11-05-2025

6019CMD30302125SG01 MD

PHYSICS

1) A body of mass m1 exerts a force on another body of mass m2. If the magnitude of acceleration of
m2 is a2, then the magnitude of the acceleration of m1 is (considering only two bodies in space)

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4) a2

2) The elevator shown in fig. is descending with an acceleration of 2 ms–2. The mass of the block A =
0.5 kg. The force exerted by the block A on the block B is :- (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 8 N

3) Find acceleration of the following :

(1) 4.5 m/s2

(2) 6 m/s2
(3) 9 m/s2
(4) 2 m/s2

4) Figures Ι, ΙΙ, ΙΙΙ and ΙV depict variation of force with time :-

(Ι) (ΙΙ) (ΙΙΙ) (ΙV)
The impulse is highest in the case of situations depicted figure

(1) Ι and ΙΙ
(2) ΙΙΙ and Ι
(3) ΙΙΙ and ΙV
(4) ΙV only

5) Three force forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only along
Y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is :-

(1)

(2)
(3) 0.5 N
(4) 1.5 N

6) A particle of mass m initially at rest is acted upon by a variable force F for a brief interval of time
T. It begins to move with a velocity u after the force stops acting. F is shown in the graph as a
function of time. The curve is a semi-circle. Which relation is correct in the following:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

7) Two wooden blocks are moving on a smooth horizontal surface such that mass m remains
stationary with respect to block of mass M as shown in the figure. The magnitude of force P is:-

(1) (M + m)g tan β

(2) g tan β
(3) mg cos β
(4) (M + m)g cosec β

8) In figure, if a block of mass m is displaced by x and released. There is no friction, the maximum

acceleration produced in the block would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected by a string passing over a pulley P.
The mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction =
μ). The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m1 is :
(Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) A man of mass 30 kg holds a 90 kg platform in equilibrium by applying

equal force with both the hands, then find out tension in the rope.

(1) 300 N
(2) 400 N
(3) 600 N
(4) 200 N

11) A man is raising himself and the crate on which he stands with an acceleration of 5 m/s2 by a
massless rope-and-pulley arrangement. Mass of the man is 100 kg and that of the crate is 50kg. If g

= 10 m/s2, then the tension in the rope is :-

(1) 2250 N
(2) 1125 N
(3) 750 N
(4) 375 N

12) A force F is applied on the block. If g = 10 m/s2, the acceleration of the block is :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 6 m/s2
(4) Zero

13)

The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to move along the x-axis is given by :-
The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2 J. Then the maximum speed (in m/s) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 2

(4)

14) A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5 m/s. The work done by
the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is

(1) –1.25 J
(2) 1.25 J
(3) 0.5 J
(4) –0.5 J

15) Power on a mass is P = (3t2 – 2t + 1) watt change in kinetic energy from t = 2 sec to t = 4 sec is
:-

(1) 46 J
(2) 92 J
(3) 23 J
(4) 62 J

16) If change in kinetic energy is 5% then what will be change in momentum.

(1)
(2) 2.5%
(3) 10%
(4) 25%

17) The friction coefficient between the blocks is 0.5. The acceleration of each block is :-

2
(1) a1 = a2 = 1 m/s
2
(2) a1 = a2 = 4 m/s
2 2
(3) a1 = 5 m/s ,a2 = 10/3 m/s
2 2
(4) a1 = 5 m/s ,a2 = 3 m/s

18) A lift of mass 100 kg starts moving from rests in upward direction. Fig. shows the variation of
speed of the lift. T1, T2, T3 stands for tension in the rope from zero to two seconds, two to six seconds,

six to seven seconds respectively then:-

(1) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 1 : 1 : 1
(2) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 4 : 5 : 7
(3) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 6 : 5 : 3
(4) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 6 : 5 : 6

19) A block slides down an inclined plane with an acceleration g/2 as shown in fig. Then coefficient

of kinetic friction is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Variation of force on a particle with position r is shown. Read the statements carefully and

answer for correct statement-

(1) Position A is stable equilibrium

(2) Position B is stable equilibrium
(3) Position C is stable equilibrium
(4) All positions shown (i.e. A, B & C) are unstable equilibrium

21) A chain of mass m and length L is held on a frictionless table in such a way that th part is
hanging below the edge of table. Calculate the work done to pull the hanging part of chain.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F = kt2 newton.
Find power of this force at time t.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A block is released from rest from top of a rough curved track as shown in figure. It comes to
rest at some point on the horizontal part. If its mass is 200 gm, calculate work by friction in joules.

(1) + 2 J
(2) - 2 J
(3) + 4 J
(4) - 4 J

24) The relationship between force and position is shown in the figure given (in one dimensional
case). The work done by the force in displacing a body from x = 1 cm to x = 5 cm is
(1) 20 ergs
(2) 60 ergs
(3) 70 ergs
(4) 700 ergs

25) A collides to a surface as shown in figure. If coefficient of restitution , then θ will be:-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 0°

26) Figure shows a uniform disc of radius R from which a disc of radius R/2 has been removed find

the position of centre of mass of the object with respect to origin (O).

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) If the system is released, then the acceleration of the centre of mass of the system is :-
(1) g/4
(2) g/2
(3) g
(4) 2g

28) A highly elastic ball moving at a speed of 3 m/s approaches a wall moving towards it with a
speed of 3 m/s. After the collision, the speed of the ball will be:-

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) 9 m/s
(4) Zero

29) The centre of mass of a body.

(1) Always lies at the geometrical centre

(2) Always lies inside the body
(3) May lies outside the body
(4) Always lie outside the body

30) A particle falls from a height h upon a fixed horizontal plane and rebounds. If e is the coefficient
of restitution, the total distance travelled before rebounding has stopped is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

31) A pendulum of mass ‘m’ connected with a string of length ‘ℓ’ and hinged at height ‘ℓ’ from
horizontal surface with rigid. A block of mass m is placed on horizontal surface. If pendulum collides
with block after releasing from horizontal position. The velocity of block after collision is (collision is

elastic)

(1) Zero
(2)
(3)
(4) 2gℓ

32) Match the following columns with respective positions of centre of mass -
(1) A : P, B : R, C : Q, D : S
(2) A : Q, B : P, C : R, D : S
(3) A : Q, B : S, C : R, D : P
(4) A : S, B : P, C : Q, D : R

33) A torque of 30 N-m is acting on a wheel of mass 5 kg and moment of inertia 2 kg-m2. If wheel
starts rotating from rest then its angular displacement in 10 seconds will be-

(1) 750 rad

(2) 1500 rad
(3) 3000 rad
(4) 6000 rad

34) Three rings, each of mass P and radius Q are arranged as shown in the figure. The moment of
inertia of the arrangement about YY' axis will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A rod of length L is hinged at one end. It is brought to a horizontal position and released. Then
angular velocity of the rod when it is in vertical position :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) In case of pure rolling as shown, what will be the speed of point A of the ring of radius R?

