10-08-2025

1902CMD303031250008 MD

PHYSICS

1) Initial velocity of a body moving with a uniform acceleration of 2 m/sec2 is 10 m/sec. Its velocity
after an interval of 4 sec. is :

(1) 12 m/sec.
(2) 14 m/sec.
(3) 16 m/sec.
(4) 18 m/sec.

2) A person walks a distance of 30 m towards west with a speed of 2 ms–1 and 40 m towards north
with a speed of 1.5 ms–1. Then average speed and average velocity of his journey are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A person can throw a stone to a maximum distance of h metre. The greatest height to which he
can throw the stone is :-

(1) h
(2) h/2
(3) 2h
(4) 3h

4) A particle moves in a straight line and its position x at time t is given by x2 = 2 + t. Its
acceleration is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A shell is fired vertically upwards with a velocity v1 from the deck of a ship moving with a speed
v2. A person on the shore observes the motion of the shell as a parabola. Its horizontal range is given
by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The area under velocity time graph for a particle in a given interval of time represents :

(1) Velocity
(2) Acceleration
(3) Work done
(4) Displacement

7) A particle is fired with velocity u making an angle θ with the horizontal. What is the magnitude of
change in velocity when it is at the highest point :-

(1) u cosθ
(2) u
(3) u sinθ
(4) (u cosθ–u)

8) A ball falls from the window of a railway carriage moving horizontally with a constant velocity v.
The path followed by the ball as seen by a person on the ground is :-

(1) straight line

(2) parabola
(3) hyperbola
(4) elliptical

9) Figure shows position-time graph of two cars A and B.

(1) Car A is faster than car B.

(2) Car B is faster than car A.
(3) Both cars are moving with same velocity
(4) Both cars have non zero positive acceleration.

10) A coin is released inside a lift at a height of 2 m from the floor of the lift. The height of the lift is
10 m. The lift is moving with an acceleration of 9 m/s2 downwards. The time after which the coin will
strike with the lift is

(1) 4s
(2) 2s

(3)

(4)

11) A boat having a speed of 5 km/hr. in still water, crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest
possible path in 15 minutes. The speed of the river in Km/hr :

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4)

12) Two particles are separated by a horizontal distance x as shown in figure. They are projected as
shown in figure with different initial speeds. The time after which the horizontal distance between

them becomes zero is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

13) Rain is falling vertically downwards with a velocity of 3 km/h. A man walks in the rain with a
velocity of 4 km/h. The raindrops will fall on the man with a velocity of :

(1) 1 km/h
(2) 3 km/h
(3) 4 km/h
(4) 5 km/h

14) A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of 5 m./min. A man on the south bank of the river,
capable of swimming at 10 m./min in still water, wants to swim across the river in shortest time. He
should swim in a direction :-
(1) Due north
(2) 30º east of north
(3) 30º west of north
(4) 60º east of north

15) A river is flowing at 3m/s. A boat can move at 5 m/s in still water. Boat starts from point A. Width

of river is 120 m. Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Boat can cross the river in minimum time 24 sec.

(2) Drift of the boat is zero if it starts at 127° from the direction of flow.
If boat is started perpendicular to the flow w.r.t. river then it will appear to move at 37° from
(3)
direction of river flow for the ground observer.
(4) If boat crosses the river in minimum time, drift of boat will be 72 m.

16)

If the rain is falling vertically downwards with velocity 20 m/s and if a bike is going with velocity 30
m/s. Calculate at what angle from the vertical a man on the bike must incline his umbrella so that he
can save himself from rain :-

(1)

(2)

(3) tan–1 (1)

(4)

17) A bird is flying towards north with a velocity 40 km h–1 and a train is moving with velocity 40 km
h–1 towards east. What is the velocity of the bird noted by a man in the train?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) A Train is moving with a speed of 10 m/s. A child is running inside the train with a speed of 2m/s,
w.r.t. train then find the time taken by child to cover 24 m inside the train :-

(1) 2 sec
(2) 3 sec
(3) 6 sec
(4) 12 sec
19) A light string passes over a frictionless pulley. To one of its ends a mass of 6 kg is attached and

to its other end a mass of 10 kg is attached. The tension in the string will be :-

(1) 50 N
(2) 75 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 150 N

20) A force newton produces acceleration 1 m/s2 in a body. The mass of the body is
(in kg) :-

(1)
(2) 100
(3)
(4) 10

21) The ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary lift and in a lift accelerate downwards with a
uniform acceleration 'a' is 3 : 2 The acceleration of the lift is :-

(1) g/3
(2) g/2
(3) g
(4) 2g

22) Three blocks of masses m1, m2 and m3 kg are placed in contact with each other on a frictionless

table. A force F is applied on the heaviest mass m1; the acceleration of m3 will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A rocket consumes fuel at the rate of 100 kg/s. The exhust gases are ejected at a speed of 5 ×
104 m/s. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the force experienced by the rocket is :-
(1) 5 × 102 N
(2) 5 × 104 N
(3) 5 × 106 N
(4) 50 N

24) What is the tension in the rope at a distance x from the end where the force is applied ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) When an object is at rest :-

(1) Force is required to keep it in rest state

(2) No force is acting on it
(3) A large number of forces may be acting on it which balance each other.
(4) It is in vacuum.

26) A weight W is suspended from the ceiling and the wall of a corner with the help of light strings.
The tension in the horizontal string is measured to be 60 N, the weight W is closest to

(1) 42.4 N
(2) 60 N
(3) 62.5 N
(4) None of these

27) Three blocks are connected as shown in the fig. on a horizontal frictionless table. If m1 = 1
kg, m2 = 8 kg, m3 = 27 kg and T3 = 36 N, T2 will be :-

(1) 18 N
(2) 9 N
(3) 3.375 N
(4) 1.75 N

28) Force exerted by 5kg block on floor of lift is :-

(1) 100 N
(2) 115 N
(3) 105 N
(4) 135 N

29) Find out the acceleration and contact force between block and inclined plane :-

(1) 6 m/s2, 60 N
(2) 6 m/s2, 80 N
(3) 4 m/s2, 80 N
(4) 4 m/s2, 60 N

30) In the given figure if the acceleration of 10 kg block is 12 m/s2 then the acceleration of 20 kg

block is :-

(1) 12 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) Zero

31) Two blocks each of mass m are resting on a frictionless inclined plane as shown in figure. Then

acceleration of blocks
(1) The block A moves down the plane
(2) The block B moves down the plane
(3) Both the blocks remains at rest
(4) Both the blocks moves down the plane

32)

Three arrangement of a light spring balance are shown in fig. (a), (b) and (c). The readings of the
spring scales in three arrangements are, respectively.

