31-08-2025

7501CMD303035250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two springs have their force constant as K1 and K2 (K1 > K2) when they are stretched by the same
force then :

(1) No work is done by this force in case of both the springs

(2) Equal work is done by this force in case of both springs
(3) More work is done in case of second spring
(4) More work is done in case of first spring

2) A locomotive of mass m starts moving so that its velocity varies according to the law v = k
where k is constant and S is the distance covered. Find the total work performed by all the forces
which are acting on the locomotive during the first t seconds after the beginning of motion.

(1)
W = mk4t2

(2)
W = m2k4t2

(3)
W = mk4t4

(4)
W = mk4t4

3) A small block of mass m is kept on a rough inclined surface of inclination θ fixed in a elevator. The
elevator goes down with a uniform velocity v and the block does not slide on the wedge. The work
done by the force of friction on the block in time t will be :-

(1) zero
(2) –mgvt cos2θ
(3) –mgvt sin2θ
(4) mgvt sin2θ

4) The graph between and p is -

(Ek = kinetic energy and P = momentum)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) If the momentum of a body is increased by 200 % then increase in its kinetic energy will be :-

(1) 200%
(2) 600%
(3) 800%
(4) 100%

6)

A mass m slips along the wall of a semispherical surface of radius R from rest. The velocity at the
bottom of the surface is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 0

7) In a region of only gravitational field of mass 'M' a particle is shifted from A to B via three
different paths in the figure. The work done in different paths are W1, W2, W3 respectively then
(1) W1 = W2 = W3
(2) W1 = W2 > W3
(3) W1 > W2 > W3
(4) W1 < W2 < W3

8) The potential energy of a particle in a force field is U = , where A and B are positive
constants and r is the distance of particle from the centre of field. For the equilibrium, the distance
of particle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Under the action of force, 3 kg body moves such that x = where position x is in meter and t is in
second. The work done by the force in first 3 second is :-

(1) 13.5 J
(2) 27 J
(3) 81 J
(4) 109 J

10) A particle is projected with a speed . The coefficient of friction between the particle
and the hemispherical plane is μ = 0.5. Then, the initial acceleration of the particle is :

g
(1)

(2) g ←
(3)

(4) 2g

11) The potential energy of an object is given by U(x) = 3x2 -2x3, where U is in joules and x is in
meters.

(1) x = 0 is stable and x = 1 is unstable.

(2) x = 0 is unstable and x = 1 is stable.
(3) x = 0 is stable and x = 1 is stable.
(4) x = 0 is unstable and x = 1 is unstable.

12) A force acts on a particle and produces a displacement of . If the

work done is zero, the value of x is :-

(1) – 2
(2) 1/2
(3) 6
(4) 5

13) A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5 m/s. During the time
when the particle reaches the maximum height, the work done by the force of gravity is :-

(1) –0.5 J
(2) –1.25 J
(3) 1.25 J
(4) 0.5 J

14) Work done by a force in displacing a body through is

(1) –8 J
(2) 14 J
(3) 16 J
(4) –15 J

15) The figure shows a smooth curved track terminating in a smooth horizontal part. A spring of
spring constant 400 N/m is attached at one end to a wedge fixed rigidly with the horizontal part. A
40 g mass is released from rest at a height of 5m on the curved track. The maximum compression of

the spring will be :-

(1) 4 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 10 cm

16) Block-A of mass M in figure is released from rest when the extension in the spring is x0. The

maximum downward displacement of the block from initial position (assume )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A block is released from rest from a height h = 5m. After travelling through the smooth curved
surface it moves on the rough horizontal surface through a length ℓ = 8 m and climbs onto the other

smooth curved surface through a height h'. If μ = 0.5, find h' :-

(1) 2 m
(2) 3 m
(3) 1 m
(4) zero

18) Statement-I:- The work done in bringing a body from the top to the base along a frictionless
inclined plane is same as the work done in bringing it vertically down.
Statement-II:- Work is a scalar quantity.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

19) The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies with the position of the particle as shown
in the figure. The body is in stable equilibrium at :-

(1) x = x1
(2) x = x2
(3) Both x1 and x2
(4) Neither x1 nor x2

20) A 10 kg block is pulled in the vertical plane along a frictionless surface in the form of an arc of a
circle of radius 10 m. The applied force is of 200 N as shown in the figure. If the block started from
rest at A, the velocity at B would be :-

(1) 1.732 m/s

(2) 17.32 m/s
(3) 173.2 m/s
(4) None of these

21) A body of mass m starting from rest from origin moves along x-axis with constant power (P).
Then relation between velocity and time is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) Particle of mass '1 kg' is moving on the 'x-axis' such that force on a particle varies with position
as shown in graph. Select the position of stable equilibrium for the particle :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
23) A body of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with velocity ν = ax3/2 where a = 5 m–1/2s–1. The
work done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2 m is

(1) 1.5 J
(2) 50 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 100 J

24) A uniform flexible chain of mass m and length 2ℓ hangs in equilibrium over a smooth horizontal
pin of negligible diameter. One end of the chain is given a small vertical displacement so that the
chain slips over the pin. The speed of chain when it leaves pin is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) The potential energy of a system is represented in the first figure. The force acting on the system

will be represented by :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) Find work done by friction if block travels to the bottom of wedge with constant velocity :

(1) –50 J
(2)
(3) –100 J
(4) –200 J

27) Find force at (1,2) if potential energy is given by U = x3 + 2y :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) A particle is moving along x-axis under the action of a force, F which varies with its position (x)

as . If the variation of power due to this force with x is , than A is :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) None

29) An engine pumps 400 kg of water through height of 10 m in 40 sec. Find the power of the engine
if its efficiency is 80% (g = 10 m/s2) :

(1) 0.08 kW
(2) 5.25 kW
(3) 1.25 kW
(4) None of these
30) If the angular velocity of a merry-go-round is 60 degree/sec and you are 3.5 m from the centre of
rotation, your linear velocity will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) π m/s

31) If a particle moves in a circle describing equal angles in equal times, its angular velocity vector:-

(1) Remains constant

(2) Change in magnitude
(3) Change in direction
(4) Changes both in magnitude & direction

32) A coin is placed on the horizontal surface of a rotating disc. The distance of the coin from the
axis is 1 m and coefficient of friction is 0.5. If the disc starts from rest and is given an angular

acceleration rad / sec2, then the number of revolutions through which the disc turns before the
coin slips is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33)

A stone is moved round a horizontal circle with a 20 cm long string tied to it. If centripetal
acceleration is 9.8 m/s2, then its angular velocity will be-

(1) 7 rad/s
(2) 22/7 rad/s
(3) 49 rad/s
(4) 14 rad/s

34) A rod of length L is hinged at one end and it is rotated with a constant angular velocity in a
horizontal plane. Let T1 and T2 be the tensions at the points L/4 and 3L/4 away from the hinged end.

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T2 > T1
(3) T1 = T2
(4) The relation between T1 and T2 depends on whether the rod rotates clockwise or anticlockwise

35) A ball of mass (m) 0.5 kg is attached to the end of a string having length (L) 0.5 m. The ball is
rotated on a horizontal circular path about vertical axis. The maximum tension that the string can
bear is 324 N. The maximum possible value of angular velocity of ball (in radian/s) is :-

(1) 9
(2) 18
(3) 27
(4) 36

36) A car is going on an overbridge of radius R, maintaining a constant speed. As the car is
descending on the overbridge from point B to C, the normal force on it :

(1) increase
(2) decreases
(3) remains constant
(4) first increases then decreases.

