16-06-2024

2404CMD303032240001 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1)

(1) 2x + 5
(2) 4x + 3
(3) 2x - 2
(4) 2x2 + 3

2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

3) Find the angle θ between hour hand and minute hand for the following time 9:30

(1) 105o
(2) 115o
(3) 125o
(4) 127o

4)
(1) 150
(2) 250
(3) 350
(4) 450

5) Find θ for which sinθ = cosθ, if 180° < θ < 360º

(1) 135°
(2) 315°
(3) 225°
(4) 150°

6) Graph of equation

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) If then equals:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
8) The roots of equation is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Find first derivative of y

y = x2 + x + 8

(1) x3 + x2
(2) 2x + 1
(3) 0

(4)

10) Magnitude of slope of the shown graph.

(1) First increases then decreases

(2) Increases
(3) Decreases
(4) First decreases then increases

11)

Find value of H? If AC = m.

(1) 30 m
(2) 10 m

(3)

(4) 60 m
12) The value of is –

(1) 156
(2) 150
(3) 144
(4) 54

13) Maximum value of y = 3 – 2 sin θ is :

(1) 1
(2) – 5
(3) – 1
(4) 5

14)
Equation of the line shown in figure is :

(1) y = x +
(2) y = x + 3
(3) y = x+3
(4) y=x+3

15) Radian measure corresponding to 300° is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

16) is equal to -

(1) x2 + C
(2) x + C

(3)
(4)

17) If 6cosθ + 8sinθ = R sin (θ + α) then value of R and α are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Value of sin 22.5° is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Select the graph of a function :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

20) Differential of cos with respect to x is

(1) – sin

(2)
– sin

(3) – sin

(4)
– sin

21) Differentiation of 2x3 - ex w.r.t x

(1) 2x3
(2) x3
(3) 6x2 - ex
(4) None

22) is equal to -

(1)
– 4 sin t + +C
2
(2) – 4 sin t + t + C

(3)
4 sin t + +C
3
(4) 4 sin t + 2t + C

23)

(1)

(2)

(3) cot x
(4)

24) If θ1 + θ2 = and θ1 = 2θ2, then value of is :

(1)

(2) 1

(3)

(4) 2

25) The side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.2 cm/s. The rate of increase of perimeter w.r.t
time is

(1) 0.2 cm/s

(2) 0.4 cm/s
(3) 0.6 cm/s
(4) 0.8 cm/s

26)

(1) e2 + c

(2)

(3) e2.x + c
(4) Zero

27)

The slope of graph for the equation y = 4x2 at point P is :

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 32
(4) 16

28) Find = :-

(1)
4x2 + 5x + +c
2
(2) 2x + 6 + 6 logx + c
(3) 2x2 + 5x + 6 logx + c
(4) 2x2 + 5 + 6x–2 + c
29) Value of cos215° – sin215° is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The greatest value of the function –5 sinθ + 12 cosθ is

(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 7
(4) 17

31) Take & . Find log 12

(1) 0.8
(2) 1.1
(3) 2.1
(4) 0

32)

Maximum value of y when y = 100 – x2 + 2x

(1) 100
(2) 99
(3) 101
(4) 102

33) Two particles A and B are moving in xy-plane. Their positions vary with time t according
to relation :
xA (t) = 3t, xB (t) = 6
yA (t) = t, yB (t) = 2 + 3t2
Distance between two particles at t = 2 is :

(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 5
(4)

34) Which is correct in the following :

 sin 300° =
(1)

(2) tan (180° + θ) = – tanθ

(3) cos (270° – θ) = – sinθ
(4) All are correct

35) =..........:-

(1) 9
(2) 3

(3)

(4) 0

SECTION - B

1)

Calculate slope of shown line

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Correct graph of 3x + 4y + 1 = 0 is -

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) . dθ =

(1)
(2) 0

(3)

(4) 1

4) What will be value of

(1)

(2)

(3) 4x log(4x + 5) + c
(4) 4 e4x + 5 + c

5) If y = 3x2 – 2x then find the slope at (x = 2, y = 8) :

(1) 10
(2) 8
(3) 22
(4) 4

6) If mA, mB and mC are the magnitude of slopes at points A, B and C respectively in the figure shown
then

(1) mA > mB > mC

(2) mA = mB = mC
(3) mA = mC < mB
(4) mA < mB < mC

7)

(1) e1
0
(2) e
(3) zero
(4) None of these

8) If the equation for graph shown in figure is y = aex, then value of a is :-

(1) –5
(2) 5
(3) 1
(4) cannot be determined

9) If angle between and is 30°, then find out the angle between and .

(1) 180°
(2) 150°
(3) 90°
(4) 30°

10) The magnitude of a vector cannot be :-

(1) Positive
(2) Unity
(3) Negative
(4) Zero

11) If is the unit vector in direction of , then is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Find angle between :-

(1) 53º
(2) 143º
(3) 37º
(4) 90º

13) Statement 1 : Any two vectors and , representing any two physical quantities, may be added
using the triangle law.
Statement 2 : Vector, by definition, obey the triangle law of addition.

