This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions.

Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A ball is hanging from a rigid support with the help of a string as shown in figure. Suddenly the string breaks and
the ball falls and a man is standing below to catch the ball. What magnitude of force will be acting on his hands
if ball is in contact with hand upto 0.2 sec ? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 100 N (2) 200 N (3) 500 N (4) 150 N

2. Which of the following statement is true about a curved mirror?
(1) It is made from a face of a prism.
(2) If it is concave, it will form only virtual images.
(3) If it forms a real image, the image will be always inverted.
(4) If it forms a real image, the image will be always upright.
3. The speed of two identical cars are 3u and u at a specific instant. The ratio of their respective distances in which
the two cars are stopped by applying same force from that instant is x : 1, then the value of x is
(1) 9 (2) 16 (3) 3 (4) 4
4. A heavy stone is thrown from a cliff of height h with a speed v. The stone will hit the ground with maximum
speed if it is thrown-
(1) Vertically downward (2) Vertically upward
(3) Horizontally (4) The speed does not depend on the initial direction
5. The magnification produced by convex lens for two different positions of same object are m1 and
m2 respectively (m1 > m2), and the distance between two positions of an object is ‘d’, then the focal length of
given lens is ________
d dm1 m2 d
(1) m1 . m2 (2) (3) (4)
m1 − m2 m1 − m2 m1 − m2
6. Many electronic devices that emit ultrasound are used to drive away rodents and insects from our homes. Why
these devices do not bother human inhabitants?

(1) The ultrasounds are pleasing to the human ear.

(2) The intensity of the emitted ultrasound is very low.
(3) The ultrasound frequency is too low to be perceived by the human ear.
(4) The ultrasound frequency is too high to be perceived by the human ear.
7. Astronauts inside the satellite are always in the state of weightlessness. The reason behind this is
(1) there is no gravitational force acting on them.
(2) the gravitational force of Earth balances that of the Sun
(3) there is no atmosphere at the height at which they are orbiting.
(4) the satellite and astronauts are in the state of free fall around Earth.
8. An iron sphere of mass 1 kg is dropped from a height of 10 m. If the acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2. What
is the momentum transferred to the ground by the ball?
(1) 9 kg m/s (2) 4 kg m/s (3) 14 kg m/s (4) 12 kg m/s
9. Match the column-A showing various positions of the object with Column-B, showing the magnification and
position of the image formed, Choose the correct code from the given options.
Column-A Column-B
S.no
(Position of object) (Magnification and position of image)
(A) Object is placed at some finite distance in front of a convex mirror (p) Image will be formed at infinity
(B) Object is placed at centre of curvature in front of a concave mirror (q) m = positive
(C) Object is placed at focus in front of a concave mirror (r) m = +1
(D) Object is placed at infinite distance from of a convex mirror (s) m = –1
(t) Image will be formed at focus
(1) (A – q); (B – s); (C – p); (D – t) (2) (A – p); (B – s); (C – r); (D – q)
(3) (A – r); (B – q); (C – p); (D – t) (4) (A – q); (B – t); (C – s); (D – r)
10. A train moving with a constant acceleration, crosses a stationary pole in such a way that its front portion crosses with
30 m/s and its back portion crosses with 40 m/s. Find the speed of the midpoint of train when it crosses the pole.
50 40
(1) 30 2 (2) (3) (4) 35
2 2
11. Earth has a natural satellite called Moon which orbits around it. Choose the correct option showing forces with
their proper direction.

Moon Earth

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

12. A parallel beam of light passes through medium 1 of refractive index 0.6, then lens of refractive index 0.8 and
then medium 2 of refractive index 0.8, respectively, then

