25-05-2025

1015CMD303001250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find the incorrect statement :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

2) and are :-

(1) Concurrent vectors

(2) co-initial vectors
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Parallel vectors

3) Find a unit vector along , if .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Two vectors are parallel to each other, then vectors are :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) A vector is not changed if-

(1) It is rotated through an arbitrary angle.

(2) It is multiplied by an arbitrary scalar.
(3) It is cross multiplied by unit vector.
(4) It is slided parallel to itself.

6) The resultant of A and B makes an angle α with A and β with B. Then :

(1) α < β if A > B

(2) α < β if A < B
(3) α = β if A < B
(4) α < β if A = B

7) Vector sum of 2 forces of 5N and 10N cannot be :-

(1) 5N
(2) 10N
(3) 4N
(4) 15N

8) Resultant of and is perpendicular to . Angle between and is :-

(1)
θ=
θ=
(2)

(3)
θ=

(4)
θ=

9) The resultant of 2 unit vectors is also a unit vector, if angle between them is :-

(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 90°
(4) 0°

10) Two vectors and are such that and A2 + B2 = C2. If θ is the angle between positive
directions of and , then mark the correct alternative :-

(1) θ = 0°

(2)

(3)

(4) θ = π
11) Two forces, each numerically equal to 5N, are acting as shown in the figure. Find the angle

between forces?

(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 30°
(4) 150°

12) Two forces of 12N and 8N act upon a body. The resultant force on the body has a maximum
value of :-

(1) 4N
(2) zero
(3) 20 N
(4) 8N

13) For the given quadrilateral, which equation is correct ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) If , then angle between & is :-

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

15) Two vectors and are acted at acute angle. Then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

16)
If is a unit vector along y-axis and , then what is ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) Two equal forces are acting at a point with angle of 60° between them. If the resultant force is
equal to , then magnitude of each force is-

(1) 40 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 80 N
(4) 30 N

18)

If and , then is :

(1) 6
(2)
(3) 12
(4)

19) A vector of magnitude a is rotated through an angle θ. What is the magnitude of the change in
the vector ?

(1)

(2)

(3) 2a sinθ
(4) 2a cosθ

20) and , then is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) Which option is true from the following?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) If , then will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) If , then find out unit vector along .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Find direction cosines of vector : –

(1) 1,1,1

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The X and Y components of a force F acting at 30° to x-axis are respectively -

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) If vectors = cos ωt + sin ωt and

= cos are functions of time, then the value of t at which they are perpendicular to
each other is :

(1) t = 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The angle between the two vectors and is -

(1) 0º
(2) 90º
(3) 180º
(4) none

28)

The velocity of a particle is . The component of the velocity of particle parallel to

vector in vector form is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) If and is perpendicular than α is :

(1) 12
(2) –12
(3) 6
(4) 8

30)

Angle between and is θ. What is the value of ?

(1) P2Qcos θ
(2) Zero
(3) P2Qsin θ cos θ
(4) P2Qsin θ

31)

The angle made by the vector with x-axis is

(1) 90°
(2) 45°
(3) 22.5°
(4) 30°

32)

Two vectors and are perpendicular to each other. The value of 'P' is :-

(1) 3
(2) –3
(3) –2
(4) 2

33)

If , then angle θ between vector and is -

(1) 0º
(2) π/4
(3) π/2
(4) π

34) If and , the vector having the same magnitude as B and parallel to A is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) Two vectors and are inclined to each other at angle θ. Which of the following is the unit
vector perpendicular to and ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

36) If and , then find torque (N-m) :-

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

37) If and represents sides of a triangle, then find its area :-

(1) 2 unit
(2) 1 unit

(3)

(4) 4 unit

38) If then the value of is

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

39)

The displacement of a particle is given by

y = a + bt + ct2 – dt4. The initial velocity and acceleration are respectively

(1) b, – 4d
(2) –b, 2c
(3) b, 2c
(4) 2c, –4d

40) A person walks 80 m east, then turns right through angle 143º walks further 50 m and stops. His
position relative to the starting point is :-

(1) 50 m, 53º east of south

(2) 50 m, 53º south of east
(3) 30 m, 37º south of east
(4) 30 m, 53º south of east

41) A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with speed of 12 m/s. The other half
of the distance is covered in two equal time intervals with speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively.
The average speed of the particle during this motion is :

(1) 8.0 m/s

(2) 12.0 m/s
(3) 10.0 m/s
(4) 9.8 m/s

42) A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by, s = t3 –
6t2 + 3t + 4 meters. The velocity, when the acceleration is zero, is :-

(1) 3 m s–1
(2) –12 ms–1
(3) 42 m s–1
(4) –9 m s–1

43) A man walks for some time 't' with velocity (v) due east. Then he walks for same time 't' with
velocity (v) due north. The average velocity of the man is:

(1) 2v
(2)
(3) v

(4)

44) If a car cover th of the total distance with speed v1 and th of the total distance with speed v2,
then average speed is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A car moves form A to B with a uniform speed v1 and returns to A with a uniform speed v2. The
average speed for this round trip is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)

Magnetic moments of V (Z = 23), Cr (Z = 24), Mn (Z = 25) are x, y, z. Hence :-​​

(1) x = y = z
(2) x < y < z
(3) x < z < y
(4) z < y < x

2) Which two orbitals are located along the axis, and not between the axis?

(1)
(2) dxy, pz
(3) dyz, px
(4)

3) Assertion : There are two spherical nodes in 3s-orbital.

Reason : There is no angular node in 3s-orbital.

(1) Assertion & Reason are True &the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion & Reason are false.