(1) Vcm
(2)

(3)

(4) 2V

37) Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m with moments of inertia IA and IB(IB > IA) have
equal kinetic energy of rotation. If LA and LB be their angular momenta respectively, then :

(1)

(2) LA = 2LB
(3) LB > LA
(4) LA > LB

38) A uniform disc of radius R and mass M can rotate on a smooth axis passing through its centre
and perpendicular to its plane. A force F is applied on its rim. See fig. What is the tangential
acceleration of point on rim of disc ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Find the minimum value of F to topple about an edge.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with a velocity V along the straight line AB. If the
angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is LA when it is at A and LB when it is at B,

then :-
(1) LA > LB
(2) LA = LB
(3) The relationship between LA and LB depends upon the slope of the line AB
(4) LA < LB

41) Angle of prism is A and its one surface is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A
on first surface return back through the same path after suffering reflection at second silvered
surface. Refractive index of the material of prism is :-

(1) 2 sin A
(2) 2 cos A

(3)

(4) tan A

42) An object is placed at a distance x1 from the principal focus of a lens and its real image is formed
at a distance x2 from the another principal focus. The focal length of the lens is :-

(1) x1x2

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) In given diagram distance of first two images from mirror M1 will be (in cms)

(1) 10, 10
(2) 10, 20
(3) 20 ,30
(4) 10, 30

44)

Two identical glass equiconvex lens of focal length 20 cm are kept in contact. The space in

between the two lenses is filled with water . The focal length of the combination is :-
(1) 60 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 15 cm

45) A point object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm. The
image will form at

(1) infinity
(2) pole
(3) focus
(4) 15 cm behind the mirror

CHEMISTRY

1)

Which of the following contains strongest C–O bond ?

–
(1) [V(CO)6]
(2) [Cr(CO)6]
+
(3) [Mn(CO)6]
(4) Same in all

2) Which of the following has highest conductivity ?

(1) K2[PtCl6]
(2) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(3) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(4) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]

3) The crystal field stablilisation energy of [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is :

(1) – 7.2 Δ0 + 2P
(2) – 0.4Δ0 + 3P
(3) –2.4Δ0 + 2P
(4) – 3.6 Δ0 + 3P

4) The correct name of [Pt(NH3)4Cl2] [PtCl4] is–

(1) Tetraammine dichloro platinum (IV) tetrachloroplatinate (II)

(2) Dichloro tetra ammine platinium (IV) tetrachloro platinate (II)
(3) Tetrachloro platinum (II) tetraammine platinate (IV)
(4) Tetrachloro platinum (II) dichloro tetraamine platinate (IV)
5) Assertion (A) : The complex K4[Fe(CN)6] when present in aqueous solution, will give test for K+,
Fe+2 and cyanide ion.
Reason (R) : The complex K4[Fe(CN)6] will dissociate completely in solution.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false.

6) The IUPAC name for K2[CrVINH3(CN)2O2(O2)] is :-

(1) Potassium amminedicyanido-C-dioxidoperoxidochromate(VI)

(2) Potassium amminedicyanotetraoxochromium(III)
(3) Potassium amminedicyanochromate(IV)
(4) Potassium amminocyanodiperoxochromate(VI)

7) Fac-Mer isomerism is associated with which one of the following complexes ?

+2
(1) [Pt(en)2]
(2) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
+3
(3) [Co(en)3]
(4) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]

8) Low spin tetrahedral complexes are not formed because

(1) for tetraheral complexes, the CFSE is lower than pairing energy
(2) for tetraheral complexes, the CFSE is higher than pairing energy
(3) electrons do not go to eg in case of tetrahedral complexes
(4) tetrahedral complexes are formed by weak field ligands only

9) The magnetic moment of complexes gives below are in the order :-

(i) [Ni(CO)4] (ii) [Mn (CN)6]–4
(iii) [Cr(NH3)6]+3 (iv) [CoF6]–3

(1) i > ii > iii > iv

(2) i < ii < iii < iv
(3) iv > ii > i > iii
(4) iv < ii < i < iii

10) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) In K3[Fe(CN)6], the ligand has satisfied only the secondary valencies of ferric ion
(2) In K3[Fe(CN)6], the ligand has satisfied both primary and secondary valencies of ferric ion
(3) In K4[Fe(CN)6], the ligand has satisfied both primary and secondary valencies of ferrous ion
(4) In [Cu(NH3)4]SO4, the ligand has satisfied only the secondary valency of copper
11) Which of the following set of isomer isomerism is incorrect –

–
(1) Cis–[Co(gly)2Cl2] – optical isomerism
+
(2) [Zn(NH3)3Cl] – Geometrical isomerism
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 – Hydrate isomerism
(4) [Co(en)2(NCS)2]Cl – Linkage isomerism

12) Which one of the following has largest number of stereo isomers ?

+
(1) [Co(en)2Cl2]
2+
(2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]
+3
(3) [Co(NH3)6]
(4) [Ru(NH3)4Cl2]

13) Ammonia forms the complex ion [Cu(NH3)4]2+ with copper ions in alkaline solutions but not in
acidic solution. The reason for this is -

(1) In acidic solution, protons coordinate with ammonia molecules forming ions and NH3
molecules are not available.
(2) In alkaline solutions, insoluble Cu(OH)2 is precipitated which is soluble in excess of any alkali.
(3) Copper hydroxide is an amphoteric substance.
(4) In acidic solutions, hydration protects copper ions.

14) Which of the following is an oxidizing agent?

(1) Mn(CO)5
(2) Fe(CO)5
(3) Mn2(CO)10
(4) Fe2(CO)9

15) Highest oxidation state of manganese in fluoride +4 (MnF4) but highest oxidation state in oxides
is (Mn2O7) because

(1) Fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen

(2) Fluorine does not possess d-orbitals
(3) Fluorine stabilises lower oxidation state
(4) In covalent compounds, fluorine can form sigma bond only while oxygen forms double bond.