(1) the parallel beam of light remains parallel in medium 1, lens and medium 2.
(2) the parallel beam will converge in medium 1 and diverge in medium 2.
(3) the parallel beam will converge in medium 2 and diverge in medium 1.
(4) the beam will be undeviated in medium 2 after passing from lens.
13. Ramu produces a loud sound in front of a cliff. He heard his sound with in a time gap of 2 seconds. Find the
distance between Ramu and cliff, when velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s.
(1) 660 m (2) 165 m (3) 330 m (4) 990 m
14. Match Column I with Column II
Column I Column II
Defect of Vision Cause
(p) Myopia (a) Due to weaking of ciliary muscles
(q) Hypermetropia (b) Due to increase of focal length
(r) Presbyopia (c) Focal length differ in two perpendicular directions
(s) Astigmatism (d) Due to elongation of eye ball
(1) (p - b); (q - d); (r - a); (s - c) (2) (p - d); (q - b); (r - a); (s - c)
(3) (p - b); (q - d); (r - c); (s - a) (4) (p - d); (q - b); (r - c); (s - a)
15. A curious student applies a constant force on a box to move it. The work done will always be equal to the
magnitude of
(1) the force multiplied by the speed of the box.
(2) the force multiplied by the displacement perpendicular to the applied force.
(3) the force multiplied by the displacement along the opposite direction of the applied force.
(4) the force multiplied by the displacement along the same direction of the applied force.
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
16. An element X forms an oxide with formula X2O3. What will be the formula of its sulphate and phosphate respectively ?
(1) XSO4 and X2 (P O4 )3 (2) X2 (SO4 )3 and XP O4
(3) X(SO4 )2 and XP O4 (4) X2 SO4 and X3 P O4
17. Study the given diagram carefully and identify X and Y respectively.

(1) Conc. HCl, CO2 (2) Conc. H2SO4, HCl (3) Conc. HNO3, H2 (4) Conc. NaOH, Cl2
18. Which of the following diagram represents correct electronic distribution of an element ‘X’ with atomic number 19?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

19. An ionic compound of an element M and chlorine has the formula MCl3. The molecular mass of MCl3 is 118.5.
What will be the molecular mass of the oxide of element M?
(1) 28 (2) 44 (3) 72 (4) 99
20. An ore on heating in air produces sulphur dioxide. The process which is used for its concentration and the two
steps involved in the conversion of this ore into related metal are respectively
(1) Hydraulic washing, chemical separation and refining
(2) Froth floatation process, electrorefining and reduction
(3) Froth floatation process, conversion to metal oxide and reduction of metal oxide
(4) Magnetic separation, calcination and refining
21. An excess of dilute sulphuric acid reacts with both aqueous barium hydroxide and aqueous barium chloride
respectively. In what way are the two reactions same?
(1) A gas is evolved. (2) An insoluble salt is formed.
(3) Their final pH is 10. (4) A base is produced.
22. What is the colour of pH paper, when it is dipped in 1 M NaOH solution?
(1) Red (2) Green (3) Blue (4) Purple
23. Consider the following substances and answer the question given below.
Sodium hydroxide
Sulphuric acid
Magnesium hydroxide
Nitric acid
Sodium nitrate
Ammonium chloride
Lemon juice
How many of the following would lose odour of clove oil and vanilla essence?
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5
24. Select the correct option for non-metals and their uses respectively.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Non-metal essential for breathing of all living beings (p) Nitrogen
(B) Non-metal used in fertilizers to enhance growth of plants (q) Chlorine
(C) Non-metal used in water purification process (r) Oxygen
(s) Iodine
(1) A – s, B – p, C – q (2) A – q, B – r, C – p (3) A – r, B – p, C – q (4) A – r, B – s, C – p
25. Which of the following statements about the given reaction are correct?
Na + 2H2 O → 2NaOH + H2
(i) Na is oxidised.
(ii) H2O is reduced.
(iii) Na acts as an oxidising agent.
(iv) H2O acts as an oxidising agent.
(1) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) (4) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
26. Some information about electronic configuration of three elements are given.
X – It has five electrons in its outermost L shell.
Y – It has M shell as outermost shell and number of electrons in M shell is same as the number of electrons in K
shell of X.
Z – It has fourth shell as outermost shell and sum of number of electrons in second and third shell is sixteen.
Identify X, Y & Z respectively.
(1) N, Ca, K (2) B, Mg, Ca (3) N, Mg, K (4) B, O, K
27. Data about nuclei of three atoms A, B and C are given below.
A has 18 protons and 22 neutrons.
B has 20 protons and 20 neutrons.
C has 18 protons and 20 neutrons.
Based on the above data, which of these atoms are isotopes and which are isobars?
(1) A and C are isotopes whereas, B and C are isobars.
(2) A and B are isotopes whereas, A and C are isobars.
(3) A and C are isotopes whereas, A and B are isobars.
(4) B and C are isobars whereas, A and B are isotopes.
28. Match the metals given in column-I with the methods of extraction given in column-II and select the correct
option from the given codes.
Column-I Column-II
P Mercury (i) Heating with coke
Q Zinc (ii) Electrolytic reduction
R Iron (iii) Thermite reaction
S Aluminium (iv) Heating alone

