01-03-2025

6001CMD3030032401R MD

PHYSICS

1) Find the approximate value of tan 2°.

(1)

(2)

(3) 2

(4)

2) A dog wants to catch a cat. The dog follows the path whose equation is y–x = 0 while the cat
follows the path whose equation is . The coordinates of possible points of catching the cat
are.

(1) (2, –2)

(2) (2, 2)
(3) (–2, 2)
(4) None of these

3) The area of a blot of Ink is growing such that after t seconds, it's area is given by

. Calculate the rate of increase of area at t = 5 sec.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) The minimum value of is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)

(1) cos x
(2) sin x
(3) – sin x
(4) – cos x

6)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) . Find value of y.

(1) –2
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) 1

8) The mass m of a body moving with a velocity v is given by

Where mo= rest mass of body
c = speed of light . Find value of m at (By using binomial
approximation)

(1) 10 kg
(2) 10.05 kg
(3) 10.5 kg
(4) 10.005 kg

9) Measurement of two quantities along with the precision of respective measuring instrument is :-

The value of AB will be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Which of the following system of units is not based on units of mass, length and time alone ?
(1) SI
(2) MKS
(3) FPS
(4) CGS

11) Which of the following is not a fundamental physical quantity ?

(1) Mass
(2) Length
(3) Temperature
(4) Density

12) A dimensionless quantity

(1) Never has a unit

(2) Always has a unit
(3) May have a unit
(4) Does not exist

13) A force F is given by F = at + bt2, where t is time. The dimensions of a and b are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A particle is moving in a circle of radius r centered at O with constant speed v. The change in
velocity in moving from P to Q

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) A particle moved on a circular path of radius 'r'. It completes one revolution in 40s. Calculate
displacement in 2 min 20 sec.
(1) 2r
(2) r
(3) zero
(4)

16) If a particle travels the first half distance with speed and second half distance with
speed Find its average speed during the journey.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The velocity of a particle is given by m/s where t is time in seconds. Find the
acceleration at t = 2 sec.

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 3 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 8 m/s2

18) A man walks 30 m towards North, then 20 m towards East and the last towards South-
East. The displacement from origin is

(1) 10 m towards West

(2) 50 m towards east
(3) towards North-West
(4) towards North-East

19) A man walks for some time 't' with velocity (v) due east. Then he walks for some time 't' with
velocity (v) due north. The average speed of the man is-

(1) 2v
(2)
(3) v

(4)

20) A body is moving according to the equation Then its instantaneous speed is
given by

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) The position of a particle is given by The initial velocity and acceleration are
respectively

(1) b, 0
(2)
(3) b, 2c
(4)

22) If for a particle position then-

(1) velocity is constant

(2) Acceleration is non zero
(3) Acceleration is variable
(4) None of these

23) If a body starts from rest and travels 120 cm in the 6th second then what is the acceleration?

(1) 0.142 m/s2

(2) 0.50 m/s2
(3) 0.32 m/s2
(4) 0.218 m/s2

24) If resultant of two vectors shown in the figure is then value of is :-

(1)

(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

25) In vectors shown in figure where is the resultant of vectors and

 then value of angle is :

(1) 30º
(2) 45º
(3) 60º
(4) 75º

26) The resultant of and makes an angle with and with then :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) If is perpendicular to the vector then the value of a and b may be :

(1) 1, 0
(2) –2, 0
(3) 3, 0

(4)

28) The direction cosines of a vector are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) What is the projection of on ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
30) Two adjacent side of a parallelogram are represented by the two
vectors and The area of parallelogram is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) The vector and are such that The angle between vectors and is -

(1) 90º
(2) 60º
(3) 75º
(4) 45º

32) If and then the scalar and vector products of and have the
magnitudes respectively as :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 10, 2

33) Given that A = B. What is the angle between

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 180°

34) A vector of length is turned through the angle about its tail. What is the change in the
position vector of its head ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) If adjacent sides and of parallelogram ABCD

are and respectively then length of diagonal is :-

(1) 3 unit
(2) 4 unit
(3) 5 unit
(4) 7 unit

36) If a projectile is thrown such that range [R] is four times than the height [h] attained then angle
of projection is-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

37) A ball is projected from the ground with 50m/s. At the maximum height its velocity is 30m/s.
Calculate the time after which it will reach to the ground again:-