4) Match list-I with list-II :

List-I List-II

(a) Principal quantum number (i) Orientation of orbitals

(b) Azimuthal quantum number (ii) Direction of spin of electron

(c) Magnetic quantum number (iii) Energy of electron

(d) Spin quantum number (iv) Shape of orbitals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(2) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(3) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(4) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)
5) Which orbit would be the first to have 'h' subshell:-

(1) 3rd
(2) 4th
(3) 5th
(4) 6th

6) In the Schrodinger equation, is

(1) A mathematical operator called Hamiltonian operator

(2) Introduced by Schrodinger from the expression for the total energy of the system
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

7) ψ310 has

(1) 1 radial node and 1 angular node

(2) 2 radial node and 1 angular node
(3) 1 radial node and 2 angular node
(4) 2 radial node and 2 angular node

8) Orbital angular momentum of an electron present in 3dxy orbital is.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) and (2)

9) The following sets of quantum numbers represent four electrons in an atom.

(i) n = 4, l = 1
(ii) n = 4, l = 0
(iii) n = 3, l = 2
(iv) n = 3, l = 1
In this content, which of the following represents the order of increasing energy.

(1) iv < ii < iii < i

(2) ii < iv < i < iii
(3) i < iii < ii < iv
(4) iii < i < iv < ii

10) Which of the following statements in relation to the hydrogen atom is correct.

(1) 3p orbital is lower in energy than 3d orbtial

(2) 3s orbital is lower in energy than 3p orbital
(3) 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same energy
(4) 3s and 3p orbitals are of lower energy than 3d orbital

11) Number of electrons present in p subshell of chlorine atom is

(1) 11
(2) 10
(3) 6
(4) 8

12) Which of the following is violating Hund's rule:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) All

13) The orbital diagram which of the following principle is violated.

(1) Aufbau
(2) Hund's rule
(3) Pauli's principle
(4) Both (1) and (2)

14) The number of angular nodes and radial nodes in 2s orbital are

(1) 0 and 2, respectively

(2) 1 and 0, respectively
(3) 3 and 0, respectively
(4) 0 and 1, respectively

15) The number of electrons that can be accommodated in orbital is

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3

16) Statement-I : For any gas, vapour density = so unit of vapour density is
g/mole.
Statement-II : Molar volume of an ideal gas at STP is 22.4 L.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.

17) Statement-1: Equal volume of different gases at the same temperature and pressure should
contain equal number of molecules.
Statement-2: The above statement is law of definite proportions.

(1) Statement-1 is true; statement-2 is true; statement-2 is a correct explanation for statement-1
Statement-1 is true; statement-2 is true; statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true; statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false; statement-2 is true

18) Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole
of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are respectively

(1) 20, 30
(2) 30, 20
(3) 40, 30
(4) 60, 40

19) 20 moles of A and 14 moles of B are mixed and allowed to react according to the equation
A + 2B → 3C
What is the maximum number of moles of C which could be prepared :-

(1) 14
(2) 13
(3) 7
(4) 21

20) Number of molecules in 44.8 litre SO3 gas at STP:

(1) 12.04 × 1022

(2) 6.02 × 1023
(3) 24.08 × 1023
(4) 12.04 × 1023

21) 3 L of mixture of propane (C3H8) & butane (C4H10) on complete combustion gives 10 L CO2. Find
the composition of mixture.

(1) C3H8, 2L and C4H10, 1L

(2) C3H8, 3L and C4H10, 0L
(3) C3H8, 1.5L and C4H10, 1.5L
(4) C3H8, 0L and C4H10, 3L

22) In a compound, x is 75.8% and y is 24.2% by weight present. If atomic weight of x and y are 24
and 16 respectively. Then calculate the empirical formula of the compound.

(1) x2y
(2) xy2
(3) xy
(4) x3y3

23) Calculate the number of atom present in one drop of water having mass 1.8 g.

(1) 0.3 NA
(2) 0.2 NA
(3) 0.1 NA
(4) 0.01 NA

24) Which of the following contains maximum number of oxygen atoms ?

(1) 1 g of O
(2) 1 g of O2
(3) 1 g of O3
(4) all have the same number of atoms

25)

The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a tetraatomic gas is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) What is the mass of a molecule of CH4 :–

(1) 16 g
(2) 26.6 × 1022 g
(3) 2.66 × 10–23 g
(4) 16 NA g

27) Calculate the number of atoms present in 7.1 g of chlorine?

(1) 0.2 NA
(2) 0.3 NA
(3) 0.4 NA
(4) 0.5 NA

28) For reaction A + 2 B → C. The amount of C formed by starting the reaction with 5 mole of A and
8 mole of B is :

(1) 5 mol
(2) 8 mol
(3) 16 mol
(4) 4 mol

29) Which one of the following pairs of gases contains the same number of molecules ?

(1) 16 g of O2 and 14 g of N2
(2) 8 g of O2 and 22 g of CO2
(3) 28 g of N2 and 22 g of CO2
(4) 32 g of O2 and 32 g of N2

30) In this reaction, 2Al + O2 → Al2 O3 , 9 gms of Al will react, with

(1) 6 gms O2
(2) 8 gms O2
(3) 9 gms O2
(4) 4 gms O2

31) 8 g NaOH is dissolved in one litre of solution, its molarity is :

(1) 0.8 M
(2) 0.4 M
(3) 0.2 M
(4) 0.1 M

32) For preparing 0.1 M solution of H2SO4 in one litre, we need H2SO4 :

(1) 0.98 g
(2) 4.9 g
(3) 49.0 g
(4) 9.8 g

33) The modern atomic weight scale is based on.

