16-03-2025

1103CMD303021250024 MD

PHYSICS

1) If v = (t+2).(t+3), then the acceleration at t = 1s is :-

(1) 7 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 2m/s2
(4) 3 m/s2

2) .................... :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Three forces are acting on a body to make it in equilibrium, which set can not do it?

(1) 3 N, 3 N, 7 N
(2) 2 N, 3 N, 4 N
(3) 2 N, 1 N, 1 N
(4) 8 N, 6 N, 4 N

4) Three forces are acting on an object shown in diagram. Their resultant is zero. The is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) The frequency of vibration of a string is given by:

Here p is the number of segments in which the string is divided, F is the tension in the string and
is its length. The dimensional formula for m is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) The Young modulus (Y) of a material is given by . If the percentage error in W, L, r and ℓ
are 1%, 2%, 4% and 5% respectively then maximum percentage error in Y is -

(1) 7.5 %
(2) 9 %
(3) 16 %
(4) 13 %

7) The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4 g/cm3 . In a system of units in which unit of
length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be :-

(1) 0.04
(2) 0.4
(3) 40
(4) 400

8)

The formula relates power (P), distance (x) and time (t). The dimensional formula for 'a' is
:-

0
(1) [ML T2]
(2) [M–1LT–2]
(3) [ML–2T–2]
0
(4) [M–1L T2]

9) A car travels first half distance with 30 km/hr and remaining half distance with 50 km/hr. Find
average speed for complete journey ?

(1) 42.5 km/hr

(2) 40.0 km/hr
(3) 37.5 km/hr
(4) 35.0 km/hr

10)

A particle is moving on x-axis according to equation v = x2 + x. Then acceleration of the particle at x

= 2m is :

(1) 0 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 11 m/s2
(4) 30 m/s2

11) A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h metres. It takes T seconds to reach the

ground. What is the position on the ball in seconds?

(1)
metres from the ground

(2)
metres from the ground

(3)
metres from the ground

(4)
metres from the ground

12) A train travels distance between two stations in 2 hours. v – t graph is given. find max.

acceleration ?

(1) 140 km/hr2

(2) 160 km/hr2
(3) 100 km/hr2
(4) 120 km/hr2

13) Acceleration-time graph for an object is :- Which of the following graph

represents correct velocity- time graph ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A particle can only move in one dimension along the x-axis. The velocity of the particle as a
function of time is shown in the diagram. There is a net force in the positive direction at

(1) B
(2) E
(3) C
(4) D

15) A rocket of mass 1000 kg is to be projected vertically upwards. The gases are exhausted
vertically downwards with velocity 100 m/s with respect to the rocket. What is the minimum rate of
burning fuel, so as to just lift the rocket upwards against the gravitational attraction ? (Take g = 10
m/s2)

(1) 50 kg/s
(2) 100 kg/s
(3) 200 kg/s
(4) 400 kg/s

16) A body of mass 1 kg lies on smooth inclined plane. The body is given force F = 10N horizontally
as shown. The magnitude of net normal reaction on the body is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 10 N
(4) None of these

17) If system is in equilibrium. Find extension in lower spring :-

(1) 0.02 m
(2) 0.03 m
(3) 0.05 m
(4) None

18) What is the contact force between the blocks of mass 2M and 3M?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) F

19) A person pushes a block of mass 4 kg up a frictionless inclined plane 10 m long and that makes
an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Then the work done by gravity is

(1) 33.5 J
(2) - 392 J
(3) 339.4 J
(4) -196 J
20) A police officer fires a bullet of mass 50 gm with speed 400 m/s on soft plywood of thickness 2
cm. The bullet emerges with only 25% of it's kinetic energy. What is the emergent speed of the
bullet ?

(1) 50 m/s
(2) 100 m/s
(3) 200 m/s
(4) None of the above

21) A block of mass 2 kg is placed at the point A of a rough track as shown. If it is slightly pushed
towards right, the block slides down and stops after reaching point B. The work done by friction on

the block in transit from A to B is :-

(1) –2J
(2) 2J
(3) –4J
(4) –1J

22)

A particle moves in a potential energy region given as U = x2 – 14x + 12. Its state of equilibrium will
be-

(1) x = 7
(2) x = 2m
(3) x = 0
(4) x = –1

23) A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an expansion of 5 cm. The work done in expanding it
from 5 cm to 15 cm is :-

(1) 16 J
(2) 8 J
(3) 32 J
(4) 24 J

24) Two cars initially at rest starts moving one car of mass m moves with acceleration a and the
other car of mass 2m moves in same direction with acceleration a/2. Which car engine develops
more instantaneous power ?

(1) Car of mass m

(2) Car of mass 2m
(3) The power is same for both cars
(4) None of these
25) A particle is revolving on a circle of radius 1 m with angular speed 12 rad/s. If a constant angular

acceleration is applied at this instant for 2 seconds, and it's angular speed becomes r.p.m.,
then angular acceleration is :-

(1) 1 rad/s2
(2) 6 rad/s2
(3) 8 rad/s2
(4) 3 rad/s2

26) Two moving particles P & Q are 10 m apart at any instant. Velocity of P is 8 m/s and that of Q is
6 m/s at 30° angle with the line joining P & Q. Calculate the angular velocity of P w.r.t. Q :-

(1) 0.1 rad/sec

(2) 0.7 rad/sec
(3) 0.5 rad/sec
(4) 1.0 rad/sec

27) A circular road of radius 1000 m has banking angle 45°.The maximum safe speed of a car having
mass 2000 kg will be, if the coefficient of friction between tyre and road is 0.5

(1) m/s
(2) 124 m/s
(3) 99 m/s
(4) 86 m/s

28) Position of the centre of mass of the system is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

29) Two particles are at rest as shown. Suddenly a force F = 6N starts acting on the 3 kg particle.

Find the velocity of the centre of mass of these particles at t = 5 sec.

(1) 6 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

30) Two particles of equal masses are moving with same speed V on two roads inclined at an angle
θ. They collide inelastically at the junction end and then move together. The speed of the
combination is :

(1) v cos θ

(2)

(3) v

(4)

31) Two particles collides directly and bounces as shown. If coefficient of restitution is 'e', then

correct equation from Newton's law of restitution is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) Four thin rods of same mass M and same length ℓ, form a square as shown in figure. Moment of
inertia of this system about an axis passing through centre O and perpendicular to its plane is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A disc is pulled by a force F acting at a point above the centre of mass of the disc. The direction
of frictional force (fr) acting on disc pushed on a rough surface will be represented by:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Information is insufficient

34) A solid sphere rolls down on an inclined plane of inclination θ. What is the acceleration as the
sphere reaches bottom:-

(1)
g sinθ

(2)
g sinθ

(3)
g sinθ
(4)
g sinθ

35) Assertion :- Mountain roads rarely go straight up the slope.

