13-07-2025

2401CMD303021250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) Given that and r << 2, then P is roughly equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2)

y = x [c – x] where c is a constant. Find maximum value of y.

(1) c2

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

3) If surface area of a cube is changing at a rate of 5m2/s, find the rate of change of body diagonal at
the moment when side length is 1 m :-

(1) 5 m/s
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The value of cosec is :

(1) –2
(2) 2

(3)

(4) None
5) The two vectors and are drawn from a common point and then angle between
and is

(1) 90° if C2 A 2 + B2
(2) Greater than 90° if C2 < A2 + B2
(3) Greater than 90° if C2 > A2 + B2
(4) None of these

6) A body initially at rest, starts moving along x-axis. It's a vs x is shown in figure. The maximum

speed of particle is :

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) None of these

7) From the ground level, a ball is to be shot with a certain speed. Graph shows the range R it will
have versus the launch angle θ. The least speed the ball will have during its flight if θ is chosen such
that the flight time is half of its maximum possible value, is equal to :

(1) 250 m/s

(2) m/s
(3) 50 m/s
(4) m/s

8) Resultant of and is perpendicular to then angle between and :–

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) If , then n = ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

10) Angle between and is θ. What is the value of . ?

(1) P2Q cosθ

(2) Zero
(3) P2Q sin θ cosθ
(4) P2Q sinθ

11) If are two non-collinear unit vectors and if then the value of

is:

(1) 2
(2) 3/2
(3) 1/2
(4) 1

12) In relation : y = a cos(ωt + kx) where x, y are displacements, ω is angular velocity and t is time.
The dimensions of kx will be same as that of :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A physical quantity where percentage error in a,b,c and d are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%
respectively. Then find out percentage error in P is :-
(1) 14%
(2) 10%
(3) 4%
(4) 7%

14) The dimensional formula for impulse is :-

(1) [MLT–2]
(2) [MLT–1]
(3) [ML2T–1]
(4) [M2L2T–1]

15) The density of a material in CGS system is 8 g/cm3. In a system of a unit in which unit of length is
5 cm and unit of mass is 20 g. The density of material is :-

(1) 8
(2) 20
(3) 50
(4) 80

16) In a vernier calliper N division of main scale coincided with (N + 2) division of vernier scale. If
one main scale division is 2mm, the least count of vernier calliper will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) What is the reading of micrometer screwgauge shown in figure. Circular scale has 100 division:-

(1) 2.31 mm
(2) 2.29 mm
(3) 2.36 mm
(4) 2.41 mm

18) The location of a particle is changed. What can we say about the displacement and distance
covered by particle :-
(1) Both cannot be zero
(2) One of the two may be zero
(3) Both must be zero
(4) It one is positive, other is negative and vice-versa

19) Figure shows four paths along which objects move from a starting point to a final point, all in the
same time interval. The paths pass over a grid of equally spaced straight lines. Rank the paths

according to (a) the average velocity of the objects :-

(1) v1 = v2 = v3 = v4
(2) v1 = v2 > v3 < v4
(3) v4 > v2 = v3 = v3
(4) None

20) A projectile passes two points A and B at same height after 2 sec and 6 sec of its projection.
Horizontal separation between the points A and B is 120m. The horizontal range is closest to [g = 10

m/s2] :-

(1) 180 m
(2) 240 m
(3) 300 m
(4) 360 m

21) A particle starts from rest with uniform acceleration a. Its velocity after n seconds is v. The
displacement of the particle in the last two seconds of this interval is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Graphs I and II give coordinates x(t) and y(t) of a particle moving in the x–y plane. Acceleration
of the particle is constant and the graphs are drawn to the same scale. Which of the vector shown in
options best represents the acceleration of the particle :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A ball is projected as shown to hit the top of given building at point C but ball strikes below the

point C, at point D. Find distance between point C and D :-

(1) 1.25 m
(2) 2.5 m
(3) 5 m
(4) 10 m

24) A ball is projected horizontally from the top of high tower at 12 m/s. Wind is blowing horizontally
as indicated in figure, which causes acceleration 6 m/s2 horizontally. Displacement of the ball, when

it strikes the tower, will be (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 20 m
(2) 60 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 40 m
25) Two Truck are moving on parallel track A person on one truck projects a ball vertically upward
then path of the ball as seen by second observer from the ground, from the second truck moving
with same velocity as the first truck, from second truck moving with speed greater than first one in
same direction & from the second truck moving with speed less than the first truck in same direction
are :-

(1) Parabola, Parabola, Parabola, Parabola

(2) Straight line, Straight line, Parabola & Parabola
(3) Parabola, Straight line, parabola & Parabola
(4) Parabola, Straight line, Straight line, Straight line

26) A bird is flying towards south with a velocity 40km/h and a train is moving with a velocity 40
km/h towards east. What is the velocity of the bird w.r.t. an obserber in the train ?