(1) 4s
(2) 8s
(3) 2s
(4) 16s

38) The trajectory of a projectile in a vertical plane is , where a and b are constants
and x and y are respectively horizontal and vertical distance of the projectile from the point of
projection. The maximum height attained by the particle and the angle of projection from the
horizontal are:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The equation of projectile is 180y = 240x – x2. The angle of projection is :-

(1) 37°
(2) 53°
(3) 60°
(4) 45°

40) A bomber moving horizontally with 500 m/s drops a bomb which strikes ground is 10 s. Height of
the bomber from ground is :-

(1) 200 m
(2) 500 m
(3) 300 m
(4) 400 m
41) Working of rocket or jet is based on:-

(1) Newtons law

(2) Newtons II law
(3) Newtons III law
(4) All the three laws

42) Two bodied of masses 5 kg and 8 kg are acted upon by the same force. If the acceleration of
lighter body is 2 m/s2, then the acceleration of the heavier body is:-

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 2.5 m/s2
(3) 6.25 m/s2
(4) 1.25 m/s2

43) Match the situation in column I to the accelerations of blocks in the column II (acceleration due
to gravity is g and F is an additional force applied to one of the blocks)

(1) A R, B S, C R, D P
(2) A R, B S, C Q, D P
(3) A Q, B P, C R, D S
(4) A P, B Q, C R, D S

44) Three masses are lying on a frictionless table. The masses are connected by
massless threads as shown. The mass M3 is pulled by a constant force F as shown. The tension in the
thread between masses M2 and M3 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A body of mass 5kg is suspended by a spring balance on an inclined plane as shown in figure.

The spring balance measure

(1) 50 N
(2) 25 N
(3) 500 N
(4) 10 N

CHEMISTRY

1) IUPAC name is :-

(1) 2-Hydroxy-3-ethylhexenoic acid

(2) 3-Ethyl-2-hydroxyhexenoic acid
(3) 3-Ethyl-2-hydroxy-5-methylpent-4-enoic acid
(4) 3-Ethyl-2-hydroxyhex-4-enoic acid

2) The correct IUPAC name of :-

(1) 1, 2-Diethyl butane

(2) 2-Ethyl-3-Methyl pentane
(3) 3-Methyl-4-Methoxy hex-3-ene
(4) 3-Methoxy-4-methylhex-3-ene

3) The incorrect IUPAC name is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The IUPAC name of given compound is :

(1) 2-oxo-4-amino-4-ethylpentanamide
(2) 2-amino-4-oxo-2-ethylpentanamide
(3) 3-amino-3-carboxy-5-hexanone
(4) 2-amino-2-ethyl-4-oxopentanamide

5)

Correct order of Ka value for given compound:-

(1) IV > II > III > I

(2) III > IV > II > I
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) IV > III > I > II

6) Which of the following set have only aromatic compounds ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which of following is a correct order of C – O bond length for given compounds :

(1) A > B > C

(2) B > A > C
(3) C > B > A
(4) A > C > B

8) In which of the following which is having highest heat of Hydrogenation :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Compare stability of following resonating structures :-

(1) II > I > III > IV
(2) II > I > IV > III
(3) I > II > III > IV
(4) I > II > IV > III

10) Which among the following does not show hyperconjugation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) In which of the following compound, lone pair doesn't participate in resonance ? (a)

(b)

(c) (d)

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and d

12) Arrange the following carbanion in their correct order of stability :

(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) III > IV > I > II
(3) III > I > IV > II
(4) II > I > IV > III

13) The correct decreasing order of basic strength is

(1) II > I > III > IV

(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) I > II > IV > III
(4) I > III > IV > II

14) Decreasing - I effect of given groups is

(a) -CN (b) -NO2
(c) -NH2 (d) -F

(1) b > a > d > c

(2) b > c > d > a
(3) c > b > d > a
(4) c > b > a > d

15) Assertion (A): is more acidic than .

Reason (R): Electron donating groups (EDG) increase acidity while electron withdrawing groups
(EWG) decrease acidity.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not right explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(4) If both (A) and (R) are wrong.