Reason :- Slope of mountains are large, therefore more chances of vehicle to slip from roads.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

36) A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a tower with a velocity V0 . It will be moving at an
angle of 37° with the horizontal after time :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A smooth square platform ABCD is moving with speed v. At what angle θ (shown in diagram) a

particle must be projected from A so that it strikes at point B.

(1)
sin–1
cos–1
(2)

(3)
sin–1
cos–1
(4)

38) A man holds an umbrella at 30° with vertical to keep himself dry. He then runs at a speed of 10
m/s and finds the raindrops to be hitting vertically. Speed of raindrops with respect to the running
man and with respect to earth are :-

(1) 20 m/s, 10 m/s

(2) 20 m/s, 10 m/s
(3) 10 m/s, m/s
(4) 10 m/s, 20 m/s

39) Block B moves to the right with a constant velocity v0. The velocity of body A relative to B is

(1)
towards left

(2)
towards right

(3)
towards left

(4)
towards right

40) In the given diagram acceleration of the system is: (Consider string as light & inextensible and

pulley as light and frictionless)

(1) g/3

(2)

(3)

(4) g/2

41) A string of length L is fixed at one end and carries a mass M at the other end. The string makes
2/π revolutions per second around the vertical axis through the fixed end as shown in the figure,

then tension in the string is :-

(1) ML
(2) 2 ML
(3) 4 ML
(4) 16 ML

42) The mass of the bob of a simple pendulum of length L is m. If the bob is left from its horizontal
position then the speed of the bob and the tension in the thread in the lowest position of the bob will
be respectively :–

(1) and 3 mg
(2) 3 mg and

(3) 2 mg and
(4) 2 gL and 3 mg

43) Two bodies of masses 5 kg and 3 kg moving in the same direction along the same straight line
with velocities 5 m/sec and 3 m/s respectively suffer one-dimensional elastic collision. Find the
velocities after the collision (in m/sec)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A uniform rod of length L and weight w is suspended horizontally by two vertical ropes as
shown. The first rope is attached to the left end of the rod while the second rope is attached at a

distance from the right end. the tension in the second rope is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
45) A stone of mass 2 kg is attached to one end of string of length 5 m, is revolved around a stick so
that the string winds upon the stick and gets shortened. Angular velocity of stone was 5 rad/s
initially. Find angular velocity of the stone when length of the string become 2 m.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole
of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are respectively

(1) 20, 30
(2) 30, 20
(3) 40, 30
(4) 60, 40

2) An organic compound on analysis give the following data : C = 57.82%, H = 3.6% and rest is
oxygen. Its vapour density is 83, then calculate its molecular formula ?

(1) C8H6O6
(2) C8H6O4
(3) C4H3O2
(4) C6H6O6

3) The largest number of molecules is in

(1) 36 g of water
(2) 28 g of carbon monoxide
(3) 46 g of ethyl alcohol [C2H5OH]
(4) 54 g of nitrogen pentoxide [N2O5]

4) In the reaction, 4A + 2B + 3C → A4B2C3, what will be the number of moles of product formed,
starting from 1 mol of A, 0.6 mol of B and 0.72 mol of C ?

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.3
(3) 0.24
(4) 2.32
5) Heating a 20.0 g sample of magnesium carbonate to gives CO2 and 8.0g magnesium oxide. This
sample of magnesium carbonate what is the percentage of purity ? (At. Wt. : Mg = 24)

(1) 60
(2) 84
(3) 75
(4) 96

6) Number of urea molecules present in 10 mL of it's 0.1 M solution is :-

(1) 6.022 × 1023

(2) 6.022 × 1022
(3) 6.022 × 1021
(4) 6.022 × 1020

7) Number of neutrons present in 1.7 g of ammonia is -

(1) NA
(2) (NA/10) × 4
(3) (NA/10) × 7
(4) NA × 10 × 7

8) What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1 molal aqueous solution?

(1) 0.0354
(2) 0.0177
(3) 0.177
(4) 0.1770

9) When 3.65 g of HCl were added to 250 g of H2O, Calculate molality of the solution.

(1) 0.1 m
(2) 0.4 m
(3) 0.05 m
(4) 0.8 m

10) 2 mole of an ideal gas at 27°C expands isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 4 litre to 40
litre. The work done (in kJ) by the gas is :

(1) w = –28.72 kJ
(2) w = –11.488 kJ
(3) w = –5.736 kJ
(4) w = –4.988 kJ

11) Predict which of the following reaction (s) has a negative entropy change ?
I. CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
II. NH3(g) + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s)
III. 2KClO4(s) → 2KClO3(s) + O2(g)

(1) Only III

(2) Only II
(3) Only I and II
(4) Only I

12) A gas expands against constant external pressure of 1 atm when its volume changes from 5 litre
to 10 litre. Calculate the work done:-

(1) –5 J
(2) +5 J
(3) –505 J
(4) +505 J

13) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(a) pext. = 0 (i) Adiabatic change

(ii) Free expansion of

(b) q = pext.(vf – vi)
an ideal gas

(c) q = 2.303 nRT

(iii) Isothermal
irreversible change

(iv) Isothermal
(d)
reversible change
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)

14) If C6H12O6(s) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(ℓ) ; ΔH= – 680 kcal. The weight of CO2(g) produced
when 170 kcal of heat is evolved in the combustion of glucose is:-

(1) 265 g
(2) 66 g
(3) 11 g
(4) 364 g

15) Change in enthalpy for reaction

2H2O2(ℓ) → 2H2O(ℓ) + O2(g)
If heat of formation of H2O2(l) and H2O(ℓ) are
–188 & – 286 kJ/mol respectively :–

(1) – 196 kJ/mol

(2) + 196 kJ/mol
(3) + 948 kJ/mol
(4) – 948 kJ/mol

16) Calculate the enthalpy change (ΔH) for the following reaction
2C2H2(g) + 5O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) Given average bond energies of various bonds
i.e. C – H, C ≡ C, O = O, C = O, O – H as 414, 810, 499, 724 and 460 KJ/mole respectively

(1) –1861 kJ
(2) –18.61 kJ
(3) –186.1 kJ
(4) –1861 J

17) In which of the following neutralisation reactions, the heat of neutralisation will be highest ?