(1) 20 g, 20 g, 10 g

(2)
20 g, 20 g,
(3) zero, 20 g, 10 g

(4)
zero, 20 g,

33) In the figure, the blocks A, B and C each of mass m have accelerations a1, a2 and a3 respectively.
F1 and F2 are external forces of magnitude 2 mg and mg respectively. Then -

(1) a1 = a2 = a3
(2) a1 > a3 > a2
(3) a1 = a2 , a2 > a3
(4) a1 > a2 , a2 = a3

34) When an object is in equilibrium state, then

(1) It must be at rest

(2) No force is acting on it
(3) Its net acceleration must be zero
(4) All of these
35) In the figure shown, a rod of length l (< 2R) and mass m is kept horizontally inside a smooth

spherical shell as shown in the figure. The normal reaction when is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Three books (X. Y, and Z) rest on a table. The weight of each book is indicated. The net force

acting on book Y is:

(1) 4N down
(2) 5N up
(3) 9N down
(4) zero

37) In the fig. mass M = 10 g. is placed on an inclined plane. In order to keep it at rest, the value of
mass m will be:

(1) 5 g
(2)
(3) 0.10g
(4)

38) Two masses m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 4.8 kg tied to a string are hanging over a light frictionless
pulley. What is the acceleration of the masses when they are free to move? (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 0.2 m/s2

(2) 9.8 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 4.8 m/s2

39) Three weight A, B and C are connected by string as shown in the figure. The system moves over
a frictionless pulley. The tension in the string connecting A and B is (where g is acceleration due to

gravity)

(1) g

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The mechanical advantage of a wheel axle is 5. What will be the force required to lift a 200 kg

(1) 10 kg wt
(2) 2 kg wt
(3) 20 kg wt
(4) 40 kg wt

41) Two objects A and B of masses 2 kg and 4kg are connected by a uniform rope of mass 4kg as
shown in the diagram. A force of magnitude 80N acts on A in vertically upward direction. Tension at
mid point of the rope is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 32 N
(2) 40 N
(3) 42 N
(4) 48 N

42) Figure shows the position (x) – time (t) graph of one-dimensional motion of a body of mass

0.4 kg. Find magnitude of each impulse is :-

(1) 0.2 N–s

(2) 0.4 N–s
(3) 0.8 N–s
(4) 1.6 N-s

43)

Tension in the rope at the rigid support is :-

(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 760 N
(2) 1360 N
(3) 1580 N
(4) 1620 N

44) Figure shows the position of a particle moving on the x-axis as a function of time. Choose the
WRONG statement :-

(1) The particle has come to rest 4 times

(2) The maximum speed is at t = 4 s
(3) The average velocity is zero for t = 2 s to t = 6 s
(4) Motion of particle is non-uniformly accelerated.

45) On an planet particle is thrown with a velocity . Then match the list.

List-I List-II
(P) Time of flight (1) 3
Time when particle is moving at an angle of 53° with
(Q) (2) 10
horizontal in upwards direction.
(R) Range of the particle (3) 50
(S) Maximum height of the particle (4) 60
(1) P → 2;Q → 1;R → 4;S → 3
(2) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 4
(3) P → 2;Q → 3;R → 4;S → 1
(4) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 1;S → 3

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following acid is most acidic ?

(1) HCl
(2) HF
(3) HI
(4) HBr

2) The element having the electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1 is

(1) A transition element

(2) A representative element
(3) An inert gas
(4) An inner-transition element

3) Which one is the correct order of the size of the iodine species.

(1) I > I+ > I–

(2) I > I– > I+
(3) I+ > I– > I
(4) I– > I > I+

4) Correct order of electronegativity of N, P, C and Si is -

(1) N < P < C < Si

(2) P > N > C > Si
(3) N > P > C > Si
(4) N > C > P > Si

5) Which carbon atom will show minimum electronegativity -

(1) Fifth
(2) Third
(3) First
(4) Second

6) In which of the excitation state of chlorine ClF3 is formed:-

(1) In ground state

(2) In third excitation state
(3) In first excitation state
(4) In second excitation state

7) The correct sequence which shows decreasing order of the ionic radii of the elements is

(1) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2–

(2) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > O2– > F–
(3) Na+ > F– > Mg2+ > O2– > Al3+
(4) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+

8) The order of basic character of given oxides is :

(1) Na2O > MgO > CuO > SiO2

(2) MgO > SiO2 > CuO > Na2O
(3) SiO2 > MgO > CuO > Na2O
(4) CuO > Na2O > MgO > SiO2

9) Which of the following has maximum EA, EN and IP respectively ?

A = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6
B = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5
C = 1s2, 2s2, 2p5
D = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
(1) C, B, D
(2) B, C, A
(3) D, C, A
(4) A, C, B

10) Correct statement/statements for oxygen is/are

(A) It's E. A. is minimum in its group
(B) It's 1st I. E. is less than 'N'
(C) It's E. N. is more than 'N'
(D) It's atomic radius is larger than fluorine

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, C
(3) A, B
(4) B, C

11) Assertion : F is more electronegative than Cl.

Reason : F has high electron affinity than Cl.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explantion of the assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

12) Suppose an orbital may accomodate 3 electrons then the number of elements in IV period.

(1) 18
(2) 27
(3) 12
(4) 45

13) Ionization energies of element A are given below in KJ/Mol :-

IE1 IE2 IE3
120 430 13000
If A reacts with different elements, which compounds are possible :-

(1) AF
(2) A2O
(3) A3N
(4) A3N2

14) Correct order of EA is :-

Correct option is (3)

(1) O > S > Se

(2) Br < Cl < I
(3) C > Li > Be
(4) B < C > Cl

15) Transition element from Z = 39 to Z = 48 belong to :-

(1) 3d series
(2) 4d series
(3) 5d series
(4) 6d series

16) In which of the following pair of species IE of first species is more than that of second
species,but reverse is true for IE2 :-

(1) N, O
(2) Mn, Cr
(3) F, O
(4) All of the above

17) Mark the incorrect order :-

(1) H– < Li+ < Be+2 < B+3 : Ionization energy

– + +2 +3
(2) H < Li < Be < B : Zeff
(3) H– < Li+ < Be+2 < Be+3 : Ionic radius
(4) All of these

18)

Electronic configuration of four elements A,B,C and D are given below :

(a) 1s2 2s2 2p6
(b) 1s2 2s2 2p4
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p5
Which of the following is the correct order increasing tendency to gain electron?