P Q R S
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
29. On heating a metal nitrate M(NO3)2 as shown in the figure, a brown colour gas is produced leaving behind a
yellow residue in the test tube. What could be metal M here ?

(i) Pb (ii) Na (iii) Cu (iv) K

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (i) and (iii) (4) Only (i)
30. How many of the following are incorrectly matched, according to the codes given below?
p - Double displacement reaction q - Combination reaction
r - Combustion reaction s - Decomposition reaction
(i) Methane + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide + water; r
(ii) Calcium carbonate → Calcium oxide + Carbon dioxide; s
(iii) Magnesium + Copper oxide → Copper + Magnesium oxide ; q
(iv) Hydrochloric acid + Sodium hydroxide → Sodium chloride + water ; p
(v) Carbon + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide ; q & r.
(vi) Barium chloride + Sodium sulphate → Barium sulphate + Sodium chloride ; r
(vii) Copper oxide + Hydrogen → Copper + water ; p
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Identify 'X' and 'Y' in the diagram given below and select the correct option.

(1) X-Bowman's capsule, Y-Glomerulus (2) X-Glomerulus, Y-Bowman's capsule

(3) X-Glomerulus, Y-PCT (4) X-Glomerulus, Y-DCT
32. During the process of digestion, the complex food substances gets converted into simpler form with the help of
various digestive enzymes. Find out the correct sequence of enzymes which are usually found from the buccal
cavity to small intestine.
(1) Trypsin → Pancreatic lipase → Ptyalin → Maltase
(2) Pancreatic lipase → Pepsin → Salivary amylase → Trypsin
(3) Trypsin → Ptyalin → Pancreatic amylase → Intestinal lipase
(4) Ptyalin → Pepsin → Trypsin → Intestinal lipase
33. Read the following statements carefully.
1. 'A' is an organ which is responsible for the gaseous exchange in tadpole.
2. 'B' is a 3 carbon molecule formed as an end product of glycolysis.
3. 'C' is the structural and functional unit of lungs.
Select the option which correctly identifies 'A', 'B' and 'C'.
A B C

(1) Heart Citric acid Neuron

(2) Gills Pyruvate Alveoli

(3) Kidney Urea Bronchi

(4) Lungs Pyruvate Nephron

34. Enzymes are the biological catalyst. In the alimentary canal, different enzymes are secreted which help in
conversion of complex nutrients into simpler absorbable form. Pepsin is secreted by gastric glands while trypsin
is secreted by pancreas. What is common between pepsin and trypsin?
(1) They are active at alkaline pH = 10. (2) They are active at acidic pH = 2.
(3) Both of them are starch digesting enzymes. (4) Both of them are protein digesting enzymes.

35. If a person's kidney is not working properly, a porous membrane is used to filter the blood during the process 'x'
in a machine called 'y'. What is 'y' & 'x' respectively ?
(1) Dialysis & Sphygmomanometer (2) Haemodialyzer & Haemodialysis
(3) Haemodialysis & Haemodialyzer (4) Ultrafiltration & Haemodialyzer