(1) NH4OH and CH3COOH

(2) NH4OH and HCl
(3) NaOH and CH3COOH
(4) NaOH and HCl

18)

Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2,Cl2 and HCl are 434, 242 and 431 kJmol–1 respectively. Enthalpy of
formation of HCl is:-

(1) –93 kJmol–1

(2) 245 kJmol–1
(3) 93 kJmol–1
(4) –245 kJmol–1

19) Ratio of time period of electron in first and third orbit of H–atom would be :-

(1) 1 : 18
(2) 1 : 27
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 27 : 1

20) The wave number of first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series
appears at:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

21) For p-orbital, the magnetic quantum number has value

(1) – 1
(2) 0
(3) +1
(4) All of the above are correct

22) Which of the following metal ions will have maximum number of unpaired electrons :-

(1) Fe2+
(2) Co2+
(3) Ni2+
(4) Mn2+

23) If the radius of first bohr orbit is r. The wave length of an electron in the third orbit of hydrogen
atom is equal to :-

(1) 6πr
(2) 2πr
(3) 9πr
(4) πr

24) For sodium atom, the number of electrons with m = 0 will be :-

(1) 2
(2) 7
(3) 9
(4) 8

25) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) No of angular nodes = n – ℓ – 1

(2) No of radial nodes = ℓ
(3) Total no of nodes = n – 1
(4) All

26) The number of radial nodes in 3s and 2p subshells are respectively

(1) 2 and 0
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 0 and 2
(4) 2 and 1

27) Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible

(1) n = 3, ℓ = 2, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
(2) n = 3, ℓ = 0, ml = 0, ms = –1/2
(3) n = 3, ℓ = 0, ml = –1, ms = +1/2
(4) n = 3, ℓ = 1, ml = 0, ms = + 1/2

28) Consider the isoelectronic species, Na+, Mg2+, F– and O2–. The correct order of increasing order of
their radii is.

(1) F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+

(2) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
(3) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
(4) O2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+

29) The first four I.E. values of an element are 284, 412, 656 and 3210 kJ mol–1. The number of
valence electrons in the element are :-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

30) The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order :-

(1) C < N < Si < P

(2) Si < P < C < N
(3) N < C < P < Si
(4) C < Si < N < P

31) Lother Mayer's curve was plotted against

(1) Atomic volume v/s melting point

(2) Atomic volume v/s boiling point
(3) Atomic weight v/s atomic volume
(4) Atomic number v/s atomic weight

32) Which of the following set of atomic numbers represent representative elements ?

(1) 5, 13, 30, 53

(2) 5, 17, 31, 54
(3) 11, 33, 58, 84
(4) 9, 31, 53, 83
33) Assertion :- For alkali metals and Halogens atomic radius increases regularly with atomic
number.
Reason :- As we descend the groups, the principal quantum number increases and the valence
electrons are further from nucleus. This happens because inner energy levels are filled with
electrons which serve to shield the outer electrons from pull of nucleus.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

34) The correct order of acidic strength is :-

(1) Cl2O7 > SO3 > P4O10

(2) CO2 > N2O5 > B2O3
(3) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
(4) K2O > CaO > MgO

35) Which of the following process involves absorption of energy ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) The correct values of ionisation enthalpy (in kJ mol–1) of Si, P, Cl and S respectively are :-

(1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256

(2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
(3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999
(4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256

37) Which among the given molecule possess a dipole moment ?

(1)

(2)
(3) Trans-2, 3 dichloro butene
(4)

38) Which of the following is maximum thermal stable compound?

(1) HF
(2) HCl
(3) HBr
(4) HI

39) Highest number of bonds are present in

(1)
(2) SO2
2–
(3) SO3
(4) SO3

40) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) :- A π bonding MO has lower electron density above and below the inter-nuclear asix.
Statement (II):- The π* antibonding MO has a node between the nuclei.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II are true
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

41) Which of the following is incorrectly match?

Hybridisation Geometry Orbitals use

(1) sp d 3
Trigonal bipyramidal s + px + py + pz +

(2) sp3d3 Pentagonal bipyramidal s + px + py + pz + +

(3) sp3d2 Caped octahedral s + px + py + pz + +

(4) sp3 Tetrahedral s + px + py + pz
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
42) Which of the following compound doesn't exists ?

(1) KI3
2–
(2) CCl6
(3) NCl3
(4)

43) The hydration energy of Mg2+ ions is lesser than that of :-

(1) Al3+
(2) Ba2+
(3) Na+
(4) None of these

44) Which of the following has the minimum C–C bond length ?

(1) C2H2
(2) C2H4
(3) C2H6
(4) All are same

45) Which of the compound is hypervalent :–

(1) IF7
(2) NH3
(3) BeF2
(4) CH4

BIOLOGY

1) Consider the following taxa and select how many of them do not belong the lowest category of
taxonomic hierarchy ?
Chili, Lion, Dicots, Animals, Mango, Sweet potato, Polymoniales, Cat

(1) Seven
(2) Six
(3) Five
(4) Three

2)

Consider the following statements a-d and select the option which includes all the correct ones :-
(a) A leaf is said to be simple when its lamina is entire or when incised, the incision do not touch mid
rib.
(b) A leaf is said to be compound when the incisions of lamina reach up to the midrib breaking into
number of leaflets.
(c) When the veins runs parallel to each other within a lamina, the venation is parallel.

(d) Leaves in all dicotyledonous plant posses parallel vanation.

(1) Statement a, b, c
(2) Statement b, c, d
(3) Statement c, d
(4) Statement a, c, d

3) Study the five statements (A–E) given below and select the correct statements :-
(A) The cyanobacteria are unicellular, colonial or filamentous algae
(B) Euglenoids are photosynthetic in the presence of sunlight when deprived of sunlight they behave
like heterotrophs
(C) In phycomycetes, mycelium is septate and coenocytic
(D) Bryophytes are plants which can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.
(E) The gymnosperms produce microspores and megaspores which are produced in microsporangia
and mega-sporangia borne on the sporophylls.
Options are :-

(1) A, B & C
(2) C, D & E
(3) A, B, D & E
(4) All statements are correct

4) Select correct features w.r.t. trichomes in shoot system

(a) Usually unicelled
(b) Branched or unbranched
(c) May be secretory
(d) Soft or stiff
(e) Helps against transpiration

(1) a, b, d and e
(2) All except ‘c’ and ‘d’
(3) All except ‘a’
(4) a, c and e

5) Choose the correct option.

(a) Thread-like cytoplasmic strands, running from one cell to other are known as plasmodesmata
(b) The xylem and phloem constitute the vascular bundle of the stem
(c) First formed xylem elements are described as metaxylem
(d) Radial bundles are mainly found in leaves

(1) a,b true; c, d-wrong

(2) d-true; a,b,c-wrong
(3) c-true; a,b,d-wrong
(4) b-true; a,c,d-wrong

6) Read the following statement I and II and choose the correct option :
Statement-I :- The number of common characteristics goes on increasing from species to kingdom
Statement-II :- Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to
other taxa of same level.

(1) Only statement-I is correct

(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

7)

Gram, Arhar, Tomato, Brinjal, Tulip, Gloriosa, Indigofera, Potato, Asparagus, Aloe, Petunia, China
rose, Lemon, Pea, Argemone, Primrose, Sun flower, Mustard.