Statement–1 is True, Statement–2 is True ; Statement–2 is a correct explanation for

(1)
Statement–1.
Statement–1 is True, Statement–2 is True ; Statement–2 is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement–1.
(3) Statement–1 is True, Statement–2 is False.
(4) Statement–1 is False, Statement–2 is True.

14) To convert a vector to it's negative vector, we rotate it by an angle of :-

(1) 90°
(2) 360°
(3) 270°
(4) 180°

15) The sum of magnitudes of two forces acting at a point is 16 N. If their resultant is normal to the
smaller force and has a magnitude of 8 N. Then the forces are

(1) 6N, 10N

(2) 8N, 8N
(3) 4N, 12N
(4) 2N, 14N

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1)

Find relation between molecules.

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Position isomer
(3) Metamer
(4) Functional group isomer

2) & are :-

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Functional group isomers
(3) Position isomers
(4) 2 & 3 both

3) Which is ring chain isomer ?

(1)
,

(2)
,
(3)

(4)

4)

(1) Metamers
(2) Chain isomers
(3) Identical
(4) Functional isomers

5) Which is the ring chain isomer of ?

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2

(4)

6) and are :

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Metamer
(3) Ring chain isomer
(4) Tautomer

7)
(1) chain isomers.
(2) functional isomers.
(3) position isomers.
(4) not isomers.

8) IUPAC Name of is :-

(1) 6–Bromo-3-Chloro–4–methyl cyclohex-1-ene

(2) 3–Bromo-6-Chloro–5–methyl cyclohex-1-ene
(3) 1–Bromo-4-Chloro–5–methyl cyclohex-2-ene
(4) 5–Bromo-2-Chloro–1–methyl cyclohex-3-ene

9) How many functional groups are present in given compound :-

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

10) Which statement is incorrect for

(1) IUPAC name is propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile

(2) Carbon is sp3 and sp hybridised
(3) Five 2° hydrogen atoms are present
(4) All nitrogen atoms are sp hybridised

11) The IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitro benzene

(2) 4-methyl-5-chloro nitro benzene
(3) 1-chloro-2-methyl-5-nitro benzene
(4) 1-chloro-6-methyl-3-nitro benzene

12) The ratio of 2°C carbon & 3°carbon of the following compound is -

(1) 5 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 4 : 3

13) Systematic name of

(1) 2–sulpho–6–formyl cyclohexane carboxlic acid

(2) 2–formyl–6–sulpho cyclohexane carboxylic acid
(3) 3–formyl–2–carboxy cyclohexane sulphonic acid
(4) Sulphanitic acid

14)

(1) 2-Amino pent-4-enoic acid

(2) 3-Amino pent-4-enoic acid
(3) 3-Amino pent-3-enoic acid
(4) 2-Amino pentanoic acid

15) IUPAC name is.

(1) 2-methyl-cyclopentane-1-oic acid

(2) 2-methyl-cyclopentane-1-carboxylic acid
(3) 1-carboxy-2-methyl cyclopentane
(4) None of these

16) The IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 3-Ethyl-1-cyclobuten-2-ol
(2) 4-Ethyl-2-cyclobuten-1-ol
(3) 2-Ethyl-3-cyclobuten-1-ol
(4) 4-Ethyl-1-cyclobuten-3-ol

17)

Number of σ and π – bonds respectively in-

(1) 18,5
(2) 11,5
(3) 19,5
(4) 21,5

18) The correct IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 1–methyl–3–nitrocyclohexene
(2) 3–methyl–1–nitro cyclohex–2–ene
(3) 2–methyl–6–nitro cyclohexene
(4) 1–methyl–5–nitro cyclohexene

19) Third homologous member of alkenyne is :-

(1) CH2=CH–C≡CH
(2) CH2=CH–CH2–C≡CH
(3) CH2=CH–(CH2)2–C≡CH
(4) CH2=CH–(CH2)3–C≡CH

20) Which match is correct :

(1)

Heterocyclic saturated

(2)

Heterocyclic unsaturated
(3)

Heterocyclic unsaturated

(4)
Heterocyclic saturated

21) Which of the following is tertiary halide ?

(1) CH3CH2Cl

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The IUPAC name of given compound is :

(1) 2-Bromo-1-methyl cyclohexene

(2) 6-Bromo-1-methyl cyclohexene
(3) 1-Bromo-2-methyl cyclohexene
(4) 1-Bromo-2-methyl cyclohex-2-ene

23) The IUPAC name of is-

(1) 3-methyl cyclohexene

(2) 1-methyl cyclohex-2-ene
(3) 6-methyl cyclohexene
(4) 1-methyl cyclohex-5-ene

24) The correct IUPAC name of the compount is :

(1) 3-Cyano cyclo hex-5-encarbaldehyde

(2) 5-Cyano cyclo hex-3-encarbaldehyde
(3) 3-Formyl cyclo hex-5-encarbonitrile
(4) 5-Formyl cyclo hex-2-encarbonitrile

25)

The correct IUPAC name of :-

is
(1) 2-Methyl propenoic acid
(2) 2-Ethylprop-2-enoic acid
(3) 2-Carboxy-1-butene
(4) None of these

26) Which of the following sec-butyl radical is :-

(1)

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–

(3)

(4)

27) What is correct sequence for deciding parent chain in organic compound according to IUPAC