(1) 40 km/h. N-E

(2) 40 km/h. S-E
(3) 40 km/h. S-W
(4) 40 km/h. N-W

27)

A river is flowing at 3m/s. A boat can move at 5 m/s in still water. Boat starts from point A. Width of
river is 120 m. Select the incorrect statement:-

(1) Boat can cross the river in minimum time 24 sec.

(2) Drift of the boat is zero if it starts at 127° from the direction of flow.
If boat is started perpendicular to the flow w.r.t. river then it will appear to move at 37° from
(3)
direction of river flow for the ground observer.
(4) None of these

28) If a constant external force starts acting on a moving particle, which of the following is
essentially true?

(1) the line of motion of the particle will keep changing

(2) the speed of the particle will keep changing
(3) the particle will never stop
(4) none is essentially true

29) Two blocks of masses M1 and M2 are connected to each other through a light spring as shown in
figure. If we push mass M1 with a force F and cause acceleration a1 in mass M1, what will be the

acceleration in M2 ?

(1) F/M2
(2) F/(M1 + M2)
(3) a1
(4) (F – M1a1)/M2

30) In figure the blocks A, B and C of mass m each have accelerations a1, a2 and a3 respectively. F1
and F2 are external forces of magnitudes 2mg and mg respectively. Then

(1) a1 = a2 = a3
(2) a1 > a3 > a2
(3) a1 = a2, a2 > a3
(4) a1 > a2, a2 = a3

31) Given system is in equilibrium then find tension in the rope AB :-

(1) F sin θ
(2) F/sinθ
(3) F cos θ
(4) F/cos θ

32) A balloon of mass M is descending at a constant acceleration α. When a mass m is released from
the balloon it starts rising with the same acceleration α. Assuming that its volume does not change,
what is the value of m ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

33) A uniform rope of length L and mass M is placed on a smooth fixed wedge as shown. Both ends
of rope are at same horizontal level. The rope is initially released from rest, then the magnitude of

initial acceleration of rope is :

(1) Zero
(2) M(cos α – cos β)g
(3) M (tan α – tan β)g
(4) None of these

34) Assertion:- A body is momentarily at rest still some force may act on it at that time.
Reason:- When more than one forces act on a body, it may not have acceleration.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

35) The figure shows the position-time (x-t) graph of one-dimensional motion of a body of mass 0.4

kg. The magnitude of each impulse is :-

(1) 0.4 N-s

(2) 0.8 N-s
(3) 1.6 N-s
(4) 0.2 N-s

36) A particle is moving in free space with some velocity a shown. It is applied by

force and of magnitude 10N, 10 N, and 15N respectively.

(1) Its velocity changes only in magnitude

(2) It's velocity changes only in direction
(3) It's velocity change in both magnitude and direction
(4) It's velocity remains constant

37) Two balls A and B weighing 7 N and 9 N are connected by a light cord. The system is suspended
from a fixed support by connecting the ball A with another light cord. The ball B is pulled aside by a
horizontal force 12 N and equilibrium is established. Angles α and β respectively are

(1) 30° and 60°

(2) 60° and 30°
(3) 37° and 53°
(4) 53° and 37°

38) Three blocks of masses m, 3m and 5m are connected by massless strings and pulled by a force F
on a frictionless surface as shown in the figure below. The tension P in the first string is 16N.