Among above these plants how many plants have axile placentation.
(1) Nine
(2) Eight
(3) Eleven
(4) Ten

8)

Choose the correct match for A,B,C & D

Column
Column II Column III
I

(i) A Meristematic Zone Absorption of water

(ii) B Elongation Zone Maximum growth

(iii) C Maturation Zone absorption of water

(iv) D Root cap Protection

(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

9)
Read the following statements :-
(A) The sporophyte is not free living but attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derives
nourishment from it
(B) The female gametophyte in these plants are retained on the parent sporophyte for variable
periods
(A) and (B) statement are related with which option respectively

(1) Algae, Gymnosperm

(2) Gymnosperm, Angiosperm
(3) Pteridophytes, Bryophytes
(4) Bryophytes, Pteridophytes

10) Floral formula related to given diagram is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Assertion (A) : Viruses are not classified by Whittaker

Reason (R) : Viruses are not truely living organism

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(2) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

12) Match the column-I and column-II and choose right option regarding them :

Column-I Column-II
(A) Non-flowering spermatophyta (i) Pteridophyta
(B) Non-vascular cryptogams (ii) Angiosperm
(C) Flowering spermatophyta (iii) Gymnosperm
(D) Vascular cryptogams (iv) Bryophyta
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
13)

In Given following diagram, how many plant belong to this condition :-

Mustard, chinarose, brinjal, plum, rose, peach, guava, cucumber, sun flower
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Seven

14) Among Cedrus, Funaria, Pinus, Cycas, Ginkgo, Pteridium, Adiantum, in how many plants
ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

15)

How many plants in the list given below have opposite phyllotaxy ?

China rose, Sunflower, Mustard, Alstonia, Guava, Calotropis and Nerium

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two

16) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than one micron filter size
Statements-ll: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall.Choose the correct answer from the option
given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

17) In a plant, the plant body is differentiated into root, stem and leaf, embryo is formed, vascular
tissues are present and haploid endosperm is formed. What is a very important character that
describe this plant is a member of gymnosperm?

(1) Presence of archegonia

(2) Fertilization by pollen tube formation
(3) Ovules are naked
(4) Pollination by insect

18) Among mustard, pea, Datura, gulmohar, chilli, Cassia, chinarose, Solanum, gram, Petunia, onion,
Canna, Indigofera, tulip, brinjal how many plants show actinomorphic symmetry in their flower.

(1) Ten
(2) Eight
(3) Nine
(4) Five

19) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals.
Properties of cellular organelles are not present in the molecular constituents of the organelle
(2)
but arise as a result of interactions among the molecular components comprising the organelles.
(3) Properties of tissue are not present in the constituent cells.
Living organisms are self replicating and evolving but not self-regulating interactive systems
(4)
capable of responding to external stimuli

20) Assertion :- Neurosphora is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work.

Reason :- Neurospora grow fast, easily cultivate and short life span.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but R is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false

21) Select the correct statements from followings:

(A) Chlamydomonas exhibits isogamy, while Fucus shows oogamy
(B) Isogametes are generally similar in structure, function and behaviour
(C) Isogametes differ in structure, function and in behaviour
(D) In oogamy female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile
Options:

(1) Only A and B

(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) All

22) Fruits developing from inferior ovary are :-

(1) Guava and Jamun

(2) Apples and Cucumber
(3) Trapa and Brinjal
(4) Nelumbo and Coconut

23) Consider the following statements

(1) In a dicot root, vascular bundles are radial and exarch.
(2) The innnermost layer of cortex in dicot root is pericycle.
(3) In a dicot root, the phloem masses are seperated from the xylem by parenchymatous cells that
are known as the conjunctive tissue.

(1) 1 and 3 are true and 2 is false

(2) 1, 2 and 3 all are true.
(3) 1 and 2 are true and 3 is false
(4) Only 1 is true and 2 and 3 are false

24) Among following how many are incorrect statements in context of growth?
(a) Non-living objects do not show growth.
(b) Plant show definite growth
(c) Growth can be internal or external
(d) Animal grow upto a certain age.
(e) Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events in unicellular organisms

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

25) In China Rose flowers are :-

(1) Epigynous, polyadelphous, Parietal placentation with Imbricate aestivation

(2) Epigynous, monoadelphous, Axile placentation with twisted aestivation
(3) Hypogynous, monoadelphous, Axile placentation with Twisted aestivation
(4) Hypogynous polyadelphous, parietal placentation with valvate aestivation

26) Fill in the blanks:

a. In the ... 1..., the vascular bundles have no cambium present in them. Hence, since they do not
form secondary tissue they are referred to as ...2...
b. In ...3... stems, cambium is present between phloem and xylem. Such vascular bundles because of
the presence of cambium possess the ability to form secondary xylem and phloem tissues and hence
called ...4... vascular bundles

(1) 1— monocotyledons, 3— dicotyledons, 2-open,4- closed

(2) 3- monocotyledons, 1-dicotyledons, 2- open, 4- closed
(3) 1—monocotyledons, 3- dicotyledons, 4 open,2- closed
(4) 3-monocotyledons, 1-dicotyledons, 4 open,2- closed
27)
Identify the labelled structures correctly :-

A B C D
1 Selaginella Strobilus Root Salvinia
2 Salvinia Cone Node Funaria
3 Selaginella Strobilus Rhizome Salvinia
4 Salvinia Strobilus Root Selaginell

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Match the column I, II and III

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Cellulosic Parasitic and

A Monera I P
cell wall saprophytic

Nuclear
B Protista II membrane Q Holozoic
absent

May form
C Fungi III loose R Photosynthetic
tissue

Tissue/organ
Cell wall made
D Plantae IV grade S
of chitin
of organisation
(1) A-I,Q ; B-II,P,S ; C-IV,P ; D-III,Q
(2) A-II,P ; B-I,P,Q,R ; C-III,S,P ; D-I,IV,R
(3) A-III,Q ; B-II,P,S ; C-III,S,P ; D-II,Q
(4) A-IV,P ; B-I,R,S ; C-II,Q ; D-III,P

29) Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II
(Common name) (Taxonomic category, Order)

A Wheat 1 Primata
 B Mango 2 Diptera

C Housefly 3 Sapindales

D Man 4 Poales
(1) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(2) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(3) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

30) A tetradynamous androecium has

(1) outer whorl of four smaller stamens and inner whorl of two larger stamens.
(2) outer whorl of two larger stamens and inner whorl of four smaller stamens.
(3) outer whorl of four larger stamens and inner whorl of two smaller stamens.
(4) outer whorl of two smaller stamens and inner whorl of four larger stamens.