16) Which of the following element have maximum density :-

(1) Sc
(2) Co
(3) Fe
(4) Mn
17) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(a) Fe (i) Highest 2nd I.E. in 3d elements

(b) Ni (ii) M in [M(CO)4] is sp3 hybridisation

(c) Cu (iii) +3 oxidation state is more paramagnetic than +2

(d) Mn (iv) Shows +7 oxidation state (highest)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) iii i ii iv

(2) iii ii i iv

(3) i iii ii iv

(4) iii i iv ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Match the following aspects with the respective metal.

Aspects Metal

The metal which reveals a maximum

(a) (i) Scandium
number of oxidation states

The metal although placed in 3d block

(b) (ii) Copper
is considered not as a transition element

The metal which does not exhibit variable

(c) (iii) Manganese
oxidation states

The metal which in +1 oxidation state

(d) in aqueous solution undergoes (iv) Zinc
disproportionation

Select the correct option :

(1) (a)-(i) (b)-(iv) (c)-(ii) (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(iii)

19) Assertion: Aquated copper (I) cation undergoes disproportionation as :

2Cu+(aq.) → Cu2+(aq) + Cu
Reason: Hydration energy of Cu2+ is higher than that of Cu+ which compensates second ionisation
energy of Cu.
(1) If both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(2) If both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) If A is correct but R is wrong.
(4) If A is wrong but R is correct.

20) In which of the following reactions the hybridisation state of underlined atom is same in
reactants and products ?

–
(1) BF3 + F →
(2) NH3 + H+ →

(3) NO3– + Zn + OH– → NH3 +

(4) AlCl3 + Cl– →

21)

In which of the following molecule ratio of σ and π bonds is 1 :

(1) C2(CN)4
(2) C3O2
(3) CO2
(4) All of the above

22) pπ-dπ bonding is present in :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23)

Column-I Column-II
overlapping Type of bond

(A) px–px(y-axis) (P) Zero

(B) s–py (z-axis) (Q) Zero

(C) py–pz (x-axis) (R) σ

(D) py–pz (x-axis) (S) π

(1) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R
(2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(3) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
(4) Both (1), (2)

24) Which is the following is the correct order of bond order ?

 + – 2–
(1) N2 > N2 > N2 > N2
+ – 2–
(2) N2 > N2 = N2 > N2
2– – +
(3) N2 > N2 > N2 > N2
2– + –
(4) N2 > N2 = N2 > N2

25) The correct order of increasing ionic character is :

(1) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2

(2) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < BaCl2 < CaCl2
(3) BeCl2 < BaCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2
(4) BaCl2 < CaCl2 < MgCl2 < BeCl2

26) Which of the following molecules does not have coordinate bond ?

+
(1) H3O
(2)
(3) O3
(4)

27) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) and Li2 are diamagnetic

(2) He2 molecule does not exist
(3) In O2 molecule, the last electron enters in π antibonding molecular orbital
(4) In F2 molecule, the energy of σ2pz is more than π2px and π2py

28) Incorrect statemens are :-

(A) In sp3d hybridisation dx –y orbital is used
2 2

(B) In CF3 free radical 'C' shows sp3 hybridisation

(C) In SO3, only pπ-dπ type of π bonds are present
(D) In solid state PBr5 exist as [PBr4]+ [PBr6]–

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, D
(4) B, C, D

29) For which species bohr atomic model is valid

(1) H+
(2) He
(3) Li+
(4) Na10+
30) Match the list I and II and pick the correct matching from the code given below :-

List I List II

A Isotope a

B Isobar b

C Isotone c

D Isosters d

E Isodiapheres e CO2 & N2O

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) The angular momentum of an electron in 4s orbital, 3p orbital and 4th orbit are :-

(1)
0,

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) If a0 be the radius of first Bohr's orbit of H-atom, the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron
revolving in the second Bohr's orbit will be :-

(1) 6πa0
(2) 4πa0
(3) 2πa0
(4) πa0

33) The number of electrons with the azimuthal quantum number l = 1 and 2 for 24Cr in ground state
are :

(1) 16 and 5
(2) 12 and 5
(3) 16 and 4
(4) 12 and 4

34)

Give the correct order of initials T (true) or F (false) for following statements :-

If an ion has 2 electrons in K shell, 8 electrons in L shell and 6

(I) electrons in M shell, then number of S electrons present in that
element is 6.

(II) The maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by 2n2

If electron has magnetic quantam number –1, then it cannot be

(III)
present in s-orbital.

(IV) Only one radial node is present in 3p orbital.

(1) TTFF
(2) FFTF
(3) TFTT
(4) FFTF

35) What is the maximum numbers electrons that can be associated with the following set of
quantum numbers ? n = 3, ℓ = 1 and m = –1

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 10
(4) 6

36) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) 2s (P) n = 4, ℓ = 2, m = 0

(B) 2pz (Q) n = 4, l = 2,m = –2 or + 2

(C) (R) n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = 0

(D) (S) n = 2, ℓ = 0, m = 0
(1) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(2) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(3) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
(4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q

37) The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and ℓ :-

(a) n = 4, ℓ = 1 (b) n = 4, ℓ = 0 (c) n = 3, ℓ = 1 (d) n = 3, ℓ = 2
 Can be placed in order of increasing energy :-

(1) c < b < a < d

(2) a < b < c < d
(3) c < b < d < a
(4) a < b < d < c

38) Which is correct :-

(1) I-effect involves partial shifting of σ e–

(2) Hyperconjugation involves complete delocalisation of σ e–
(3) Electromeric effect involves complete shifting of π e–
(4) All

39) Which will not show tautomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The correct order of stability of following carbon free radical is

1. 2.

3. 4.

(1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

(2) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
(3) 2 > 3 > 1 > 4
(4) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4
41) and respectively are:-

(1) Electrophile, nucleophile, nucleophile

(2) Electrophile, nucleophile, electrophile
(3) Nucleophile, nucleophile, nucleophile
(4) Electrophile, electrophile, electrophile

42) Most stable carbocation among the following is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Match the ions given in Column I with their nature given in Column II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) 1. Stable due to resonance

(B) 2. Destabilised due to inductive effect

(C) 3. Stabilised by 9αH hyperconjugation

(D) 4. A secondary carbocation

(1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(2) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(4) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

44) Arrange the following carbanions in order of their decreasing stability :

(A) H3C—C ≡ C – (B) H—C ≡ C – (C) H3C—

(1) A > B > C

(2) B > A > C
(3) C > B > A
(4) C > A > B

45) Correct order of stability of alkene is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Which is the correct order of cell cycle ?

