell
matures.
B. RER is abundatly found in the cells which are actively involved in proteins synthesis and
secretion.
C. SER is a major site for lipid synthesis.
D. A number of Proteins synthesized by RER modified inside the Golgi apparatus

(1) A, B & C
(2) A, C & D
(3) B, C & D
(4) A, B & D

87) Plasmids are

(1) Large, circular chromosomal DMA in prokaryotes

(2) Small circular extra-chromosomal DMA in eukaryotes
(3) Small circular extra-chromosomal DNA in bacteria
(4) Large, circular extra-chromosomal DNA in bacteria

88) In prokaryotes, the ribosomes:

(1) Are associated with the plasma membrane of the cell

(2) Are 15 nm by 20 nm in size
(3) Contain two subunits - 50S and 30S
(4) All are correct

89) Polyribosomes or polysomes represent:

(1) Microbodies like glyoxysomes

(2) Ribosomes and snRNA
(3) Aggregation of rRNA
(4) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA forming a chain
90) Identify the A, B, C, D and E ?

A B C D E

Inter
Central Radial Central Peripheral
(1) doublet
microtubles spoke sheath microtubules
bridge

Central Interdoublet Central Radial Peripheral

(2)
sheath bridge sheath spoke microtubules

Central Radial Central Interdoublet Peripheral

(3)
sheath spoke microtuble bridge microtubules

Central Radial Central Peripheral Interdoublet

(4)
microtubules spoke sheath bridge bridge
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 3 2 2 2 2 1 2 3 2 2 1 4 1 2 3 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 4 4 1 2 2 3 1 3 3 1 2 4 3 4 3 2 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 4 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 1 3 2 2 1 4 3 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 3 4 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 1 4 1 3 4 1 4 2 1 3 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 4 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 2 2 1 1 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 2 3 3 1 1 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 4 2 2 3 1 2 4 2 3 1 4 4 1 4 4 4 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 1 4 3 2 4 1 4 4 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 4 2 3 3 2 4 3 3 1 4 4 3 3 3 2 3 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 2 2 1 3 3 4 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

PV = KNT

2)

For minimum value –

y = 5x2 – 2x + 1

3)
=

= [– cos + sin + cos 0 – sin 0]

= [0 + 1 + 1 – 0]
=2

4)

5) 2y – 6x = 12
y = 3x + 6
y = mx + c
Area =

⇒ Area = = =6

6)

=
= 2 logex + c

7) sin 360° = sin 0° = 0

8) 30 + 30 + 30 + 30 + 30 = 150°

9)

= –tan

10) y = constant

11) y = sinx + cosx

= –[sinx + cosx]

12)

13) cos 4θ=cos2 2θ–sin22θ

 cos 4θ = 2 cos2 2θ – 1

= = 2 cos θ.

14) Question explanation: Expression of unit vector

Solution: Unit vector can be expressed as the ratio of vector to its magnitude i.e.

Concept: Types of vector

Formula:

15) Question explanation: to find out the types of given two vectors.
Concept: Types of vector
Solution: As two vector may lie in a single plane so two vectors are always copanar.

16)
Angle between & is 0°

17) Explanation: In this question we have to choose the correct statement

Concept: A physical quantity which has a magnitude and direction is a vector. But a vector
quantity must also follow the vector law of addition. If a physical quantity doesn't follow vector
law of addition, even if it having direction is not a vector. For example:- current so having
direction only is not enough to be a vector quantity.
Conclusion: The correct answer to option-2

18)
 19) R = 2a cos , F = 2F cos ,

∴ θ = 120°

20)
⇒ cosθ = 0 ⇒ θ = 0°

so
=0

21) (1) Asking About:

Using the triangle law of vector addition, find the correct relationship between the given
vectors.
(2) Concept:
The triangle law of vector addition states that if two vectors are represented by two sides of
a triangle taken in the same order, their resultant is given by the third side in the reverse
order.
For the given triangle:

A. and are in the same order

B. is in the reverse order.

(3) Formula:
The triangle law of vector addition can be expressed as:

(4) Solution/Explanation:

A. In the given triangle, vectors and are aligned in the same cyclic order.
B. According to the triangle law, the sum of and equals in the reverse direction.
C. Mathematically:

A. Comparing this with the options, Option 3 is correct.

(5) Final Answer:

Option 3:

22) 1. Question Explanation:

We are given two force vectors of the same magnitude, and we need to determine when the
magnitude of their resultant force is maximum, based on their arrangement.