31) Match the column I, column II and column III and select the correct option from options given
below :

Column I Column II Column III

(Types of spores) (Fungus) (Fungi class)

(A) Zoopspores (P) Penicillium (i) Basidiomycetes

(B) Conidia (Q) Albugo (ii) Deuteromycetes

(C) Ascospore (R) Agaricus (iii) Ascomycetes

(D) Basidiospore (S) Trichederma (iv) Phycomycetes

(1) A-S-ii, B-P-iii, C-Q-iv, D-R-i
(2) A-Q-iv, B-P-iii, C-S-ii, D-R-i
(3) A-Q-iv, B-S-ii, C-P-i, D-R-iii
(4) A-Q-iv, B-S-ii, C-P-iii, D-R-i

32)

The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different types of aestivation. Which
one of these is correctly identified in the option given along with its correct example.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Aestivation Example

1 (B) Valvate Cotton

2 (A) Twisted Brinjal

3 (C) Imbricate Gulmohur

 4 (D) Vexillary Cassia
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) How many plants belongs to Bryophyta?

Riccia, Salvinia, Marchantia, Azolla, Lycopodium, Funaria, sphagnum

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

34) In which character a monocot root differs from a dicot root :

(1) Open vascular bundles

(2) Scattered vascular bundles
(3) Large pith
(4) Radial vascular bundles

35) Identify the group of organism on the basis of given characters :-

(A) Presence of two flagella.
(B) Holophytic nutrition.
(C) Cell wall with cellulosic plates.
(D) Mostly marine.

(1) Euglenoids
(2) Chrysophytes
(3) Slime moulds
(4) Dinoflagellates

36) Angiosperms are the most diverse group of plants in the plant kingdom. Select the statement
that is correctly related to them.

(1) Within angiosperms, monocots & dicots are only anatomically different.
(2) Within angiosperms, monocots & dicots are morphologically and anatomically different.
(3) Within angiosperms, monocots & dicots are anatomically similar but morphologically different.
(4) Within angiosperms, monocots & dicots are both anatomically & morphologically same.

37) Assertion : In five kingdom classification kingdom protista brought together Chlorella and
Paramoecium, which in earlier classification were placed in different kingdom.
Reason : Criteria for different classification are different in many aspects.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

38) Consider the following four statements A, B, C and D and select the right option for two correct
statements ?
Statements :-
(A) Ulothrix asexually reproduces by zoospore formation
(B) Albugo asexually reproduces by conidia formation
(C) Mucor and Rhizopus belongs to Basidiomycetes
(D) In homosporous pteridophytes gametophyte is not called prothallus.
The correct statements are :-

(1) (A) and (B)

(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D)
(4) (A) and (C)

39) Identify types of vascular bundles in given figures A, B and C.

A B C

1 Radial Conjoint closed Conjoint open

2 Conjoint closed Conjoint open Radial

3 Conjoint open Conjoint closed Radial

4 Bicollateral Concentric Radial

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) Some characters/structures are given below. How many of them are found in both bryophyta and
pteridophyta ?
(A) Archegonium (B) Protonema
(C) Embryo (D) Ovule
(E) Vascular tissue (F) Antheridium

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

41)

List of some of the plants are given below :

Radish, China-rose, Garlic, Lupin, Soyabean, Petunia, Tomato, Asparagus

How many above plants are member of family solanaceae ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

42) Find the correct characteristic of A B C D in given table–

(1) A – Eukaryotic, C – Tissue / Organ

(2) B – Chitin, D – Heterotrophic / Holozoic
(3) C – Tissue / loose tissue, B – Cellulosic
(4) A – Prokaryotic, B – Cellulosic

43) The figure below show different shapes of bacteria. Select the option giving correct
identification together with example ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

 Vibrio
Bacilli Cocci Spirilla
1 Vibrio
E.coli Streptococcus Treponema
cholerae

Spirilla
Cocci Bacilli Vibrio
2 Spirillum
Streptococcus Diplococcus Treponema
Volutans

Vibrio
Cocci Spirilla Bacilli
3 Vibrio
Diplococcus E.coli Traponema
chalerae

Vibrio
Cocci Bacilli Spirilla
4 Vibrio
Streptococcus E.coli Treponema
cholerae
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Some characters/structures are given below. How many of them are found in both gymnosperm
and pteridophyta ?
(A) Archegonium (B) Protonema
(C) Embryo (D) Fruit
(E) Vascular tissue (F) Endosperm

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

45) Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given :

Column-I Column-II
(Fungus name) (Commonly called)

A. Puccinia I. Yeast

B. Ustilago II. Mushroom

C. Agaricus III. Smut fungus

D. Saccharomyces IV. Rust fungus

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

46) How many informations are not correct about Scoliodon? Marine, mouth is located terminal,
placoid scales, cartilaginous endoskeleton, pelvic fins bear claspers, external fertilisation, oviparous,
air bladder absent, gill cover operculum is present

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 2

47) The given animal belongs to which of the following sub phylum ?

(1) Cephalochordata
(2) Urochordata
(3) Vertebrata
(4) Hemichordata

48) In cephalochordates, notochord is

(1) Present in the tail of larva

(2) Persistent throughout life
(3) Extends from head to tail
(4) Both (2) and (3)

49) Animals belonging to phylum Chordata are fundamentally characterized by the presence of
structure noted as A, B, C and D. Identify the names of A, B, C and D :-

(1) A – Nerve cord, B – Gill slits, C – Notochord, D – Post-anal tail

(2) A – Nerve cord, B – Notochord, C – Post-anal tail, D – Gill slits
(3) A – Nerve cord, B – Notochord, C – Gill slits, D – Post-anal tail
(4) A – Notochord, B – Nerve cord, C – Gill slits, D – Post-anal tail

50) Which of following is incorrect?

Non-chordates Chordates
(1) Heart is dorsal (if present) Heart is ventral
(2) Post anal tail absent Post anal tail is present
 Central nervous is ventral, Central nervous is dorsal, hollow
(3)
solid and double and single
(4) Gillslits are present Gillslits are absen
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51) In sponges, totipotent cells are :-

(1) Choanocytes
(2) Amoebocytes
(3) Pinacocytes
(4) Archaeocytes

52) Which of the following pairs of organisms posses stinging cells (nematocytes) ?