(1) Principal functional group (PFG) > Multiple bond (MB) > Substituents > Number of carbon
(2) PFG > MB > number of carbon > Substituencts
(3) Number of carbon > PFG > MB > Substituents
(4) PFG > Number of carbon > MB > Substituents
28) The IUPAC name of the compound is

(1) 1,2,3-Tri hydroxy propane

(2) 3-Hydroxy pentane-1,5-diol
(3) 1,2,3-Hydroxy propane
(4) Propane-1,2,3-triol

29) The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(1) 1-ethyl-2, 2-dimethylcyclohexane

(2) 2, 2-dimethyl-1-ethylcyclohexane
(3) 1, 1-dimethyl-1-ethylcyclohexane
(4) 2-ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane

30) The correct common name of

will be :-

(1) Ethyl propanoate

(2) Vinyl propanoate
(3) Vinyl propionate
(4) Allyl propionate

31)
Functional group present in above compound are :-

(1) Alcohol, aldehyde, Thioalcohol, Amine

(2) Alcohol, Carboxylic acid, Thioalcohol, Amine
(3) Amine, Phenol, Thioalcohol, Carboxylic acid
(4) Amine, Ester, Carboxylic acid, Thioalcohol

32) show isomerism –

(1) Chain
(2) Position
(3) Functional
(4) None of these

33) Structures CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2 and are

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Not isomers

34) Compound containing which of the following group can not show metamerism :-

(1) –NH–
(2) –O–

(3)

(4)

35) The minimum number of carbon atoms in ketone to show metamerism :–

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

SECTION - B

1)
Relations between (A) and (B) is:

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Positional isomer
(3) Functional isomer
(4) Metamers

2) In following
positional isomer's are :-

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) All of these

3) The IUPAC name of compound is

(1) 5-Ethyl-3,3-dimethyl cyclohexene

(2) 4-Ethyl-5,5-dimethyl cyclohex -2-ene
(3) 3-Ethyl-5,5-dimethyl cyclohex-6-ene
(4) 6-Ethyl-4,4-dimethyl cyclohexene

4) The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compounds in the
IUPAC system of nomenclature is

(1) –SO3H, –COCl, –CONH2, –CHO

(2) –CHO, –COCl, –SO3H, –CONH2
(3) –CONH2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COCl
(4) –COCl, –SO3H, –CONH2, –CHO

5) Number of 1°, 2° and 3° H in isooctane :

(1) 13, 3, 2
(2) 15, 2, 1
(3) 12, 5, 1
(4) 9, 5, 1

6) Common name of given compound is :-

(1) Neobutyl alcohol
(2) Isobutyl alcohol
(3) Tertiary butyl alcohol
(4) Secondary butyl alcohol

7) Correct IUPAC name of :-

(1) 2-Amino-6-hydroxy cyclohexanecarboxylic acid

(2) 6-Amino-2-hydroxy cyclohexanoic acid
(3) 2-hydroxy-6-Amino cyclohexanoic acid
(4) 2-Amino-6-hydroxy cyclohexanoic acid

8) Which of the following is not heterocyclic compound?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Which of the following compound is 3° amine:-

(1) CH3–CH2–NH2

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3–NH–CH3
10)

Number of 1°, 2°, 3° hydrogen in following compound :-

(1) 12, 2, 1
(2) 15, 3, 1
(3) 15, 2, 1
(4) 12, 6,2

11) Homologous series has :-

(1) same I.U.P.A.C. name

(2) same functional group
(3) same boiling point
(4) same number of carbons

12) IUPAC name of the given compound is :

(1) 3-methylcyclohexene
(2) 1-methylcyclohex-2-ene
(3) 6-methylcyclohexene
(4) 1-methylcyclohex-5-ene

13) The IUPAC name of the compound given below is

(1) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-hydroxy cyclohexane

(2) 1, 1-dimethyl-3-hydroxy cyclohexane
(3) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-cyclohexanol
(4) 1, 1-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol

14) In the hydrocarbon

The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence

(1) sp, sp2, sp3

(2) sp3, sp2, sp
(3) sp2, sp, sp3
(4) sp, sp3, sp2

15) Number of 1o, 2o, 3o and 4o C present in compound are respectively

(1) 7, 4, 5 and 1
(2) 7, 3, 4 and 1
(3) 7, 3, 5 and 1
(4) 7, 4, 4 and 1

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) A few ions or molecules are transported across the membrane against their concentration
gradient such a transport is an energy dependent process and is called :-

(1) Osmosis
(2) Active transport
(3) Simple diffusion
(4) Facilitated diffusion

2) Identify structure A,B,C and D in given diagram :-

A B C D

Peripheral Central Radial Central

(1)
microtubule sheath spoke microtubule
 Interdoublet Central Central Central
(2)
bridge microtubule sheath bridge

Interdoublet Central Radial Central

(3)
bridge sheath spoke microtubule

Interdoublet Radial Central Central

(4)
bridge spoke sheath microtubule
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) The isolated lysosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in enzymes like :-

(1) Lipases, proteases and translocases

(2) Translocases and nucleases
(3) Carbohydrases, lipases and DNA ligases
(4) Lipases, proteases and carbohydrases

4) Which pair is correct for diagram ?