(1) C12
(2) O16
(3) H1
(4) C13

34) Gram atomic weight of oxygen is

(1) 16 amu
(2) 16 g
(3) 32 amu
(4) 32 g

35) At NTP, 5.6 L of a gas weight 8 grams. The vapour density of gas is :-

(1) 32
(2) 40
(3) 16
(4) 8

36) A hydrocarbon contain 80% C. The vapour density of compound is 30. Empirical formula of
compound is :-

(1) CH3
(2) C2H6
(3) C4H12
(4) C4H8

37) The volume of a gas at 0°C and 760 mm of Hg pressure is 22.4 cc. The no. of molecules present
in this volume is

–3
(1) 10 NA
–4
(2) 10 NA
–5
(3) 10 NA
–2
(4) 10 NA

38) Equal mass of oxgyen, hydrogen and methane are taken in a container in identical conditions.
What is the ratio of their mole :-

(1) 1 : 16 : 1
(2) 1 : 16 : 2
(3) 8 : 1 : 8
(4) 16 : 1 : 8

39) When 40 cc of slightly moist hydrogen chloride gas is mixed with 20 cc of ammonia gas the final
volume of gas left at the same temperature and pressure will be
NH3(g) + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s)

(1) 20 cc
(2) 40 cc
(3) 60 cc
(4) 100 cc

40) The vapour densities of two gases are in the ratio of 1 : 3. Their molecular masses are in the
ratio of :-
(1) 1 : 3
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 1

41) The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO2 is approx.

(1) 1.2 × 1023

(2) 6 × 1022
(3) 6 × 1023
(4) 12 × 1023

42) 1 mole of CH4 contains :

(1) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of H

(2) 4 g atom of hydrogen
23
(3) 1.81 × 10 molecules of CH4
(4) 3.0 g of carbon.

43) The total number of protons, electrons and neutrons in 12 gm of 6C12 is

(1) 1.084 × 1025

(2) 6.02 × 1023
(3) 6.02 × 1022
(4) 18

44) Number of molecules in 100 ml of each of at STP are :-

(1) In the order

(2) In the order
(3) The same
(4)

45) The correct relationship between molecular mass and vapour density is:

(1) V.D. = 2M

(2)

(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) How many species are know and described till now :-

(1) 1.7 - 1.8 billion
(2) 1.7 - 1.8 million
(3) 17 - 18 million
(4) 1.5 - 1.6 million

2) Which character was not considered by Whittaker in his five kingdom system ?

(1) Complexity of cell

(2) Complexity of organism
(3) Mode of Nutrition
(4) Pigment composition

3) Sum total chemical reactions in a living body :-

(1) Catabolism
(2) Anabolism
(3) Metabolism
(4) All of the above

4) A. The first word denoting the genus start with a small letter, while second word is specific
epithet start with capital letter.
B. Biological names are generally printed in italics.
In given statement, which of the following is incorrect and correct.

(1) A-is incorrect and B-is correct

(2) A-is correct and B-is incorrect
(3) A and B both are incorrect
(4) A and B both are correct

5)

Choose the correct one from given statements:

(i) Biology is the science of life forms and living processes.
(ii) The living world comprises an amazing diversity of living organisms.
(iii) Early man deified some of the inanimate matter (wind, sea, fire, etc.) and some among the
animals and plants.
(iv) Ernst Mayr has been called 'The Darwin of the 21st century.

(1) (i) and (iii) only

(2) All except (iii)
(3) All except (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

6) Select the wrong statement for binomial nomenclature.

(i) This naming system was given by Carolus Linnaeus.
(ii) Biological names are derived from Latin and written in italics.
(iii) The first word represents the species while the second component denotes the genus.
(iv) When name is handwritten then should be not underlined, or printed in latin.
(v) Genus starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet starts with a small letter.
(vi) Name of the author appears after the genus and is written in a abbreviated form.

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)
(4) (iii), (iv) and (vi)

7) Match the following and choose the correct option:

A. Family I. Solanum tuberosum

B. Kingdom II. Polymoniales

C. Order III. Solanum

D. Species IV. Plantae

E. Genus V. Solanaceae
(1) I→D,, II→C, III→E, IV→B, V→A
(2) I→E,, II→D, III→B, IV→A, V→C
(3) I→D,, II→E, III→B, IV→A, V→C
(4) I→E,, II→C, III→B, IV→A, V→D

8) Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/classification is :-

(1) Species
(2) Kingdom
(3) Family
(4) Order

9) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of various taxonomic categories -

(1) Class - Phylum - Order - Family - Genus - Species

(2) Division - Class - Family - Order - Genus - Species
(3) Division - Class - Order - Family - Genus - Species
(4) Phylum - Order - Class - Family - Genus - Species

10) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a

(1) Different cell wall and cell membrane structure

(2) Different cellular organisation
(3) Parasitic nature
(4) Both (2) and (3)

11) Family is placed between

(1) Order and genus
(2) Genus and species
(3) Class and order
(4) Phylum and class

12)

A dividing bacterial cell

Identify A, B, C & D from the given diagram:-

A B C D

Cell
(1) Pili Cell wall Cell wall
membrane

Mucilaginous Cell
(2) Flagellum DNA
sheath membrane

(3) Flagellum Slime layer DNA RNA

Nuclear
(4) Pili Cell membrane RNA
membrane
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Which type of reproduction is found in monera during favourable conditions ?

(1) Binary fission

(2) Fragmentation
(3) Sexual reproduction
(4) Spore formation

14) Assertion (A) : Bacteria, as a group, show the most extensive metabolic diversity.
Reason (R) : They have a complex structure, and are simple in behaviour.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

15) Which one of the following statement is wrong ?

(1) Cyanobacteria are also called blue green algae.