(1) a < c < b < d

(2) a < b < c < d
(3) d < b < c < a
(4) d < a < b < c

19) Which of the following pair of chalcogen group have minimum and maximum electron affinity
respectively :-

(1) O, S
(2) S, Po
(3) Po, O
(4) Se, O
20) Which pair of elements are transition elements :-

(1) Sc, Zn
(2) Sc, Cu
(3) Cu, Ag
(4) Both 2 & 3

21) Which of the following is metalloide :-

(1) Silicon
(2) Oxygen
(3) Carbon
(4) Sulphur

22) Transition metals lies in the periodic table between ?

(1) group 3 and 5

(2) group 2 and 3
(3) group 2 and 12
(4) group 4 and 16

23) The element whose electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 is a/an :-

(1) Metal
(2) Metalloid
(3) Inert gas
(4) Non metal

24) The number of periods and groups in the long form of the periodic table :-

(1) 7 and 9
(2) 8 and 18
(3) 7 and 18
(4) 6 and 10

25) The 3rd period of the periodic table contains :-

(1) 8 elements
(2) 32 elements
(3) 3 elements
(4) 18 elements

26) According to modern periodic law, the chemical properties of elements are the periodic function
of their :-

(1) Atomic mass

(2) Atomic number
(3) Density
(4) Volume

27) IUPAC name of the element placed just after actinide series :-

(1) Unniltrium
(2) Unnilpentium
(3) Unnilquadium
(4) Ununbium

28) Statement-1 : Be has more ionisation energy as compared to B.

Statement-2 : The penetration of a 2s electron to the nucleus is more than that of 2p electron :-

(1) Statement-1 is correct statement-2 is incorrect

(2) Statement-1 is incorrect statement-2 is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

29) Assertion : Electron affinity of F is greater than Cl.

Reason : Ionisation energy of F is less than Cl.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

30) Assertion : The elements having 1s22s22p63s2 and 1s22s2 configurations belong to the same
group.
Reason : Both have same number of electrons in the valence shell.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

31) Elements in and beyond the third period can expand their octet in the molecules like PF5, SF6
etc, because :-

(1) they contain more than eight-electron in the outermost shell.

(2) their atomic size is large.
(3) they have vacant (n – 1)d orbitals.
(4) They have vacant nd orbitals.

32) The octet rule is not valid for the molecule :-

(1) CO2
(2) H2O
(3) O2
(4) CO

33) In which of the following molecules, the central atom does not follow the octet rule ?

(1) H2O
(2) H2S
(3) BF3
(4) CO2

34)

Which overlapping is involved in HCl molecule :–

(1) s–s overlap

(2) p–p overlap
(3) s–d overlap
(4) s–p overlap

35)

Which of the following overlapping is strongest ?

(1) 1s – 1s
(2) 2p – 2p
(3) 2s – 2p
(4) 1s – 2p

36)

p–p overlapping will be observed in the molecules of:

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Hydrogen bromide
(3) Hydrogen chloride
(4) Chlorine

37) If px orbital overlap with py orbital along y-axis the bond formed is :-

(1) σ bond
(2) π bond
(3) both can be formed
(4) No bond is formed
38)

has

(1) 7σ + 4π bonds
(2) 7σ + 3π bonds
(3) 12σ + 6π bonds
(4) 13σ + 5π bonds

39) If Z is internuclear axis then which of the following overlapping produce correct bond given ?

(1) px–px→(σ)
(2) px–pz→(π)
(3) s + pz → (π)
(4) dzx + px → (π)

40) Carbon dioxide is gas, while SiO2 is solid because :

(1) CO2 is a linear molecule, while SiO2 is angular

(2) van der Waal’s forces are very strong in SiO2
(3) CO2 is covalent, while SiO2 is ionic
(4) Si cannot form stable bonds with O, hence Si has to form a 3D lattice

41) Most effective π-bond is :

(1) 2pπ-3pπ
(2) 3dπ-3dπ
(3) 2pπ-3dπ
(4) 3dπ-3pπ

42) Types of π-bond in SO3

(1) pπ-pπ
(2) dπ-pπ
(3) dπ-pπ
(4) pπ-pπ and dπ-pπ

43) Which p-orbitals overlapping would give the strongest bond?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The number of lone pairs of electrons in XeF4 molecule is

(1) 2
(2) 14
(3) 6
(4) 12

45) Which of the following molecule has both pπ – pπ and pπ –dπ bond.

(1) POCl3
(2) XeO3
(3) SO3
(4) CO2

BIOLOGY

1) Ernst Mayr was a :-

(1) Russian scientist

(2) German Botanist
(3) Indian Zoologist
(4) German Zoologist

2) Nomenclature is must in taxonomy. Which of the following is not correct about scientific
nomenclature?

(1) It ensures that each organism has only one name

(2) It also ensures that such a name has not been used for any other known organism
(3) Scientific nomenclature is a standardized naming system
(4) Different countries of the world use different kins of scientific nomenclature

3) The naming of animals is governed by which of the following codes?

(1) ICZN – International Code of Zoological Nomenclature

(2) ICBN – International Code of Botanical Nomenclature.
(3) ISO – International Scientific Organization.
(4) NCERT – National Code of Educational Research and Training.

4) Which of the following is/are correct about scientific naming?

I. It ensures that one organism has only one name.
II. Names are based on internationally accepted codes.
III. Any name can be reused for different organisms.

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I, II, and III

5) Organism from poales order is-

(1) Solanum nigrum

(2) Panthera pardus
(3) Triticum aestivum
(4) Solanum melongena

6)

Biodiversity can be best defined as

(1) occurrence of the number and types of organisms

(2) species and ecosystem of a region
(3) variety of life in a ecosystem
(4) totality of genes, species and ecosystem of a given region

7)

The number of species that are known and described rages between

(1) 1.7-1.8 million

(2) 1 million
(3) 50 million
(4) 2 million

8) Standardising the name of living organism is known as

(1) classification
(2) identification
(3) nomenclature
(4) Both (1) and (3)

9)

Which of first step in taxonomy?