(1) G1 → S → G2 → Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis

(2) G2 → G1 → S → Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis
(3) S → G1 → G2 → Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis
(4) Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis → S → G2 → G1

2) The common component of TCA cycle and electron transport chain is

(1) Succinate dehydrogenase complex

(2) ATP synthase
(3) Acetyl CoA
(4) Succinyl CoA

3) How many of the following statements are wrong :

All cell organelle have membrane bound structure and have

(i)
nucleolus.

(ii) Nucleus contains the chromatin.

(iii) DNA is genetic material.

 Cytoplasm is the main arena of acellular activities in plant &
(iv)
animal cells.
(1) (ii) & (iv)
(2) (ii) & (iv)
(3) (i) & (ii)
(4) (i) & (iv)

4) How many of the following in not incorrect regarding a cell membrane in prokaryotes.

(i) Selectively permeable in nature.

(ii) Structurally similar to eukaryotic cell membrane

(iii) Interacts with outer world

(iv) Innermost layer of cell envelope

(v) Living layer

(1) Only ii, iii & iv
(2) Only i, ii, iii, iv & v
(3) Only i, iii, iv & v
(4) Only i, iv & v

5) How many of following statements are true regarding eukaryotic cell.

(i) Cytoplasm has extensive compartmentilisation

(ii) Presence of membrane bound organelle

(iii) Organised nucleus

(iv) A variety of complex locomatory & cytoskeletal structure

(v) Genetic material is organised into chromosomes

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

6) The ribosome of eukaryotic cytoplasm, mitochondria and plastids are respectively :-

(1) 80 S, 70 S & 70 S
(2) 70 S, 70 S & 80 S
(3) 50 S, 30 s & 70 S
(4) 70 S, 80 S & 70 S

7) A cell organelle 'X' is divided into two types on the basis of a cell organelle 'Y', that helps in the
protein synthesis. Identify 'X' and 'Y' respectively

(1) Golgi complex and ribosome

(2) ER and ribosome
(3) ER and mitochondria
(4) Lysosome and ER

8) Microtubules are made up of :-

(1) Actin and function in locomotion

(2) Tubulin and found in cilia and flagella
(3) Myosin and function in contraction
(4) Polysaccharide and function in locomotion

9) If pollen grain contains 30 chromosomes and 50pg DNA, then what will be the number of
chromosome and DNA amount in microspore mother cell in G2 phase and after meiosis I.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Initiation of assembly of mitotic spindle, appearance of two chromatids, initiation of

condensation process are marked features of:-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

11) Identify the symbols A, B and C in the figure given below

 A B C

(1) G0 Prophase Cytokinesis

(2) Prophase Metaphase Telophase

(3) G1 S G2

(4) Cytokinesis Prophase G0

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Mitotic apparatus consist of :-

(1) Four aster with spindle fibres

(2) One aster with spindle fibres
(3) Centrosome with their microtubules without spindle fibres.
(4) Two asters with spindle fibres.

13) At anaphase-II, sister chromatids move towards opposite poles of the cell by :

(1) Contraction in spindle fibre attached to kinetochores

(2) Shorterning of microtubules attached to kinetochores
(3) Lengthening of microtubules attached to kinetochores
(4) Relaxation in spindle fibre attached to kinetochores

14) The exchange of genetic material between chromatids and homologous chromosome occurs
during ?

(1) Prophase-I
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Interphase
(4) Mitosis and meiosis

15)
R.Q. of protein, carbohydrate, fats and organic acids are in order :-

(1) <1, 1, <1, >1

(2) >1, <1, 1, 1
(3) 1, 1, 0, –1
(4) 0, < 1, 1, >1

16) Which of the following is incorrect about fermentation ?

(1) It account for partial breakdown of glucose

(2) Net gain is only 2 ATP
(3) NADH to NAD+ formation reaction is vigorous
(4) It occur in cytoplasm

17) The metabolic breakdown of carbohydrates, fatty acids and amino acids is connected through

(1) Acetyl CoA

(2) Pyruvic acid
(3) PGAL
(4) α-ketoglutarate

18) Link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle is :-

(1) Citric acid

(2) Acetyl CoA
(3) Succinic acid
(4) Oxaloacetic acid

19) The role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage of the respiration. Yet, the presence of oxygen
is vital because :-

(1) It acts as final acceptor of ATP produced in respiration

(2) It reacts with respiratory substrates in cytoplasm to oxidise them completely
(3) It drives the whole process of respiration by removing hydrogen from the system
(4) It converts the NAD+ into NADH+ H+ to enhance the number of ATP in respiration

20) Range of PAR is :-

(1) 400-700 nm
(2) 100-400 nm
(3) 10-100 nm
(4) 390-730 nm

21) In Calvin cycle, for synthesis of two molecules of sucrose, the requirement of ATP and NADPH is
respectively.
(1) 72 and 48
(2) 18 and 12
(3) 30 and 12
(4) 60 and 24

22) ________ is the process of synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi in the presence of light.

(1) Substrate level phosphorylation

(2) Photophosphorylation
(3) Photosystem
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation

23) Stroma lamellae are characterised by all, except–

(1) presence of PSI

(2) site of cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) perform photosynthesis at wavelength > 680 nm
(4) presence of NADP reductase

24) Statement I:– The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the
mesophyll cells.
Statement II:– Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCO enzyme.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

25) The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called

(1) Axoneme
(2) Equatorial plate
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Bivalent

26) Fill up the blanks and and choose the correct option

I A does not have direct effect on photosynthesis.

II Major limiting factor for photosynthesis in C3 plants is B .

III C is a limiting factor for plants growing in shade.

(1) A – Temperature, B – O2, C – CO2
(2) A – Water, B – CO2, C – Light
(3) A – Light, B – CO2, C – Temperature
(4) A – CO2, B – Water, C – O2
27) A population has certain attributes that an individual organism does not these are
a. Birth rate
b. Death rate
c. Sex ratio
d. Death rate Age distribution

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a, b, c and d

28) Moll's half leaf experiment has proved that-

(1) O2 is released during photosynthesis

(2) H2O is the source of oxygen
(3) CO2 is essential for photosynthesis
(4) Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis

29) There is a linear relationship between light and CO2 fixation rates at.............intensities. At
............. intensities the rate does not show further increase as other factors become limiting. Choose
the correct terms for blanks respectively

(1) high light, low light

(2) low light, low light
(3) high light, high light
(4) low light, high light

30) Match the following with respect to early experiments of photosynthesis.