If the point of application of F is changed as given below, the values of

P' and Q' shall be :-

(1) 16N, 10N

(2) 10N, 16N
(3) 2N, 8N
(4) None of these

39) A weight W is supported by two strings inclined at 60° and 30° to the vertical. The tensions in
the strings are T1 and T2 as shown. If these tensions are to be determined in terms of W using a
triangle of forces, which of these triangles should you draw? (block is in equilibrium)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

40) In shown figure m1 = 2 kg and m2 = 4kg. The pulley is movable. At t = 0, both masses touch the
ground and the string is taut. A vertically upward, time dependent force F = 2t (F is in newton, t is
in second) is applied to the pulley. (Take g=10 ms–2)

Column
Column I
II

The time in seconds

(A) when m1 is lifted off (P) 10
the ground

The time in seconds

(B) when m2 is lifted off (Q) 5
the ground

Acceleration in m/s2
(C) (R) 20
of m1 at t = 30 s

Acceleration in m/s2
(D) (S) 40
of m2 at t = 60 s
(1) (A)–R ; (B)–S ; (C)–Q ; (D)–P
(2) (A)–R ; (B)–S ; (C)–P ; (D)–Q
(3) (A)–R ; (B)–S ; (C)–Q ; (D)–Q
(4) (A)–S ; (B)–R ; (C)–Q ; (D)–P

41) In the one-dimensional motion of a particle, the relation between position x and time t is given by
x2 + 2x = t (here x > 0). Choose the correct statement :
(1)
The retardation of the particle is
The uniform acceleration of the particle is
(2)

(3)
The uniform velocity of the particle is
(4) The particle has a variable acceleration of 4t + 6.

42) A particle is moving with velocity where K is a constant. The general equation for
its path is:

(1) y = x2 + constant
(2) y2 = x + constant
(3) xy = constant
(4) y2 = x2 + constant

43) A bullet enters the corner of a flat car at an angle of 37° passes out at diagonally opposite corner
as shown in the figure. Neglecting gravity, find the time for the bullet to cross the car.

(1) 1.0 s
(2) 0.4 s
(3) 0.15 s
(4) 0.6 s

44) A cylinder rests in a supporting carriage as shown. The side AB of carriage makes an angle 30°
with the horizontal and side BC is vertical. The carriage lies on a fixed horizontal surface and is
being pulled towards left with an horizontal acceleration 'a'. The magnitude of normal reactions
exerted by sides AB and BC of carriage on the cylinder be NAB and NBC respectively. Neglect friction
everywhere. Then as the magnitude of acceleration 'a' of the carriage is increased, pick up the

correct statement:

(1) NAB increases and NBC decreases.

(2) Both NAB and NBC increase.
(3) NAB remains constant and NBC increases.
(4) NAB increases and NBC remains constant.

45) A particle is observed from two frames S1 and S2. The graph of relative velocity of S1 with respect
to S2 is shown in figure. Let F1 and F2 be the pseudo forces on the particle when seen from S1 and S2

respectively. Which one of the following is not possible?

(1) F1 = 0, F2 ≠ 0
(2) F1 ≠ 0, F2 = 0
(3) F1 ≠ 0, F2 ≠ 0
(4) F1 = 0, F2 = 0

CHEMISTRY

1) Number of electrons in –CONH2 are :-

(1) 24
(2) 20
(3) 22
(4) 18

2) Which of the following has minimum core charge :-

(1) O
(2) Na
(3) N
(4) Mg

3) The frequency of a green light is 6 × 1014 Hz. Its wavelength is :-

(1) 500 nm
(2) 5 nm
(3) 50000 nm
(4) None of these

4) Wave function of an orbital is plotted against the distance from nucleus. The graphical
representation is of :

(1) 1s
(2) 2s
(3) 3s
(4) 2p

5) The ratio of longest and shortest wavelength of the Lyman series is approximately

(1) 3/4
(2) 4/9
(3) 4/3
(4) 16/9

6) Match species given in Column I with the electronic configuration given in Column II.

Column I Column II
0
(i) Cr (P) [Ar]3d84s

(ii) Fe3+ (Q) [Ar]3d9

0
(iii) Ni2+ (R) [Ar]3d54s

(iv) Cu2+ (S) [Ar]3d54s1

(T) [Ar]3d64s2
(1) (i)-S,(ii) - P,(iii)-R,(iv)-T
(2) (i)-S,(ii) - R,(iii)-P,(iv)-Q
(3) (i)-P,(ii) - R,(iii)-T,(iv)-Q
(4) (i)-R,(ii) - Q,(iii)-S,(iv)-T

7) The electronic transition from n = 2 to n = 1 will produce shortest wave length in :-

(1) Li+2
(2) He+
(3) H
(4) H+

8) Which of the following is the energy of quantum released in last line of paschen series in H
spectrum :-
(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 3.4 eV
(3) 1.51 eV
(4) 12.09 eV

9) First and Second excitation potentials of hydrogen atom (in V) would be respectively :-

(1) 10.2, 12.09

(2) 12.09, 10.2
(3) 13.6, 3.4
(4) 3.4, 13.6

10) If the velocity of hydrogen molecule is 5×104 cm sec–1, then its de-Broglie wavelength is:

(1) 2 Å
(2) 4 Å
(3) 8 Å
(4) 100 Å

11) Assuming that monsieur de-Broglie weighing 70 kg was jogging at 15 km/hr. Calculate the
wavelength at which he was jogging.