Diagram is Involve in

1 Nuclear membrane DNA Synthesis

2 E.R. Steroid Synthesis

3 Golgi complex Glycoprotein formation

4 E.R. Protein synthesis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) (A) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.

(B) Cell is the fundamental structure and functional unit of all organism.
(C) All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
(D) The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in all type of cells.
Option :-

(1) Statement A, C and D are wrong.

(2) Statement A, B and D are not correct.
(3) Statement A, B, C, D are correct
(4) Statement B, C and D are not correct

6) Which of the following is correct regarding the structure of a section of cilia and flagella.

Peripheral Central
Radial Central
microtubules microtubules
spoke sheath
doublets singlets

(1) 9+0 2 8 1

(2) 9+2 9+0 9 1

(3) 9 2 9 1

(4) 3 6 9 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Enzymes for synthesis of protein and carbohydrates are present in :-

(1) Matrix of mitochondria

(2) Nucleoplasm of nucleus
(3) Stroma of chloroplast
(4) Grana of chloroplast

8) Which of the following not found in chloroplast?

(1) Ds, circular DNA

(2) Thylakoids
(3) 80 - S Ribosome
(4) Chlorophyll

9) Find unmatched w.r.t. shapes of cells

(1) Nerve cell - Unbranched and long

(2) A tracheid - elongated
(3) Mesophyll cell - round and oval
(4) RBCs - round and biconcave

10) The lipid component of cell membrane mainly consists of :-

(1) Phosphoglycerides
(2) Cholesterol
(3) Glycolipid
(4) Sphingolipid

11) Term ‘Chromatin’ was coined by

(1) Robert Brown

(2) Flemming
(3) Hofmeister
(4) Waldeyer

12) Which of the following statement is not true for plasma membrane ?

(1) Lipid components of the membrane mainly consists of Phosphoglycerides

(2) Integral proteins lie on the surface of membrane
Polar head of phospholipid are toward the outer sides and the hydrophobic tail are toward the
(3)
inner part.
(4) Carbohydrate of plasma membrane are involves in cell to cell recognition mechanism.

13) The complete disintegration of nuclear envelope marks the start of the which stage of mitosis,
hence the chromosomes are spread through the cytoplasm of cell.

(1) Prophase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Interphase

14) Which of the cell organelle is involved in formation of glycolipids ?

(1) Vacuole
(2) Peroxysomes
(3) Golgi apparatus
(4) Lysosomes

15) Identify the following A, B, C, D and choose correct option :

(1) A-Red blood cell, B-White blood cell, C-Mesophyll cells, D-Columnar epithelium
(2) A-White blood cell, B-Red blood cell, C-Columnar epithelium, D-Mesophyll cells
(3) A-Columnar epithelium, B-Mesophyll cells, C-Red blood cell, D-White blood cell
(4) A-Red blood cell, B-White blood cell, C-Columnar epithelium, D-Mesophyll cells

16) Assertion : The chromosomes can be classified into four types, metacentric, sub-metacentric,
acrocentric and telocentric.
Reason : The chromosomes are classified on the basis of the position of the centromere.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) Statement-I :- Unicellular organisms are capable of performing the essential functions of life.
Statement-II :- Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent
living.

(1) Only Statement-I is correct

(2) Only Statement-II is correct
(3) Statement-I and II both are correct
(4) Statement-I and II both are incorrect

18) Which of the following is not a function of cell wall?

(1) Protection of cell from infection.

(2) Provides shape to the cell.
(3) Cell to cell interaction.
(4) Provides barrier to desirable macromolecules.
19) Network of filamentous proteinaceous structure provide mechanical support, motility and
maintain the shape of cell is known as :

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Cytoskeleton
(3) Cilia
(4) Centriole

20) Which of the following statement is incorrect for mitochondria?

(1) Oxysomes are present in outer membrane

(2) The cristae increase the surface area
(3) The mitochondria divide by fission
(4) Inner compartment of mitochondria is termed as matrix

21) Contractile vacuole is found in -

(1) Plant cell

(2) Bacterial cell
(3) Amoeba
(4) Mycoplasma

22) Algae have cell wall made up of:

(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pactins

(2) Cellulose, galactans and mannans and CaCO3
(3) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
(4) Pectins, cellulose and proteins

23) Membrane less cell organelle usually present in animal cell and associated with cell division is :

(1) Ribosome
(2) Centrosome
(3) Nucleolus
(4) All of the above

24) Identify the following :

(1) A-Telocentric, B-Metacentric, C-Acrocentric, D-Sub-metacentric

(2) A-Telocentric, B-Acrocentric, C-Sub-metacentric, D-Metacentric
(3) A-Telocentric, B-Metacentric, C-Sub-metacentric, D-Acrocentric
(4) A-Metacentric, B-Telocentric, C-Acrocentric, D-Sub-metacentric

25) Which of the following statement is not correct : (Replica of Q.123)

(1) Lysosome are single membrane bound structure

(2) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in golgi apparatus
(3) Enzymes of lysosome are active at basic pH
(4) Enzymes of lysosomes are commonly called hydrolases

26) The usual axonemal arrangement of microtubules is :-

(1) 9 pairs of doublets radially arranged at periphery without centrally located microtubules
(2) 9 pairs of doublets radially arranged at periphery with a single centrally located microtubules
(3) 9 pairs of doublets radially arranged at periphery with a pair of centrally located microtubules
(4) 9 pairs of triplet radially arranged at periphery with a two centrally located microtubules

27) Formation and disolution of synaptonemal complex occurs in :

(1) Laptotene and diplotene respectively

(2) Zygotene and diplotene respectively
(3) Zygotene and diakinesis respectively
(4) Zygotene and anaphase respectively

28) Which of the following is not phases of interphase?