16) The correct stability order for the following species is

(1) (II) > (IV) > (I) > (III)

(2) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
(3) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)
(4) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)

17) The correct order of strengths of the carboxylic acids

is :

(1) III > II > I

(2) II > I > III
(3) I > II > III
(4) II > III > I

18) Statement I:Buta 1,3 diene is less stable than Penta 1, 4 diene.
Statement II: Buta 1,3 diene has greater number of resonating structures and delocalised
electron cloud

Statement I is True, Statement II is True; Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement

(1)
I
Statement I is True, Statement II is True; Statement II is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement I
(3) Statement I is True, Statement II is False
(4) Statement I is False, Statement II is True

19)

In the following compound the state of hybridisation of carbon atom 1,2 & 3 are respectively :-

(1) sp, sp2, sp3

(2) sp2, sp, sp2
(3) sp2, sp3,sp2
(4) sp2, sp2, sp2

20) Total number of 1°, 2° and 3° carbon in the following compound ?

(1) 4, 3, 0
(2) 4, 4, 1
(3) 4, 4, 2
(4) 3, 4, 2

21) IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

(1) 1, 2, 3-Tri carbaldehyde propane

(2) Propane-1, 1, 1-tri formyl
(3) Propane-1, 2, 3-tri carbaldehyde
(4) 3-Formyl pentane dial

22)

Arrange the following in decreasing order of their boiling points.

(A) n–butane
(B) 2–methylbutane
(C) n-pentane
(D) 2,2–dimethylpropane

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) B > C > D > A
(3) D > C > B > A
(4) C > B > D > A

23)
Select the correct statement about products A, B and C

(1) A is a secondary alcohol

(2) B is a tertiary alcohol
(3) C is a primary alcohol
(4) A and C are tertiary alcohol

24) Identify the product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Which among the following compound does not decolourise reddish brown solution of Br2/CCl4 ?

(1)
(2)
(3) Ph–CH=CH2
(4)

27) In following compound correct order of reactivity for EAR is :-

(X) (Y) (Z) Ph–CH=CH2

(1) Y > X > Z

(2) X > Y > Z
(3) Z > Y > X
(4) X > Z > Y

28) 'Q'
what is 'Q' ?

(1)

(2) CH3–CH2–CH3

(3)

(4)

29) CH3–C ≡ C–CH3 major product is :

(1)

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO

(3)

(4)

30) Which product form in following reaction :-

CH3–CH2–COONa + CH3COONa (Product)

(1)
(2)
(3) CH3–CH3
(4) All

31) Which of the following compound will not give precipitate with Tollen's reagent ?

(1) CH3–C ≡ CH
(2) CH ≡ CH
(3) CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3
(4) CH3 – CH2 – C ≡ CH

32)
B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Which of the following can be obtained in good yield by Wurtz reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3 – CH2 – CH3

34)
Which of the following reactions of methane is incomplete combustion :-

(1) 2CH4 + O2 2CH3OH

(2) CH4 + O2 HCHO + H2O

(3) CH4 + O2 C(s) + 2H2O(ℓ)
(4) CH4 + 2O2 CO2(g) + 2H2O(ℓ)

35) Major Product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) .
B is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
37)
Identify (A) & (B) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) When n-heptane is reacted in the presence of Cr2O3 at high temprature & pressure then major
product will be :-

(1) Benzene
(2) Toluene
(3) Ethylbenzene
(4) Phenol

39) Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

40) In which of the following reactions benzene is obtained

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Which of the following is maximum reactive towards E.S.R. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Consider the following compounds :

Correct order of their reactivity in electrophilic substitution reactions would be:-

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) III > II > I > IV
(4) III > IV > I > II

43) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : is aromatic compound

Statement-II : There are 12 πe– having complete delocalisation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.

44) Which of the following is meta-directing group during electrophilic substitution?

(1)

(2)

(3) –NO2
(4) –CH3

45) Assertion (A): Nitration of benzene with nitric acid requires the use of concentrated sulphuric
acid.
Reason (R): The mixture of concentrated sulphuric acid and concentrated nitric acid produces the
electrophile,
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

BIOLOGY

1) R.H Whittaker classification is/are based upon -

(1) Cell structure & body organisation

(2) Mode of nutrition & reproduction
(3) Phylogentic relationship
(4) All of these
2) Fungi has cell wall composed of -

(1) Cellulose
(2) Non - cellulosic + amino acid
(3) Chitin
(4) Absence of cell wall

3) identify shape of bacteria

(1) a = cocci, b = rod - shaped, c = bacilli, d = comma - shaped

(2) a = cocci, b = Bacilli, c = spirilla, d = vibrio
(3) a = cocci, b = spirilla, c = vibrio, d = Bacilli
(4) a = vibrio, b = spirilla, c = bacilli, d = coccus