(1) 4.166 m
(2) 2.27 × 10–36cm
(3) 2.27 × 10–36m
(4) None of these

12) The number of d-electrons retained in Fe+2 (atomic number Fe = 26) ion is :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

13) According to Bohr's theory the angular momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Which of the following set of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an electron ?
(1) n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
(2) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2
(3) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 1, s = +1/2
(4) n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s +1/2

15) The total number of orbitals associated with the principal quantum number 5 is :-

(1) 5
(2) 20
(3) 25
(4) 10

16) Find the number of iodine atoms present in 40 ml of it's 0.1 M solution.

(1) 48.1 × 1020

(2) 4.81 × 1020
(3) 6.02 × 1023
(4) None of these

17) The least number of molecules are contained in:-

(1) 2 g hydrogen
(2) 8 g oxygen
(3) 4 g nitrogen
(4) 16 g CO2

18) 4.4 g of CO2 and 2.24 litre of H2 at STP are mixed in a container.The total number of molecules
present in the container will be :-

(1) 6.022 × 1023

(2) 1.2044 × 1023
(3) 1.2044 × 1022
(4) 6.023 × 1033

19) No. of atoms in 6.4 gm of SO3 :-

(1) 4.8 × 1022

(2) 4.8 × 1021
(3) 1.92 × 1023
(4) 1.92 × 1022

20) In empirical formula of a compound is CH. Its molar mass is 78. The molecular formula of the
compound will be [Atomic mass C = 12, H = 1]:

(1) C2H2
(2) C3H3
(3) C4H4
(4) C6H6

21) In an organic compound of molar mass 108 g mol–1 C, H and N atoms are present in 9 : 1 : 3.5 by
weight. Molecular formula can be :

(1) C6H8N2
(2) C7H10N
(3) C5H6N3
(4) C4H18N3

22) Volume of 0.22 g of CO2 at N.T.P. is same as that of

(1) 0.01 g Hydrogen

(2) 320 mg gaseous SO2
(3) 0.085 g NH3
(4) All the above

23) The percentage of nitrogen in urea (NH2CONH2) is about :

(1) 38.4
(2) 46.6
(3) 59.1
(4) 61.3

24) Number of electrons in 1.8 mL of H2O(l) is about:

(1) 6.02 × 1023

(2) 3.011 × 1023
(3) 0.6022 × 1021
(4) 60.22 × 1020

25) The hydrated salt Na2CO3.xH2O undergoes 63% loss in mass on heating and becomes anhydrous.
The value of x is :-

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 18

26) If 30 mL H2 and 20 mL O2 react to form water. What is left at the end of the reaction.

(1) 10 mL of H2
(2) 5 mL of H2
(3) 10 mL of O2
(4) 5 mL of O2

27) From 44 mg of CO2, 2 × 1020 molecules of CO2 are removed. The number of molecules left are :-

(1) 4 × 10–23
(2) 4 × 1023
(3) 4 × 1020
(4) 4 × 1021

28) The vapour densities of two gases are in the ratio of 1 : 3. Their molecular masses are in the
ratio of

(1) 1:3
(2) 1:2
(3) 2:3
(4) 3:1

29) Density of gas at STP is 0.5 g/L what is its molecular weight.

(1) 22.4
(2) 11.2
(3) 5.6
(4) 44.8

30) If the vapour density of gas is 14 then calculate the number of molecules in 14 g of this gas :-

(1) NA molecules
(2) 2NA molecules
(3) 0.5 NA molecules
(4) 0.25 NA molecules

31)

The correct order of ionization energies of F–,Cl–, F and Cl is :

(1) Cl < F < Cl– < F–

(2) Cl– < F– < Cl < F
(3) F– < Cl– < Cl < F
(4) Cl– < Cl < F– < F

32)

The smallest size cation and anion that can exist are respectively.