(1) G1-phase
(2) Telophase
(3) G2-phase
(4) S-phase

29) Following diagrames A and B showing the phases of cell division :

Choose the correct option from the following regarding identification of above diagrams :-

(1) A = Metaphase-I, B = Anaphase-I

(2) A = Metaphase-I, B = Anaphase-II
(3) A = Metaphase-II, B = Anaphase-II
(4) A = Metaphase-II, B = Anaphase-I

30) Find out the type of division the above stages shows and name of the stages ?

(1) Mitosis and a-Telophase ; b-Anaphase

(2) Meiosis and a-Prophase-I ; b-Metaphase-II
(3) Mitosis and a-Prophase ; b-Metaphase
(4) Mitosis and a-Metaphase ; b-Anaphase

31) In which of the following phase disjnunction of homologous chromosomes takes place ?

(1) Metaphase-I
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-II
(4) Telophase

32) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication is :-

(1) G1-phase
(2) S-phase
(3) G2-phase
(4) M-phase

33) Complete disintegration of nuclear membrane marks the end of :

(1) Metaphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) S-phase

34) Match the events of prophase-I given in column-I with substages of prophase-I given in column-II
and select the correct option from options given below :

Column-I Column-II
(Events of (Sub stage of
prophase-I) prophase-I)

Initiation of
(A)
condensation of (P) Pachytene
chromatin

(B)
Chiasma formation (Q) Dikinesis

(C)
Crossing over (R) Laptotene

(D) Terminalisation
(S) Diplotene
of chiasmata

Pairing of
(E)
homologous (T) Zygotene
chromosome
A B C D E
(1)
T S P Q R
A B C D E
(2)
P Q R S T
 A B C D E
(3)
S R P Q T
A B C D E
(4)
R S P Q T

35) Arrange the different stages of meiosis (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) in sequence :-

(1) (i) → (iv) → (ii) → (iii)

(2) (iii) → (iv) → (ii) → (i)
(3) (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)
(4) (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (iv)

SECTION - B

1) Which one is the correct sequence of a cell cycle:

(1) M → G2 → S → G1
(2) S → G2 → G1 → M
(3) G1 → S → G2 → M
(4) G1 → G2 → S → M

2) Which phase of meiosis is responsible for increase the genetic variability in the population of
organisms :-

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Diplotene

3) A stage of cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification
of the stage with its characteristics :
 Homologous
(1) Metaphase chromosome separate
from each other

Chromosomes
(2) Anaphase
moves opposite pole

Chromatids
of chromosomes
(3) Metaphase-I
separate from each
other

Bivalent arrange
(4) Metaphase-I on equator of cell to
form metaphase plate
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Pairing homologous chromosome is occur in :–

(1) Pachytene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

5) A stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram. Select the correct option regarding this stage :

(1) Telophase : Chrosmosomes reach their respective poles

(2) Anaphase : Chromatids move towards the pole
(3) Metaphase : Chromosomes aligned at the equator
(4) Prophase : Nuclear membrane disappears
6) Crossing over does not involve:

(1) Exchange of genetic material

(2) Exchange of DNA segments of sister chromatids
(3) Activity of recombinase enzyme
(4) Formation of recombination nodule

7) Recombinase enzyme is functional in____:

(1) Leptoene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

8) If at the end of mitosis a cell has 12 chromosomes, then how many chromosomes will be their in S
phase?

(1) 12
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) Cannot be predicted

9) Correct sequence of substage of prophase I is:

(1) Leptotene – Pachytene – Zygotene – Diplotene – Diakinesis

(2) Leptotene – Zygotene – Pachytene – Diplotene – Diakinesis
(3) Leptotene – Zygotene – Diplotene – Pachytnee – Diakinesis
(4) Leptotene – Pachytene – Zygotene – Diakinesis – Diplotene

10) Match the following:

Column-I Column-II
Initiation of condensation
a. Metaphase i.
of chromosomal material
Nuclear envelope
b. Interphase ii. assembles around the
chromosomes clusters
Chromosomes arranged
c. Telophase iii.
at equatorial plate
The phase between two
d. Prophase iv.
successive M-phase
(1) a-i; b-ii; c-iii; d-iv
(2) a-iv; b-i; c-ii; d-iii
(3) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii
(4) a-iii; b-iv; c-ii; d-i

11) Electron microscopic view of which stage of prophase-I will show clear tetrad:
(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Diplotene

12) Mitotic cell division occur in:

(1) Diploid somatic cells in animals

(2) Haploid cell in plant
(3) Diploid cell in plant
(4) All of the above

13) How many statements are correct?