(1) Description of the organism

(2) Identification of the organism
(3) Nomenclature of the organism
(4) Classification of the organism

10) ICBN stands for

(1) Indian congress of biological Name

(2) International Code for botanical Nomenclature
(3) International Congress of Biological Name
(4) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature

11) Statement I :- As we go higher from species to kingdom, the no. of common characteristics goes
on decreasing
Statement II :- Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and
preserved on sheet

(1) Statement I is correct and statement is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect and statement is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

12)

Organisms are given scientific names because

(1) it ensures that each organisms has only one name

(2) it ensures that no name is used twice
(3) it ensures desired name for the organisms
(4) Bothe (1) and (2)

13)

According to the binomial nomenclature, scientific name of an organism consists of

(1) generic name

(2) specific epithet
(3) Both(1) and (2)
(4) None of these

14)

In Mangifera indica, the word Mangifera is a

(1) Genus
(2) Species
(3) Variety
(4) Order

15) Scientific name are printed............ and derived from........

(1) Bold and English

(2) Italics and Latin
(3) Italics and German
(4) Italics and French

16)

Which one is the incorrectly written scientific name?

(1) Panthera tigris

(2) Mangifera indica
(3) Panthera leo
(4) Columba LIVEA

17)

In binomial nomenclature, the name of author appears after the

(1) genus
(2) family
(3) species
(4) taxa

18)

Select the correctly written scientific name Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus.

(1) Mangifera indica Linn.

(2) Mangifera indica
(3) Mangifera indica
(4) Mangifera Indica Car. Linn.

19)

Earlier classification system included bacteria, BGA (blue green algae) fungi, mosses, ferns under
'Plants' on basis of

(1) Mode of nutrition.

(2) Body organization & nuclear structure.
(3) Presence of cell wall.
(4) Nature of cell wall.

20) “The Domain system Classification divides the Kingdom Monera into ———A——-, Eukaryotic
kingdoms are put into —-B— and thereby a six kingdom classification.

(1) A-Five Domain, B-One Domain

(2) A-Three Domain, B-Three Domain
(3) A-Two Domain, B-Four Domain
(4) A-Two Domain, B-One Domain

21)

Alsatian is a breed of-

(1) Dog
(2) Rice
(3) Cat
(4) Wheat

22)

Statement-1: Genus may have one or more than one specific epithet representing different
organisms
Statement-2: Genera are aggregates of closely related species.

Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is

(1)
incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is
(2)
correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

23)

Arrange the taxonomic category of Musca domestica from class to genus-

Mammalia - A
Insecta - B
Diptera - C
Musca - D
Muscaidae - E
Primata - F

(1) B → C → E → D
(2) B → F → E → C
(3) A → C → F → E
(4) A → F → D → A

24) Kingdom protista includes :-

(1) Unicellular prokaryotes

(2) Multicellular prokaryotes
(3) Unicellular eukaryotes
(4) Multicellular eukaryotes

25) Chlorella are placed according to Whittaker classification :

(1) Pyrrophyta
(2) Protozoans
(3) Protista
(4) Both in pyrrophyta and crysophyta

26)

Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
(Systems of classification) (Given by)

A. Two kingdom system of classification 1. RH Whittaker

B. Five kingdom system of classification 2. Carl Woese

C. Six kingdom system of classification 3. Carolus Linnaeus

Codes
A B C

(a) 2 1 3

(b) 1 2 4

(c) 4 3 1

(d) 3 1 2
(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

27)

The plant family-Solanaceae is included in which order?

(1) Felidae
(2) Conidae
(3) Ploymoniales
(4) Dimoniales

28)

How many of following are prokaryotes: Bacteria, Mosses, ferns, fungi, pteridophyta, blue green
algae, gymnosperms angiosperm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) More than 4

29) How many kingdom from R.H. Whittaker system does have exclusive autotrophic mode of
nutrition

(1) Zero
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

30)

In five kingdom classification multicellularity began from-

(1) Animalia
(2) Plantae
(3) Protista
(4) Fungi

31)

Aristotle classified the plants on the basis of their morphological characters and categorised them
into

(1) trees, shrubs and herbs

(2) algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms
(3) embryophytes and tracheophytes
(4) algae and embryophytes

32)

Who proposed two kingdom system of classification and named kingdoms as Plantae and Animalia?

(1) Carolus Linnaeus

(2) RH Whittaker
(3) Carl Woese
(4) Herbert Copeland

33)

In five kingdom system of classification of RH Whittaker, how many kingdoms contain eukaryotes?

(1) Four kingdoms

(2) One kingdom
(3) Two kingdoms
(4) Three kingdoms

34)

Cyanobacteria are classified under which of the following kingdom?

(1) Protista
(2) Monera
(3) Algae
(4) Plantae

35)

Statement 1: The taxonomic studies of various species of plants and animals are useful in agriculture
forestry, industry and in general for knowing our bio resources and their diversity.
Statement 2: Classification is a single step process but involves hierarchy of steps in which each step
represent rank and category.

(1) Statement 1 is correct and Statement is incorrect

(2) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement is
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

36)

The naming system, which is practised by biologists all over world, was given by-

(1) Carolus Linnaeus

(2) Whittaker
(3) Haeckel
(4) Woese

37)

In hierarchical classification class is interpolated between

(1) Kingdom and phylum

(2) Order and Family
(3) Phylum and order
(4) Family and genus

38)

The taxonomic category assigned to Mammalia is

(1) Family
(2) Genus
(3) Class
(4) Order

39)

Higher taxa share

(1) Least common characters

(2) Maximum common characters
(3) No common characters
(4) Exactly similar common characters

40)

Choose the incorrect match.

(1) Order - a group of related families

(2) Genus - a group of related species
(3) Class - a group of related orders
(4) Division - a group of related phyla

41) The scientific name of wheat is

(1) Mangifera indica

(2) Triticum aestivum
(3) Triticum poales
(4) None of these

42)

Statement I :- Insects represent a group of organisms sharing common features like three pairs of
jointed legs.
Statement II :- Taxonomical studies of all known organisms have led to the development of common
categories such as kingdom, phylum or division (for animals)

(1) Statement I is correct and statement is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect and statement is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

43) Which taxonomic category of mango and wheat is similar?

(1) Order and Family

(2) Only Division
(3) Division and class
(4) Division, Class and Order

44) The odd taxonomic category among the given option is

(1) Triticum
(2) Homo
(3) Musca
(4) Poaceae

45)

Poales and Sapindales represent

(1) Genus
(2) Class
(3) Order
(4) Species

46) During normal expiration :-

(1) EICM and diaphragm muscles contract

(2) IICM and abdominal muscles contract
(3) EICM and muscles of diaphragm relax
(4) Intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure

47)

Which enzyme is present in RBC to catalyse the given reactions ?

CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3–

(1) Catalase
(2) Peroxidase
(3) Carboxypeptidase
(4) Carbonic anhydrase

48) Amount of oxygen which supplies normally to body tissues through oxygenated blood (per 100
ml) :-

(1) 15 ml
(2) 5 ml
(3) 4 ml
(4) 20 ml

49) Assertion (A): Partial pressure of O2 in atmosphere is 0.3 mm Hg.

Reason (R): Partial pressure of CO2 in alveoli is 104 mm Hg.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) is incorrect

50)

Read the following steps of inspiration :-

(a) Increases thoracic volume
(b) Air move into lungs
(c) Contraction in diaphragm and EICM
(d) Increases pulmonary volume
(e) Lungs expand
(f) Decreases the intra pulmonary pressure (IPP)

Find out the correct sequence of these steps.

(1) a, b, c, d, e, f
(2) c, d, a, e, f, b
(3) c, a, e, d, f, b
(4) c, e, d, a, f, b

51) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column I Column II Column III

Tidal volume
(i) (EC – ERV) 500 ml
(TV)

Expiratory
(ii) reserve volume (VC – IRV – TV) 3000 ml
(ERV)

Vital capacity
(iii) IRV + ERV + RV 4500 ml
(VC)

Residual
(iv) FRC – ERV 1200 ml
volume (RV)
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)

52) When there is no air in initial bronchioles, they do not collapse. It is due to :-
(1) Presence of Lecithin
(2) Presence of cartilaginous rings
(3) Presence of bony rings
(4) Presence of mucous

53) The conducting part of respiratory tract does not help in :-

(1) Transport the atmospheric air to the alveoli.

(2) Clear air from foreign particles
(3) Humidity and bring the air to body temperature
(4) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and air

54) Approx _______ CO2 is transported with the help of _________ in the form of ______.

(1) 23 %, carbonic anhydrase, H+

27%, cytochrome oxidase,
(2)

(3) 97%, carbonic anhydrase, H+

70%, carbonic anhydrase,
(4)

55) Carotid body and aortic body can recognise change in :-

+
(1) CO2 and H concentration in CSF
+
(2) CO2 and H concentration in venous blood
+
(3) CO2 and H concentration in arterial blood
+
(4) CO2 and H concentration in tissue fluid

56) Proliferation of fibrous tissue occurs in which condition ?

(1) Asthma
(2) Emphysema
(3) Occupational respiratory disorders
(4) Pneumonia

57) Which of the following factor is not responsible for shifting of oxygen dissociation curve to words
right side ?

(1) High concentration of H+

(2) High temperature
(3) High pH
(4) High partial pressure of CO2

58) In oxygen dissociation curve x-axis and y-axis represented :

(1) x-axis – partial pressure of oxygen, y-axis – percentage saturation of Hb with oxygen
(2) x-axis – partial pressure of oxygen, y-axis – partial pressure of oxygen
(3) x-axis – partial pressure of CO2, y-axis – percentage saturation of oxyhaemoglobin with oxygen
(4) x-axis – partial pressure of CO2, y-axis – partial pressure of oxygen

59) The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be estimated by using a :

(1) Stethoscope
(2) Respirometer
(3) Spirometer
(4) Sphygmomanometer

60) Match the columns :

Column - I Column - I

A. Emphysema (i) Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface

B. Asthma (ii) Low atmospheric pressure

C. Silicosis/Asbestosis (iii) occupational disorder

D. Altitude sickness (iv) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles

(1) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (iii)
(2) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(3) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(4) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (ii)

61) Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveoli, atmospheric air and tissues will be :-

(1) 0.3, 40, 45

(2) 40, 0.3, 45
(3) 0.3, 104, 28
(4) 104, 159, 40

62) Which of the following cannot be measured using spirometer ?

(1) Residual volume

(2) Expiratory reserve volume
(3) Tidal volume
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume

63) Blood groups are controlled by antigens which are present :-

(1) On RBC membrane

(2) In cytoplasm of RBC
(3) In plasma
(4) In yellow bone marrow

64) Assertion :- Annelids and chordates have a closed circulatory system. Reason :- In annelids and
chordates the blood pumped by the heart is circulated through a closed network of blood vessels.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

65) Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid value caused by:

(1) increase in ventricular pressure during ventricular systole

(2) decrease in ventricular pressure during ventricular diastole
(3) decrease in atrial pressure during atrial diastole
(4) increase in atrial pressure during atrial systole

66) SAN is called pacemaker because :

(1) It is present in right upper corner of right atrium

(2) It is autoexcitable
(3) It can generate maximum number of action potential
(4) It is responsible for initiating and maintaing the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart.

67) In which of the following animal have incomplete double circulation :

(1) fish
(2) cyclostome
(3) Amphibia
(4) Birds

68) Coronary artery disease (CAD) is often referred to as :-

(1) Heart failure

(2) Cardiac arrest
(3) Atherosclerosis
(4) Angina
69) ____ Plays an important role in blood clotting :-

(1) Na+
(2) Cl–
(3) Ca++
(4) K+

70) Lymph is a :-

(1) Colourless fluid containing lymphocytes

(2) Straw coloured containing lymphocytes
(3) Colourless fluid containing monocytes
(4) Straw coloured containing monocytes

71) When Heart stops beating, it is called :-

(1) Cardiac arrest

(2) Heart attack
(3) Heart failure
(4) Heart block

72) Match the following correctly :-

(i) Stroke volume (a) 5000 ml. blood

(ii) Cardiac output (b) 120 ml. blood

(iii) End systolic volume (c) 70 ml. blood

(iv) End diastolic volume (d) 50 ml. blood

(1) i(d), ii(a), iii(b), iv(c)
(2) i(b), ii(d), iii(a), iv(c)
(3) i(c), ii(a), iii(d), iv(b)
(4) i(a), ii(c), iii(d), iv(b)

73) What will happen if a Rh– person donate blood to a Rh+ person for the first time

(1) Rh– person will die

(2) Rh+ person will die
(3) Nothing will happen to both
(4) Rh– will live and Rh+ would die

74) During a cardiac cycle each ventricle pumps out approximately A ml of blood. Which is called
B :–

(1) A = 5000 ml, B = Cardiac output

(2) A = 70 ml, B = Stroke volume
(3) A = 50 ml, B = Endsystolic volume
(4) A = 50 ml, B = stroke volume