4) Citrus canker is -

(1) Plant disease cause by bacteria

(2) Human disease cause by bacteria
(3) Pet disease cause by bacteria
(4) Plant disease cause by fungi

5) Label (A), (B) and identify organism (C)

A = Heterocyst B = Mucilagenous
(1)
sheath C = Nostoc, a fungi
A = Heterocyst B = Mucilagenous
(2)
sheath C = Anabena
A = Mucilagenous, B = Heterocyst,
(3)
C = Nostoc
A = heterocyst, B = Mucilagenous
(4) sheath, C = Nostoc, a filamentous
algae

6) Which of the following are placed under Protista-?

(1) Chryosophytes and Dinoflagellates
(2) Euglenoids
(3) Slime moulds and protozoans
(4) All

7) Red tides in warm coastal water develop due to super abundance of -

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Euglenoid forms
(3) Diatoms and desmids
(4) Chlamydomonas nivalis

8) Locomotory structures in protists are -

(1) Flagella
(2) Cilia
(3) Pseudopodia
(4) All

9) Protista form a link with -

(1) Plants only

(2) Animals only
(3) Fungi only
(4) Plants, animals and fungi

10) Choose the incorrect statement about bacterial reproduction.

(1) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission

(2) Under unfavourable condition they produce spores
(3) They also reproduce by gamete fusion
(4) They show a sort of sexual reproduction

11) Slime moulds -

(1) Are parasite

(2) Do not produce fruiting bodies
(3) Do not produce spores
(4) Saprophytic protists

12) Plasmodium (malarial parasite) is-

(1) Sporozoan
(2) Ciliated protozoan
(3) Flagellated protozoan
(4) Amoeboid protozoan
13) Chief producers in ocean are -

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Diatoms
(3) Euglenoids
(4) Green algae

14) Photosynthetic protists are -

(1) Euglenoids, Diatoms and Dinoflagellates

(2) Euglenoids and slime moulds
(3) Diatoms and Zooflagellates
(4) Desmids + Ciliates

15) Survival of archaebacteria in extreme condition is achieved by-

(1) Cell wall structure

(2) Some membranous cell organelles
(3) Adaptability & cytoplasm
(4) Ribosome

16) All protozoans are -

(1) Saprophytes only

(2) Parasites only
(3) Predators only
(4) Heterotrophs - parasites or predator

17) Fungi prefer to grow in -

(1) Cold and dry places

(2) Hot and dry places
(3) Sea water
(4) Warm and humid places

18) Reproduction in fungi can take place by all of the following vegetative methods except-

(1) Gemmae
(2) Fragmentation
(3) Fission
(4) Budding

19) Which of the following are edible ascomycete ?

(1) Morels + Mushroom

(2) Truffles + Toadstool
(3) Morels + Truffles
(4) Puffball + Mushroom

20) Identify the diagram.

(1) (i) Dinoflagellates (ii) Euglena

(2) (i) Dinoflagellates (ii) Paramoceium
(3) (i) Euglena (ii) Dinoflagellates
(4) (i) Slime mould | (ii) Paramecium

21) The correct matching is-

Column-I Column-II

A. Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi

B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi

Fungi
C. Basidiomycetes III.
imperfecti

D. Deuteromycetes IV. club fungi

(1) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
(2) A - II, B - IV, C - II, D - III
(3) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
(4) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

22) Sexual reproduction is found in all except -

(1) Deuteromycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Phycomycetes
(4) Basidiomycetes
23)
Identify (A), (B) & organism(C)

(1) (A) a = DNA, (B) = capsid, (C) = TMV

(2) (A) a = RNA, (B) = capsid, (C) = TMV
(3) (A) = capsid, (B) = DNA, (C) = bacteriophage
(4) (A) = capsid, (B) = RNA, (C) = bacteriophage

24) genetic material of bacteriophage is -

(1) ds DNA
(2) ss RNA
(3) ds RNA
(4) ss DNA

25)

Lichens are :-

(1) Very good pollution indicator

(2) Symbiotic association
(3) Composed of only fungal component
(4) Both (1) & (2)

26) Identify organism and label (A), (B), (C), (D).