(i) Spindle fibres attached to secondary constriction.
(ii) Sub-metacentric chromosome has middle centromere forming two equal arms of the
chromosome.
(iii) During different stages of cell division, cells show structured chromatin in place of the nucleus.
(iv) A single human cell has approximately two metre long thread of DNA distributed among its forty
six chromosomes.

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) All

14) Which type of cell division ensure the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually
reproducing organism and which process restore the diploid phase respectively?

(1) Mitosis, fertilisation

(2) Meiosis, mitosis
(3) Meiosis first, meiosis 2nd
(4) Meiosis, fertilisation

15) Which events is not related with meiosis I:

(1) Segregation of homologous chromosomes

(2) Crossing over between non sister chromatids
(3) Separation of sister chromatids
(4) Condensation of chromatin

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) An example of brown fat is :

(1) Hump of camel
(2) Tail of Marino sheep
(3) In new born baby
(4) Blubber of whale

2) Read the following statements.

(i) Goblet cells are multicellular glands.
(ii) Compound squamous epithelium occurs in stomach, intestine and trachea.
(iii) Simple epithelium is made of single layer of cells.
(iv) Ciliated epithelium occurs in fallopian tubes and bronchioles.
(v) Tight junction helps to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Five

3) Non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium occurs in

(1) Vagina, cervix and sweat gland ducts

(2) Vagina, skin, nails
(3) Skin and nails
(4) Vagina, cervix, buccal cavity

4) Which is the thinest epithelial tissue ?

(1) Stratified
(2) Compound
(3) Transitional
(4) Simple Squamous

5) Mark correct statements?

(A) Tight junction facilitate to communicate cells with each other
(B) Columnar cells are found in the lining of stomach
(C) Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles
(D) Compound epithelium has limited role in secretion.

(1) A, C, D
(2) A, B
(3) B, C, D
(4) B, D

6) Assertion : All cells in epithelium are compactly held together with little intercellular matrix.
Reason : Specialised junctions are more common between individual cells of epithelium to provide
both structural and functional links.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) incorrect.

7) Identify the correct feature with respect to diagram

(1) (a) is multicellular and (b) is unicellular glandular epithelium

(2) The secretion of (b) is always poured into blood
(3) An example of (a) is mammary gland
(4) An example of (b) is salivary gland

8) When two or more organs perform a common function by their physical and chemical interaction,
they form:

(1) Body system

(2) Organ system
(3) Tissue system
(4) None

9) Which of the following is the secretion of unicellular gland?

(1) Milk
(2) Ear wax
(3) Mucus
(4) Saliva

10) In the following figure of loose connective tissue

Which of the following labelled cells can release heparin and histamine?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

11) Single layer of flattened cells is observed in all of the following except :

(1) Blood vessels

(2) Mesothelium
(3) Urinary bladder
(4) Podocyte

12) Tendon, which attach one bone to muscle are made up of :-

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

13) Read the following (A-D) statements :-

(A) Connective tissue are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex organism.
(B) Connective tissue helps in linking and supporting other tissue or organs in of the body.
(C) Adipose tissue is a type of dense connective tissue.
(D) Connective tissue does not secrete its matrix.
Choose the incorrect statements is :

(1) A, C & D
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) Only D

14) Read the following tissue is present beneath the skin and often serves as a support frame work
for epithelium.

(1) Dense irregular tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular tissue
(4) Areolar tissue

15) Assertion : Simple cuboidal epithelium over foetal ovary is also called as germinal epithelium
Reason : Cuboidal cells of gonads forms gametes.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

16) Pubic symphysis is an example of :-

(1) Elastic cartilage

(2) Hyaline cartilage
(3) Calcified cartilage
(4) White fibrous cartilage

17) Intervertebral disc which acts as a shock absorber, is formed by which type of connective tissue?

(1) White fibrous cartilage

(2) Elastic cartilage
(3) Hyaline cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage

18) Match the following and choose the correct option–

(A) Adipose tissue (i) Nose

(B) Stratified epithelium (ii) Blood

(C) Hyaline cartilage (iii) Skin

Fat
(D) Fluid connective tissue (iv)
storage
(1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
(2) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
(3) A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
(4) A–ii, B–iv, C–iii, D–i

19) Choose the correct match :-

(a) Macrophage → scavanger cell
(b) Mast cell → Undifferentiate cell
(c) Plasma cell → Antibody
(d) Chondroclast → destroying cells of bone

(1) a & d
(2) b & d
(3) b & c
(4) a & c

20) Among the following, which secretion is indirectly poured into blood ?

(1) Sweat
(2) Sebum
(3) Insulin
(4) Saliva

21) Assertion : The ground substance of bones is rich in Ca salts and collagen fibres.
Reason : These substance make bone hard, non pliable and give strength to the bone.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) Given figures (I and II) show two specialised connective tissues. Identify the figures I, II and the

parts labelled as A and B.