75) Sino-atrial node (SAN) is a patch of nodal tissue is present in :-

(1) Right upper corner of right atrium

(2) Left upper corner of right atrium
(3) Right lower corner of left atrium
(4) Left lower corner of left atrium

76) Cells which secrete a vaso-constrictor are :-

(1) Plasma cells

(2) Mast cells
(3) Macrophages
(4) Fibroblast

77) Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) calcium is necessary for blood coagulation
(ii) coagulation in blood vessel is prevented during normal condition by heparin
(iii) clotting of blood involves changes of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin
(iv) blood clotting involves cascading process involving a number of factors present always in the
active form

(1) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

78) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

A. P-wave I. Beginning of systole

B. Q-wave II. Repolarisation of ventricles

C. QRS complex III. Depolarisation of atria

D. T-wave IV. Depolarisation of ventricles

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A)-I, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-IV
(2) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-II
(3) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-I
(4) (A)-II, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II

79) What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5L, blood volume in the
ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?
(1) 125 beat per minute
(2) 50 beats per minute
(3) 75 beats per minute
(4) 100 beats per minute

80) Read the following statements and mark the right option.
(I) A healthy person has 12 to 16 g of haemoglobin per 100 mL of blood
(II) The number of platelets in a normal individual is 1.5 lac to 3.5 lac per mm3 of blood
(III) Eosinophils are involved in allergic reactions

(1) Only (II) is correct

(2) Only (II) and (III) are correct
(3) Only (I) and (III) are correct
(4) All (I), (II) and (III) are correct

81) A unique vascular connection between our digestive tract and the liver is ________

(1) Arterial system

(2) Hypophyseal portal system
(3) Hepatic portal system
(4) Renal portal system

82) The valves of the heart are attached to papillary muscles by :

(1) Columnae carneae

(2) Chordae tendinae
(3) Tendon
(4) Pectinate muscles

83) The correct route through which cardiac-impulse travels in the heart is :-

(1) SA node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His → AV node

(2) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres
(3) AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibres
(4) AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His

84)

Administering anti Rh antibodies can be used to prevent

(1) Erythroblastosis fetalis

(2) myocardial infarction
(3) arteriosclerosis
(4) Raynaud's disease

85) Which of the following statement are/is true ?

(1) Alveolar wall is one celled thick
(2) The total thickness of diffusion membrane is much less than a millimeter
(3) At the level of alveoli, gaseous exchange occurs by simple diffusion
(4) All of these

86) Which structures are directly involved in the pulmonary circulation ?

(1) Right atrium, aorta and left ventricle

(2) Left ventricle, aorta and inferior vena cava
(3) Superior vena cava, right atrium and left atrium
(4) Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries and left atrium

87) Match the column I with column II and choose the correct answer from the option given below.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Cardiac cycle (i) 72/min

(b) Plasma (ii) 120/80 mmHg

(c) Systolic/Diastolic blood

(iii) 0.8 seconds
pressure

(d) Hemoglobin (iv) 12–16 gms in every 100 ml of blood

(e) Heart beat (v) 55% of the blood

a b c d e

A (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

B (iii) (v) (ii) (iv) (i)

C (iii) (i) (v) (ii) (iv)

D (v) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

88) Correct match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Neutrophils I. 20-25% of WBC

(B) Basophils II. 2-3% of WBC

(C) Monocytes III. 6-8% of WBC

(D) Eosinophils IV. 0.5-1% of WBC

(E) Lymphocytes V. 60-65% of WBC

(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II, E-V
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I
(3) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-V, B-II, C-IV, D-III, E-I

89) Fibrinogen to fibrin is catalysed by :-

(1) Prothrombin
(2) Thrombin
(3) Thromboplastin
(4) none

90) _____ is composed of just one cell layer.

(1) Arteriole
(2) Vein
(3) Venule
(4) Capillary
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 2 2 3 4 3 2 3 2 2 3 4 1 3 2 3 4 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 3 4 3 2 2 3 2 2 1 1 2 3 4 4 1 1 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 3 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 4 4 1 3 4 1 2 1 3 2 4 3 2 4 3 1 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 1 3 1 2 3 3 4 1 4 4 3 4 1 4 4 4 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 3 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 1 1 3 1 1 3 2 2 3 4 3 1 2 4 1 1 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 1 3 3 4 3 2 2 4 1 1 1 2 1 1 3 3 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 3 4 3 3 4 2 4 3 4 2 4 4 3 3 3 1 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 1 1 1 4 3 3 3 1 1 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 2 1 4 4 2 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

v = v + at

2) Displacement along west = 30m ;

Time taken t1 = = 15s

Displacement along north = 40 m ;

Time taken t2 =
Total distance travelled = 30 + 40 = 70m
Total displacement = = 50m

∴ Average speed = =

Average velocity =

3) R =

When 2θ = 90º, Rmax. = h, hence

Height H is given by : H =

when θ = 90°, H = Hmax =

4) x2 = 2 + t

2x =1

v=

a=v

a=

5)

Correct option is (3)

6)

Correct option is (4)

7)

Initially
magnitude of velocity at highest point
change in velocity

8)

Correct option is (2)

9)

Correct option is (3)

10)

Correct option is (2)

11)

Correct option is (2)

12)

Correct option is (3)

13)

Correct option is (4)

14)

Correct option is (1)

15)

Correct option is (3)

16)

Correct option is (2)

 17)

Correct option is (3)

18)

Correct option is (4)

19)

20)

F=
F = Ma

M= kg.

21)

22) a =

23) F = v = (5 × 104) (100) = 5 × 106 N

24)

L —→ M

1 —→

L – x —→ (L–x) = m1

T = Ma =
25) = 0 ( Particle is at rest)

26)

From eq. of system

Tcos45° = 60
T= 60N
Tsin45o = W
60= W
W = 60 N

27) T3 = (m1 + m2 + m3) a

36 = (1 + 8 + 27) a ⇒ a = 1ms–2
T2 = (m2 + m1) 9 = (8+1) (1) = 9 N

28)
N = 7(g + a)
N = 7(10 + 5)
N = 105 N

29)
N = 100 cos 37°

N = 100 ×
⇒ 80N
F = ma
100 sin 37° = 10 a

100 × = 10 a
a = 6 m/s2
30)

For 10 kg block
kx = 10(12)
kx = 120 N
For 20 kg block

20a' = 200 – kx

= 4m/s2

31)

Correct option is (1)

32)

Correct option is (1)

33)

Correct option is (2)

34)

Correct option is (3)

35)

Correct option is (4)

36)

Correct option is (4)

37) Recall and apply the formula of Newton's second law of motion, = .
38)
T – 4.8 g = 4.8 a
and 5g – T = 5a
Adding both these equations
0.2g = 9.8a
a = 0.2 m/s2

39)

40)

Correct option is (4)

41)

a = 2m/s2( )
60 – T = 12
T = 48 N

42)

Correct option is (3)

43)

Correct option is (3)

44) At t = 4 sec slope of x vs t is zero so velocity is zero.