Scientists Experiments

(A) Joseph Priestley (1) Showed that plants release O2

Showed that sunlight is essential for

(B) Jan Ingenhousz (2)
photosynthesis

Proved that plants produce glucose when

(C) Julius von Sachs (3)
they grow

Showed that hydrogen reduces CO2 to

(D) Cornelius van Neil (4)
carbohydrates
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(4) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

31) The primary CO2 acceptor molecule in C3 cycle is a

(1) 3-carbon aldose sugar
(2) 5-carbon ketose sugar
(3) 3-carbon ketose sugar
(4) 5-carbon aldose sugar

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplast are semi-autonomous organelles.

Statement II: Mitochondria and chloroplast contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery.
Which one of the following options is correct?

(1) Both (I) and (II) are correct

(2) (II) is true but (I) is false
(3) (I) is true but (II) is false
(4) Both (I) and (II) are false

33) Optimum temperate for C3 plant is _A_ and for C4 plant is _B_.
Select the options which correctly fills A and B.

(1) A – 20-25ºC, B – 30-45ºC

(2) A – 30-45ºC, B – 20-25ºC
(3) A – 5-10ºC, B – 15-25ºC
(4) A – 15-20ºC, B – 5-10ºC

34) Choose the correct option for A, B and C: A – Only PS-I is

present
B – Cyclic and Non cyclic photophosphorilation
C – NADPH2 and ATP producing site

(1) only B is correct

(2) only A and B are correct
(3) only A and C are correct
(4) A, B and C are correct

35) Sucrose is converted into glucose and fructose by enzyme :-

(1) Maltose
(2) Anylase
(3) Invertase
(4) Hexokinase
36) How many ATP are produced by complete oxidation of one molecule of acetyl- CoA by Kreb's
cycle ?

(1) 15
(2) 12
(3) 30
(4) 24

37) The reaction -

Pyruvate → Acetyl CoA is called :-

(1) Oxidative phosphorylation

(2) Oxidative decarboxylation
(3) Hydrogenation
(4) Substrate level phosphorylation

38) Respiration is :-

(1) Anabolic + exergonic

(2) Amphibolic + exergonic
(3) Catabolic + endergonic
(4) Amphibolic + endergonic

39) In alcoholic fermentation, the final e– acceptor is :-

(1) Acetaldehyde
(2) Ethyl alcohol
(3) NADH + H+
(4) Pyruvic acid

40) Barnacles growing on the back of a whale is an example of [NCERT XII-173]

(1) Mutualism
(2) Parasitism
(3) Commensalism
(4) Predation

41) If N is the population density at time t, then its density at time t + 1 is represented
as [NCERT XII-229]

(1) Nt + i = Nt + [(B – l) + (D – E)]

(2) N + 1 = N + [(B + E) + (D + I)]
(3) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
(4) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + E) – (D + I)]

42) In the context of population growth, when might immigration play a significant role in population
increase?

(1) During colonization of a new habitat

(2) During exponential growth phase
(3) During resource scarcity
(4) During a decline in birth rates

43)

Identify the correct statement regarding the given age pyramid of a population.

(1) It is a declining population

(2) It is a growing population
(3) It is a stable population
(4) It is an expanding population

44) Species interaction with negative influence on both is referred to as

(1) amensalism
(2) mutualism
(3) commensalism
(4) competition

45) Which growth model is considered more relatistic?

(1) Exponential growth model

(2) Logistic growth model
(3) Both 1 & 2 are equally realistic
(4) None of the above

46) Which blood protein plays a major role in osmotic blanace ?

(1) Albumin
(2) Globulin
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) All of the these

47) What percentage of plasma is contributed by proteins ?

(1) 55%
(2) 4-5%
(3) 90-92%
(4) 6-8%

48) Universal recipients are :-

(1) Persons with AB+ Blood group

(2) Persons with O– Blood group
(3) Persons with B– Blood group
(4) Persons with 'anti-A' and 'anti-B' antibodies in their plasma

49) Animals with double circulation are :-

(1) Fishes, crocodile, birds

(2) Mammals and birds only
(3) Reptiles, birds, mammals
(4) Crocodiles, birds, mammals

50) Nodal tissue is :-

(1) Specialised neural tissue

(2) Specialised cardiac musculature
(3) Neural tissue having muscle like properties
(4) Cannot be regulated by ANS

51) First heart sound 'lubb' is produced by :-

(1) Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves

(2) Opening of bicuspid and tricuspid valves
(3) Closure of aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves
(4) Opening of aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves
52) Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure :-

A B C D
Dorsal Vena Pulmonary
(1) Lungs
Aorta cava artery
Vena Pulmonary Dorsal
(2) Lungs
cava artery Aorta
Vena Pulmonary Dorsal
(3) Lungs
cava vein Aorta
Dorsal Pulmonary Vena
(4) Lungs
Aorta vein cava

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) The functional unit of contractile system in a striated muscle is :-

(1) Sarcomere
(2) Z-band
(3) Cross bridges
(4) Myofibril

54) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.

Though the heart is autoexcitable, its functions can be moderated by neural and hormonal
(1)
mechanisms.
 Angina pectoris can occur in men and women of any age but it is more common among the
(2)
middleaged and elderly.
(3) Heart failure is same as cardiac arrest or heart attack.
CAD is caused by deposits of calcium, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues, which makes the
(4)
lumen of arteries narrower.

55)

Match the column-I and column-II, choose the correct options.

Column-I Column-II

a Ammonotelic i Birds

b Ureotelic ii Mammals

c Uricotelic iii Aquatic animal

(1) a–iii, b–ii, c–i
(2) a–i, b–iii, c–ii
(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iii
(4) a–i, b–ii, c–iii

56) Match column - I & II

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

(2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

57) Read the following assertion and reason. Select the correct option
Assertion : Vasopressin is released from the neurohypophysis
Reason : ADH can also affect the kidney function by its constrictory effects on blood vessels

(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false statements

58) Read the following statements and select the correct answer :
Statement I : Increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of atrial
natriuretic factor which causes vasoconstriction
Statement II : JG cells are activated when glomerular blood pressure decreases

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

59) Match List-1 with List-2 and select the correct option.

List-1 List-2

A Glycosuria i Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney

B Ketonuria ii Presence of glucose in urine

C Glomerulonephritis iii Excess of urea in blood

D Uremia iv Presence of ketone bodies in urine

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)

60) Columns of Bertini in the kidneys of mammals are formed as extensions of :

(1) Cortex into medulla

(2) Cortex into pelvis
(3) Medulla into pelvis
(4) Pelvis into ureter

61)
[a], [b], [c] and [d] are the number of bones present in respective regions.
[a], [b], [c] and [d] respectively are:-

(1) 60, 60, 4, 2

(2) 60, 4, 2, 60
(3) 60, 60, 2, 4
(4) 60, 2, 4, 60
62)

ATPase enzyme, needed for muscle contraction is located in :

(1) Troponin
(2) Tropomyosin
(3) Actin
(4) Myosin

63) Which event does not happen during muscle contraction ?