(1) H+ and H–
(2) H+ and F–
(3) Li+ and F–
(4) Li+ and H–

33) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?

(1) Generally the radius trend and the ionization energy trend across a period are opposites
(2) Metallic and ionic radii of potassium are 2.3 Å and 2.03 Å respectively
(3) All isoelectronic ions belong to same period of the periodic table
(4) Atomic radii of Niobium (Nb) and Tantalum (Ta) are almost same

34) Statement 1 : Na+ and Al3+ are isoelectronic but the magnitude of ionic radius of Al3+ is less
than that of Na+
Statement 2 : The magnitude of effective nuclear charge of the outer shell electrons in Al3+ is
greater than that in Na+
Which of the following is correct for these is statements :

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is true, Statements-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statements-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True

35) Correct order of Acidic strength is :

(1) SO3 > SO2

(2) HNO3 > HNO2
(3) H2SO4 > H2SO3
(4) All of these

36) The pair with minimum difference in electronegativity is :

(1) F, Cl
(2) C, H
(3) P, H
(4) Na, Cs

37) Which of the following is not a d-block element?

(1) 73Ta (Tantalum)

(2) 81Tl (Thallium)
(3) Sg (Seaborgium)
106

(4) Rf (Rutherfordlum)
104

38) Which of the following is the correct order?

(1) Atomic radius : I > Li
(2) Size : Fe ≅ Co ≅ Ni
(3) Zeff : O > F
(4) All are correct

39) and have ionic radii in the increasing order as

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) The increasing order of electron affinity for the given electronic configurations of element is.
I. 1s22s2sp63s23p5 II. 1s22s22p3
III. 1s22s22p5 IV. 1s22s22p63s1

(1) II < IV < III < I

(2) I < II < III < IV
(3) I < III < II < IV
(4) IV < III < II < I

41) Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same group, the atomic numbers of elements placed above
and below Ag will be:

(1) 37, 67
(2) 29,79
(3) 39, 69
(4) 29, 65

42) Which elements of following atomic number belong to same period ?

(1) Z = 57, 72
(2) Z = 18, 19
(3) Z = 40, 72
(4) All

43) What will be the group and period of atomic number 93 ?

(1) Group = 7, Period = 6

(2) Group = 7, Period = 7
(3) Group = 3, Period = 6
(4) Group = 3, Period = 7

44) Find out the Representative element group ?

(1) 12, 55, 36, 53

(2) 11, 19, 34, 35
(3) 13, 33, 18, 83
(4) 22, 33, 54, 66

45)

If there were 10 periods in the periodic table then how many elements would this period can
maximum comprise of.

(1) 50
(2) 72
(3) 32
(4) 98

BIOLOGY

1) How many statements are correct ?

(A) Animal cells contain membrane bound organelle called centriole which help in cell division.
(B) Lipids are arranged within the plasma membrane with the polar head towards the inner sides
and the hydrophobic tails towards the outer side.
(C) The cell wall and middle lamellae may be traversed by plasmodesmata which connect the
cytoplasm of neighbouring cells.
(D) The quasi fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the bilayer.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

2) Match the following :-

(a) Simple diffusion (I) Water

(b) Osmosis (II) Polar molecules

(c) Active transport (III) Neutral-solutes

(d) Facilitated diffusion (IV) Na+ – K+ pump

(1) a–I, b–III, c–II, d–IV
(2) a–I, b–III, c–IV, d–II
(3) a–III, b–I, c–IV, d–II
(4) a–III, b–I, c–II, d–IV

3) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

A Algae i Peptidoglycans
 B Fungi ii Chitin or polysaccharide

C Bacteria iii Cellulose, Galactans, Mannan

D Higher plants iv Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Pectin

(1) A → ii; B → iii; C → i; D → iv
(2) A → ii; B → iii; C → iv; D → i
(3) A → iii; B → ii; C → i; D → iv
(4) A → iii; B → ii; C → iv; D → i

4) Which of the following is false for nucleolous / Nucleoli ?