(2) Unicellular Prokaryotes placed in kingdom monera.
(3) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.
(4) Methanogens are Archaebacteria

16) Assertion : The two kingdom classification used for a long time was found inadequate.
Reason : This system distinguish between the eukaryotes and prokaryotes, unicellular and
multicellular organisms and photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic organisms.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong

17) Bacteria differs from BGA in

(1) Being prokaryotic in nature

(2) Having nucleoid
(3) Having peptidoglycan in cell wall
(4) Presence of flagella in some forms

18) According to five kingdom classification, the eukaryotic members are present in

(1) Protista only

(2) Fungi and plantae
(3) Animalia and plantae
(4) All five kingdoms except monera

19) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria

(1) Play a great role in recycling natrients

(2) Oxidises only various organic substances
(3) Placed in kingdom protista
(4) Use light energy for food synthesis.

20) Assertion (A) : Members of Kingdom Protista are all eukaryotes.

Reason (R) : Membrane bound organelles and an organized nucleus is absent in Protista

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

21) Three domain system was given by :-

(1) Carl Woese

(2) Bentham and Hooker
(3) Theophrastus
(4) Linnaeus

22) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Nostoc has heterocysts for nitrogen fixation.

(2) Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted water bodies.
Cyanobacteria can form symbiotic relationship and benefit the partner by providing nitrogenous
(3)
compounds.
(4) Cell wall of mycoplasma made up of peptidoglycan.

23) Statement I :- Cyanobacteria are multicellular, colonial or filamentous, freshwater/marine or

terrestrial algae.
Statement II :- Some cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen is specialised cells called
heterocyst.

(1) Statement I is true, Statement II is false

(2) Statement II is true, Statement I is false
(3) Both statements are true
(4) Both statements are false

24) Which of the followings is not an inclusion body:-

(1) Cynophycean starch

(2) Phosphate garnule
(3) Polysome
(4) Glycogen granule

25) Bacteria performing nitrification are :-

(1) Chemosynthetic
(2) Heterotrophic
(3) Parasitic
(4) Symbiotic
26) Select option showing correct identification for above figure from
A to D :-

A B C D

(1) Bacillus Coccus Spirillum Vibrio

(2) Coccus Bacillus Spirillum Vibrio

(3) Coccus Spirillum Bacillus Vibrio

(4) Coccus Vibrio Bacillus Spirillum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Choose the incorrect statement of following :-

(1) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis.

(2) Pili do not play a role in motility.
(3) Inclusion bodies are bounded by membrane.
(4) Cell wall prevent the bacterium from bursting and collapsing.

28) Which of the following is not a feature of Nucleoid :-

(1) Absence of nuclear membrane

(2) Single, circular DNA
(3) DNA without Histon
(4) Single stranded DNA

29) Choose the correct statement.

(1) Bacterial flagella is made up of basal body, hook and filament

(2) Single protective unit of bacteria is made up of only cell wall
(3) Pili are longer than flagella
(4) A plasmid always attached with genophore

30) Which option is not related with mycoplasma ?

(1) Smallest living cell

(2) Faculative anaerobic
(3) Lack cell membrane
(4) Pathogenic in plants and animals

31) Find out the correct match from the following table.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Oxidative
(i) Mesosomes Cell respiration
enzymes

Protein
(ii) Capsule Loose nature
synthesis

Flagellin Helps in genetic

(iii) Flagella
protein recombination
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) only (ii)
(4) Only (i)

32) Which one of the following structure is found in prokaryotes but lacks in eukaryotes?

(1) Cell wall

(2) Ribosome
(3) Flagella
(4) Pili

33) Which option creates the difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria :-

(1) Cell membrane

(2) Cell wall
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Function of flagella

34) Small, extra nuclear, extra chromosomal, circular, double stranded, naked DNA is :-

(1) Plastid
(2) Genophore
(3) Episome
(4) Plasmid

35) Which one of the following structure not found on the outer surface of bacterial cell.

(1) Capsule
(2) Mesosomes
(3) Pili
(4) Flagella
36) Which is not true for the heterocyst of Nostoc :-

(1) Thick walled

(2) Site of nitrogen fixation
(3) Nitrogenase enzyme present
(4) Photosynthesis

37) Most extensive metabolic diversity is found in :-

(1) Members of Protista

(2) Members of Monera
(3) Members of fungi
(4) Members of Plantae

38) How many organisms are included in Monera in given list ?

(A) Slime moulds (B) Dinoflagellates
(C) Protozoans (D) Pseudomonas
(E) Archebacteria (F) Basidiomycetes

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5

39) Identify the correct match from column I, II and III.

Column I Column II Column III

(Kingdom) (Cell wall) (Body organisation)

1 Monera a Present in some i Tissue/ organ

2 Protista b Present (Chitin) ii Loose tissue

3 Fungi c Present (Cellulose) iii Cellular

4 Plantae d Polysaccharide + Amino acid iv Cellular

(1) 2–a–iii, 1–d–iv, 3–b–ii, 4–c–i
(2) 1–d–iv, 2–b–i, 3–a–ii, 4–c–iii
(3) 1–d–iv, 2–c–ii, 3–a–i, 4–b–iii
(4) 2–b–iii, 1–c–iv, 3–d–ii, 4–c–i

40) R.H. Whittakar proposed a five kingdom classification. These kingdoms defined by him were
monera, protista, fungi, plantae and animalia. In this classification decomposer and producer
belongs from respectively :-

(1) 3 kingdom and 2 kingdom

(2) 2 kingdom and 2 kingdom
(3) 3 kingdom and 3 kingdom
(4) 2 kingdom and 1 kingdom
41) Polyribosomes/Polysomes are made up of :-

(1) Ribosomes only

(2) Only larger subunit of ribosomes
(3) Ribosomes & m-RNA
(4) Ribosomes & DNA

42) Majority of bacteria are :-

(1) Autotrophic
(2) Heterotrophic
(3) Holozoic
(4) Chemoheterotrophic

43) Cyanobacteria are classified under :

(1) Protista
(2) Plantae
(3) Monera
(4) Algae

44) Who was awarded the three prizes widely regarded as the triple crown of biology; the Balzan
prize in 1983, the international prize for Biology in 1994, and the crafoord prize in 1999.