(1) Laminaria (A) = leaf (B) = air bladder (C) = stripe (D) = holdfast
(2) Fucus (A) = frond (B) = air bladder (C) = midrib (D) = holdfast
(3) Fucus (A) = Midrib (B) = frond, (C) = air bladder D = holdfast
(4) Laminaria (A) = leaf (B) = stipe (C) = midrib (D) = petiole

27) Rhodophyceae is called red algae because of -

(1) Predominance of fucoxanthin
(2) Abundance of phycoerythrin
(3) Chlorophyl C
(4) Abundance of phycocyanin

28) Prion cause-

(1) BSE in cattle and CJD in human

(2) BSE in human and CJD in cattle
(3) BSE and CJD cause in cattle
(4) BSE and CJD cause in human

29) George Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker gave

(1) Artificial classification system

(2) Phylogenetic classification
(3) Natural classification system
(4) A and B respectively

30) Flagellation in green algae is -

(1) 2-8, equal, apical

(2) 2, unequal, lateral
(3) 2-8, unequal, lateral
(4) Absent

31) Gametes of Brown algae are

(1) Pyriform
(2) Cup - shaped
(3) Ribbon - shaped
(4) Discoid

32) Identify given plant diagram and label its parts:

(1) Funaria, A = gametophyte B = sporophyte

(2) Sphagnum, A = gametophyte B = sporophyte
(3) Funaria, A = sporophyte B = gametophyte
(4) Sphagnum, A = sporophyte B = gametophyte

33) Gemmae are -

(1) Green, unicellular, asexual bud, develop in small receptacles i.c. gemma cup
(2) Green, multicellular, asexual bud develop in small receptacles i.c. gemma cup
(3) Non - green unicellular, asexual bud, develop in small receptacles i.c gemma cup
(4) Green, multicellular, sexual bud develop in small receptacles i.e. gemma cup

34) First terrestrial vascular plant is -

(1) Algae
(2) Bryophyta (liverwort & hornwort)
(3) Pteridophyta
(4) Bryophyta (Mosses)

35) Which of the following is obtained from Sphagnum as coal:

(1) Bituminous
(2) Peat
(3) Lignite
(4) Anthracite

36) Water needed for fertilization in -

(1) Gymnosperms
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Pteridophyptes
(4) (2) & (3) both

37) Pteridophyte classification into -

(1) 4 classes
(2) 4 orders
(3) 4 families
(4) All of these

38) Heterosporous pteridophytes is/are-

(1) Selaginella
(2) Salvinia
(3) Psilotum
(4) (1) & (2) both
39) The stem of -

(1) Cycas is unbranched

(2) Pinus is branched
(3) Cedrus is branched
(4) All of these

40) Needle-like leaves, thick cuticle, sucken stomata are character of -

(1) Cycas
(2) Pinus
(3) Gnetum
(4) Ginkgo

41) Basic unit or smallest taxon of classification is -

(1) Species
(2) Kingdom
(3) Family
(4) Order

42) Gymnosperms are plants in which -

(1) Ovules are enclosed by any ovary wall both before and after fertilization
(2) Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall both before and after fertilization
(3) Ovules are enclosed by any ovary wall before fertilization but not after fertilization
(4) Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall before fertilization but after fertilization

43) ICBN is -

(1) International Code for Biological Naming

(2) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature
(3) International Class for Biological Nomenclature
(4) International Classification for Biological Nomenclature

44) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of various taxonomic categories -

(1) Class - Phylum - Order - Family - Genus - Species

(2) Division - Class - Family - Order - Genus - Species
(3) Division - Class - Order - Family - Genus - Species
(4) Phylum - Order - Class - Family - Genus - Species

45) The first and second word in a biological name represents _______ and ______ epithet
respectively.

(1) Specific, Genus

(2) Genus, Specific
(3) Genus, Order
(4) Order, Genus

46) What is true for open circulatory system?

(1) Cells and tissues are directly bathed in blood

(2) Capillaries are present
(3) Blood is circulated only through a series of vessels of varying diameter
(4) Present in earthworm

47) Digestive system in phylum Platyhelminthes

(1) Has two openings to the outside of the body

(2) Has one opening to the outside of the body
(3) Is absent in most of the members
(4) Opens through excretory pore to the outside of the body

48) When any longitudinal plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism
into two identical halves, it is called

(1) Bilateral symmetry

(2) Radial symmetry
(3) Asymmetry
(4) Biradial symmetry

49) Presence of truly coelomate animals ranges from phylum

(1) Aschelminthes to Chordata

(2) Annelida to Chordata
(3) Platyhelminthes to Chordata
(4) Ctenophora to Chordata

50) Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t notochord?