2. Concept-Based:
The subtopic is Resultant of Two Vectors. The magnitude of the resultant force depends on
the angle between the two vectors.

3. Formula Used:
The formula for the resultant R of two equal magnitude vectors F with an angle θ between
them is:

4. Calculation:

(i) θ = 90° R = 2F cos

(ii) θ = 120°

(iii) θ = 60°
5. Answer:→
Magnitude of resultant force is maximum when θ=60° so Answer will be option (3)

23) Asking about: Possible magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors A and B with
magnitudes 5 and 7.

Concept: The magnitude of the resultant vector lies between the absolute difference and the
sum of the magnitudes.

Solution:

Formula:

Calculation/Explanation:
Only option (4) 1 is not in this range.

Answer is option (4).

24)
=

25)

R2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ
10 P2 = 4P2 + 2P2 + 4 P2 cos θ
4P2 =

cos θ =
θ = 45°

26) ,
27)

28)

(A + B) R (A – B)

29)

Angle between vectors = 180° – 60° = 120°

Resultant =
= 20 N

30)
4(A2 + B2 + 2ABcosθ) = A2 + B2 – 2ABcosθ
3A2 + 3B2 + 10AB cosθ = 0
12B2 + 3B2 + 20B2 cosθ = 0
20B2cosθ = –15B2

cosθ =

31)

Given
⇒
⇒
⇒1+2+

⇒ ⇒ θ = 135°

32)
here A = 5N B = 12 N

33) Conceptual.
34)
F = 6π η r v

[η] = M L–1 T–1

Work function (φ) = ML2T–2

35)

Conceptual.

36)

Among given options, time is the base quantity.

37)

1 nanometer = 10–9 m = 10–7 cm

38) kg-m/sec is the unit of linear momentum

39) Explaining : Find at point p

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :
at point p θ = 0°
tan θ = tan 0° = 0
so

Final Answer : (1)

40) Explaining : Find

Concept : This question is based on Chain rule

Solution :
As A = 4πr2

⇒
 = 16 π
Final Answer : (2)

41)

Theory Based

42)

CORRECT ANSWER (4)

43)

Explain : identify which of the given trigonometric identities is incorrect.

Concept :
Trigonometric Identities:

Sum and Difference Formulas: We will use the sum and difference formulas for sine, cosine, and
tangent to verify the given relations.
Formula : sin(A+B) = sinA cosB + cosA sinB
cos(A+B) = cosA cosB − sinA sinB

tan(A−B)=
Final Answer : (4) None of these

44) Concept :

Calculation :

Final Answer : (3)

45)

correct answer (2)

CHEMISTRY

46)

r = ro A1/3
r = 1.33 × 10–15 × 641/3
 = 1.33 × 10–15 × 4

= 5.32 × 10–15 m

47)

correct answer (1)

48) Asking : Energy of photon

Concept : Plank's Theory

Solution : E =
where h = 6.02 × 10–34
c = 3 × 108
λ = 2 × 10–10

∴E=

49)

=2:1

50)

correct answer (2)

51) Explanation : Relation between 1 & 2

Given data :
E1 = 25ev , E = 50 ev

Concept :

Calculation :
Final Answer : λ1 = 2λ2
Correct option : 2

52)

53)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 62, Part-1

54) E = hv = 6.62 × 10–34 × 4.2 × 1014 = 2.8 × 10–19 J

55)

n 2 + n1 = 4
n2 – n1 = 2
n2 = 3, n1 = 1

56)

A. Question Explanation:

The question asks for the maximum wavelength in the Lyman series of the He+ ion.

B. Given Data:

We are dealing with the Lyman series of the He+ ion.

C. Concept: Rydberg Formula

D. Formula:

1/λ = R × Z2 × (1/n12 – 1/n22)

E. Mathematical Calculation:

For the maximum wavelength in the Lyman series, the electron transitions from the n = 2 level
to the n = 1 level.

1/λ = R × 22 × (1/12 – 1/22) 1/λ = 4R × (1 – 1/4) 1/λ = 4R × (3/4) 1/λ = 3R λ = 1/(3R)

F. Final Answer:
The correct answer is option (2) 1/(3R).

57) ΔE =

= 972.5 Å
= 97.25 nm

58) λ ∝
 59)

correct answer (1)

60) 1. Question Explanation

The question asks for the energy of an electron in its second excited state given its ionization
energy.
2. Given Data

A. Ionization energy of the electron = 27 eV

B. Atomic number (Z) = 1 (This implies a hydrogen-like atom)

3. Concept

A. Ionization Energy: The energy required to completely remove an electron from its ground
state in an atom.
B. Energy Levels in Hydrogen-like Atoms: The energy of an electron in a hydrogen-like atom
is given by: E_n=-13.6 * ((Z2) / (n2)) eV where: E_n is the energy of
the electron in the nth energy level Z is the atomic number n is the principal quantum number
( n = 1 for ground state, n = 2 for first excited state, n = 3 for second excited state, etc.)