(1) not membrane bounded structure

(2) site for active r-RNA synthesis
(3) Nucleoli are spherical structures present in nucleoplasm
(4) Larger nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out lipid synthesis

5) Match the column -I with column-II :-

(1) i - c; ii - d; iii - a; iv - b
(2) i - d; ii - c; iii - b; iv - a
(3) i - c; ii - a; iii - d; iv - b
(4) i - d; ii - b; iii - c; iv - a

6) Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) The number of chloroplast varies 1 per cell of the Chlamydomonas, a green algae to 20-40 per
cell in the mesophyll.
(B) Out of the two membranes of chloroplast and mitochondria, the inner membrane is relatively less
permeable.
(C) Thylakoids are arranged in stacks like the piles of coins called grana (singular: granum)
(D) The stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrates and
proteins.

(1) A, B & C only

(2) B, C & D only
(3) A, C & D only
(4) A, B, C & D all
7) A cell organelle 'X' is divided into two types on the basis of a cell organelle 'Y', that helps in the
protein synthesis. Identify X' and 'Y' respectively

(1) Golgi complex and ribosome

(2) ER and ribosome
(3) ER and mitochondria
(4) Lysosome and ER

8) Choose the correct statement about cilia and flagella :-

(1) They are hair-like outgrowths of the cell membrane

(2) Eukaryotic flagella are not structurally different from prokaryotic flagella
(3) They orginate from centriole like basal bodies
(4) (1) and (3) are correct

9) Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(1) Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
(2) Microbodies are present in both plant and animal cells.
The nuclear envelope forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that
(3)
of the cytoplasm
Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between
(4)
nucleus and cytoplasm.

10) How many features are common in mitonchondria and chlorplast

Thylakoids, Binary fission, Circular DNA, Cristae, Calvin cycle, Endosymbiotic origin, Protein
synthesis

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

11)

Identify the type of chromosome and correct labelling for A, B and C :-

 Acrocentric,
A = Telomere ,
(1)
B = Centromere,
C = Secondary constriction
Metacentric,
A = Satellite,
(2)
B = Primary constriction,
C = Secondary constriction,
Submetacentric,
A = Centromere,
(3)
B = Secondary constriction,
C = Primary constriction
Submetacentric,
A = Satellite,
(4)
B = Secondary constriction,
C = Centromere

12)

Which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Nuclear matrix or nucleoplasm contains nucleolus and chromatin.
(b) Ectokaryotheca usually remains continuous with the ER and also bears ribosomes on it.
(c) Small and less number of nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis

(d) Perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of
the cytoplasm
(1) a and b
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) b, c and d

13) Read the following statements regarding mitochondria:

(i) Typically it is sausage shaped or cylindrical.
(ii) These are the sites of anaerobic respiration.
(iii) Mitochondria divide by fission.
(iv) Due to large size mitochondria are easily visible under the microscope without staining.
How many statements are incorrect?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

14) Which of the following sequence is correct :-

(1) Basal body → Cilium/flagellum → Centriole

(2) Cilium/flagellum → Basal body → Centriole
(3) Centriole → Basal body → Cilium/flagellum
(4) Basal body → Centriole → Flagellum/Cilium
15)

Match the Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

A Middle Lamella i RNA & Proteins

B Lysosome ii Filamentous Proteins

C Ribosome iii Calcium pectate

D Cytoskeleton iv Digestion of macromolecules

(1) A-iii B-iv C-i D-ii
(2) A-iii B-i C-ii D-iv
(3) A-ii B-i C-iii D-iv
(4) A-iii B-ii C-iv D-i

16) In an experiment, E. coli cells growing at 37°C were shifted to 20°C and grown for a few
generations. Which of the following changes in the membrane would help the E. coli cells adapt to
the new environment?

(1) Increase in the unsaturated fatty acid content.

(2) Increase in the number of integral membrane proteins.
(3) Increase in the phospholipid content.
(4) Increase in the length of the hydrophilic tail.

17) Study the given diagram and mark the correct option :-

(1) F : Cell in this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate
(2) A : DNA replicates in nucleus and centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm
(3) D : Constitutes more than 95% duration of cell cycle
(4) C : Interval between mitosis and initiation of RNA replication

18) In which one of the following options two events of cell cycle are not correctly matched with
their particular phase ?
 Events Phase

Centriole duplication in the cytoplasm

(i)
(1) of animal cell S
(ii) DNA replication in nucleus

(i) Splitting of centromere

(2) Movement of centriole toward opposite Anaphase
(ii)
poles of cell

(i) Activity of recombinase enzyme

(3) Crossing over between non sister Pachytene
(ii)
chromatid

(i) Terminalisation of chiasmata

(4) Diakinesis
(ii) Nucleolus disappear
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) In an organism if the normal diploid number of chromosomes is 8. How many chromatids are
present in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis–1 :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 16

20) Choose the correct option for the stage at which morphology of chromosome is easily studied :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

21) A cell has 40 chromatids at each pole in mitotic telophase. In this division the number of total
chromosomes at metaphase was :-

(1) 80
(2) 40
(3) 180
(4) 20

22) At which stage of cell division these events occur ?