45)
time when vy = 0
20 – 4t = 0
t=5
T = 2 × t = 10 sec

tan 53 =
 t = 3 sec
R = vx × T
= 6 × 10 = 60 m

CHEMISTRY

46)

Acidic strength order

HF < HCl < HBr < HI

47)

Correct option is (2)

48)

Correct option is (4)

49)

Correct option is (4)

50)

Correct option is (1)

51)

Correct option is (3)

52)

Correct option is (4)

53)

Correct option is (1)

54) Maximum EA = Cl = 3s2, 3p5

Maximum EN = F = 2s2, 2p5
Maximum IP = Inert gas = 2s2, 2p6
55)

Correct option is (1)

56)

Correct option is (3)

57)

4th period
subshells ⇒ 4s 3d 4p
no. of orbital = 9
9 × 3 = 27 elements

58)

IE1 IE2 Big jump IE3

120 430 13000
+2 +2 –3
∴A A N
A3N2

59)

Correct option is (3)

60)

Correct option is (2)

61)

Correct option is (4)

62)

Correct option is (3)

63)

Correct option is (1)

64)

Correct option is (1)

65) Answer - Option(4 )
Explanation - To determine which pair of elements are transition elements, we need to
consider the definition of transition elements.
Concept - Transition elements are elements that are found in the d-block of the periodic table,
where they have partially filled d-orbitals.
(Zinc (Zn) is in Group 12 and has a completely filled d-orbital (3d10)

66)

Correct option is (1)

67)

Correct option is (3)

68)

Correct option is (1)

69)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking for the total number of periods (horizontal rows)
and groups (vertical columns) present in the long form of the periodic table.

Underlying Concept: The periodic table is arranged in periods and groups based on the
atomic structure of elements. Periods correspond to the principal quantum number (n), which
indicates the number of electron shells, while groups correspond to columns that represent
elements with similar valence electron configurations, including both A and B subgroups.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. There are 7 periods because the principal quantum numbers go
from n = 1 to n = 7. 2. There are 18 groups that include both A and B subgroups, representing
distinct valence electron configurations.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the long form periodic table always has 7 periods and
commonly 18 groups when considering all blocks (s, p, d, f).

Common Mistakes: Confusing the number of groups with only the main groups (A groups),
which are fewer than 18. Sometimes students count only s and p blocks and miss the d and f
blocks which make up the total 18 groups.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like '7 and 9' or '8 and 18' mistake either the
number of periods or the groups. For example, '7 and 9' underestimates the total groups by
excluding the transition elements and inner transition elements, and '8 and 18' incorrectly
adds an extra period.
70)

Correct option is (1)

71)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which property (from Atomic mass, Atomic number,
Density, or Volume) determines the chemical properties of elements according to the modern
periodic law.

Underlying Concept: The modern periodic law states that the chemical properties of
elements are a periodic function of their atomic number, not their atomic mass. This is
because the atomic number represents the number of protons in an atom and thus determines
the arrangement of electrons, which governs chemical behavior.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that Mendeleev's original table was arranged by atomic mass,
but the modern table is arranged by atomic number, which resolves earlier inconsistencies.

Common Mistakes: Confusing atomic mass with atomic number as the basis for periodicity;
assuming density or volume affects chemical properties.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Atomic mass: Earlier periodic tables used atomic mass,
but this led to anomalies. Density and Volume: These are physical properties and do not define
chemical behavior.

72) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about which element is placed just after actinide series
Concept :
This Question is based on Actinide series.

Explanation & Solution :

The element placed just after the actinide series is Rutherfordium, also known as
Unnilquadium (Z = 104)

Answer : Option 3

73)

Correct option is (3)

74)

Explanation:
The question presents an assertion and reason about electron affinity and ionisation energy
trends of fluorine and chlorine, asking if they are true and related.
Concept:
The assertion that fluorine (F) has a greater electron affinity than chlorine (Cl) is false.
Chlorine's larger size minimizes electron repulsion, resulting in higher electron affinity. The
reason, stating fluorine's ionization energy is less than chlorine's, is also false. Ionization
energy decreases down the group. Both statements are incorrect.

Final Answer : Option (4)

75) Both has same no of valence electron.

76)

Correct option is (4)

77)

Correct option is (4)

78)

Correct option is (3)

79) Explanation:
Question is asking about overlapping in HCl
Concept:
Hybridiation.
Solution:
In HCl, the covalent bond is formed through s-p overlapping. The hydrogen atom contributes
its 1s orbital, while the chlorine atom contributes its 3p2 orbital.
Answer: 4

80)

Correct option is (1)

81)

Explain Question : Which molecule forms bond through p-p orbital overlapping only ?

Concept : This question is based on VBT

Solution : In Cl2 both atoms share electrons using p-p orbital overlap, forming sigma bond.
Cl – [Ne] 3s2, 3p5 ; 3p orbital take part in overlapping.

Final Answer : option (4)

 82)

Correct option is (4)

83)

A. Question Explanation:

The question asks you to count the number of sigma and pi bonds in the benzonitrile molecule.

B. Given Data:

A. The molecule is benzonitrile (C6H5CN).

C. Concept:

A. Sigma (σ) Bonds: Single covalent bonds formed by the head-to-head overlap of atomic
orbitals.
B. Pi (π) Bonds: Multiple covalent bonds (double or triple) formed by the sideways overlap of
atomic orbitals.
C. Benzene Ring (C6H5): Contains a ring of six carbon atoms with alternating double and single
bonds. It has 3 pi bonds within the ring.
D. Nitrile Group (CN): Contains a triple bond (one sigma and two pi bonds).