(1) Katherine Esau

(2) Ernst Mayr
(3) Alfonso Corti
(4) Carolus Linnaeus

45) How many characters in the list given below are correct for this diagram ? (i) Non-
oxygenic photosynthesis
(ii) N2-fixation
(iii) Decomposer
(iv) stored food is phosphate granule
(v) Production of antibiotics
(vi) Peptidoglycan cell wall
Options

(1) i, ii, iv
(2) ii, vi
(3) ii, iv, v, vi
(4) i, ii, iii, v

46) Periplasmic space is analogous to .....................

(1) Ribosome
(2) Lysosome
(3) Plastid
(4) None of the above

47)

Most common method of reproduction in bacteria is :-

(1) Conjugation
(2) Transformation
(3) Binary fission
(4) Transduction

48) "They often form bloom in polluted water bodies. The colonies surrounded by geletinous sheath"
This statement correct for :-

(1) Chara
(2) Nostoc
(3) Mycoplasm
(4) Methanogens

49) Linnaeus classified the plants on the basis of stamens. This classification is termed as :-
(A) Sexual classification
(B) Numerical classification
(C) Natural classification
(D) Artificial classification

(1) A and D
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) C and D

50) Which of the following is not true for a biological names ?

(1) They are standard and universal

(2) They are meaningful
(3) They have some information about organisms
(4) They have only one word.
51) Study the given diagram and mark the correct option :-

(1) F : Cell in this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate
(2) A : DNA replicates in nucleus and centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm
(3) D : Constitutes more than 95% duration of cell cycle
(4) C : Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication

52) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(I) S phase (i) Most of organelles duplication

(II) G1 phase (ii) Tubulin proteins are synthesised

(III) Anaphase (iii) DNA Replication

(IV) G2 phase (iv) Centromere split

(1) I-ii, II-iii, III-iv, IV-i
(2) I-i, II-iv, III-ii, IV-iii
(3) I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
(4) I-iii, II-ii, III-i, IV-iv

53) During different stages cell division, cells shows structured -----(A)---- in place of the nucleus.
Choose the correct option for A :-

(1) A – Decondense form of Chromatin

(2) A – Condense form of centromere
(3) A – Condense form of Chromatin
(4) A – Decondense form of Chromosome

54) Homologous chromosomes get separated but sister chromatids remain attached during:-

(1) Anaphase
(2) Anaphase II
(3) Metaphase I
(4) Anaphase I
55) "Chromosomes material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes". This statement
correct for :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

56) A cell has 2n = 42 chromosomes then what will be number of chromosome during metaphase :-

(1) 21
(2) 42
(3) 92
(4) 44

57) In a diploid cell before S-phase quantity of DNA is 20 pico gram (pg) after meiosis I what will be
the quantity of DNA in each daughter cell ?

(1) 10 pg
(2) 20 pg
(3) 5 pg
(4) 40 pg

58) Maximum cell organelles are synthesize in which phase of cell cycle ?

(1) G1
(2) S
(3) G2
(4) Prophase

59) If the cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G1, after S phase the number of
chromosomes in the cell will be :-

(1) 2n
(2) 4n
(3) n
(4) 3n

60) The most dramatic period of the cell cycle :-

(1) Interphase
(2) S-phase
(3) M-phase
(4) Cytokinesis

61) It is significant to note that in the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of human cell, cell
division proper lasts for only about

(1) four hours

(2) 90 minutes
(3) an hour
(4) 10 hours

62) The phase between two successive M-phase is called

(1) G1 phase only

(2) Interphase
(3) G0 phase only
(4) S-phase only

63) Shortest phase of mitosis is :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Telophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Metaphase

64) About 95% time of cell cycle is taken by :-

(1) G1 – phase
(2) S–phase
(3) M–phase
(4) Interphase

65) The phase of cell cycle which marks duplication of centriole in cytoplasm also shows :

(1) Splitting of centromeres

(2) Synthesis of tubulin protein
(3) Replication of DNA
(4) Disintegration of nuclear membrane

66)

How many of the following is observed in the interphase cytoplasm ?

Chromatid, Histone protein, Centriole, Nucleolus, Centromere, Kinetochore

(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Two

67) Nucleoprotein fibres called chromatin fibres can be observed in :-

(1) Interphase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Late prophase

68) The figures below shows 3 phases of mitosis select the option giving correct identification

together with the correct event ?

(1) C-Telophase-Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters.

(2) B-Anaphase-Segregation of homologous chromosomes.
(3) A-Prophase-Chromosomes get fully condensed.
(4) C-Metaphase-Condensation of chromatin to form chromosome.

69)

Choose the incorrect option for essentiality for the cell to divide by mitosis :
A – Usually results in the productions of cells with identical genetic complement
B – Growth of unicellular organisms is due to mitosis and forms genetically different cell
C – Restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
D – Cell repair

Options :
(1) A, C, D
(2) B, C
(3) Only C
(4) Only B

70) Movement of duplicated centrioles occurs towards opposite poles of the cell in :-

(1) G1 phase
(2) Prophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Metaphase

71) A cell has 40 chromatids at each pole in mitotic telophase. In this division the number of total
chromosomes at metaphase was :-

(1) 80
(2) 40
(3) 180
(4) 20

72) In which phase initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle takes place :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

73) Following are the events occurs during prophase-I :- (A) Appearance of chiasmata.
(B) Clear visible tetrad. (C) Pairing of homologous chromosomes.
(D) Breakdown of nuclear envelope. Choose the correct sequence of these events from the following
:-

(1) A → B → C → D
(2) C → B → A → D
(3) B → C → D → A
(4) D → C → B → A

74) Which of the following events take place during Zygotene of prophase I of meiosis ?