(1) Actin filaments move towards H-zone

(2) Decrease in length of myosin filament
(3) Decrease in length of sarcomere
(4) Length of A-band remains unchanged

64) Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of
fractures.
Reason (R): Common cause of Osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

65) Given below is the diagrammatic view of human skull in which certain bones are labelled as A, B,
C and D. Find out the correct option in which all the alphabets are correctly labelled?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Zygomatic bone Sphenoid bone Temporal bone Frontal bone

(2) Sphenoid bone Maxilla bone Occipital bone Parietal bone

(3) Sphenoid bone Zygomatic bone Occipital bone Frontal bone

(4) Zygomatic bone Maxilla bone Temporal bone Parietal bone

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) An example of pivot joint is :-

(1) Femur and tibia - Fibula

(2) Humerus and glenoid cavity
(3) Zygopophysis of adjacent vertebrae
(4) Atlas and axis

67) Striated muscles are contracted by :

(1) Pulling together of myosin filament

(2) Sliding of actin filament upon thick filament
(3) Sliding of thin filament upon actin filament
(4) Sliding of thick filament upon thin filament

68) Cranial bones are ________ and facial bones are ________ in number :-

(1) 14, 8
(2) 8, 14
(3) 22, 14
(4) 14, 20

69) Which of the following is an auto immune disorder ?

(1) Bronchitis
(2) Tetany
(3) Gout
(4) Myasthenia gravis

70) Mammalian prolactin is secreted by :-

(1) Adrenal medulla

(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Neurohypophysis
(4) Adenohypophysis

71) Hormone that initiates ejection of milk, and stimulates milk production are respectively :-

(1) Prolactin, Oxytocin

(2) Prolactin, Dopamine
(3) Oxytocin, Prolactin
(4) ADH, Oxytocin
72) Hypothyroidism during pregnancy cannot lead to ................ in newborn child.

(1) Low intelligence & mental retardation.

(2) Abnormal skin
(3) Deaf mutism
(4) Normal & healthy basal metabolic rate

73) Which hormone is produced by juxtaglomerular cells of kidney ?

(1) Secretin
(2) Erythropoietin
(3) Somatostatin
(4) Rennin and pancreatic polypeptide

74) Assertion (A) :- Diabetes insipidus is marked by excessive urination and too much thirst for
water.
Reason (R) :- Anti-diuretic hormone is released by posterior lobe of pituitary gland.

(1) Assertion & Reason, both are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion & reason, both are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion & reason are incorrect.

75) Second messenger is not formed during functioning of which hormone :-

(1) FSH
(2) Adrenaline
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Cortisol

76)
Which of the following statements support the hormone action depicted?
 It explains the action of a hormone which interacts with membrane
(A)
bound receptors

It explains the action of a hormone which interacts with

(B)
intracellular receptors in nucleus

The hormone regulates chromosome function by the interaction of

(C)
hormone receptor complex with genome

(D) This hormone does not generate a second messenger

(1) A only
(2) A, D
(3) B,C,D
(4) A, B, C, D

77) How many of the following hormones are secreted by adenohypophysis.

PRL, GnRH, ACTH, PlH, TSH, ADH, Oxytocin, FSH.

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

78) Which of following is unorganised endocrine gland :

(1) Pituitary
(2) Kidney
(3) Gonad
(4) Thymus

79) Hormones are -----A------ chemicals which act as -----B------ messengers and are produced in -----C---
--- amounts. Choose the correct option :-

A B C

(1) Non-nutrient Intra cellular Trace

(2) Nutrient Inter cellular Large

(3) Non-nutrient Inter cellular Trace

(4) Nutrient Extra cellular Large

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Infective stage of Plasmodium to its secondary host.

(1) Tetranucleate cyst

(2) Gametocyte
(3) Sporozoite
(4) Cryptozoite

81)

Incorrect about Entamoeba histolytica or amoebiasis is :-

(a) Parasite of small intestine

(b) Causes dysentery

(c) Houseflies are mechanical carriers

(d) Symptoms include constipation, abdominal pain and cramp.

(1) a
(2) c
(3) a, c
(4) a, b, c, d

82) Persons who take drugs intravenously are much more likely to acquire serious infections like :-

(1) AIDS
(2) Hepatitis-B
(3) Cancer
(4) Both (1) and (2)

83) Sporozoites of the malarial parasite are found in :-

(1) salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito.

(2) saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
(3) red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria.
(4) spleen of infected humans.

84) Gametocytes during life cycle of Plasmodium are developed in :-

(1) RBCs of mosquito

(2) Stomach of mosquito
(3) Liver of man
(4) RBCs of man

85) 'Mary Mallon' was a carrier of a disease.

This disease spreads through which of the following :-

(1) Bite of mosquito

(2) Droplets
(3) Contaminated food and water
(4) Prolonged physical contact

86) Read the following four statements (A-D)

The lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour in severe
(A)
cases of Typhoid

Rhino viruses infect the nose and upper respiratory passage but
(B)
not the lungs.

Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of

(C)
typhoid.

(D) Streptococcus pneumoniae infects the alveoli of the lungs.

How many of the above statements are right :-
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

87) Select the correct set of only viral diseases.

(1) Elephantiasis, Dysentery, Chikungunya

(2) Ascariasis, Plague, Hepatitis-B
(3) Chikungunya, Hepatitis-B, Dengue
(4) Amoebiasis, Hepatitis-B, Chikungunya

88) The disease which is not transmitted by housefly :-

(1) Amoebiasis
(2) Dysentery
(3) Malaria
(4) Amoebic dysentery

89) Malignant malaria is caused by :-

(1) Oncogene
(2) Protooncogene
(3) Plasmodium malaria
(4) Plasmodium falciparum

90) Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option :

(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of ____.

In severe cases of ___, the lips and finger nails may turn gray to
(B)
bluish in colour.

(C) ___ is responsible for the disease pneumonia in humans.