37) In the figure is a smooth track which has a circular part of radius of curvature 0.1 m. The
minimum height from where a small ball must be released from rest so that it completes the circle

without leaving contact with the track, is

(1) 0.1 m
(2) 0.2 m
(3) 0.25 m
(4) 0.4 m

38) A particle starts from point 'A' reaches to B in a uniform circular motion. Find angular
displacement of the particle as seen from centre

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) If the equation for the angular displacement of a particle moving on a circular path is given by: θ
= 2t3 + 0.5 Where θ is in radian and t in second, then the angular velocity of the particle at t = 2 is :

(1) 8 rad/sec
(2) 12 rad/sec
(3) 24 rad/sec
(4) 36 rad/sec

40) A small body of mass m slides down from the top of a hemisphere of radius r. The surface of
block and hemisphere are frictionless. The height (h) at which the body loses contact with the

surface of the sphere is :- (hemisphere is fixed)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A smooth track whose a part is circular as shown in diagram. A block of mass M is pushed
against a spring of spring constant K and is then released. Initial compression of the spring in such a
way that block presses the track with a force Mg when it reached the point P (horizontal position).

Initial compressure of the spring is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A particle of mass m suspended by a string of length ℓ revolves in a horizontal circle (θ is the
angle the string makes with vertical). Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Tension in string = mg cos θ

(2)
Speed v of particle =

(3)
Period T =

(4)
Centripetal acceleration a = where F is tension

43) A body of mass M at rest explodes into three piece. If two pieces each of mass move in
perpendicular directions with velocities 3 m/s and 4 m/s then the velocity of third piece is :

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 2.5 m/s
(3) 7 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

44)

A cricket bat is cut at the location of its centre of mass as shown. Then :-

(1) The two pieces will have the same mass

(2) The bottom piece will have larger mass
(3) The handle piece will have larger mass
(4) Mass of handle piece is double the mass of bottom piece

45)

Position of the centre of mass of system is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)

What is the major organic product of the following reaction?

(Major product)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

2) The major product of the following reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)
No. of products and no. of fractions are respectively

(1) 6, 5
(2) 6, 4
(3) 5, 4
(4) 6, 3

4) , M is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
5) Which of the following compound can not be obtained from single alkyl halide by wurtz reaction.

(1) ethane
(2) butane
(3) isobutane
(4) hexane

6) Which alkene does not follow Anti M.K. rule

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)

To make this ether, which of the following reactions will be most suitable:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

8)
Which one of the following compounds will be most reactive for SN1 reaction:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) product will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Which of the following cannot undergo E2 reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

11) C2H5Cl + AgF C2H5F + AgCl

The above reaction is called

(1) Hunsdiecker reaction

(2) Swart's reaction
(3) Finkelstein reaction
(4) Wurtz reaction

12) Which of the following alkyl halides gives (Nucleophilic substitution reaction) SN2 at fastest rate
:-

(1) CH3–CH2–Br
(2) CH3–Br

(3)

(4)

13) When ethyl iodide is heated with silver nitrite the product obtained is :-

(1) C2H5 -Ag

(2) Ag-O-NO2
(3) C2H5O–NO2
(4) C2H5–NO2

14)
Reactions R1, R2 and R3 follows mechanism :

(1) E2, E1, SN1

(2) E2, SN2, SN1
(3) E2, SN1, SN1
(4) E1, SN2, SN1

15) The major product of the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Acid catalyses hydration of alkene follows:

(1) EAR
(2) NAR
(3) FRAR
(4) None of these

17) The main product of following reaction will be :

Product

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

18)

Correct reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The end product (Q) in the following sequence of reactions is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Correct reactivity order of alcohol with HX will be :-

(I) CH2=CH–OH (II) CH2=CH–CH2–OH

(III) CH3–CH2–OH (IV)

(1) II > I > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) II > IV > I > III
(4) II > IV > III > I

21)
A and B are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Product (B) is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) Compare the rate of SN2.

(a) 2-Bromo-2-methyl butane
(b) 1-Bromopentane
(c) 2-Bromo pentane

(1) (a) > (b) > (c)

(2) (b) > (c) > (a)
(3) (c) > (b) > (a)
(4) (c) > (a) > (b)

24) The product of acid catalysed hydration of 2-phenylpropene is

(1) 3-phenyl-2-propanol
(2) 1-phenyl-2-propanol
(3) 2-phenyl-2-propanol
(4) 2-phenyl-1-propanol

25) Major Product 'P' is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Which of the reactants given below is/are suitable for the preparation of Methoxybenzene ?

(x)
(y)

(1) Only x
(2) Only y
(3) Both x and y
(4) Neither 'x' nor 'y'

27) Which alcohol is most reactive towards Lucas reagent.

(1) Benzyl alcohol

(2) p-Methoxy benzyl alcohol
(3) Allyl alcohol
(4) Propan-1-ol

28) What are the major products from the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Identify C in the following scheme

(1) Propyne
(2) Propene
(3) 2-propanol
(4) Propanone

30) Which of the following reactions are correctly matched ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) All

31) Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic attack ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Which is correct order of reactivity towards Electrophilic substitution reaction ?

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) A > D > B > C
(3) A > D > C > B
(4) D > A > C > B

33)
A and B are :-

(1) Both

(2)
Both

(3)

(4)
34)
Maximum Hofmann’s product is obtained when base is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) NaNH2
(4) alc.KOH

35) Match the following :-

(a) (p) Kolbe's electrolysis

(b) CH3–COOK (q) Nitration

(c) (r) Wurtz reaction

CH3–Br

(d) (s) Friedal-craft alkylation

(1) a–p, b–q, c–r, d–s

(2) a–q, b–r, c–p, d–s
(3) a–q, b–p, c–s, d–r
(4) a–q, b–p, c–r, d–s

36) Identify the substitution reaction :-

(1) CH3 – Cl + NH3 —→ CH3NH2 + HCl

(2) CH2 = CH2 + HCl —→ CH3CH2Cl

(3)
CH3CH2OH CH2 = CH2

(4)
CH3CH2CH2Cl \(\xrightarrow[{}]{{AlC{l_3}}}\)

37) Which of the following is maximum reactive towards SN1 reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Which one of the following halogen compounds is not useful as substrate in SN2 reaction :-

(1) CH3–CH2–Cl
(2) CH2=CH–CH2–Cl
(3) CH2=CH–Cl

(4)

39)

Following reaction :
(CH3)3C–Br + H2O —→ (CH3)3C–OH + HBr

is an example of-
(1) Elimination reaction
(2) Free radical substitution
(3) Nucleophilic substitution
(4) Electrophilic substitution

40)
Mechanism of above reaction is :-

(1) SN1
(2) SN2
(3) SNAr
(4) ESR

41)

The reaction of CH3CH = CH2 with HOCl will yield

(1) 2-chloro-1-propanol
(2) 3-chloro-2-propanol
(3) 1-chloro-2-propanol
(4) 1-chloro-1-propanol