(1) Formation of synaptonemal complex

(2) Formation of recombination nodule
(3) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(4) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

75) The beginning of diplotene is recognised by :-

(1) Terminalisation of chiasmata

(2) Pairing of chromosome
(3) Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
(4) Formation of synaptonemal complex

76) Which one of the following stage is correctly described with its event ?

The bivalent chromosomes

(1) Anaphase I
align on the equatorial plate

Beginning of dissolution
(2) Diakinesis
of synaptonemal complex.

Chromosomes are
(3) Metaphase
arranged at middle of cell

Appearance of
(4) Zygotene
recombination nodule
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) If mitotically dividing vegetative cell of flowering plant at G1 stage has 20 chromosome with
20pg DNA then in anaphase cell will has :-

(1) 20 chromosomes/40pg DNA

(2) 40 chromosomes/40pg DNA
(3) 40 chromosomes/80pg DNA
(4) 10 chromosomes/40pg DNA

78) A root tip cells has 14 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will the cell have, after splitting of
centromere in mitotic anaphase ?

(1) 14
(2) 28
(3) 7
(4) 21

79) Which of the events listed below is not observed during mitosis :-

(1) Chromatin condensation

(2) Movement of chromosomes to pole
(3) Appearance of chromosomes with two chromatids jointed together at the centromere.
(4) Crossing over

80) Choose the correct option with respect to cytokinesis in plant :

(1) Cell plate method, Centrifugal

(2) Cell plate method, Centripetal
(3) Cell furrow method, Centrifugal
(4) Cell furrow method, Centripetal

81) Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blank space.
(A) __i __is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
(B) In Oocytes of some vertebrates, ___ii___ can last for months or years
(C) During anaphase the ___iii___ divide and __iv___ start moving toward the two opposite poles.
(D) In animal cells, during s-phase __v__ replication begins in the nucleus and the ___vi___ duplicates
in the cytoplasm.
Which of the following options, given the correct fills up for the respective blank number from (i) to
(vi) in the statement :-

(1) (i) Prophase (ii) centromere (vi) DNA

(2) (i) Telophase (v) Centriole (vi) DNA
(3) (ii) Diplotene (iv) Chromatids (vi) Centriole
(4) (i) Prophase (iv) Chromosome (v) Centromere
82) Synthesis of RNA & tubulin protein occur in :-

(1) Pre-mitotic gap phase

(2) Post-mitotic gap phase
(3) Synthesis phase
(4) M-phase

83) The number of chromosomes doubles in :

(1) Metaphase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Interphase

84) In the cell cycle, mitosis occurs between :-

(1) G1 and S phase

(2) S and G1 phase
(3) S and G2 phase
(4) G2 and G1 phase

85) Select the correct option with respect to mitosis :-

(1) Chromatids separate but remain in centre of cell in anaphase

(2) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase
(3) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase
(4) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase

86) In mitotic cell cycle, spindle fibres get attached to kinetochore discs of chromosomes at :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

87) Histon protein synthesis occurs in :-

(1) G1-phase
(2) S-phase
(3) M-phase
(4) None of these

88) Shape of chromosome is most easily studied at :-

(1) Anaphase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Prophase

89) Which of the following structure is not reformed during telophase stage ?

(1) Nucleolus, ER
(2) Golgi complex, ER
(3) Nuclear envelope
(4) Chromosome

90) Pairing of homologous chromosome known as -

(1) Chiasmata
(2) Crossing over
(3) Bivalent
(4) Synapsis
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 2 1 4 1 3 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 1 4 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 1 3 3 4 2 2 1 2 2 1 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 4 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 2 3 4 3 1 4 1 3 1 4 4 4 1 4 3 3 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 1 4 3 3 1 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 1 1 2 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 1 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 3 1 3 4 1 1 3 1 1 2 1 3 3 3 4 4 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 2 3 1 2 3 4 1 3 4 4 2 4 2 4 2 1 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 4 1 3 3 4 1 2 2 1 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 3 4 3 2 1 1 4 2 2 1 2 1 3 3 2 2 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 2 4 4 2 2 1 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

10) gives;
2 2 2
C = A + B + 2AB cosθ
But C2 = A2 + B2
∴ 2AB cos θ = 0

or cos θ = 0, θ =

11) Angle between forces = 120°

12) When the two forces of 12N and 8N act upon a body, the resultant force on the body has
maximum value when two forces are in the same direction so, resultant force
= 12N + 8N = 20N

14)

15) ∵

∵ θ < 90° so cosθ = +ve

So,

16)

19)
Also a2 = a1 = a
Therefore,
Hence, Δa =
=
= [2a2 (1–cosθ)]1/2 = 2a sin

21)
⇒

24)

25) The X component of force F is

The Y component of force F is

26)

cos ωt cos

⇒ ⇒

30) ⇒

34)
Unit vector in the direction of A will be

So required vector =
 35)

39) y = a + bt + ct2 – dt4

and
Hence, at t = 0, vinitial = b and ainitial = 2c.