4. Mathematical Calculation

A. Ground State Energy: Since the ionization energy is 27 eV, the ground state energy (n = 1)
is -27 eV.
B. Energy in the Second Excited State (n = 3) : E 3 =-27* ((12) / (32) eV E3 = - 27/9 eV E3 = - 3
eV (approximately)

5. Final Answer
The energy of the electron in its second excited state is approximately -3 eV.

61)

ΔE = 12eV

62)

63) n1 = 2
n2 = 6

Total number of photon emitted

64)

correct answer (2)

65)

r n2

nλd = 2πr
2 × λd = 2πr2

⇒ λd = 4πa0

66)

correct answer (4)

67) Explanation :
We need to identify the incorrect observation from Rutherford's alpha scattering experiment.
This experiment helped propose the nuclear model of the atom by observing how alpha
particles interacted with a this gold foil.

Given :
Four statements are provided about the behavior of alpha particles during the experiment.
One of them is not consistent with the actual results.

Concept :
Rutherford's atomic model
Evaluation of options :
1. Most of the alpha particles passed through the gold foil undeflected - this is correct
2. A small fraction of the alpha particles was deflected by a small angle- this is correct.
3. A very few alpha particles (1 in 20,000) were bounced back - This is correct.
4. A large number of the alpha particles were bounced back - This is not correct, it contradicts
the actual observation.
Answer
A large number of the α-particles were bounced back

68)

correct answer (1)

69)

SE = –13.6

= 13.6 × × 42 = 54.4 eV

70)
correct answer (1)

71)

correct answer (3)

72)

correct answer (4)

73)

correct answer (1)

74)

As we know that,

Mass of e, and p are .

The correct order is .

75)

correct answer (2)

76)

correct answer (1)

77)

correct answer (3)

78)

correct answer (4)

79)

correct answer (2)

80)
 correct answer (2)

81)

correct answer (2)

82)

isobar has same number of sum of proton and neutron.

83)

correct answer (1)

84)

Explanation

A. A (Isotope) - c ( ): Isotopes have the same atomic number (number of protons) but
different mass numbers (number of neutrons).

B. B (Isobar) - a ( ): Isobars have the same mass number but different atomic numbers.

C. C (Isotone) - b ( ): Isotones have the same number of neutrons.

D. D (Isosters) - e (CO2 & N2O): Isosters have the same number of atoms and electrons.

E. E (Isodiapheres) - d ( ): Isodiapheres have the same difference between the number of

neutrons and protons.

Answer option 4, (A-c, B-a, C-b, D-e, E-d).

85) = –13.6 × 22 eV
= –27.2 eV
= + 1.51 × 22 eV
= 21.76 × 10–19 × 22

86)

correct answer (2)

87)
 correct answer (4)

88)

When value of ‘n’ decreases, energy of orbit becomes more and more negative.

89) This model is failed to explain the spectrum of an atom.

90)

correct answer (1)

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Pg 104

92) Explain Question :

Loose connective tissue found beneath the skin.

93)

correct answer (2)

94)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

95) NCERT XIth Pg # 101, last para

96)

correct answer (1)

97)

correct answer (2)

98)

correct answer (2)

 99)

correct answer (3)

100)

correct answer (3)

101)

correct answer (2)

102) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101, 102

103)

correct answer (3)

104) NCERT Page No. # 103 (E/H)

105)

● The muscular tissue is mesodermal in origin, but its function is contraction and movement,
not covering. That is why it is incorrect.

Final Answer : option (3) Muscular - Mesodermal - Covering (Incorrect match)

106)

3. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

Explanation:

A. Statement-I is correct: Simple squamous epithelium is indeed made of a single thin layer
of flattened cells and is found in areas where diffusion and filtration occur (e.g., in the
alveoli of lungs).
Statement-II is correct: Simple cuboidal epithelium is found in the tubular part of
nephrons in the kidneys, where it plays a role in secretion and absorption.

107)

The image shows Ciliated Columnar Epithelium.