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Benzene Ring (C6H5):

A. 6 C-C sigma bonds in the ring.

B. 5 C-H sigma bonds.
C. 3 C-C pi bonds in the ring.
B. Nitrile Group (CN):

A. 1 C-C sigma bond (connecting the CN to the ring).

B. 1 C-N sigma bond.
C. 2 C-N pi bonds.
C. Total Sigma Bonds:

A. 6 (ring) + 5 (C-H) + 1 (C-C) + 1 (C-N) = 13 sigma bonds.

D. Total Pi Bonds:

A. 3 (ring) + 2 (C-N) = 5 pi bonds.

E. Final Answer:

The benzonitrile molecule has 4. 13 σ bonds and 5 π bonds.

F. Question Level - Easy

84)
 Correct option is (4)

85) Si can not form stable double bonds with oxygen just like CO2, hence Si has to form a 3D
lattice.

86)

Correct option is (3)

87)

Correct option is (4)

88)

Correct option is (3)

89)

Correct option is (2)

90)

SO3
sp2

BIOLOGY

91)

Correct answer is :- German Zoologist

92) Correct answer is :

Different countries of the world use different kins of scientific nomenclature

93) ICZN – International Code of Zoological Nomenclature

94) Correct answer is :-

I and II only
95) correct answer is : Triticum aestivum

96)

correct answer is : occurrence of the number and types of organisms

97) Correct answer is : 1.7-1.8 million

98) Correct answer is : nomenclature

99) Correct answer is : Identification of the organism

100) Correct answer is : International Code for botanical Nomenclature

101) Correct answer is : Both statements are correct

102) Correct answer is : Bothe (1) and (2)

103)

Correct answer is : Both(1) and (2)

104)

Correct answer is : Genus

105)

Correct answer is : Italics and Latin

106) Correct answer is : Columba LIVEA

107) Correct answer is : genus

108) Correct answer is : Mangifera indica Linn.

109)

Correct answer is : Presence of cell wall.

110) NCERT 11th Class (Chapter-2) Page No. 16

111)

Correct answer is : Dog

112)

Correct answer is : Both statements are correct

113)

Correct answer is : B → C → E → D

114)

Correct option is (3)

115)

Correct option is (3)

116) Correct answer is :- (d)

117) Correct answer is : Ploymoniales

118)

Correct answer is : 2

119) Correct answer is : One

120) Correct answer is : Fungi

121)

Correct answer is : trees, shrubs and herbs

122) Correct answer is : Carolus Linnaeus

123) Correct answer is : Four kingdoms

124) Correct answer is : Monera

125) Correct answer is : Statement 1 is correct and Statement is incorrect

126) Correct answer is : Carolus Linnaeus

127)

Correct answer is : Phylum and order

128) Correct answer is : Class

129) Correct answer is : Least common characters

130)

Correct answer is : Division - a group of related phyla

131) Correct answer is : Triticum aestivum

132) Correct answer is : Statement I is correct and statement is incorrect

133) Correct answer is : Division and class

134)

Correct answer is: Poaceae

135) Correct answer is : Order

136)

Explain Question : During normal expiration.

Concept : This question is based on Mechanism of Breathing.

Solution : During Normal Expiration, EICM and muscles of Diaphragm Relax.

Final Answer : option (3)

137) Explanation : Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme found in high concentration in red blood
cells. It catalyzes the reversible reaction between carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) to
form carbonic acid (H2CO3), which then quickly dissociates into bicarbonate ions (HCO3–) and
hydrogen ions (H+). This reaction is crucial for the transport of carbon dioxide from the tissues
to the lungs.
 The correct answer is (4) : Carbonic anhydrase

138) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 274

139)

The correct answer is: 4 Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Assertion (A): Partial pressure of O2 in the atmosphere is 0.3 mm Hg.

A. This is incorrect. The partial pressure of oxygen (O2) in the atmosphere at sea level is
approximately 160 mm Hg, not 0.3 mm Hg. The value of 0.3 mm Hg is far too low for
atmospheric oxygen.

Reason (R): Partial pressure of CO2 in alveoli is 104 mm Hg.

A. This is also incorrect. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the alveoli is typically
around 40 mm Hg, not 104 mm Hg. A partial pressure of 104 mm Hg would be more typical
for CO2 in venous blood, not in the alveoli.

140) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 270, 271

141)

Explanation:

(i) is correct: Tidal volume is the amount of air breathed in or out during normal breathing.

(iv) is correct: Residual volume is the air left in the lungs after a maximum exhalation.

The other options were incorrect because they either misidentified lung volumes or included
incorrect calculations.

Correct Answer (4) : (i) and (iv)

142) Explanation : Cartilaginous rings: The walls of the trachea and bronchi (including the
initial bronchioles) are reinforced with C -shaped rings of cartilage. These rings provide
structural support, preventing the airways from collapsing, even when there is no air
movement.

The correct answer is (2) : Presence of cartilaginous rings.

143) NCERT XI, Page # 270, para-1

144) NCERT XI, Page # 274, 275

145)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 275

146) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 276; para-1

147)

Correct answer is : High pH

148)

NCERT - Pg. # 274, Para 17.4.1

149)

Pg. No. 271_XI NCERT

150)

Correct option is (4)

151)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 272

152)

Correct option is (1)

153) NCERT XI Pg # 280

154) NCERT Pg. # 282

155) NCERT-XIth Pg# 284

156)

NCERT-XIth Pg# 284

157) NCERT-XIth Pg# 282

158) NCERT XI Pg.# 288

159) NCERT XI Pg.# 281

160) NCERT (XI) Pg # 282, para 1

161) NCERT (XI) Pg # 288, para 3

162)

Correct option is (3)

163) NCERT XI PAGE : 281

164) NCERT para : 18.3.2 pg. 285

165)

Correct option is (1)

166)

Correct option is (2)

167) Blood clotting involves cascading process involving a number of factors present in the
plasma in an inactive state.

168)

A. P-wave → Depolarisation of atria

B. Q-wave → Beginning of systole
C. QRS complex → Depolarisation of ventricles
D. T-wave → Repolarisation of ventricles

169)

CO = HR × SV

HR =

170)

Correct option is (4)

171)
NCERT CH-18.4

172)

NCERT-XI, Page # 198, (Fig. 15.2)

173)

Explain Question : The correct route through which cardiac-impulse travels in the heart ?

Concept : This question is based on Conducting system of myogenic Heart.

Solution : SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres

is conducting system of myogenic heart.

Final Answer : option (2)

174)

Correct option is (1)

175)

Ncert page 188.

176) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 286

177) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 280

178)

NCERT XI Pg.No - 194

179)

The conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin is the final step in the blood
coagulation cascade, the enzyme that directly catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is
thrombin.

Final Answer : (2) Thrombin

180)

Correct option is (4)