(1) Ectodermally derived

(2) Rod-like structure
(3) Present on the dorsal side
(4) Absent in animals ranging from phylum Porifera to Echinodermata

51) Metameric segmentation is present in

(1) Pheretima
(2) Ascaris
(3) Balanoglossus
(4) Pila
52) All are correct w.r.t. respiratory organ of animal shown below, except

(1) Feather like gills

(2) Present in visceral hump
(3) Help in respiration and excretion
(4) Present in the members of second largest phylum

53) Match column-I with column-Il and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II

a Asterias i Jointed appendages

b Sycon ii Canal system

Excretory system is
c Apis iii
absent

d Nereis iv Parapodia
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

54) Sexes are separate in

(1) Pleurobrachia
(2) Nereis
(3) Taenia
(4) Hirudinaria

55) Match column-I with column-Il and choose the correct match.

Column-I Column-II

a Euspongia i Calcareous shell

Exoskeleton of calcium
b Corals ii
carbonate

c Pinctada iii Spongin fibres

d Echinus iv Calcareous endoskeleton

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

56) Select the correct statement w.r.t notochord in urochordates.

(1) Present in larval tail only

(2) Extends from head to tail in adults
(3) Persists throughout the life of organism
(4) Replaced by vertebral column

57) All chordates are not vertebrates because

(1) Notochord is not replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in protochordates

(2) Notochord is present in all vertebrates throughout life
(3) Ventral muscular heart is present
(4) Kidneys are present for excretion and osmoregulation

58) How many among following are able to maintain constant body temperature and can fly?

Pteropus, Neophron, Columba,

Struthio, Pavo, Macaca
(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

59) Select the mismatch w.r.t. scientific name in column I and common name in column II

Column I Column II

1 Clarias Magur

2 Dog Canis

3 Calotes Garden lizard

4 Corvus Crow
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Which of the following is a jawless vertebrate?

(1) Petromyzon
(2) Scolidon
(3) Calotes
(4) Macropus
61) In chondrichthyes, scales are

(1) Cycloid
(2) Ctenoid
(3) Placoid
(4) Ganoid

62) Cloaca is present in

(1) Rana, Ichthyophis

(2) Pteropus, Felis
(3) Labeo, Exocoetus
(4) Camelus, Delphinus

63) Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. Aves?

(1) Forelimbs have scales

(2) Crop and gizzard are the additional chambers in the digestive tract
(3) Endoskeleton is fully ossified
(4) Air sacs supplement respiration

64) Four-chambered heart and epidermal scales on body are present in

(1) Bufo
(2) Pristis
(3) Crocodilus
(4) Canis

65) Select the odd one w.r.t external fertilization.

(1) Carcharodon
(2) Betta
(3) Bufo
(4) Pterophyllum

66) In which tissue, are cells compactly packed with little intercellular matrix?

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Muscular tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) Connective tissue

67) Which of the following is not the secretion of exocrine glands?

(1) Mucus
(2) Milk
(3) Ear wax
(4) Hormones

68) Tendons join

(1) Skeletal muscle to bone

(2) Bone to bone
(3) Smooth muscles to bone
(4) Striated muscle to non striated muscle

69) The epithelium, made up of a single layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries is present
in

(1) Walls of blood vessels

(2) Pharynx
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) Skin

70) Epithelium responsible for providing protection against mechanical and chemical stresses is
absent in

(1) Pancreatic ducts

(2) Ducts of salivary glands
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) Tubular parts of nephron

71) All of the following characteristics describe sexual dimorphism in Periplaneta americana, except

(1) Wings extend beyond the tip of abdomen in males

(2) 7th sternum is boat shaped in females
(3) Anal styles are present in males and absent in females
(4) Anal cerci are present in females and absent in males

72) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement-A: Nervous system of cockroach consists of a series of fused, segmentally arranged
ganglia joined by paired longitudinal connectives.
Statement-B: In cockroach, head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the
dorsal part of the body.