40)

OA = 80 m, AB = 50 m
AC = 40 m
CB = 30 m
OC = OA – AC = 40 m

= 50 m

, 53° east of south

43)

44)

CHEMISTRY

46) Magnetic moment = B.M.

 n = no. of unpaired electrons
Check by option

47) 1- Question explanation: The question asks which two orbitals are located along the
axis, not between the axis. This refers to the orientation of orbitals in space, where certain
orbitals lie along specific axes (x, y, or z) while others lie between axes.
2- Given: We need to identify which two orbitals are aligned along the axis.
3- Concept: orbitals & their alignment
Explanation :-
• p-orbitals: There are three p-orbitals (px, py, pz), with each orbital aligned along one of the
axes (x, y, or z).
• d-orbitals: There are five d-orbitals (dxy, dxz, dyz, , ). The dxy, dxz, and dyz orbitals lie
between the axes, while and orbitals are aligned along the axes.
The pz orbital is aligned along the z-axis.
The orbital is aligned along the x and y axes.
5- Final answer: The two orbitals located along the axis are pz and .
Thus, the correct option is: Option 4: pz, .

48)

Conceptual

49) A: Question Explanation

Match quantum numbers with their properties.

B: Given Data

A. List - I: Quantum Numbers

A. (a) Principal quantum number
B. (b) Azimuthal quantum number
C. (c) Magnetic quantum number
D. (d) Spin quantum number
B. List - II: Properties
A. (i) Orientation of orbitals
B. (ii) Direction of spin of electron
C. (iii) Energy of electron
D. (iv) Shape of orbitals

C: Concept

A. Principal (n): Energy level

B. Azimuthal (l): Orbital shape
C. Magnetic (mℓ): Orbital orientation
D. Spin (ms): Electron spin

D: Mathematical Calculation
 No calculations needed.

E: Final Answer

The correct matching is:

A. a - iii
B. b - iv
C. c-i
D. d - ii

Therefore, the correct answer is option (3).

50)

s → 1s
p → 2p
d → 3d
f → 4f
g → 5g
h → 6h

51)

Schrodinger equation is written as,

In this equation, is a mathematical operator called Hamiltonian. It was introduced by
Schrodinger from the expression for the total energy of the system.

52) ψ310 = 3pz orbital

53)

NCERT, Pg # 51

54)

NCERT, Pg # 56

55)

NCERT, Pg # 56 (Fig. 2.16)

56)

Cl(Z = 17):
No.of electrons in p-subshell = 11
 57) All

58) s should be filled before p (Aufbau rule).

→ e– should be filled with same spin prior to pairing (Hund's rule).

59) No. of angular nodes

No. of radial nodes

60) No. of e– in an orbital = 2

61)

Vapour density is unit less quantity.

Vm at STP = 22.4 L

63)

64) A. Question Explanation:

The question involves a stoichiometry problem where we need to determine the limiting
reactant to calculate the maximum amount of product C that can be formed.

B. Given Data:

A. 20 moles of A
B. 14 moles of B
C. Reaction: A + 2B → 3C

C. Concept: Limiting Reagent (L.R.)

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Moles of B needed to react with 20 moles of A: From the balanced equation, 1 mole of A
reacts with 2 moles of B. So, 20 moles of A would require 20 moles A × (2 moles B / 1 mole A)
= 40 moles of B.
B. Moles of A needed to react with 14 moles of B: From the balanced equation, 2 moles of B
react with 1 mole of A. So, 14 moles of B would require 14 moles B × (1 mole A / 2 moles B) =
7 moles of A.
C. Identifying the Limiting Reactant: We have 20 moles of A, and we only need 7 to react
completely with all the available B. We have 14 moles of B, but we need 40 to react completely
with all the available A. Therefore, B is the limiting reactant
D. Calculating Moles of C: Since B is the limiting reactant, we use its moles to determine the
moles of C formed. From the balanced equation, 2 moles of B produce 3 moles of C. Therefore,
14 moles of B will produce 14 moles B × (3 moles C / 2 moles B) = 21 moles of C.

E. Final Answer:
The maximum number of moles of C that can be prepared is 21. So, the correct option is 4

65) ⇒ 2NA
= 2 × 6.022 × 1023
= 12.04 × 1023

66)

Volume of C3H8 = xL & volume of C4H10

= (3 – x) L
C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O
1L ———— 3L
xL ————3xL

C4H10 + → 4CO2 + 5H2O

1L ———— 4L
(3 – x)L ———— 4 × (3 – x)L
Volume of CO2 = 3x + 4(3 – x) = 10
3x – 4x + 12 = 10
x=2

67) Element % Mol Simple Ratio

x 75.8 75.8/24 = 3.11 2
y 24.2 24.2/16 = 1.5 1
Empirical Formula : x2y

68)
no. of atom = n × NA × atomicity
no. of atom = 0.1 × NA × 3 = 0.3 NA

69) (1) 1g of O = × NA atoms

(2) 1 g of O2 = × 2 NA atoms

(3) 1 g of O3 = × 3 NA atoms,
Hence all have the same no. of atoms

70)

Total number of atom

[4 atom are present as gas is tetraatomic].

71)

1 molecule CH4 = 16 amu

1 amu = (1.66 ×10–24g)
mass of 1 molecule of CH4 = 16×(1.66 × 10–24g)
= 2.66 × 10–23g

72)
nos. of atom = 0.1 × NA × 2
= 0.2 NA

74) Same mol has same no. of molecules

(i)

75)

Explanation:

2 mol of Al react with moles O2

Given Data:
9 gms of Al

Concept:

2Al + O2 —→ Al2O3
Calculation:

2 mol of Al = mol of O2

1 mol of Al = mol of O2

mol of Al = = mol of O2

mass of O2 = gm = 8 gm O2

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

76)

Solution/Explanation:
Molarity (m) is the number of moles of solute present in one liter (ℓ) of solution.
Given Data:
V of Solution = 1ℓ = 1000 ml
8 gm NaOH
molar mass of NaOH = 40

Concept:

W1 → W of solute in gm
M1 → molar mass of solute
V → Volume of solution (in mℓ)

Calculation:

M=

M= M = 0.2 M

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

77)

Concept:

M=

Solution/Explanation:
Molarity (M) is the number of moles of solute present in one liter (ℓ) of solution.