I II A B

(1) Cartilage Bone Collagen fibres Chondrocyte

(2) Cartilage Bone Collagen fibres Chondroclast

(3) Bone Cartilage Microtubules Osteoblast

(4) Bone Cartilage Collagen fibres Osteoblast

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Growth of bones :

(1) unidirectional
(2) Bidirectional
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Multidirectional

24) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Cartilage = found in fore limbs and hind limb in adults
(2) Blood = Fluid connective tissue
Tendons = Connects bone to bone
(3)

(4) Adipose tissue = Blubber of whales

25) The type of epithelium which forms the endothelium as well as lines the walls of alveoli is

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Compound epithelium

26) All the cells in the epithelium lining the following structures show brush-bordered
appearance, except

(1) Jejunum
(2) Fallopian tube
(3) PCT
(4) Ileum

27) Assertion : Compound epithelium cover the outer surface of the skin.
Reason : This epithelium is made of more than one layer of cells.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) How many of the following structures have compound epithelium

Skin, Buccal cavity, Pharynx, Air sac of lung, Duct of salivary glands, Pancreatic ducts and tubular
part of nephrons in kidney

(1) Six
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Three

29) Which among the following are incorrect with respect to connective tissue ?

(1) Tendon is dense regular connective tissue.

(2) Most of abundant and widely distributed tissue in our body
(3) The intercellular material of cartilage is solid and pliable matrix that resists compression.
(4) Bone and cartilage - Dense regular connective tissue.

30) Which of the following connective tissue is present in periosteum?

(1) Yellow fibrous connective tissue
(2) White fibrous connective tissue
(3) Reticular fibrous connective tissue
(4) Adipose connective tissue

31) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of tissue, select the correct option

regarding identification and location in body:-

(1) Dense irregular connective tissue : Tendon and ligaments

(2) Dense irregular connective tissue : In the skin
(3) Dense regular connective tissue : Ligaments and tendons
(4) Specilised connective tissue : Beneath the skin

32) In the case of mammalian bone lamellae is :

(1) Layer of chondroblast cells

(2) Layer of chondroclast cells
(3) Layer of matrix
(4) Layer of chondrocyte cells

33) _____ is composed of _____ of cells and functions as a lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes.
A. Compound epithelium, many layers
B. Stratified epithelium, two layers
C. Simple epithelium, single layer

(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) A and C both

34) The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is

(1) Squamous
(2) Cuboidal
(3) Glandular
(4) Ciliated

35)
Which of the cell of connective tissue is known as clone of lymphocyte?

(1) Fibroblast
(2) Plasma cell
(3) Macrophages
(4) Mast Cell

SECTION - B

1) The function of the gap junction is to :

(1) Stop substance from leaking across a tissue

(2) Performing cementing to keep neighboring cells together
Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer
(3)
of ions, small molecules and some large molecules
(4) Separate two cells from each other.

2)

Lining of body cavities, ducts and tubes are made up of

(1) compound epithelium

(2) simple epithelium
(3) cuboidal epithelium
(4) keratinised epithelium

3) Intercellular junction which helps in exchange of substances is :

(1) Tight junction

(2) Gap junction
(3) Interdigitation
(4) Desmosome

4) Stratified squamous epithelium is found in the lining of :-

(1) Nasal passage

(2) Urethra
(3) Oesophagus
(4) Blood vessels

5) The function of Fibroblast cell is

(1) To produce fibres

(2) To secrete matrix
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) To produce antibody
6) The second largest cells of connective tissue are :

(1) Fibroblast cells

(2) Macrophages
(3) Mast cells
(4) Adipocytes

7) Complete the analogy

Cartilage : Chondrocytes : : Bones : ____

(1) Fibroblasts
(2) Osteocytes
(3) Collagen
(4) Matrix

8) Nasal septum is an example of

(1) Hyaline cartilage

(2) Elastic cartilage
(3) White fibrous cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage

9)

Read the following statements and answer the question.

(i) They have a hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
(ii) They support and protect softer tissues and organs.
(iii) Osteocytes are present in the spaces called lacunae.
(iv) They also interact with skeletal muscles attached to them to bring about movements. Which of
the following type of tissue is being described by above statements?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Blood
(4) Neurons

10) Collagen fibres are not found in extracellular matrix of

(1) Bone
(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Blood
(4) Areolar connective tissue

11) A thin continuous layer which connect skin with underlying skeletal muscles is known as:-

(1) Panniculus adiposus

(2) Mesothelium
(3) Tela subcutaneous
(4) Articular cartilage

12) Match the columns w.r.t. epithelium and their location. [NCERT (XI)-101]

Column I Column II

Ducts of
(i) a.
glands

(ii) b. Bronchioles

Walls of
(iii) c.
blood vessels

(iv) d. Stomach

(1) (i)a, (ii)b, (iii)c, (iv)d

(2) (i)c, (ii)a, (iii)d, (iv)b
(3) (i)b, (ii)c, (iii)a, (iv)d
(4) (i)d, (ii)c, (iii)b, (iv)a

13) Tissue are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals.