(1) Statement A is incorrect

(2) Statement B is correct
(3) Both A and B statements are incorrect
(4) Only statement B is incorrect

73) Match the following columns w.r.t cockroach and choose the correct option
 Column-l Column-lI

a Testes i 6th abdominal segment

b Ovary ii 4th- 6th abdominal segments

c Mushroom gland iii 2nd- 6th abdominal segments

d Spermatheca iv 6th- 7th abdominal segments

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)

74) In female cockroach, sperms are stored in

(1) Seminal vesicles

(2) Spermatheca
(3) Ejaculatory duct
(4) Vagina

75) Which of the following structure acts as urino genital duct in male frogs?

(1) Urethra
(2) Ureters
(3) Urinary bladder
(4) Vasa efferentia

76) Male frog can be distinguished externally from female frog by all of the following features
except
a. Presence of sound producing vocal sacs
b. Presence of copulatory pad on the first digit of the forelimbs
c. Ureters carry both sperms and urine in male frog
d. Testes are adhered to the upper part of kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum called mesorchium

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) c and d only

77) Choose the odd one w.r.t. external genitalia in male cockroach

(1) 3 pairs of gonapophyses

(2) Chitinous asymmetrical structures
(3) Pseudopenis and titillator are part of left phallomere
(4) Present in male genital pouch, ventral to anus

78) On land, frog respires by

(1) Skin only
(2) Skin and buccal cavity only
(3) Skin, lungs and buccal cavity
(4) Lungs only

79) Match the columns.

Column-I Column-II

A Chameleon i Tortoise

B Testudo ii Tree lizard

C Calotes iii Garden lizard

D Chelone iv Turtle

A B C D

1 i ii iii iv

2 iv iii ii i

3 ii i iii iv

4 iii i iv ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 7

80) Hepatic caecae are present at the junction of

(1) Proventriculus and foregut

(2) Gizzard and midgut
(3) Midgut and hindgut
(4) Crop and gizzard

81) Identify the correct labels A and B.

Notochord Nerve Cord

Part of nervous
A
system

Found in chordates as
Found in chordates only
well as non-chordates

Dorsal side in chordates B

(1) A = Exoskeleton, B = Dorsal chordates as well as in non-chordates
(2) A = Endoskeleton, B = Ventral in chordates as well as in non-chordates
(3) A = Exoskeleton, B = Ventral in chordates and dorsal in non-chordates
(4) A = Endoskeleton, B = Dorsal in chordates and ventral in non-chordates

82) In most simple type of canal system of porifera, water flows through which one of the following
ways?

(1) Ostia Spongocoel Osculum Exterior

(2) Spongocoel Ostia Osculum Exterior
(3) Osculum Spongocoel Ostia Exterior
(4) Osculum Ostia Spongocoel Exterior

83) Here two basic body forms of cnidarians are given.

(1) A and B are false swimming forms

(2) A and B are sessile form
(3) A produce B asexually and B form the ‘A’ sexually
(4) B produce A sexually and A form the ‘B’ sexually

84) Assertion: In molluscs, feathers like gills are present in the mantle cavity.
Reason: These gills have respiration and excretory function.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

85) Choose the correct option for the given figures.

(1) Animal A is salamandra and B is chameleon.

(2) Both A and B belongs to class Reptilia.
(3) Fertilization is external in both.
(4) Animal A has 2-chambered heart and B has 3-chambered heart.

86) Select the incorrect statement regarding connective tissues:

(1) It helps to connect and support other tissues of the body.

(2) Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
(3) It is composed of structural protein fibres, viz, collagen or elastin.
(4) Their ground substance is composed of polypeptides and its derivatives.

87) The mouth parts of cockroach contain

(1) two mandibles, two maxillae, labrum, labium and hypopharynx

(2) two mandibles and maxillae each, two labrum and labium each
(3) one mandible and maxilla each, labarum and hypopharynx
(4) one mandible, labarum, labium and hypopharynx

88) The above figure is related with female reproductive system of frog. Identify A to D.

A B C D

1 Ovary Ureter Oviduct Ovisac

Urinogenital Bidder's
2 Ovary Ovisac
duc canal

Urinogenital
3 Ovary Ovisac Oviduct
duc

Urinogenital Bidder's
4 Ovary Oviduct
duc canal
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

89) Hardened plates of exoskeleton in cockroaches are known as

(1) Capsids
(2) Spicules
(3) Sclerites
(4) Metamere

90) Consider the following statements:

a) A tissue is composed of similar cells which perform specific functions.
b) Epithelial tissues are characterized by a free surface toward body fluid or outside environment.
Select the correct option.