(1) A-Common cold, B-Typhoid, C-Ascariasis
(2) A-Pneumonia, B-Common cold, C-Haemophilus influenzae
(3) A-Pneumonia, B-Typhoid, C-Haemophilus influenzae
(4) A-Typhoid, B-Pneumonia, C-Haemophilus influenzae
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 4 3 3 3 1 3 3 1 2 1 4 1 1 2 3 3 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 4 1 2 2 1 3 3 1 3 3 1 1 1 2 3 1 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 4 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 3 1 4 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 1 4 2 2 2 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 4 2 1 4 4 2 4 4 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 4 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 3 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 4 4 4 1 2 2 1 1 4 4 2 1 1 3 1 2 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 4 3 4 2 4 3 4 1 2 3 1 4 3 2 2 2 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 3 4 2 1 4 1 4 2 1 3 1 3 1 3 2 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 2 3 3 4 2 2 4 4 3 4 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 2 4 3 3 3 3 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 1. Asking About
We are asked to determine the acceleration of m1 when m1 exerts a force on m2, given the
acceleration a2 of m2.
2.Concept
This problem involves Newton's Third Law of Motion, which states:

A. When a body exerts a force on another body, the second body exerts an equal and opposite
force on the first.

Additionally, we use Newton's Second Law of Motion:

A. F = ma, where F is the force, m is the mass, and a is the acceleration.

3. Formula
Let the force exerted by m1 on m2 be F. From Newton's Third law, m2 exerts an equal and opposite
force F on m1.

A. Using F = ma, for m2, the force is:

F = m2a2

A. For m1, the same force F causes acceleration a1:

F = m1a1
Combining the two equations:
m1a1 = m2a2
Rearranging for a1:

4. Solution/Explanation

A. The force exerted by m1 on m2 is equal to the force exerted by m2 on m1, as per Newton's Third
Law.
B. Using Newton's Second law, the acceleration of m1 is determined by dividing the force acting

on m1 by its mass, leading to the formula .

5. Final Answer
The magnitude of the acceleration of m1 is:

Option 2:

2)

Solving within the frame

NA + FP = Mg
NA = Mg – Ma
= 0.5 (10–2) = 4N

3)
a = 2 m/s2

6)
Area = ΔP

7) Asking About :
The external force P required to keep mass m stationary with respect to mass M.

Concept :
• The system is on a smooth surface, meaning no friction.
• Mass m experiences a downward gravitational force mg.
• To keep m stationary relative to M, the system must move with an acceleration.
• Using Newton's second law in a non-inertail frame, we balance forces along the inclined
plane.

Formula :
• Acceleration of the system :

Calculation/Explanation :
• Force balance on m along the incline : mg sinβ = mg cos β

• Substituting a :
• Solving for P : P = (M +m) g tanβ
8)

10)
2T + N = 30g = 300 N .....(i)
2T – N = 90g = 900 N .....(ii)
Solving (i) & (ii),
4T = 1200 ⇒ T = 300 N

11) If man raise himself and crate forces on it are tension T and normal reaction by crate up
ward and gravitation downward.
Forces on crate are tension T upward and normal reaction by man and gravitation downward.
For combination of system of man and crate
2T upward and total weight downward
So 2T – (100 + 50)g = (100 + 50) (5)
OR 2T = 150 × 15 (g = 10 m/s2)
OR T = 1125 N

12)

13) Potential energy U =

For maximum kinetic energy, potential energy of a particle should be minimum.

For minimum value of U, and

After calculation at x = ±1

Umin = –
TE = KEmax + PEmin
⇒ KEmax = TE – PEmin

vmax =

14)
Maximum height reached by the particle

Hmax = = = 1.25m
Work done = = Fd cos θ
= mg × (Hmax) × cos (180°)
= 0.1 × 10 × 1.25 × (–1) = –1.25 J.

15)

wtotal = t3 – t2 + t
ΔKE = (43 – 42 + 4) – (23 – 22 + 2) = 46 J

16)

2.5%

17)

(1) ...(1)

(2)
freq = m × a = 3 × 4 = 12 N
fL = μN = 0.5 × 2g = 10N
∵ freq > fL

19)
mg sinθ – f = ma
mg sinθ – μ mg cosθ = ma
θ = 60° a = g/2
g(sin 60° – μ cos 60°) = g/2
21) Ui = –
Uf = 0
W = Uf – Ui

W=

22) P =

∵a=

P = (kt2) =

25)

vsin45° = V'sinθ .......... (1)

evcos45° = V'cosθ ............(2)
By (1) & (2)

26)
Mass of disc α are a

m1 α π(R)2 ; m2 ∝

m1 = m ; m2 =
CM of remaining part

xcm =

= =–
27)
Let the system moves
with an acceleration a as shown in the figure.
3 mg – T = 3 ma
T – mg = ma
2mg = 4ma or a = g/2
Now the accelration of the centre of mass,

acm = = g/4

28)

29) Conceptual.

33)

A. Question Explanation:

We're given a wheel with a known mass and moment of inertia. A torque is applied to the
wheel, causing it to rotate from rest. We need to determine the angular displacement of the
wheel after a specific time.

B. Given Data:

A. Torque (τ) = 30 N-m

B. Mass of the wheel: 5 kg (This information might not be directly used in the calculation)

C. Moment of Inertia (I) = 2 kg-m²

D. Time (t) = 10 seconds

E. Initial angular velocity (ω₀) = 0 rad/s (since the wheel starts from rest)
C. Concept:

A. Newton's Second Law for Rotational Motion: This law states that the net torque acting
on an object is equal to the product of its moment of inertia and its angular acceleration
(τ = Iα).

B. Rotational Kinematics: We'll use the equation of rotational motion that relates angular
displacement, initial angular velocity, angular acceleration, and time: θ = ω₀t + (1/2)αt².