36. The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber which is anatomically an air tight chamber. The Thoracic
chamber in humans is formed ventrally by 'X' and dorsally by 'Y'. Its lower side is formed by 'Z' There is upward
and outward movement of 'X' during the process of 'A' while upward movement of 'Z' during the process of 'B'.
Refer to the given statements.
(i) 'X' is sternum, 'Y' is vertebral column and 'A' is exhalation.
(ii) 'B' is exhalation, 'Y' is vertebral column and 'Z' is diaphragm.
(iii) 'A' is inhalation, 'B' is exhalation & 'Y' is sternum.
(iv) 'Y' is vertebral column, 'B' is inhalation and 'X' is ribs.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct with respect to 'X', 'Y', 'Z', 'A' & 'B'?
(1) (i), (ii) & (iv) only (2) (ii) only (3) (i) & (iv) only (4) (i) & (ii) only

37. Select the incorrect statement from the given options.

(1) The passage of unwanted substances out of the capillaries directly into the renal tubule is called
tubular secretion.
(2) During reabsorption, substances considered necessary in the filtrate are reabsorbed by renal tubules
which then travel back into blood stream.
(3) Maximum reabsorption occurs in DCT due to the presence of numerous microvilli.
(4) Glomerular capillaries are more permeable in nature than rest of the capillaries.

38. Which of the following statements is correct regarding lymph?

(1) Lymph is similar to blood plasma but is colourless and contains less amount of protein.
(2) Lymph contains platelets which fight against germs.
(3) Lymph contains WBC's which helps in blood clotting.
(4) Lymph absorbs & carry digested carbohydrate from intestine.
39. Read the statements carefully and select the option which correctly identifies true (T) and false (F) statements.
A. HCl converts pepsin to pepsinogen and prorennin to rennin.
B. Larynx is a common passage for the inhaled air and swallowed food.
C. Duodenum receives both bile and pancreatic juice.
D. Gall bladder synthesizes & secretes bile and it is stored in liver.
E. Maximum absorption of digested food occurs in small intestine.
F. Liver is the largest gland of our body and is located in upper left side of abdominal cavity.
A B C D E F
(1) T F T E T F
(2) F F T F T F
(3) F T T F T F
(4) T T T T T F
40. The water absorption by the root hairs from the soil occurs by the process of _______.
(1) Osmosis (2) Guttation
(3) Active transport (4) Both (2) & (3)
41. Refer to the given diagram of a cross section of the stem.

Read the given statements carefully-

(i) Part 'X' is involved in the conduction of water & minerals in the upward direction.
(ii) Part 'Y' is composed of mostly dead components.
(iii) Part 'Y' is involved in the upward movement of water.
(iv) Part 'X' is composed of sieve tube, companion cells, parenchyma & fibres.
(v) In non-flowering plants, the main water conducting element of 'Y' is tracheids.
Select the option with correct set of statements : -
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) only (2) (i), (ii) & (v) only
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) only (4) (i), (iii) & (v) only
42. Match the Column-I with Column-II & select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) White blood cells (i) Blood clotting
(b) Capillaries (ii) Flows from tissue to heart
(c) Lymph (iii) Transports O2 from lungs to the tissue
(d) Platelets (iv) Exchange of gases between blood & tissue
(e) Hemoglobin (v) Protection from pathogen
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c) -(ii), (d)-(iii), (e)-(i)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c) -(i), (d)-(v), (e)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c) -(ii), (d)-(i), (e)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c) -(i), (d)-(iii), (e)-(ii)
43. Select the incorrect statement from the given options.
(1) Using tobacco directly or any product of tobacco in the form of cigar, cigarettes, bidis, hookah,
gutkha etc. is harmful.
(2) Use of tobacco affects only lungs.
(3) Smoking tobacco is a major risk factor for heart attacks, strokes and pulmonary diseases.
(4) Smoking destroys cilia of respiratory tract due to which germs, dust, smokes and other harmful
chemicals enter the lungs and cause infection.
44. In case of humans, blood passes twice through the heart during completion of full circuit. It includes (i) and
––––––––
(ii) circulation. During (i) , circulation of blood occurs in between heart and lungs while during
––––––––– ––––––––
(ii) , circulation of blood occurs in between heart and remaining parts of the body except air sacs of lungs.
–––––––––
Identify (i) and (ii).
(1) (i)-Systemic circulation, (ii)-Pulmonary circulation
(2) (i)-Pulmonary circulation, (ii)-Systemic circulation
(3) (i)-Coronary circulation, (ii)-Systemic circulation
(4) (i)-Systemic circulation, (ii)-Coronary circulation
45. Read the given information carefully & select the option which correctly fill in the blank.
Endothermic processes in the cell use ATP to drive the reactions. When the terminal phosphate linkage in ATP is
broken using water, the energy equivalent to _______ is released.
(1) 40.5 kcal/mol (2) 30.5 kcal/mol
(3) 10.5 kJ/mol (4) 30.5 kJ/mol
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