42) Best method to convert alcohol to halide is :-

(1) ROH+SOCl2→R–Cl+SO2+HCl
(2) R–OH+PCl3→R–Cl
(3) R–OH+PCl5→R–Cl
(4) R–OH+HCl→R–Cl+H2O

43) Which of the following is maximum reactive towards NAR :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) In which reaction 2° Alcohol is obtained :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

45)

What is the major product of the following reaction:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Blood pressure and heart beat is regulated by:-

(1) Insulin
(2) Adrenalin
(3) Optic nerve
(4) Growth hormone

2) Systolic pressure is higher than diastolic pressure due to:-

(1) Volume of blood in the heart is greater during systole

(2) Arteries contract during systole
(3) Blood vessels offer resistance to flowing blood during systole
(4) Blood is force into arteries during systole

3) Coronary artery disease is due to:

(1) Streptococci bacteria

(2) Inflammation of percardium
(3) Weakening of the heart valves
(4) Build up of Fatty deposits on the walls of arteries around heart

4) A heart murmur indicates a defective

(1) Bundle of His

(2) Heart valves
(3) Sinoauricular node
(4) Atrioventricular node

5) Assertion (A): A large quantity of Blood flows into the ventricles from atria even before the atrial
contraction begins.
Reason (R): Atrial contraction squeezes a small fraction of blood
choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

6) Assertion (A): Walls of right atrium are the thickest among the heart chambers.
Reason (R): Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to the body.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

7) Find the odd one

(1) Eosinophils
(2) Basophils
(3) Neutrophils
(4) Monocytes

8) The erythroblastosis foetalis condition can be avoided by giving :-

(1) anti - A antibody

(2) anti- B, antibody
(3) anti- Rh antibody
(4) anti - O antibody

9) Ther inter-atrial septum in the human heart can be best described as:

(1) A thin muscular wall

(2) A thick muscular wall
(3) A thin fibrous tissue
(4) A thick fibrous tissue

10) During ventricular systole of cardiac cycle, which of the following does not occur?

(1) Closing of atrio-ventricular valves.

(2) Nearly 70% of ventricles are filled in this stage.
(3) Opening of semilunar valves.
(4) First heart sound is heard at the beginning of this phase.

11) In human fibrinogen and fibrin is respectively

(1) Soluble and insoluble

(2) Soluble and soluble
(3) Insoluble and insoluble
(4) Insoluble and soluble

12) Assertion (A):- Arthropoda and mollusca have open circulatory system.
Reason (R):- In their circulatory system, blood pumped by the heart passes through large vessels
into open spaces or body cavities called sinuses.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

13) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Cell
(1) Thrombocytes 1500-35000/mm3
fragments

(2) Lymphocytes 20%=25% Allergies

(3) Monocytes Granulocytes 6%-8%

Life span Destroyed in

(4) Erythrocytes
120 days spleen
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) How many statements are correct about regulation of cardiac activity.
(i) A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac function
(ii) Parasympathetic neural signal decrease the rate of heart beat and increase stroke volume,
cardiac output.
(iii) Adrenal medullary harmones can also increase the cardiac output.
(iv) Sympathetic nerves can increase the strength of ventricular contraction and thereby the cardiac
output.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One
15) If a person having both antigens A & B on RBC surface then :-

(1) He can donate blood to only person with AB blood group

(2) He is universal recipient
(3) That person do not possess any antibody (Anti – A & B)
(4) All of the above

16) When ventricular pressure falls during ventricular diastole, it causes :-

(1) Closure of semilunar valves

(2) Closure of cuspid valves
(3) Opening of semilunar valves
(4) Blood to flow through pulmonary and systemic aorta

17) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option :-
Statement-1 :- A reduction in number of thromobocytes can lead to clotting disorders.
Statement-2 :- Megakaryocytes are fragments of thrombocytes which are involved in coagulation.

(1) Both the statement-1 and 2 are correct

(2) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect
(3) Statement-2 is correct but statement-1 is incorrect
(4) Both the statements-1 and 2 are incorrect

18) A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the lower corner of the right atrium, close to Atrio-
ventricular septum, delays the spreading of impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 sec. The delay
allows.

(1) Blood to enter aorta

(2) The ventricles to empty completely
(3) Blood to enter pulmonary arteries
(4) The atria to empty completely

19) Significance of heart valves is

to allow the flow of blood in one direction , i. e. from ventricles to atria and from the ventricles
(1)
to the pulmonary artery or aorta
to allow the flow of blood in one direction , i. e. from atria to ventricles and from the ventricles
(2)
to the pulmonary artery or aorta
to allow the flow of blood in one direction , i. e. from atria to ventricles and from the
(3)
pulmonary artery or aorta to the ventricles
to allow the flow of blood in one direction , i. e. from ventricles to atria and from the pulmonary
(4)
artery or aorta to the ventricles

20) What will happen if one kidney is removed from the body of human being :-

(1) Hyper volume in body

(2) Excessive Urine in body
(3) Excessive amount of urea in body fluid
(4) Hypertrophied in other kidney.

21) Which of the following orgainism is ureotelic?

(1) Aquatic insects

(2) Bony fishes and aquatic amphibians
(3) Mammals and cartilagenous fishes
(4) Terrestrial amphibians and aquatic insects

22) Podocytes are the cells present on :-

(1) Out wall of Bowman's capsule

(2) Inner wall of Bowman's capsule
(3) Neck of nephron
(4) Wall of glomerular capillaries

23)

The characteristic/s that is shared by urea, uric acid and ammonia is/are :
(A) They are equally toxic
(B) The are nitrogenous wastes
(C) They all need very large amount of water for excretion

(1) Only B
(2) A, B and C
(3) A and C
(4) A and B

24) In micturition, signal is initiated by :-

(1) CNS
(2) Stretching of urinary bladder
(3) Stretching of internal urethral sphincter
(4) Stretch receptors on urethra

25) In micturtion :-

(1) Urethral sphincter contracts, urinary bladder relaxes

(2) Both urethral sphincter and urinary bladder contracts
(3) Urethral sphincter relaxes, urinary bladder contracts
(4) Both urethral sphincter and urinary bladder relaxes

26) Arrange the following steps for micturition :-

(i) Stretch receptors on wall of Urinary bladder send signal to C.N.S
(ii) Motor signal from C.N.S cause contraction of smooth muscle of bladder and simultaneous
relaxation of urethral sphincter.
(iii) Stretching of Urinary bladder when filled with urine
(iv) Release of urine

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(2) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(3) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(4) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

27) During urine formation, the tubular cells secrete substance into the filtrate, which are:

(1) Amino acid, K+ and Glucose

(2) Glucose, Amino acid and Na+
(3) K+, Na+ and Ca++
(4) H+, K+ and ammonia

28) A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates

(1) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone

(2) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
(3) juxta glomerular cells to release renin
(4) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

29) If Bowman’s capsule of nephron perform selective ultrafiltration then in urine formation :

(1) There is no need of reabsorption and secretion

(2) There is need of selective reabsorption only
(3) There is need of selective secretion only
(4) Reabsorption and secretion steps become non-selective

30) Complete the sentence: On an average, _____ of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute which
constitutes roughly _____ of the blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart in a minute.