D. Calculation:

A. Calculate Angular Acceleration (α):

A. Using Newton's Second Law for Rotational Motion: τ = Iα α = τ / I α = 30 N-m / 2

kg-m² α = 15 rad/s²

B. Calculate Angular Displacement (θ):

A. Using the rotational kinematics equation: θ = ω₀t + (1/2)αt² θ = (0 rad/s)(10 s) +

(1/2)(15 rad/s²)(10 s)² θ = 0 + (1/2)(15 rad/s²)(100 s²) θ = 750 radians

E. Final Answer:

The angular displacement of the wheel in 10 seconds is 750 radians. Option 1

34)

35)

mg = Iω2
mg = ω2 ω=

36)

38)

39)

43)
= (10,30)
 44)

CHEMISTRY

49)

Pt+4 ⇒ C.NO. = 6
Pt+2 ⇒ C.NO. = 4

59)

62)

Fe+3 is more para than Fe+2

Ni(CO)4 – sp3
Cu – 2nd I.E. is highest,
Mn → +7 (highest)

63)

In the given options

The metal which reveals a maximum number of oxidation state → Mn
The metal although placed in 3d block is considered not as a transition element is → Zn
The metal which does not exhibit variable oxidation state is → Sc (only +3)
The metal which in +1 oxidation state in aqueous solution undergoes disproportionation is →
Cu
 71)

74)

Question Explanation:
The question asks for which species the Bohr atomic model is valid. The Bohr model is
specifically applicable to species with only one electron.
Given Data:
The given options are:

A. H⁺ (Hydrogen ion)
B. He (Helium)
C. Li⁺ (Lithium ion)
D. Na¹⁰⁺ (Sodium ion with 10 positive charges)

Concept: Bohr Atomic Model

Analysis :

A. One-Electron Species: Species that have only one electron in their electron configuration.
B. H⁺: Hydrogen has one proton and normally one electron. When it loses that electron, it
becomes H⁺, which has zero electrons. Therefore, the Bohr model is not applicable.
C. He: Helium has two protons and two electrons. The Bohr model does not apply to multi-
electron species.
D. Li⁺: Lithium has three protons and three electrons. When it loses one electron, it becomes Li⁺,
which has two electrons. The Bohr model does not apply.
E. Na¹⁰⁺: Sodium has 11 protons and 11 electrons. When it loses 10 electrons, it becomes Na¹⁰⁺,
which has only one electron. The Bohr model is applicable.

Final Answer

The Bohr model is valid only for species with one electron. Among the given options, only
Na¹⁰⁺ has one electron.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (4) Na¹⁰⁺.

75)

Explanation

A. A (Isotope) - c ( ): Isotopes have the same atomic number (number of protons) but
different mass numbers (number of neutrons).

B. B (Isobar) - a ( ): Isobars have the same mass number but different atomic numbers.
 C. C (Isotone) - b ( ): Isotones have the same number of neutrons.

D. D (Isosters) - e (CO2 & N2O): Isosters have the same number of atoms and electrons.

E. E (Isodiapheres) - d ( ): Isodiapheres have the same difference between the number of

neutrons and protons.

Answer option 4, (A-c, B-a, C-b, D-e, E-d).

81)

n → principal quantum no.

l → Azimuthal quantum no.
m → magnetic quantum no.

84)

Question Explanation :
The question asks which will not show tautomerism.

Concept :
Conditions for tautomerism
1. Electron withdrawing group (-M) must be present.
2. At least one α H must be present (H attached to α sp3 carbon)
3. Double bond & OH group present at same atom (C or N).

Explanation :

Final Answer : (4)

89) sp-Hybridized carbon is more electronegative than a sp3-hybridized carbon, therefore (A)
and (B) are more stable than (C). Since CH3 group has +I effect and hence it intensified the
negative charge and so, destabilized (A) as compared to (B).

90) Stability order of alkene →

 So stability order →

BIOLOGY

96) Analysis of Ribosome Types in Eukaryotic Cells:

1. Cytoplasmic ribosomes in eukaryotes:

A. These are 80S ribosomes (S refers to the Svedberg unit, a measure of size and sedimentation
rate).

2. Mitochondrial ribosomes:

A. These are 70S ribosomes, similar to those found in prokaryotes, reflecting their evolutionary
origin.

3. Plastid ribosomes (in plants and algae):

A. These are also 70S ribosomes, similar to the ribosomes in mitochondria, as plastids are
believed to have originated from prokaryotic ancestors.

Correct Answer:
1. 80 S, 70 S & 70 S

97) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 95

103)

NCERT Page # 127

106) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 230

107) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 235

109) NCERT Pg. # 233

125) NCERT-XI Pg. # 229

126) Explanation:
The complete oxidation of one molecule of acetyl-CaA in the Krebs cycle produces.
• 3 NADH (which generate A ATP via oxidative phosphorylation)
• 1 FADH2 (which generates 2 ATP)
• 1 GTP (or ATP ) via substrate level phosphorylation
Correct Ans. (2)

127)

NCERT XI Pg # 231

128)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 153, 154

129) Explanation : The question asks for the correct order Of boiling points among the
hydrides of Group 15 elements.

Concept :
Boiling point depends on the molecular mass of the compound. As we go down the group
molecular mass increases so does boiling point.

But due to presence of hydrogen bonding in NH3, they have exceptionally high boiling point.
Thus the boiling point of NH3 is higher than PH3 and ASH3.

Hence correct order of boiling point is :

SbH3 > NH3 > ASH3 > PH3
Answer : Option (1)

130) NCERT Reference: XII, Page No. 173

131) NCERT Reference: XII, Page No. 229

133)

NCERT Page no. 192

145)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 290

151)

NCERT PAGE NO. 225

152)

The ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is located in myosin.

153) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 222

154)

Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances
of fractures.

This is TRUE. Osteoporosis is a condition where bones become weak and brittle due to loss of
bone tissue, leading to increased fracture risk.

Reason (R): Common cause of Osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.

This is FALSE. Osteoporosis is more commonly associated with decreased levels of estrogen,
particularly after menopause in women.

Therefore: Assertion (A) is correct. Reason (R) is not correct.

This corresponds to option 3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

155) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 309

157)

The question asks about the mechanism of muscle contraction, specifically in striated muscles.
It presents four options describing different ways filaments might interact.
• Sliding Filament Theory: This is the fundamental principle of muscle contraction. It states
that muscle contraction occurs due to the sliding of actin filaments (thin filaments) over
myosin filaments (thick filaments).
Explanation of Options:
1. Pulling together of myosin filament: Incorrect. Myosin filaments do not pull themselves
together. They interact with actin filaments. 2. Sliding of actin filament upon thick filament:
Correct. This describes the sliding filament theory accurately. Actin filaments slide over the
stationary myosin filaments.
3. Sliding of thin filament upon actin filament: Incorrect. Actin filaments are the thin filaments
themselves. They do not slide on top of each other.
4. Sliding of thick filament upon thin filament: Incorrect. Although there is some movement of
myosin heads along the actin filament, the overall movement is of the actin filament sliding
over the myosin.
So, the correct answer is option 2.
158) NCERT Pg.#309

159) NCERT (XI), Pg. # 312

170)

NCERT Pg. No. 148

171) NCERT Pg.# 148

174) NCERT Page # 148 (E)

176)

NCERT-XII BIO Pg#147

178) NCERT Pg. # 147

179) NCERT Pg. # 147

180) NCERT Pg # 146, 147