46. If 3a = 2b = 6c, then the value of c is equal to

(1) a+b (2) −ab (3) ab (4) ab

ab a+b a+b a−b

47. If P(x) = (x – 7)3 – 36x + 252, then the ratio of zeroes of P(x) is
(1) 1 : 7 : 14 (2) 6 : 7 : 13 (3) 1 : 6 : 7 (4) 1 : 7 : 13

48. In the given figure (not drawn to scale), BC is a diameter of a circle with centre O and ∠ BAO = 60°, then
∠ ADC is equal to

(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90°

49. If the area of an equilateral triangle is 64 3cm2 , then its perimeter will be

(1) 24 cm (2) 48 cm (3) 64 cm (4) 32 cm

1 1
50. If the mean of y and is M, then the mean of y2 and is
y y2

(1) M2 (2) M2 (3) 2M2 – 1 (4) 2M2 + 1

4

51. If θ be the semi-vertical angle of a right circular cone with radius r, then its curved surface area is given by
(1) π r2sin θ (2) π r2cosec θ
(3) π r2cos θ (4) π r2sec θ

52. If G is the centroid of the equilateral triangle ABC. If AB = 10 cm, then the length of AG is
5 3 10 3 5 3cm 10 3cm
(1) cm (2) cm (3) (4)
3 3
1 1 m 3 −p m−p
53. If R = 28 − 16 3 and R 4 + R− 4 = , then the value of is
q q
(1) 2 (2) – 1 (3) 1 (4) – 2
54. Three friends Rohan, Sudhir and Alok are sitting at three different places in a park. Considering center of park as
origin, coordinates of position of Rohan, Sudhir and Alok are R( – 4, 5), S( – 4, 2) and A(3, 2) respectively. After
some time, one more friend Pawan came and sat at a place in park such that all four friends makes a rectangle.
Then the coordinates of position of Pawan are
(1) ( – 3, 5) (2) (3, 5)
(3) ( – 4, – 5) (4) (2, – 5)
55. If one of the zero of the cubic polynomial x3 + ax2 + bx + c is – 1, then product of the other two zeroes is
(1) a – b – 1 (2) b – a – 1
(3) 1 – a + b (4) 1 + a – b
56. If 3 tan θ = 3 sin θ, then the value of sin2 θ − cos2 θ is

(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 1 (4) 1
2 3
57. If a linear equation in two variables has solutions ( – 3, 3), (0, 0) and (3, – 3), then it is of the form
(1) y – x = 0 (2) x + y = 0
(3) – 2x + y = 0 (4) – x + 2y = 0
2sinθ 2sinθ sinθ − 3cosθ + 3 1 − cosθ + sinθ
58. If m = and p = . Then the value of + is
1 + sinθ + cosθ 1 + cosθ + 3sinθ 2 − 2cosθ 1 + sinθ
given by
1
(1) m+ (2) mp + 1
p
(3) m + p (4) m – p
59. A sphere is inscribed in a cube of edge length ‘a’. If sphere touches each of the faces of cube, then the minimum
distance between vertex of the cube to sphere is
3−1 3+1
(1) a (2) a
2 2

a 3a
(3) 2
(4)
2
60. In triangle DEF shown below, points A, B and C are taken on DE, DF and EF respectively such that EC = AC
and CF = BC. If ∠ D = 40° then what is the value of ∠ ACB ?