(1) a is true, b is false

(2) Both a and b are true
(3) a is false, b is true
(4) Both a and b are false
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 2 3 1 2 2 2 1 1 4 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 4 1 1 3 4 1 4 4 1 3 3 2 4 2 2 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 1 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 2 4 3 4 3 3 1 4 2 2 3 1 3 4 4 4 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 3 2 3 4 3 1 1 4 3 3 3 3 3 4 1 2 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 2 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 2 1 4 4 1 4 4 3 4 1 2 1 1 4 4 1 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 2 1 4 2 2 1 3 1 1 3 2 3 2 4 1 4 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 2 3 2 1 2 2 2 1 1 2 1 2 2 1 1 4 2 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 1 3 1 1 4 1 1 4 4 4 1 2 2 4 1 3 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 3 2 1 4 1 3 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

So possible points are (2, 2) & (–2,2)

3)

4)

5)

6)

7)
8)

14)

15)

Module Q.no. 1 Page No. 102

16)

17)

18)

19)
20)
Module Q.no 38 Page No. 147

21)

Module Q.no 40Page No. 147

22)

Module Q.no 42 Page No. 14

23)

24)
6b2 = a2 + ab
6b2 – ab – a2 = 0

b and a are + ve
25)

27)
a2 + b2 = 1 ...(1)
and
a – b = 0 ....(2)

29)
Projection =

30)

31)

A2 + B2 + 2AB cos = A2 + B2 – 2 AB cos

cos = 0 = cos 90°

32)

33)

34)
35)

36)

R = 4H

2 sin θ cos θ =
tan θ = 1
θ = 45°

37)

38)

42)
 43)

44)

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)
3-Methoxy-4-methylhex-3-ene

50)

Ka ∝ Acidic strength.

57) Stability of carbanion → –M > –I > –X > +I > +M

(I) → +I (II) → +M (III) → –M (IV) → No group

58)

Basic strength of amines

69)

70)

71) → saturated so it does not decolourise

Br2/CCl4

78) Wurtz reaction suitable for preparation of symmetrical alkane and not unsymmetrical
alkane.

→ symmetrical alkane
79)
CH4 + O2 —→ CO2 + H2O (complete oxidation)

80)

It is dehydro halogenation, more stable alkene formed.

85)

86) Reactivity towards E.S.R. ∝ e– density in ring ∝

 Option (2) Maxi reactive

87) Reactivity towards ESR ∝ + M ∝ +H ∝ +I

(I) No effect (II) +H effect of CH3
(III) +M effect OH (IV) –M of NO2 group
3>2>1>4

88)

BIOLOGY

136) [NCERT Pg. 47]

137) [NCERT Pg. 47]

138) [NCERT Pg. 47]

139) [NCERT Pg. 48]

140) [NCERT Pg. 48]

141) [NCERT Pg. 52]

142) [NCERT Pg. 53]

143) [NCERT Pg. 49-54]

144) [NCERT Pg. 52]

145) [NCERT Pg. 49-54]

146) [NCERT Pg. 55]

147) [NCERT Pg. 47]

148) [NCERT Pg. 58]

149) [NCERT Pg. 55]

150) [NCERT Pg. 56]

151) [NCERT Pg. 56]

152) [NCERT Pg. 57]

154) [NCERT Pg. 58]

155) [NCERT Pg. 67]

156) [NCERT Pg. 101]

157) [NCERT Pg. 102]

158) [NCERT Pg. 103]

159) [NCERT Pg. 101]

160) [NCERT Pg. 102]

161) [NCERT Pg. 111]

162) [NCERT Pg.114]

163) [NCERT Pg. 114]

164) [NCERT Pg. 114]

165) [NCERT Pg.118]

166) [NCERT Pg. 116]

167) [NCERT Pg. 112, 114, 115]

168) [NCERT Pg. 118]

169) [Pg-58,M]

170) [NCERT Pg. 113]

171) [Pg-48, E]

172) [Pg-49,M]

173) [Pg-50,E]

174) [Pg-53,H]

175) [Pg-57,58,H]

176) [Pg-102,103,E]

177) [Pg-112,E]

178) [Pg-119,E]

179) [Pg-111,E]

180) [Pg- 100,101,E]