(1) Sea mouse and sea fan

(2) Sea pen and sea mouse
(3) Brain coral and sea pen
(4) Bath sponge and sycon

53) Locomotory structures of ctenophores :

(1) Ciliated comb plates

(2) Parapodia
(3) Setae
(4) Jointed legs

54) Excretory system in Platyhelminthes is in the form of :-

(1) Gills
(2) Flame cells
(3) Metanephric Kidney
(4) Renette cells

55) In which of the following option all animals are dioecious

(1) Fasciola, Ascaris, Taenia

(2) Ascaris, Ancylostoma, Wuchereria
(3) Ancyclostoma, Fasciola, Ascaris
(4) Taenia, Ascaris, Wuchereria

56) Parapodia are found in

(1) Leech
(2) Insects
(3) Nereis
(4) Sycon

57) Examples of gregarious pest and living fossil are respectively:

(1) Locusta and Apis

(2) Apis and Limulus
(3) Limulus and Locusta
(4) Locusta and Limulus

58) Phylum mollusca can be distinguished from other invertebrates by the presence of :-

(1) Radula and Mantle

(2) Bilateral symmetry
(3) Body Cavity/Coelom
(4) Metameric Segmentation

59) The devil fish and sea hare are :-

(1) Molluscs
(2) Crustaceans
(3) Coelenterates
(4) Marine fish and mammal

60) Which of the following is distinctive feature of phylum Echinodermata?

(1) Water vascular system with radial symmetry in adult form

(2) Body with pores and canals in walls
(3) Cnidoblast present
(4) All of the above

61) Assertion : Cockroaches are included in Class Insecta of phylum Arthropoda.

Reason : They have chitinous exoskeleton and 3 pairs of jointed legs.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

62) The respiratory system of cockroach consists of a network of trachea, that open through 10 pairs
of small holes called-

(1) Spiracles
(2) Tegmata
(3) Sclerites
(4) Lingua

63) The compound eyes of cockroaches consists of about

(1) 200 hexagonal ommatidia

(2) 2000 hexagonal ommatidia
(3) 20 hexagonal ommatidia
(4) 20,000 hexagonal ommatidia

64) The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous waste in haemolymph mainly in the
form of :-

(1) Ammonia
(2) Potassium urate
(3) Uric acid
(4) Urea

65) In the following diagram, identify and label the structures A, B, C and D :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Labium Maxilla Mandible Labrum

(2) Labrum Mandible Maxilla Labium

(3) Mandible Mandible Labrum Labium

(4) Maxilla Labrum Mandible Labium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) In male cockroach, genital pouch is formed by :-

(1) 7th, 8th and 9th sterna

(2) 7th sternum, and 8th and 9th terga
(3) 9th and 10th terga, and 9th sternum
(4) 9th and 10th sterna, and 9th tergum

67) Find out the incorrect pair for cockroach–

(1) A pair of testis – 4th – 6th abdominal segmental

(2) Mushroom gland – 6th – 7th abdominal segmental
(3) Titillator – Left phallomere
(4) Innermost layer of spermatophore – Utriculi brevivores

68) Match the following :-

(1) i (d), ii (a), iii (b), iv (c)

(2) i (a), ii (b), iii (c), iv (d)
(3) i (d), ii (b), iii (a), iv (c)
(4) i (a), ii (d), iii (c), iv (d)

69) Fill up the blanks by choosing the correct combination of A to E.

I. Endocrine glands secretes....A....
II. The columnar epithelium is composed of single layer of ....B.... and ...C... cells.
III. ...D... covers dry surfaces of the skin.
IV. ...E... perform the function of connecting cells to keep neighbouring cells together.

(1) A-Mucus, B-Cuboidal, C-Flattened, D-Compound epithelium, E-Tight junction

(2) A-Hormones, B-Tall, C-Slender, D-Compound epithelium, E-Adhering junction
(3) A-Oil and sweat, B-Oval, C-Round, D-Squamous epithelium, E-Gap junction
(4) A-Saliva, B-Rounded, C-Tall, D-Cuboidal epithelium, E-Mucus

70) What cell type makes up the inner lining of the gallbladder ?

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) Transitional epithelium

71) Select the incorrect statement for frog :-

(1) Frog has the ability to change its body colour

(2) Internal fertilization takes place in frog
(3) Sexual dimorphism is present in frog
(4) Frog shows indirect development

72)

Read the following statement carefully about frog :-

(A) The skin is smooth and slippery due to presence of mucus.
(B) Body is divisible into head, trunk and tail.
(C) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limbs are present only in male frog.
(D) Frogs do not exhibit sexual dimorphism.
(E) The Indian bull frog, Rana tigrina is the common frog found in India.

Find out correct option :-

(1) only A, C, D are correct statements
(2) only B, C, D are incorrect statements
(3) only A, E are incorrect statements
(4) All are correct statements

73) Given diagram is female reproductive system of frog. Identify the structure A, B, C and D :-

(1) (A) Oviduct (B) Ureter (C) Cloaca (D) Ovary

(2) (A) Oviduct (B) Ovary (C) Ureter (D) Urinary bladder
(3) (A) Urinary bladder (B) Ureter (C) Ovary (D) Oviduct
(4) (A) Cloacal aperture (B) Ovary (C) Urinary bladder (D) Oviduct

74) In male frog vasa efferentia enters the kidney and opens in to

(1) ureter
(2) urinogenital tract
(3) bidder's canal
(4) cloaca

75) Which of the following is incorrect for the cuboidal epithelium ?

(1) It is composed of cube like cells

(2) It is commonly found in parts of nephron
(3) Its main functions are secretion and absorption
(4) It is found in lining of stomach and intestine

76) Assertion (A) : The acid soluble pool represents roughly the cytoplasmic composition.
Reason (R) : Macromolecules and composition of acid soluble pool together they represent the
entire chemical composition of living tissues.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

77) Assertion: Simple carbohydrates having free aldose or ketose group are called reducing sugars.
Reason: They can reduce cupric ion to cuprous state.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

78) Which of the following is a correct match according to secondary metabolites :-

A B
C Drug
Alkaloid Toxins

(1) Vinblastin Abrin Morphine

(2) Codeine Ricin Curcumin

(3) Ricin Morphine Abrin

(4) Rubber Cellulose Morphine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79)
What is the structure or bond enclosed by a box?

(1) An amino acid

(2) Peptide bond
(3) Glycosidic bond
(4) Zwitterion

80) Identify the Amino acid given below –

(i), (ii) and (iii) are –

(1) (i)-Alanine, (ii)-Glycine, (iii)-Aspartic acid

(2) (i)-Glycine, (ii)-Serine, (iii)-Alanine
(3) (i)-Glycine, (ii)-Alanine, (iii)-Serine
(4) (i)-Glycine, (ii)-Adenine, (iii)-Palmitic acid

81) The given biomolecules is referred to as :-

(1) Adenosine
(2) Phospholipid
(3) Adenylic acid
(4) Neutral fat

82) Nucleic acids, that behave like enzyme, are called

(1) Ribozymes
(2) Hydrolases
(3) Isomerases
(4) Dehydrogenases

83)

CH3 - (CH2)14 - COOH

The above is the formula of

(1) Phospholipid
(2) Palmitic acid
(3) Triglyceride
(4) Arachidonic acid

84) Which fatty acid contain three double bond ?