(1) 140° (2) 70° (3) 100° (4) 105°

This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man says, "Her mother’s mother is the mother of my father." How is the
man related to the woman in the photograph?
(1) Uncle (2) Cousin
(3) Nephew (4) Grandson
62. Vishvendra was born on Sunday, 12th July 1992. On what day of the week was he 11 years 6 months and 5 days
of age?
(1) Tuesday (2) Friday
(3) Wednesday (4) Saturday
63. If 1st January 1995 was Wednesday, what day of the week will be on 1st January 2095?
(1) Saturday (2) Tuesday
(3) Sunday (4) Monday
64. At what time between 5 o’clock and 6 o’clock in the morning will be both hands of a clock be at 25°?
(1) 7 (2) 8
5 : 23 5 : 22
11 11
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
65. In every 30 minutes the time of a watch increase by 2 minutes after setting the correct time at 5 p.m. What time
will the watch show after 8 hours?
(1) 03 : 16 p.m. (2) 01 : 16 a.m.
(3) 01 : 32 p.m. (4) 01 : 32 a.m.
66. In a certain code language JAISALMER is coded as JAILSARME, then HYDERABAD is coded as
__________.
(1) HYDAERDBA (2) HYDRBEDAA
(3) HYDBDREAA (4) HYDEADRAB
67. Count the number of triangles in the given figure.

(1) 40 (2) 32
(3) 28 (4) 42
68. Which number will come in place of the question mark?

(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 6 (4) 4

69. In the evening two friends Raman and Sahil were talking to each other face to face. If Raman’s shadow was
exactly to his left side. Which direction was Sahil facing?
(1) North (2) South
(3) West (4) East

70. In the following question, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figures (1), (2), (3) and (4), such
that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which contains fig. (X) as its part.

(X)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

71. Which one of the following interchanges in signs would make the given equation correct :-
4 ÷ 2 + 16 × 2 – 16 = 0
(1) ÷ and × (2) + and –
(3) ÷ and + (4) × and –

72. Select the number from the given alternatives that will replace the question mark (?).

(1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 6 (4) 4
73. If code for the word ‘LIGHT’ = 521, ‘ELECTRIC’ = 215 and ‘COMPONENT’ = 927, then using the same code
language, find the code for the word ‘RED’.
(1) 72 (2) 512 (3) 71 (4) 641
74. Find the missing term in the given series.
62, 70, 77, 91, 101, ?, 107
(1) 102 (2) 105 (3) 103 (4) 108
75. Find the wrong term in the given series.
5, 11, 24, 145, 977, 10707
(1) 145 (2) 10707 (3) 977 (4) 24
76. There are five friends P, Q, R, S and T. P is shorter than Q but taller than T, R is tallest, S is little shorter than Q
and little taller than P. If they are standing in the order of their heights. Who will be in the middle ?
(1) S (2) R (3) P (4) Q
77. In a row, ‘A’ is 16th from the left end and ‘B’ is 14th from the right end. If there are 5 persons in between ‘A’ and
‘B’. What is the minimum number of persons in that row ?
(1) 25 (2) 22 (3) 23 (4) 24
78. There are six books A, B, C, D, E and F. B, C and E have green covers while the rest have black covers. D and F
are new books while the rest are old books. A, C and D are law reports while the rest are physics. Which is the
black covered new law report book?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
79. Six persons are seated around a circular table facing centre.
‘A’ is fourth to the right of ‘B’.
‘C’ and ‘D’ are opposite to each other.
‘C’ is not adjacent to ‘A’ or ‘B’.
‘E’ is second to the left of ‘F’.
Who is opposite to ‘B’ ?
(1) E (2) F (3) A (4) D
80. Read all the statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the two given
statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements : (i) All lamps are books.
(ii) Some books are coloured.
Conclusions : (I) Some lamps are coloured.
(II) Some coloured are not books.
(1) Only conclusion I follows (2) Only conclusion II follows
(3) Both conclusions I and II follow (4) Neither conclusion I nor II follow
 ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 1 4 3 4 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 3 3

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 2 4 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 3 1 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 3 2 2 4 3 4 3 2 3 2 2 3 2 3 4 2 1 1 3
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 2 4 2 2 4 1 4 2 1 3 1 4 1 3 3 1 3 4 2 4

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