Given Data:
M = 0.1 M (H2SO4)
V = 1ℓ = 1000 ml
W1 = ?
M1 = 98 (MM of H2SO4)

Calculation

0.1 =
W1 = 9.8 gm

Concept:

M=

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

78)
Based on C12 isotope

79)

Gram atomic weight of ‘O’

1 mol ‘O’ mass = 16g

80)

mole =

Vapour density =

81)

C → 80% H → 20% V. D. = 30

M w = 2 × VD
6.66 20 = 2 × 30 = 60
Empirical formula of compound- CH3

82)

T = 0°C, P = 760 mm = 1 atm

⇒ STP condition
V = 22.4 cc = 22.4 mL.

nos of molecules = n × NA = 10–3 NA

83)

let the mass be x

1 : 16 : 2

84)

NH3(g)+HCl(g) —→ NH4Cl(s)
LR —→ NH3
20cc NH3 will react with 20cc HCl
∴ Vol. of HCl left = 40 – 20 = 20 cc
 85)

86)
no. of O atoms = 0.1 × NA × 2 = 0.2 NA
= 1.2 × 1023

87)

1 mol CH4 contains

4 × NA atom of H ⇒ 4 × 6.02 × 1023
= 24.08 × 1023
4 g atom i.e. 4 mol atom of Hydrogen

88) Number of moles

In 1 atom

89) Avogadro’s law Equal volume of all gases at same temp. & pressure contain same
number of molecules.

90)

Fact.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT, Pg. # 6

92)

NCERT, Pg. # 2

93) NCERT, Pg. # 5

94)
 The correct answer is 1. A-is incorrect and B-is correct.
Explanation:

A. Statement A is incorrect because in biological nomenclature, the first word (genus) should
always start with a capital letter, and the second word (species) should start with a lowercase
letter. For example, Homo sapiens.
B. Statement B is correct. Biological names are indeed printed in italics (or underlined when
handwritten) to distinguish them from other text.

97)
The Correct answer is: 1.
DCEBA

A. Family Solanaceae

B. Kingdom Plantae

C. Order Polymoniales

D. Species Solanum tuberosum

E. Genus Solanum

103) NCERT Page no. 14

104)

NCERT Page 13.

105) NCERT Page no. 3

Archaebacteria are called false bacteria.

112) The colonies are generally surrounded by gelatinous sheath. They often form blooms in
polluted water bodies. Some of these organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen
in specialised cells called heterocysts, e.g., Nostoc and Anabaena.

116) NCERT Pg. # 18

117)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 128, 129

120) NCERT XI Pg. # 20

122)
 NCERT Based.

123)

Explanation :
Gram-Positive Bacteria → Thick peptidoglycan layer with teichoic acids, no outer membrane,
retains crystal violet (stains purple).

Gram-Negative Bacteria → Thin peptidoglycan layer, outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides

(LPS),retains safranin (stains pink).

The correct answer is option 2: Cell wall

125)

NCERT XI, Page # 128

127)

NCERT XI, Page No. # 19

129) NCERT-XI, Pg # 11

130) Module-1, NCERT pg.#17

132) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 19

134) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 02

138) NCERT Pg. # 19, Para-2.1.2

141) NCERT XI pg.# 163

142) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 163,164

144) NCERT XI Pg.#163 Fig#10.1

145) NCERT (XI) Pg # 164

146) Explanation -

A. During Metaphase in mitosis, the chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the cell. The
number of chromosomes remains the same as in the original cell.
 B. Given that the cell has 2n = 42 chromosomes, during Metaphase, it will still have 42
chromosomes.

Correct Answer: 2. 42

147)

148)

The synthesis of cell organelles primarily occurs in the G1 phase of the cell cycle.
• G1 phase (Gap 1 phase): The cell grows in size and actively synthesizes proteins, enzymes,
and most organelles required for the next phases. This is the main phase for organelle
biosynthesis.
Final Answer:
Option 1: G1 phase.

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NCERT Pg. # 165

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Pg. No. 95 & 96 - XI NCERT

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162) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 164, IInd last line form bottom.

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NCERT (XI) Pg # 168

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Explanation -

In G₁ phase, the cell has 20 chromosomes and 20 pg DNA.

A. During S phase, DNA replication occurs, doubling the DNA content to 40 pg, but the
chromosome number remains 20 (each chromosome now has two sister chromatids).

B. In anaphase, the sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles, making them
individual chromosomes.

So, in an anaphase cell, there are 40 chromosomes (as chromatids are now considered separate
chromosomes) and 40 pg DNA (since no DNA replication occurs during mitosis).

Correct answer: 2. 40 chromosomes / 40 pg DNA

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NCERT Pg. No. # 123

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Module-1, XI pg.# 215

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NCERT XI, Pg # 163, 164, 165, 166, 168

172) Explanation

A. RNA Synthesis: RNA is synthesized throughout interphase (G1, S, and G2 phases) as it's
needed for various cellular processes like protein synthesis, including the proteins
needed for cell division.

Tubulin Protein Synthesis: Tubulin is the protein that forms microtubules, which are crucial for
the mitotic spindle during cell division (M phase). Tubulin synthesis mainly occurs during the
G2 phase (pre-mitotic gap phase), as the cell prepares for mitosis.

Correct answer:1. Pre-mitotic gap phase (G1 phase)

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NCERT, Pg. # 124

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NCERT-XI, Pg. # 122, 123, 124

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