(1) Arachidonic acid

(2) Oleic acid
(3) Linolenic acid
(4) Linoleic acid

85) Polymer which is form by N-acetyl glucosamine:-

(1) Chitin
(2) Cellulose
(3) Hemicellulose
(4) Pectin

86) What happens when the succinate dehydrogenase enzymes action is inhibited by malonate?

(1) Increase in Vmax without affecting Km

(2) Increase in Km without affecting Vmax
(3) Decrease in Km without affecting Vmax
(4) Decrease in Vmax without affecting Km

87) A : Enzymatic activity is lost at high temperatures.

R : Proteins get denatured by high temperature.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

88)

How the presence of an enzyme affect the activation energy of reaction ?

(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) First increase and the decrease
(4) Not affected

89) Match the following columns:

Column-I Column-II
(Enzymes) (Characteristics)

(i) Interconversion of
(A) Dehydrogenases optical, geometrical
positional isomers

(B) Ligases (ii) Group transfer

(iii) Oxidoreduction
(C) Isomerases
between two substrates

(iv) Linking together of

(D) Hydrolases
two bonds

(E) Transferases (v) Hydrolysis of bonds.

(1) A–v; B–iv; C–i; D–ii; E–iii
(2) A–iv; B–iii; C–v; D–ii; E–i
(3) A–v; B–iv; C–ii; D–iii; E–i
(4) A–iii; B–iv; C–i; D–v; E–ii

90) The diagrams X and Y given below are the illustration of the organisation of germinal layers in
animals. Study the diagram and answer the following questions :-

(A) Which type of organisation of germinal layers is represented by X and Y.

(B) Following is a list of organisms. Select the organisms with X and Y type of organisation.
Hydra, Planaria, Aurelia, Meandrina, Fasciola, Taenia

A B

X - Triploblastic; Taenia, Fasciola, Planaria

(1)
Y - Diploblastic; Aurelia, Meandrina,Hydra

X - Diploblastic; Aurelia, Fasciola, Hydra

(2)
Y - Triploblastic; Meandrina, Taenia, Planaria

X - Diploblastic; Aurelia, Meandrina, Hydra

(3)
Y - Triploblastic; Fasciola, Taenia, Planaria

X - Diploblastic; Aurelia, Taenia, Planaria

(4)
Y - Triploblastic; Meandrina, Fasciola, Hydra

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 1 1 2 3 3 4 3 4 3 2 3 2 2 1 1 3 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 2 1 4 2 1 1 1 1 3 1 2 1 1 1 2 4 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 1 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 1 3 2 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 2 1 1 4 1 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 1 2 3 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 1 1 2 3 4 1 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 1 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 3 3 1 2 4 2 4 4 4 1 2 2 4 2 3 3 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 1 2 3 3 3 2 4 4 4 3 2 3 4 2 2 1 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 4 2 4 3 2 4 3 4 4 3 1 2 2 3 4 1 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 2 2 2 3 4 1 2 3 2 2 2 3 4 1 1 2 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 2 3 1 2 1 2 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) v = t2 + 5t + 6

a=
at t = 1, a = 2 × 1 + 5 = 7 m/s2

2)

3) They must form a triangle. (a + b ≥ c)

4)

5) [v] = [T–1]
[ ] = [L1]
[F] = [M1L1T–2]

[m] = [M1L–1]

6)
= 1% + 2% + 2(4%) + 5% = 16%

7)

Density =

8)

9) Av. speed =
= 37.5 km/hr.

10)

at x = 2m

11)

12) CD shows maximum acceleration

a= = 160 km/hr2

13) Acceleration is increasing uniformly hence slop of v- t increase uniformly.

14) Force is in positive direction where acceleration is positive i.e. slope of v-t graph is
positive.
15) Minimum rate of burning fuel is

∴ mg = u

or, = = = 100 kg/s.

16)

N = Fsin45°+ mgcos45° =

17) As kx = mg

18)

N = (3M + 6M)a

19)

20)

v' =
v' = 200 m/s

21) Wg + Wfr + WN + Wext =

mg(h1 – h2) + Wfr + 0 + 0 = 0
Wfr = –4J
22)
– (2x – 14) = 0
x=7

23)

=8J

24) P = FV
For first car, P1 = mav1 = ma(at)

For second car, P2 = (2m)

= mav2 = ma
∴ P1 > P2

25)

ωi = 12 rad/s,

ωF = rad/s
= 18 rad/s
ωF = ωi + αt

α=

= = 3 rad/s2

26)

27) The maximum velocity for a banked road with friction,

v = gr
2

⇒ v = 10 × 1000 ×
2

⇒v= m/s

28)
2(0, 0) ; 3(2, 0) ; 5(2, 2) ; 8(0, 2)

29) aCM =
v = u + at

v=0+ × 5 = 6 m/s

30)
mv cosθ + mv sinθ + mv cosθ – mv sinθ
= 2mv
v = v cos θ

31) From Newton's law of restitution

32)

Moment of inertia is of rod AB about point P and perpendicular to the plane =

M.I. of rod AB about point 'O' =

(By using parallel axis theorem)

But the system consists of four rods of similar type so by the symmetry

33) For disc, force F at from centre does not require friction force for pure rolling.

If ; friction force in backwards direction.

If , friction force in forward direction for pure rolling.

 34)

35)

Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

If roads of the mountain were to go straight up, the slope (θ) would have been large, the frictional
force (μmg cos θ) would be small. Due to small friction, wheels of vehicle would slip. Also for going
up a large slope, a greater power shall be required.

36) tan 37° =

t=

37)
Velocity of particle w.r.t platform should be along AB line.
Then u cos θ = v

cosθ = ⇒ θ = cos–1

38)

VRM = 10 m/sec

39) –TV0 – 2TV0 + 2TVA=0

VA =

40)

41)
As Tsinθ = Mω2R
T sinθ = M(4)2Lsinθ
T = 16 ML

42)

0 + mgh = mv2 + 0
v2 = 2gL ⇒ v =

T = mg + = mg + = 3mg

43)

44) Rod is in equilibrium Fnet = 0

 τnet = 0
T1 + T2 = W

τA = 0 ⇒

45)

Angular Momentum Conservation

250 = 8ω

rad/sec

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

48)

Number of molecules ∝ number of moles

49)

In the present case, reactant ‘C’ will be the limiting reactant because it will give least amount
of product on being completely consumed.
3 mol C gives 1 mol product.
∴ 0.72 mol ‘C’ will give 0.24 mol of product.
50)

MgCO3 → MgO + CO2

1 mole 1 mole
84 g 40 g
∴ 40 g MgO → 84 g MgCO3
∴ 8 g Mg → (?)
= 16.8 g MgCO3

% purity =
= 84%

51)

n = M × V(L) = 0.1 × = 10–3 mol 6.022 × 1020 molecules

52)

1 mol. of NH3 contains 7 × NA neutrons.