(1) Epithelium
(2) Connective tissue
(3) Nervous
(4) All of these

14) Yellow, white & reticular fibres made up of protein –

(1) Elastin , Reticulin , Collagen respectively

(2) Reticulin , elastin , collagen respectively
(3) collagen, elastin , reticulin protein
(4) Elastin , collagen , reticulin protein

15) The most widely distributed tissue in the body of complex animals :-

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Nervous tissue
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 1 3 3 1 2 2 2 4 2 3 4 4 3 3 3 3 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 3 1 2 2 3 1 3 1

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 4 4 2 1 1 3 2 2 3 3 2 4 4 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 4 1 3 3 4 1 3 3 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 1 3 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 1 3 1 4 2 4 4 3 2 3 1 4 3

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 4 1 1 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 1 3 4 3

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 1 3 4 2 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 2 4 2

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 4 2 2 2 3 1 2 4 2 4 2 4 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 4 4 3 2 4 2 3 2 3 3 3 4 1 4 1 2 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 1 2 3 1 2 1 2 4 2 3 3 3 4 2

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

3)

4)

5) If sinθ = cosθ
tanθ = 1
For 180° < θ < 360° ⇒ θ = 225°

6)
 7)

8)

So,

9)

y = x2 + x + 8

10)

Conceptual

11)

tanθ = =

=
H = 10 m

12)

= 150 – 6 = 144

13)
For sin θ = – 1 ⇒ y = 3 – 2 (–1) = +5
For sin θ = + 1 ⇒ y = 3 – 2 (+1) = +1
So minimum value of y is 1 and maximum value is 5.

14)

Slope of the line, m = tan 30° =

y - intercept, c =
Equation of the line,

y = mx + c ⇒ y =
Multiplying by
y=x+3

15) Multiply by

16)

17)

A=8 B=6

tanα =

18)

cos2A = 1 – 2sin2A
cos45° = 1 – 2sin2(22.5°)

2 sin222.5° =

19)

A line drawn parallel to y axis must cut the curve only once for a possible value of x.

20)
Let t = →

so

⇒ – sin t ·

21)

22)

23)

24)

and

and

25)

26)
 27)

slope at P = 8 × 2 = 16

28)
= (2x2 + 5x + 6logex) + C

29)

∵ cos2θ – sin2θ = cos 2θ

∴ cos215° – sin215° = cos 30°

30)

31)

log 12 = log 4 + log 3 = 2 log 2 + log 3 = 0.6+0.5 = 1.1

32)

33) at t = 2
xA = 3 × 2 = 6
xB = 6
yA = 2
yB = 2 + 3(2)2 = 14
distance

= 12

34)
cos(270° – θ) = –sinθ

35)

=8+1=9

36) = m = slope

37) Given equation, 3x + 4y + 1 = 0

Rearranging in the form y = mx+ c
4y = -3x-1

Slope (m) = –

Y intercept = –

38)

=
= = sin 90° – sin 0° = 1

39)

40)

Sloped = 6x – 2, x = 2, x = 4 = 10

41)

m = |tan θ|
 42)

43) At x = 0, y = 5
5 = ae°
⇒a=5

44)

45) Theory Based

46)

47)

48)

Only vector of same nature can be added.

49)

By theory of negative vector

50)

a + b = 16
CHEMISTRY

59)

61)

2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitro benzene

79)

2-ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane

86)
Both are metamers.

88)

89)

According to priority table of functional group.

94)
The general representation of 1° Amine : R–NH2
The general representation of 2° Amine : R–NH–R

The general representation of 3° Amine :

where, R be any alkyl group.

Hence, is 3° amine.

97)

3-methylcyclohexene

BOTANY

101)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 132

102)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 137, Fig. 8.9

103)

NCERT XI Pg.# 134

104) NCERT (XI) Pg # 133, 134

105)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 126, para-2

106) NCERT Pg # 137

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 136, 8.5.5

108)

NCERT XI Pg.# 136

 109)

NCERT Pg # 127E

110)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 131

111) NCERT Pg # 138

112)

NCERT XI Pg # 131-132

113)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 165

114)

NCERT Pg.#134

115) NCERT XI#127

116)

NCERT Pg#139

117)

NCERT XI Pg#125

118)

NCERT Pg#132

119)

NCERT XI Pg # 136

120) NCERT Pg. # 135

121)

NCERT XI - Page No. 134 - 8.5.3.4

122)

NCERT Pg # 132

123)
NCERT-XI, Page No. 126

124) NCERT Pg. # 101

125)

NCERT-XI Pg.# 96

126)

NCERT Pg. # 136, 137, 134

127)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 168, Para - 10.4.1

128)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 163

129) NCERT Pg. # 169-170, Fig10.3 (2nd), 10.4 (3rd)

130)

NCERT Pg.#165 10.2.1 and 10.2.2

131)

NCERT Pg.#170 10.4.9

132)

NCERT-XI, Pg-163

133)

NCERT XIth Pg.#164

134)

NCERT XIth Pg.#168

135)

NCERT XI P. No. # 169, 170

136)

NCERT(XIth) # P.No.163

137)

NCERT XI Pg. # 168

 138)

NCERT Pg.#169 Fig.-10.3

139)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 168

140)

NCERT Pg # 165-166

141)

NCERT Pg # 168

142)

NCERT Pg # 168

143)

NCERT Pg # 163

144)

NCERT Pg # 168

145)

NCERT Pg # 164-166

146)

NCERT Pg # 168

147)

NCERT Pg # 163

148) (iv) is correct

149) NCERT Pg. # 167

150)

NCERT Pg # 168

ZOOLOGY

154) NCERT XI, Pg. # 101

 171)

NCERT-XII, Pg.#104

174)

NCERT Pg. # 103

175) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 101

176) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 101

177)

NCERT Pg#102

182)

197) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 101

200)