Ciliated Columnar Epithelium is characterized by tall, column-shaped cells with hair-like
projections called cilia on their apical surface. This tissue is primarily found in the:

A. Inner linings of bronchioles: The cilia in the bronchioles help to move mucus and trapped
 particles up and out of the respiratory tract.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1. Inner linings of bronchioles.

108)

1. Some of the cuboidal or squamous cells get specialised for secretion

Option 1 is incorrect: Only some cuboidal or columnar cells (not squamous) get specialised for
secretion, forming glandular epithelium. Squamous cells are typically involved in diffusion and
protection, not secretion.

109) Explanation:

A. Connective tissue is the most abundant and widely distributed tissue in complex animals.
B. It provides support, connection, and protection to various organs and tissues.
C. Examples: Blood, Bone, Cartilage, Adipose tissue etc.

Final Answer : option (2) Connective tissue

110) NCERT Pg.# 126 para 8.3

111)

This question involves matching tissues or structures (Column-I) with their appropriate
characteristics or locations (Column-II).
Let's match the tissues in Column I with their descriptions or locations in Column II:

A. a. Adipose tissue: This tissue is characterized by (ii) Abundant fat cells. Adipose tissue's
primary function is to store fat.
B. b. Cuboidal epithelium: This type of epithelium is commonly found in the (iii) PCT (Proximal
Convoluted Tubule) of the nephron in the kidney. Cuboidal epithelium is involved in secretion
and absorption.
C. c. Cartilage: Cartilage is a flexible connective tissue that provides support and is found in
structures like (iv) Tracheal rings, which help keep the trachea open.
D. d. Blood: Blood is a connective tissue with a (i) Fibreless matrix (plasma). Unlike other
connective tissues, its matrix is liquid, not fibrous.

Now, let's find the correct matching option:

A. a - ii
B. b - iii
C. c - iv
D. d-i

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

114) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103

116) NCERT XI, Pg. # 133

117) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 103

118) NCERT XI Pg. # 103

119) NCERT Pg. # 101

121)

NCERT, Page # 103

123) NCERT-XI, Pg # 100

124) NCERT-XI, Pg # 101, Para.-7.1.1

125) NCERT XI, Page # 132

127) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

131)

NCERT XI (E)Pg.# 101, para 3

NCERT XI (H)Pg.# 102, para 1

134) NCERT Page no 90

138) NCERT-Pg # 104

142)

NCERT Page No. 132

143) NCERT-XI Pg. # 125, 126

144)

NCERT-XI Pg#93

148)

Plant cells differ from animal cells in having the following features:
1. Cell wall Plant cells have a rigid cell wall made of cellulose, while animal cells do not have a
cell wall.
2. Plastids-Plant cells contain plastids like chloroplasts, which are responsible for
photosynthesis. Animal cells do not have plastids.
3. A large central vacuole - Plant cells typically have a large central vacuole that stores water,
nutrients, and waste products, while animal cells have smaller vacuoles.
Since all of these are unique to plant cells compared to animal cells, the correct answer is:
4. All of these.

156) NCERT XI Page # 88,91

Prokaryotic cell contain naked DNA, ribosomes and inclusion bodies.

161) NCERT-XI Pg. # 129

167) NCERT XI, Pg. # 133, Para 05

168)

Concept:

A. Vacuoles are large, fluid-filled organelles found in plant cells that store various
substances.

B. Tonoplast is the membrane surrounding the central vacuole in plant cells.

Solution:

A. The tonoplast is the specific membrane that encloses the vacuole.

169) NCERT Pg. # 134

170)

Ncert Page 96.

171) Correct option - (2)

Explain the problem: Question is about the organelle in which Chemical modification of
substances like glycosylation of protein and lipid occurs.
Solution: Golgi body helps in chemical modification of substances like glycosylation of protein
and lipid.
So, option (2) is correct

172)

NCERT, Pg. # 96

176)
Therefore, the correct match is (4) Mesophyll cells - (iv) Round and Oval.
Answer: 3. B, C & D
Explanation:
B: RER (Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum) is abundant in cells that are actively involved in
protein synthesis and secretion, like those of the pancreas.
C: SER (Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum) is the major site for lipid synthesis.
D: Proteins synthesized by the RER are modified inside the Golgi apparatus.
A is incorrect because the primary cell wall is capable of growth and does not diminish as the
cell matures. Instead, the primary cell wall can be replaced or thickened by the secondary cell
wall in some plant cells.Thus, the correct option is 3. B, C & D.