1.7 g of NH3 = = 0.1 mol.

∴ 0.1 mol contains ⇒ 0.1 × 7 × NA neutrons

53) 1 mole of solute present in 1kg of H2O.

54)
Total moles = 0.1 mol

55) w = –nRT ln

w = –2 × 8.314 × 10–3 × 300 ln ,

w = –11.488 J

56) Δng = –ve ΔS = –ve

57) w = –Pext (V2 – V1)

= –1 (10 – 5) × 101.3 J
≈ –505 J

58) Fact.
59) C6H12O6(s) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(g) ;
ΔH = –680 KCal.
680 KCal heat is released when 6 mole CO2 is produced so,

170 KCal heat is released when mole CO2 is produced.

∴ Mass of CO2 produced

= × 170 × 44 g = 66 g CO2

60)

2H2O2(ℓ) → 2H2O(ℓ) + O2(g) ; ΔH = ?

↓ ↓ ↓
ΔHf –188 –286 0
2(–188) 2(–286)
ΔHR = Σ(ΔHf)P – Σ(ΔHf)R
= –572 + 376 = –196

61) 2 [H – C ≡ C – H]+ 5 (O = O) → 4 ( O = C = O) + 2(H – O – H)

The reaction involves the breaking of 4 C – H bonds, 2 C ≡ C bonds, 5 O = O bonds and
formation of 8 C = O bonds and 4 O – H bonds.
ΔH = [Total energy required to break bonds] – [Energy given out in forming the bonds]
= [4ΔHC – H + 2ΔHC ≡ C + 5ΔHO = O]
– [8ΔHC = O + 4ΔHO – H]
= (4 × 414 + 2 × 810 + 5 × 499)
– (8 × 724 + 4 × 460)
= 5771 – 7632
= – 1861 KJ

62) Heat of neutralisation between strong acid and a strong base is about –13.7 kcal.

63) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → HCl(g)

ΔH = (BE)R – (BE)P

64) T ∝ n3

65)

First line of Balmer series ⇒ 3 → 2

66) l = 1 m = –1, 0, + 1

67)

Mn2+ = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5

68) Since 2 πr = nλ
r ∝ n2
for n = 1, radius is r
∴ for n = 3, radius is 9r
2π × 9r = 3λ
λ = 6πr

69)

Na atom (Z = 11)

Last electron is present in 3s.

70)

Total node = n = 1

71) Radial node = n – ℓ –1

In 3s = 3 – 0 – 1 = 2
In 2p = 2 – 1 – 1 = 0

72) For ℓ = 0, mℓ = –1 is not possible.

73)

Among isoelectronic species,

ionic radii

74)

75) N = 3.0 P = 2.1 Si < P < C < N

C = 2.5 Si = 1.8

76)
Lother Meyer's curve plotted between atomic weight and atomic volume.

77) Only s & p-block elements except noble gas, d-block, f-block.

78) For alkali metals and halogens, as we descend the groups, the principal quantum number
(n) increases and the valence electrons are farther from the nucleus. This happens because the
inner energy levels are filled with electrons, which serve to shield the outer electrons from the
pull of the nucleus.

79) En ∝ Acidic strength.

80) Formation of polynegative ion is endothermic.

81)

82)

83)

84)

85) A π bonding molecular orbital has higher electron density above and below inter nuclear
axis.
 86)

In Capped octahedral, the hybridization is also sp3d3.

So orbitals involved are s + px + py + pz + dxy +dz2 + dx2–dy2.

87)

NCERT, Class-11th, Part-I, Article no. 4.1.5

Page no. 105,106. Edition - 2023-24

88) Mg+2 < Al+3 [charge on Al+3 higher so LE also higher]

89)

Bond order ∝

90)

hypervalent IF7

BIOLOGY

92) NCERT Pg. # 60, 61

93) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 19,21,23,43,44, Para-3,2,7,5,1

97) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 75,79,80,81

Tomato, Brinjal, Tulip, Gloriosa, Potato, Asparagus, Aloe, Petunia, China rose, Lemon shows
axil placentation.

98) NCERT XI # 59

99)

NCERT-XI, Page # 35 IInd para and 38 Ist para

101) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 20

104)

In Cedrus, Pinus, Cycas & Ginkgo ovules are not cnclosed by any ovary wall.
105) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 71

107)

NCERT XI Pg. # 38

108)

Actinomorphic symmetry → mustard, Datura, chilli, chinarose, Solanum, Petunia, onion, tulip
brinjal

110) NCERT Pg. # 18

111) NCERT-XI Pg. # 30, last para

117) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 37 fig 3.3

121) NCERT Pg # 17,18

122) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 74

125) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 21, Para 2.2.2

127) NCERT-XI, Page No. # 18

130) A, C and F

131) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 80

133) NCERT Pg. # 18, Fig.-2.1

134) Archegonium, embryo and vascular tissue are similar

137) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 55

139)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 46

140) NCERT XI Pg. # 55

141)

Archaeocytes (Totipotent cells-formation of ova of spermatozoa)

142) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50

143)

NCERT(XI) Pg#51 Para:4.2.3

145)

NCERT XI pg no.52

147)

NCERT Page no. 53

148) Mantel and gills

151) NCERT XI Page No. # 111

152) Ncert Page 113.

153) Ncert Page 114.

155) NCERT XII Pg. # 112, Figure 7.15(b).

156) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 112

160)

162) NCERT Pg.# 116,121

163) NCERT XI Pg. # 119

165) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

166)

NCERT_2024-25_Page #_109
 167)

NCERT Page no. 143

168)

Explanation:

A. Codeine is an alkaloid (a type of drug) found in opium.

B. Ricin is a toxin derived from castor beans.

C. Curcumin is a secondary metabolite, often used as a drug or supplement, and is the active
compound in turmeric.

Option 2: Codeine, Ricin, Curcumin.

170)

A. Structure (i):

A. The R-group (the side chain) is a single hydrogen atom (H).

B. This structure represents Glycine.

B. Structure (ii):

A. The R-group is a hydroxymethyl group (-CH₂OH).

B. This structure represents Serine.

C. Structure (iii):

A. The R-group is a methyl group (-CH₃).

B. This structure represents Alanine.

Therefore, the correct match is:

A. (i) - Glycine
 B. (ii) - Serine

C. (iii) - Alanine

So the correct answer is 2. (i)-Glycine, (ii)-Serine, (iii)-Alanine.

171)

NCERT_2024-25_Pg.#107

175)

NCERT Pg. # 149

176) Allen module.

178)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 115

179) NCERT Page no.