Initiation of assembly Spindle fibres attach to Chromosomes cluster at

of mitotic spindle kinetochores of chromosome opposite spindle poles

(1) Prophase Metaphase Anaphase

(2) Metaphase Prophase Anaphase

(3) Prophase Anaphase Telophase

(4) Prophase Metaphase Telophase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Some events of mitotic cell division are given below in unordered manner -
(i) Condensation of chromatin is completed
(ii) Chromosome lose their identity as discrete elements
(iii) Sister chromatid separate
(iv) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle
The correct order for steps of cell division is :-

(1) i → iv → iii → ii
(2) iv → i → iii → ii
(3) ii → i → iv → iii
(4) iv → iii → i → ii

24) How many kinetochores will present in 64 bivalents of metaphase I stage ?

(1) 128
(2) 256
(3) 64
(4) 512

25) Assertion : The crossing over of the chromatids leads to the recombination of genetic material
on the two chromosomes.
Reason : Crossing over causes the exchange of genetic material between two homologous
chromosomes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) Assertion : Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
Reason : It therefore become essential for the cell to divide to restore the Nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

27) Assertion :- Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis I
and meiosis II but only a single cycle of DNA replication.
Reason :- Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) How many of the following terms are not related with Mango ?
Mangifera, Anacardiaceae, Poales, Dicotyledonae, Angiospermae, Monocotyledonae

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

29) Which of the following rank contains organisms most similar to one another ?
(1) Class
(2) Division
(3) Order
(4) Family

30) Find the correct statements from the followings

(A)Each rank or taxon, in fact represents a unit of classification
(B) Every step in taxonomic hierarchy represents a rank or category
(C) A taxonomic category is a part of overall taxonomic hierarchy
(D) Taxonomic categories are not distinct biological entities, they are only morphological aggregates

(1) A, B & D are correct

(2) A, C & D are correct
(3) A, B & C are correct
(4) A and B are correct

31) Two organism of same division but different order will be kept under the same :-

(1) Family
(2) Genus
(3) Class
(4) Species

32) Which of the following statements are not true ?

"Family" is a group of genera with still less number of similarites as compared to genus &
(1)
species.
(2) "Species" is group of individuals with fundamental similarities.
(3) "Order" is the assemblage of families.
(4) Taxonomic categories are mere morphological aggregates.

33) Felis + Panthera → A

Solanaceae + Convolvulaceae → B.
Identify A and B and choose the correct option :-

(1) A = Canidae, B = Poales

(2) A = Felidae, B = Polymoniales
(3) A = Felidae, B = Sapindales
(4) A = Canidae, B = Polymoniales

34) As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common

characteristics

(1) Will decrease

(2) Will increase
(3) Remain same
(4) May increase or decrease

35) Assertion : In binomial nomenclature both words are separately underlined when handwritten.
Reason : Underlining indicates the latin origin.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

36)

In a diploid cell before s-phase quantity of DNA is 20 pico gram (pg) after meiosis I what will be the
quantity of DNA in each daughter cell ?

(1) 10 pg
(2) 20 pg
(3) 5 pg
(4) 40 pg

37) A bacterium divides every 35 minutes. If a culture containing 105 cells per ml is grown for 175
minutes, what will be the cell concentration per ml after 175 minutes?

(1) 5 × 105 cells

(2) 35 × 105 cells
(3) 32 × 105 cells
(4) 175 × 105 cells

38) If by successive division of a bacterium every minute, a small test tube is filled up in one hour.
Then lower half of the test tube will be filled up in how much time?

(1) 30 minutes
(2) 29 minutes
(3) 59 minutes
(4) 15 minutes

39) Examine the phase from graph given below which shows the change in amount of DNA during

various phases (A-D) of meiotic division.

 A B C D E

(1) Meiosis-I Meiosis-II G2 S G1

(2) G1 S G2 Meiosis-I Meiosis-II

(3) S G2 Meiosis-I G1 Meiosis-II

(4) G2 Meiosis-I S G1 Meiosis-I

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of stages meiosis – I.