(1) 1.5 lit, 1/3 rd

(2) 1100 - 1200 ml, 1/5th
(3) 180 lit, 1/2
(4) 125 ml, 1/5th

31) The retroperitoneal kidney is -

(1) Kidney of fish

(2) Kidney covered by Peritoneum on ventral side.
(3) Kidney covered by Peritoneum on Dorsal side.
(4) Kidney uncovered by Peritoneum on ventral Side.

32) The reabsorption of glucose form the glomerular filtrate is due to

(1) High osmotic pressure of filtrate
(2) Passive diffusion
(3) Active transport across the wall of proximal convoluted part.
(4) Filtration pressure exerted on the fluids in the loop of Henle

33) Assertion: Ultrafiltration takes place in presence of effective filtration pressure.

Reason : In ultrafiltration process blood is filtered in Bowman's capsule, filtered fluid contain
protein & blood corpuscles also.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

34) Assertion : PCT is main site of selective reabsorption of useful materials from nephric filtrate.
Reason : Proximal convoluted tubule is lined by brush-bordered cuboidal epithelium.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

35) Assertion: Antidiuretic hormone, increases the water permeability of distal convoluted tubule.
Reason: In the absence of ADH, water re-absorption is considerably increases.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

36) The Glomerular capillary blood pressure causes filtration of blood through ?

(1) Endothelium of glomerular blood vessels

(2) The Epithelium of Bowman's capsule
(3) Basement membrane between these two layers
(4) All the above

37) Which of the following features activates the JG cells?

I. Fall in Glomerular blood pressure
II. Fall in Glomerular blood flow
III. Fall in GFR
Choose the correct option

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) I and III
(4) I, II and III

38) Sweat contains

(1) Watery fluid with NaCl

(2) Urea
(3) Lactic acid
(4) All of these

39) Which of the following are correct statement(s)?

I. Angiotensin-II, being a powerful vasoconstrictor, increases glomerular pressure and thereby GFR.
II. Angiotensin-II activates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
III. Aldosterone promotes reabsorption of Na+ and water from the DCT and CT leading to an increase
in blood pressure and GFR.
IV.ANF causes vasoconstriction.
Select correct combination.

(1) I, II and III

(2) I, II and IV
(3) I, III and IV
(4) II, III and IV

40) If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the following is to be expected ?

(1) There will be no urine formation

(2) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
(3) The urine will be more concentrated
(4) The urine will be more dilute

41) Read the following statement –

(I) It is lined by simple cuboidal brush bordered epithelium.
(II) 70 – 80% H2O and electrolytes are reabsorbed in this segment.
(III) It also helps in maintaining the pH & ionic balance of body.
(IV) It is the proximal part of Nephron.
How many statements are correct about proximal convulated tubule of Nephron.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

42) Statement I: Double walled cup-like structure called Bowman’s capsule is a part of renal
tubule.
Statement II: Henle's loop of nephron is the only part present in renal cortex.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct

43) High osmolarity of medullary interstitial fluid is maintained by :-

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Henle's loop
(4) Renal corpuscle

44) Reabsorption of nitrogenous wastes from filterate occurs by :-

(1) Active transportation

(2) Passive transportation
(3) Osmosis
(4) Does not occur

45)

Find out the correct statement

(1) Waste product of tadpole larva and frog are same.

(2) Excretory structure of earthworm and cockroach are same
(3) Waste product of marine and fresh water fishes are same
(4) None of the above

46) Animals, mammals and dogs represent :-

(1) Taxa at different levels

(2) Taxa at same level
(3) Different levels of same taxa
(4) All are correct

47) As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common

characteristics :-

(1) Will decrease

(2) Will increase
(3) Remain same
(4) May increase or decrease

48) The highest category in the taxonomic hierarchy is–

(1) Kingdom
(2) Phylum
(3) Class
(4) Species

49) The families of cat and dog are respectively :-

(1) Felidae and Canidae

(2) Canidae and Felidae
(3) Hominidae and Muscidae
(4) Muscidae and Hominidae

50) The taxonomic unit ‘Phylum’ in the classification of animals is equivalent to which hierarchial
level in classfication of plants

(1) Class
(2) Order
(3) Division
(4) Family

51) The term 'systematics' refers to:

(1) Identification and classification of plants and animals

(2) Nomenclature and identification of plants and animals
(3) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship
(4) Different kinds of organisms and their classification

52) In mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, and Panthera leo, all the three names, indica,
tuberosum and leo represent the :-

(1) Names of species

(2) Names of specific epithets
(3) Names of genus
(4) Names of generic epithet

53) There is a sequence of hierarchy, but some steps are missing. What will be there in place of (A),
(B) and (C) for classification of an insect (house fly).
Subspecies → (A) → Genus → (B) → order→ class → (C) →Kingdom
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) Study the given statements carefully and give the answer :-
(A) A genus is a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison to
species of other genera
(B) Families are characterised on the basis of both vegetative and reproductive features of plants
species.
(C) Felidae and canidae are the families of cat and dog respectively
(D) To detemine relations in higher taxa is more difficult in comparison to lower taxa.
How many statements are correct from them

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

55) ICBN stands for :-

(1) International class of biological nomenclature

(2) International code of biological nomenclature
(3) Indian code of botonical nomenclature
(4) International code of botanical nomenclature

56) A collection of species, which bears a close resemblance to one another in the morphological
characters of the floral parts is known as :-

(1) Family
(2) Genus
(3) Division
(4) Veriety

57) Choose the correct from followings :-

(1) Mangifera, is a name of Species

(2) Polymoniales, is a name of Family
(3) Dicotyledonae, is a name of Division
(4) Triticum, is a name of Genus

58) Which of the following 'suffixes' used for units of classification in plants indicates a taxonomic
category of ‘family’.

(1) ales
(2) onae
(3) aceae
(4) ae

59) In the following which is not a correct match for classification of mango :-

(1) Family - Anacardiaceae

(2) Genus - Mangifera
(3) Class - Monocotyledonae
(4) Order - Sapindales

60) Identify (A), (B) and (C) in the given hierarchial arrangement of taxonomic categories :-

(1) A - Order, B - Family, C - Class

(2) A - Family, B - Order, C - Class
(3) A - Class, B - Order, C - Family
(4) A - Phylum, B - Order, C - Family

61) Branch of taxonoxy in which DNA sequences, alkaloids, crystals may help in knowing
relationship among organisms is :

(1) Karyotoxonomy
(2) Chemotaxonomy
(3) Cytotaxonomy
(4) Morphotaxonomy

62) Read the following statements and tick correct option :-

(A) The number of species that are known between 1.7 - 1.8 million
(B) ICBN = International code of botanical nomenclature
(C) A taxonomic category denotes a taxonomic rank
(D) Botanical name are generally written in Latin

(1) ABC are wrong

(2) BCD are wrong
(3) ACD are wrong
(4) ABCD are correct

63) Natural classification system based on -

(1) Natural affinities among organisms

(2) External characters
(3) Anatomy and phytochemistry
(4) All of the above

64) Plant families like convolvulaceae, solanaceae are included in the order polymoniales mainly

(1) Based on vegetative characters

(2) Based on the floral characters
(3) Based on the number of cotyledons in seed
(4) Based on type of venation in leaves

65) Classification system in which computers are used is :

(1) Natural
(2) Practical
(3) Numerical
(4) Artificial

66) Two components of binomial nomenclature are -

(1) Generic name

(2) Specific epithet
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Subspecies

67) Classification based on chromosome number is :

(1) Cytotaxonomy
(2) Numerical taxonomy
(3) Chemo taxonomy
(4) Both (1) and (3)

68) In 1969, R.H. Whittaker proposed five kingdom system of classification. On which basis he
classified organisms into five kingdoms i.e. monera, protista, fungi, plantae and animalia ?
(1) Cell structure & body organisation
(2) Body organisation & the mode of nutrition
(3) Reproduction & phylogenetic relationship
(4) All the above

69) Match the column I, II and III

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Cellulosic Parasitic and

A Monera I P
cell wall saprophytic

Nuclear
B Protista II membrane Q Holozoic
absent

May form
C Fungi III loose R Photosynthetic
tissue

Tissue/organ
Cell wall made
D Plantae IV grade S
of chitin
of organisation
(1) A-I,Q ; B-II,P,S ; C-IV,P ; D-III,Q
(2) A-II,P ; B-I,P,Q,R ; C-III,S,P ; D-I,IV,R
(3) A-III,Q ; B-II,P,S ; C-III,S,P ; D-II,Q
(4) A-IV,P ; B-I,R,S ; C-II,Q ; D-III,P

70)

Select the wrong statement.

(1) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.

(2) Diatomaceous earth is formed by the cell walls of diatoms.
(3) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans.
(4) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water.

71) Archaebacterial cell Lacks

(1) Branched chain Lipid

(2) DNA
(3) Peptidoglycan
(4) Ribosome

72) Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in

(1) Cell membrane structure

(2) Mode of nutrition
(3) Cell shape
(4) Mode of reproduction

73) Find the incorrect statement from the following -

(1) Aristotle was the earliest to attempt a more scientific basis for classification.
(2) Fungi have chitin in their wall while green plants have cellulose.
(3) Dinoflagellates float passively in water while diatoms have two flagella for floating.
(4) In euglenoids, both photosynthetic and heterotrophic nutrition is present

74) Chlorella, Chlamydomonas and Paramoecium, Amoeba were earlier placed with plants and
animals respectively but after Whittaker's 5 kingdom classification, they should be brought together
in:-

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia

75) What is/are demerit(s) of two kingdom system of classification?

(1) It did not distinguish prokaryotes and eukaryotes

(2) It did not distinguish unicellular and multicellular organisms
(3) It did not separate photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic organisms
(4) All of the above

76) Which is not true for the heterocyst of Nostoc :-

(1) Intercalary position

(2) Site of nitrogen fixation
(3) Nitrogenase enzyme present
(4) Photosynthesis

77) Which of the following character is similar in cyanobacteria and green plants :-

(1) Nitrogen fixation

(2) 80 s ribosme
(3) Chlorophyll 'a'
(4) Composition of cell wall

78) How many organisms are included in Monera in given list ?

(A) Slime moulds (B) Dinoflagellates
(C) Protozoans (D) Pseudomonas
(E) Archebacteria (F) Basidiomycetes

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 5

79) Choose the correct match :-

(1) Mesosomes - Cell respiration

(2) Plasmid - bear photosynthetic pigments
(3) Flagella - help in formation of conjugation tube
(4) Capsule - help in locomotion

80) Which of the following is incorrect about blue green algae ?

(1) They may be unicellular, colonial or filamentous

(2) Their colonies are generally surrounded with membranous sheath
(3) They often form blooms in polluted water bodies
(4) Some of the members can fix atmospheric nitrogen

81) Evolutionary relationship of three major group of organisms is shown in the accompanying
diagram, where X, Y, Z are Archaebacteria, Eubacteria and Cyanobacteria respectively.The

Rhodospirillum will be placed :

(1) On brahch X
(2) On branch Y
(3) On branch Z
(4) On branch X or on branch Z

82) Identify the correct match from column I, II and III.

Column I Column II Column III

(Kingdom) (Cell wall) (Body organisation)

1 Monera a Present in some i Tissue/ organ

2 Protista b Present (Chitin) ii Loose tissue

3 Fungi c Present (Cellulose) iii Cellular

4 Plantae d Polysaccharide + Amino acid iv Cellular

(1) 2–a–iii, 1–d–iv, 3–b–ii, 4–c–i
(2) 1–d–iv, 2–b–i, 3–a–ii, 4–c–iii
(3) 1–d–iv, 2–c–ii, 3–a–i, 4–b–iii
(4) 2–b–iii, 1–c–iv, 3–d–ii, 4–c–i

83) One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is :

(1) Chitin
(2) Pepritiglycan
(3) Cellulose
(4) Hemicellulose

84) How many of the following organisms belongs to kingdom Protista ?

Nitrosomonas, Mycoplasma, Diatoms, Dinoflagellates, Puccinia, Albugo, Claviceps, Euglena,
Paramoecium.

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

85) Assertion (A): Fungi can grow on various substrates including bread, fruits, and living plant
leaves.
Reason (R): Fungi are autotrophic organisms that derive their nutrition from synthesizing organic
compounds.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is a correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but the (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect, but the (R) is correct.

86) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Nostoc has heterocysts for nitrogen fixation.

(2) Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted water bodies.
Cyanobacteria can form symbiotic relationship and benefit the partner by providing nitrogenous
(3)
compounds.
(4) Very few mycoplasma are parasitic.

87) Observe the given diagram.

Select the correct feature for the organism given in above diagram.

It has two flagella; one lies longitudinally and the other transversely in a furrow between the
(1)
wall plates.
(2) Instead of a cell membrane, it has a protein rich layer called pellicle.
(3) They possess cellulosic cell wall
(4) It possesses pigments identical to those present in higher plants.

88) Read the following statements with respect to dinoflagellates.

(A) These organisms are mostly marine.
(B) Can show mixotrophic mode of nutrition
(C) They have photosynthetic pigments.
(D) Toxins released by dinoflagellates, may kill other marine animals such as fishes.
Select the correct one(s).

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only

(2) (B) only
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only
(4) (B) and (C) only

89) Some characteristics are given below :

Unicellular, eukaryotic, aquatic, Autotrophic and heterotrophic mode of nutrition and asexual
reproduction by binary fission
Above mentioned characters are related to which kingdom.

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Animalia

90) Select incorrect statement ?

(1) Fungi are heterotrophs

(2) Protists are unicellular eukaryotes
(3) Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places
(4) Fungi are prokaryotic heterotrophs
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 3 3 3 2 1 2 1 3 1 1 2 3 4 1 3 1 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 2 2 3 1 1 3 3 3 1 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 2 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 2 2 3 4 2 1 1 3 2 2 4 1 1 1 2 4 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 3 4 2 2 2 3 1 1 3 4 2 4 1 4 3 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 2 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 4 2 1 3 4 3 1 2 1 1 4 2 4 1 2 4 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 2 3 3 1 3 4 4 4 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 3 2 4 1 1 1 1 3 3 2 4 4 4 2 3 3 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 4 2 3 3 1 4 2 1 3 1 3 2 4 4 3 1 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 1 2 3 4 2 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explanation: Which spring requires more work when same force is applied.
Concept : Work done on a spring is the energy stored in it when stretched.
Solution :

w=
F = kx

As k1 > k2
So
Final Answer : option (3). More work is done in case of second spring

2)

WALL = ΔK.E.

3)
Block is at rest so
f = mgsinθ
Wf = |f| |s| cos(90 + θ)
Wf = (mg sinθ) (vt) (–sinθ)
Wf = –mg sin2θ (vt) [∵ s = vt]
Wf = –mg vt sin θ2

4)

Asking About:
Relationship between and momentum (p).
Concept:
Kinetic energy is related to momentum

Formula

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

• Taking square root:

• This is a linear equation (y–mx), meaning the graph is a straight line passing through the
origin

Final Answer :
3 (Straight line increasing)

5) p1 = p
Percentage increase in kinetic energy

= = =
= 800%

6) Question Explanation:
A mass m slides from rest along a smooth hemispherical surface of radius R. We need to find
its velocity at the lowest point.
Concept Based:
Mechanical energy is conserved.
Formula Used:

mgh – mv2
h = R (vertical drop from top to bottom of hemisphere)
Calculation:
Initial potential energy = mgR

Final kinetic energy = mv2

Equation: mgR = mv2

7) 1. Question Explanation:
A particle is moved in a gravitational field of mass M from point A to point B via three different
paths. We need to compare the work done along each path.

2. Concept Based:
The work done in a gravitational field depends only on the initial and final positions of the
object, not the path taken. This is a result of the conservative nature of gravitational force.
3. Formula Used:
The work done by the gravitational force is given by: Where U is the
gravitational potential energy, m is the mass of the particle, g is the gravitational acceleration,
and Δh is the change in height.

4. Calculation:
Since gravitational force is conservative, the work done in moving the particle from point A to
point B depends only on the difference in height between these points, not the path taken.
Therefore, regardless of the path, the work done is the same if the initial and final positions
are the same.
Thus, we conclude:
W1 = W2 = W3

Final Answer:
Option 1: W1 = W2 = W3.

8)

For equilibrium
F=0

9) x =

V=
V(t = 3) = 3m/s

W.D. =

W.D =
= 13.5 J

10)

fk = μN
fk = 2μmg
maT = 2μmg
 aΤ = 2μg (←)

= ()

11) = 6x – 6x2 = 0 → x = 0
6x (1 – x) = 0 → x = 1

Now = 6 – 12x

At x = 0, ⇒ ⊕ means stable

x=1 ⇒ ⊝ means unstable

12)
= 12 – 6 + 3x = 0
x = –2

13) H =

Wg = –mgH =

= –1.25 J

14)

15) mgh = kx2

40 × 10–3 × 10 × 5 = × 400 x2
16)

0 0
k [(x + x )2 – x ) = 0
2
mgx –

0 0
k [x2 + x +2xx -
2
mgx – ]=0

⇒x=

17)

Wfriction + Wgravity = ΔKE

–mgℓ + mgh – mgh' = 0
–µℓ + h = h'
–4 + 5 = h'
h' = 1 m

18) Concept:
Work done

Formula:
W = mg(Δh)
where W is work, m is mass, g is acceleration due to gravity, and Δh is the change in vertical
height.

Visual Diagram:

Calculation:
∵w= w = (mg)(– )×[x – y ]
Now taking dot product
w = –mg (–y)
w = +mg(y) ⇒ depend on the change in vertical height.
Since the vertical height is the same in both cases, work done is the same. Work is a scalar as
it depends on magnitude, not direction. Hence, both statement are correct.

Answer: option 1

19) When particle moves away from the origin then at position x = x1 force is zero and at x > x1
force is positive (repulsive in nature) so particle moves further and does not return back to
original position.
i.e. the equilibrium is not stable.
Similarly at position x = x2 force is zero at x > x2, force is negative (attractive in nature)
So particle return back to original position i.e., the equilibrium is stable.

20) Wall = ΔKE

F × R – mg R(1 – cos60°) = mv2

⇒ 200 × 10 – 10 × 10 × 10 = 10 mv2
⇒ v2 = 300 ⇒ v = = 17.32 m/s

21) Question Explanation

A body of mass m moves along the x-axis from rest under a constant power P. We need to
determine the relationship between velocity v and time f

Concept

Solution:
• Power in terms of velocity and mass
P = mav (∵ P = F.V and F =Ma)
• Acceleration is the time derivative of velocity:

• Substituting is into the power equation.

• Rearranging

• Integrating both sides

• Performing integration:

• Solving for v
• This shows that
Correct Answer: Option (1)
Question Level: Tough

22) Explaining :
given : F-x graph is given for a particle of mass 1 kg which is moving on x-axis.
ask : Position of stable equilibrium for the particle
Concept : This question is based on and equilibrium
Solution :

at point C, FNet = 0 and ⇒ Stable equilibrium

Final Answer : (3)

23) u = 0, v = 5(2)3/2

24)
Uf = mg(–l) = –mgl
decrease in P.E. = increase in K.E.

25) As slope of problem graph is positive and constant up to certain distance and then it
becomes zero.

So from , up to distance a,
F = constant (negative) and becomes zero suddenly.

26) Wall = ΔK
Wg + Wf = Kf – Ki (v = constant)
(mg sinθ) (10) + Wf = 0
Wf = –10 (mg sin30)

= –10 × 1 × 10 ×
= –50 J

27)
28) ...(1)
a ∝ x–1/4

v2 ∝ x3/4
v ∝ x3/8 ....(2)
From equation (1) & (2)
As P = Fv
P ∝ (x–1/4)(x3/8)
P ∝ x1/8 ⇒ P ∝ x1/A
So A = 8

29)

Pout = = 1000 Watt = 1 kW

Pin =

30) ω = 60°/s = ν = rω = (3.5)

31) = Constant

32)

[∵ at = αr]
 33) 1. Explanation: The stone is moving in a horizontal circle, so it experiences centripetal
acceleration. We need to find its angular velocity from the given centripetal acceleration and
radius.
2. Concept: Centripetal acceleration is related to angular velocity by the formula ,
where is the angular velocity and r is the radius.
3. Formula:

Where:

A. ac the centripetal acceleration.

B. r is the radius,
C. is the angular velocity.

4. Brief Calculation: Giver:

A. ac = 9.8m /s2
B. r = 20cm = 0.20m

Rearranging the formula to solve for :

34)

T1 – T2 = (ω )
2

T1 > T2

35)

36)

Let the car looses the contact at angle θ with vertical

mg cosθ – N = ⇒ N = mg cosθ –
During descending on overbridge θ is increase.
So cosθ is decrease therefore normal reaction is decrease.

37) ⇒ h = 2.5 R

38) Angle made at centre = 2(Angle made at circumference) =

39) θ = 2t3 + 0.5

= 6 × 4 ⇒ 24 rad/sec

40)
By conservation of energy

mv2 = mg(r – h) .....(1)

as block leaves contact at B,
so normal reaction at B = 0

∴ = mg cos θ ⇒ = mg ×
2
⇒ mv = mgh substitute this in eqn (1) we get

= mg(r – h)

or r= h ⇒ h= r

41)

Given that Np = Mg

⇒ Mg =
⇒ Vp =

By come ⇒
KX2 = 3mgR ⇒ X =

42)
T cosθ = mg
T sinθ = mω2r
T sinθ = mω2(ℓsinθ)
T = mω2ℓ

⇒ω=

T=

T=

43)

P1 + P2 + P3 = 0
P3 = – (P1 + P2)

V3 = 2.5

44) Centre of mass is towards heavier mass and bottom piece has more mass in comparison to
the handle piece.

45) Explanation:- COM of four particle system placed at corners of square is asked. visual
aid
 Concept:- Com of discrete system

formula:-

calculation:-

so

CHEMISTRY

46)

47) Elimination Reaction (E1) ring expansion

48)
49) HCl does not show peroxide effect reaction is EAR and ring expansion takes place.

50)

51)

52)

E2 will be favoured in option 1 whereas will be favoured in option 2.

53) SN1 reaction rate ∝ stability of carbocation ∝ leaving ability of group

54)

55) β-Hydrogen is absent.

56) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page No: 166, Article No: 6.4.3, Edition 2023 - 24.

57)

Rate of SN2 reaction ∝

SN2 reactivity order:

> > >

Most reactive compound is because, there is least steric hinderance.
Ans (2)

58) NCERT XII/ Part-II/Page-292

59)

Explanation Question: On the basis of reagent used we have to identify mechanism of the
reaction
Concept: This question is based on substitution and elimination reactions
Solution:

Final Answer option : (1)

60)
SN2 mechanism 100% in version

61)
EAR

62)
In case of Chlorobenzene, electron density is maximum at para position so electrophile prefers
to attack at para position.

63) NCERT XII Pg. # 305

64) P = Chlorobenzene
Q = Diphenyl

65)

Rate of SN1 reaction ∝ Stability of carbocation.

66)

67)

Explanation :

We have to find final product of given sequence of reaction.

 Concept :

68)

carbon

A. SN2 rate order = b > c > a

B. Steric hindrance = a > c > b

69)

Ncert, Class12th , Part-2, Article No:7.4 , Pg.No:199, Edition-2023-24.

70)

Ncert, class 12, part-2, Article No: 6.4., Pg No: 164,

Edition-2023-24.

71) (x) No reaction

Due to resonance C–Br bond acquires double bond character

(y) +CH3Br
(NCERT XII Pg.#304, 338, part II)

72)

Rate of SN1 reaction ∝ Stability of carbocation.

73)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 348

74)
75) Concept:
Reaction of ether with HI.

Soln/Explanation:

If R=R' ⇒1°/2° then mechanism is SN2

R=R' ⇒ Allylic, benzylic, 3° or stable carbocation then mechanism is SN1

76) Rate of ESR ∝ +I/+M group of benzene.

77) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about correct order of reactivity towards ESR is :

Concept :

This question is based on Rate of ESR

Solution :

* +M, +H and +I groups are activating groups and -M, -H and -I are deactivating group.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

78) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page-321, 322

 79) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page-330

80)

(a) (q) Nitration

(b) CH3–COOK (p) Kolbe's electrolysis

(c) (r) Wurtz reaction

CH3–Br

(d) (s) Friedal-craft alkylation

81)

Explanation Question: To identify substitution reaction.

Concept: This question is based on Type of reactions
Solution:
(2) CH3–Cl + NH3 → CH3–NH2 + HCl
substitution reaction
(2) CH2=CH2 + HCl → CH3–CH2–Cl
addition reaction

(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–Cl CH2=CH2 Elimination reaction

(4) CH3–CH2–CH2–Cl
Rearrangement reaction
Final Answer option : (1)

82)

Explanation Question: We have to compare reactivity of the given compound in SN1 reaction
mechanism
Concept: This question is based on Reactivity in SN1 reaction mechanism and stability of
carbocation as reactivity in SN1 depends on stability of carbocation

Solution: Cations formed by the reactants

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Final Answer option : (4)
83) → Vinyl Halide , Aryl Halide and bridge Head halide

gives SN1 & SN2.

→ In Vinyl Halide & AryL Halide it to difficult to remove Halogen [ -x ] due to resonance
→ In bridge head halide there to Violation of Bredt's rule.
∴ CH2 = CH - Cl do not give SN2. reaction.

84)

Weak neucleophile is replaced by strong nucleophilic so NSR

85)

SN2

86)

1-chloro-2-propanol

87) Solution/Explanation : We have to find best method to convert alcohol into halide
Concept :

Due to removal of SO2(gas) and fumes of HCl, their reaction is thermodynamically

more favourable (ΔS > 0)
Option Ans. (1)
ROH+SOCl2→R–Cl+SO2+HCl

88) Steric hindrance decrese reactivity of NAR

89) Explaination: Find out the reaction in which 2° Alcohol is obtained as a product.
Concept: NAR of carbonyl compounds.
Solution:
(1)

(2)
 (3)

So, option (2) reaction give 2° Alcohol.

Final Answer: Option (2)

90)

+ H2O
(NCERT XII/part II, pg. 359)

BIOLOGY

91)

Adrenalin

92)

Blood is force into arteries during systole

93)

Build up of Fatty deposits on the walls of arteries around heart

94)

Heart valves

95) NCERT Page No. 284

 96) NCERT Page No. 74

97) Module Page No 101

98)

anti- Rh antibody

99)

Ncert page 283.

100)

Ncert Page 284.

101) NCERT Page No. 281

102) NCERT XI, Pg. # 282 (E), 283 (H)

103)

(4) Erythrocytes Life span 120 days Destroyed in spleen

104)

Three

105) NCERT Pg. # 195

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 285

107) NCERT, Pg. # 280

108)

The atria to empty completely

109)

to allow the flow of blood in one direction , i. e. from atria to ventricles and from the ventricles
to the pulmonary artery or aorta

110)

The kidneys are vital organs responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and
maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance.
When one kidney is removed, the remaining kidney undergoes compensatory hypertrophy.
This means it increases in size and function to take over the workload of the missing kidney.
The remaining kidney can effectively maintain normal kidney function, although there might
be a slight reduction in overall renal reserve.

Correct Answer: The correct answer is 4. Hypertrophied in the other kidney.

111)

Mammals and cartilagenous fishes

112) Understanding Podocytes:

Podocytes are specialized cells that form the visceral layer of Bowman's capsule.
They have foot-like projections called pedicels that interdigitate, creating filtration slits.
These filtration slits are essential for the filtration of blood in the glomerulus.
Analyzing the Options:
The inner wall of Bowman’s capsule is the visceral layer, which is made up of podocytes.

113)

The are nitrogenous wastes

114)

Explain Question : In micturition, signal is initiated by ?

Concept : This question is based on micturition

Solution : In micturition, signal is initiated by Stretching of urinary Bladder.

Final Answer : option (2)

115) NCERT Pg. # 297

116) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 297, 298

117)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 294

118)

juxta glomerular cells to release renin

119)

There is no need of reabsorption and secretion

120) NCERT - 293

121) Allen module.

122) NCERT Page no. 293 & 294

123) NCERT Page no. 293

124) NCERT Page no. 294

125) NCERT Page no. 297

126) NCERT Page no. 293

127)

I, II and III

128)

All of these

129)

I. Angiotensin-II, being a powerful vasoconstrictor, increases glomerular pressure and thereby

GFR.
II. Angiotensin-II activates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
III. Aldosterone promotes reabsorption of Na+ and water from the DCT and CT leading to an
increase in blood pressure and GFR.

130)

The urine will be more dilute

131) NCERT Pg. # 294 (19.2)

132) NCERT Page No. 293

133)

NCERT Pg. # 294

134)

Passive transportation

135)

None of the above

136)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 7

137) NCERT XI(E)/(H) Page No. # 10 (1.37) last para

138)

Kingdom

139)

Felidae and Canidae

140)

Division

141)

Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship

142)

Names of specific epithets

143)

CORRECT ANSWER IS OPTION 4

144)

(A) A genus is a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison
to species of other genera
(B) Families are characterised on the basis of both vegetative and reproductive features of
plants species.
(C) Felidae and canidae are the families of cat and dog respectively
(D) To detemine relations in higher taxa is more difficult in comparison to lower taxa.

145)

International code of botanical nomenclature

146)

Genus

147)

Dicotyledonae, is a name of Division

148)

aceae

149)

Class - Monocotyledonae

150) NCERT Pg. # 10, Fig.11

151) NCERT Page No. # 5

152) NCERT XI Page No. # 6,7,8

153) NCERT Page No. # 29

154)

Based on the floral characters

155)

NCERT Page No. # 30

 156)

Both (1) and (2)

157) NCERT-30

158)

Solution:

The correct answer is:

4. All of the above

159) Correct Answer: Option 2: A-II, P ; B-I, P, Q, R ; C-III, S, P ; D-I, IV, R

Explanation:

A. Monera (A) → II (Nuclear membrane absent) ; P (Parasitic and saprophytic)

A. Bacteria (Monera) are prokaryotic, meaning they lack a nuclear membrane.

B. They can be parasitic (causing diseases) or saprophytic (feeding on dead matter).

B. Protista (B) → I (Cellulosic cell wall) ; P (Parasitic and saprophytic) ; Q (Holozoic) ; R

(Photosynthetic)

A. Protists are unicellular eukaryotes with a nuclear membrane.

B. Some have cellulosic cell walls (e.g., algae), while others are holozoic (ingest food like
Amoeba).
C. They can be photosynthetic (e.g., Euglena) or parasitic (e.g., Plasmodium).

C. Fungi (C) → III (May form loose tissue) ; S (Cell wall made of chitin) ; P (Parasitic and
saprophytic)

A. Fungi have chitin in their cell wall.

B. They grow as loosely organized mycelial networks.
C. Most fungi are saprophytic (decomposers), but some are parasitic (causing diseases).

D. Plantae (D) → I (Cellulosic cell wall) ; IV (Tissue/organ grade of organization) ; R

(Photosynthetic)

A. Plants have a cell wall made of cellulose.

B. They show tissue and organ-level organization (roots, stems, leaves).
C. They are autotrophic (photosynthetic).

160)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 14

161)

Solution:
The correct answer is:

3. Peptidoglycan

Archaebacteria lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls, which is present in eubacteria. They
have branched-chain lipids and ribosomes, and their DNA is similar to eukaryotes

162) NCERT Pg. # 17

163) NCERT-Page # 16,17,21,33

164)

Solution:

The correct answer is:2. Protista

According to Whittaker's 5 kingdom classification, organisms like Chlorella (alga),
Chlamydomonas (alga), Paramoecium, and Amoeba (protozoans) are all unicellular eukaryotes
and should be classified under Protista, which is a separate kingdom for such organisms.

165)

Explain Question :
The question asks about the drawbacks of the two-kingdom classification system.

Concept :
This question is based on classification or taxonomy.

Solution :
The two-kingdom system failed to account for :
Cellular structure : No distinction between prokaryotes (like bacteria) and eukaryotes.
Body organization : No separation of unicellular organisms (like Amoeba) from multicellular
ones.
Mode of nutrition : It grouped photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic organisms together.

Final Answer:
Option (4)

166)

Solution:

The Correct answer is: 4. Photosynthesis

167)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify a characteristic that is shared between blue-
green algae (cyanobacteria) and green plants.
Concept : This question is based on cyanobacteria.

Solution : "Both blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) and green plants contain chlorophyll 'a'."

Final Answer : option (3)

168)

Solution:

The Monera kingdom includes prokaryotic organisms, such as:

A. Pseudomonas (a bacterium)

B. Archaebacteria (a type of archaea)

Answer :- 1

169) Option 1: Correct. Mesosomes are invaginations of the plasma membrane in bacteria,
involved in cellular processes like cell respiration.
Option 2: Incorrect. Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules, not involved in bearing
photosynthetic pigments.
Option 3: Incorrect. Flagella are involved in locomotion, not in the formation of conjugation
tubes.
Option 4: Incorrect. Capsules protect bacteria and help in avoiding immune responses, not in
locomotion.

170)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the incorrect statement among the given
options regarding blue-green algae, also known as cyanobacteria.

Concept : This question is based on cyanobacteria.

Solution :
Their colonies are generally surrounded with membranous sheath: incorrect.
The colonies of blue-green algae are typically surrounded by a gelatinous (mucilaginous)
sheath, not a membranous one.

Final Answer : option (2)

171)

On branch Y

172)

Explain Question : The question asks to correctly match the kingdoms listed in Column I with
their characteristic cell wall composition (Column II) and body organization (Column III)

Concept : This question is based on R.H.Whittaker, Carl Woese

Solution :
2 (Protista) - a (Present in some) - iii (Cellular) → Protista have cell walls in some members and
are mostly unicellular.
1 (Monera) - d (Polysaccharide + Amino acid) - iv (Cellular) → Monera have peptidoglycan
(polysaccharide + amino acid) cell wall and are unicellular.
3 (Fungi) - b (Present chitin) - ii (Loose tissue) → Fungi cell wall chitin, loose tissue.
4 (Plantae) - c (Present cellulose) - i (Tissue/organ) → Plantae cell wall cellulose, well-
developed tissue/organs.

Final Answer : option (1)

173)

Cell wall of fungi is without cellulosic and mainly made of chitin.

174) 4 (Diatoms, Dinoflagellates, Euglena, Paramoecium)

Puccinia, Albugo, Claviceps are fungi.
Nitrosomonas are Mycoplasma are the members of monera.

175)

NCERT-XI, Page # 16
Fungi are heterotrophic

176) The colonies are generally surrounded by gelatinous sheath. They often form blooms in
polluted water bodies. Some of these organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen
in specialised cells called heterocysts, e.g., Nostoc and Anabaena.

177) N(t+1) = Nt [(B + I) – (D + E)]

= 1000 + [(30 + 40) – (20 + 30)]
= 1000 + [70 – 50]
= 1000 + 20 = 1020 individuals/Unit area

178) NCERT-XI, Page # 15

Dinoflagellates are photosynthetic not mixotrophic.

179)

Protista

180)
Fungi are prokaryotic heterotrophs