Zygotene Pachytene Diplotene

(1) DNA–Replication Synapsis Crossing over

(2) Bivalent formation Enzyme Recombinase Chiasmata visible

(3) Terminalisation Desynapsis Gene-Exchange

(4) Recombinase Stern Hotta Morgan on Drosophila

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) If pollen grain contains 30 chromosomes and 50pg DNA, then what will be the number of
chromosome and DNA amount in microspore mother cell in G2 phase and after meiosis I.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) The cells in the following figure were all taken from the same individual. Identify the cell division

events happening in each cell :

A B C

Meiotic Mitotic Meiotic

(1)
Metaphase–I Anaphase Anaphase-II

Mitotic Mitotic Meiotic

(2)
Metaphase Anaphase Anaphase-I

Meiotic Mitotic Meiotic

(3)
Metaphase-II Anaphase Anaphase-II

Mitotic Meiotic Meiotic

(4)
Metaphase Anaphase-I Anaphase-II
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) Two species are said to be reproductively isolated if:-

(1) Reproductive capacity not occur in them

(2) These reproduce with each other
(3) They are seperated by geographical barriers
(4) They are growing together in same habitat are inter-sterile

44) Taxonomically a species is :-

(1) A group of individual having same Floral characters only

(2) A group of individuals capable of interbreeding
(3) A group of individuals living together in a habitat
(4) A group of individual organisms with fundamental morphological similarities

45) Classification of plants based on evolutionary relationship is called :

(1) Artificial system

(2) Natural system
(3) Phylogenetic system
(4) Numerical taxonomy

46) Recognize the figure and find out the correct matching :

(1) e-crop, a-oesophagus, c-pharynx, d-gizzard, b-salivary gland

(2) d-crop, c-oesophagus, b-pharynx, e-gizzard, a-salivary gland
(3) c-crop, b-oesophagus, e-pharynx, d-gizzard, b-salivary gland
(4) d-crop, c-oesophagus, e-pharynx, b-gizzard, a-salivary gland

47) What will happen if the collateral glands in cockroach become non-functional?

(1) Ootheca will not be formed

(2) Eggs will not come out of ovary
(3) Eggs will not be arranged in rows
(4) Sperms will not fertlise eggs

48) In frog heart beat is controlled by :-

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Spinal cord
(3) Medulla-oblongata
(4) Mid brain

49) Transitional epithelium is chacracterised with :-

(A) Possess simple squamous cells at the outer surface
(B) Modified compound epithelium termed as urothelium
(C) Basement membrane is much thicker
(D) Presence of single layer of squamous cells at the base.

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)

(2) (B), (C), (D)
(3) (C), (D)
(4) Only (B)

50) What will be the correct sequence for the sperm transportation in cockroach?
(1) Testes - Spermatheca - Genital Chamber
(2) Spermatheca - Vas deferens - Phallic gland
(3) Vas deferens - Seminal vesicle - Ejaculatory duct
(4) Testes - Vas deferens - Phallic gland

51) Which of the following is incorrect for Rana ?

(1) Sexes are separate

(2) Fertilization is external
(3) Are oviparous and development is indirect
(4) Lacks cloaca

52) Statement - I : Frog respire through lungs as well as skin on land

Statement - II : Frogs are homeothermal, thus undergo hibernation

(1) Statement - I and statement - II both are true.

(2) Statement - I and statement - II both are false.
(3) Statement - II is true and Statement - I is false.
(4) Statement - II is false and Statement - I is true.

53) Frogs differ from humans in possessing :

(1) Thyroid as well as parathyroid glands

(2) Paired cerebral hemispheres and olfactory lobes
(3) Presence of gall bladder and bile
(4) Presence of copulatory organ

54) Identify A to D in the given figure.

(1) A: Collagen fibres, B: Macrophage, C: Mast cell D: Fibroblast

(2) A: Macrophage, B: Fibroblast, C: Mast cell D: Collagen fibres
(3) A: Mast cell, B: Collagen fibres, C: Macrophage D: Fibroblast
(4) A: Fibroblast, B: Mast cell, C: Collagen fibres, D: Macrophage

55) "Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism". Select the option which justify the given statement.

(1) Male frogs have a copulatory pad on the first digit of the forelimbs
(2) Presence of sound producing vocal sacs in male frogs
(3) Presence of Webbed-digit feet
(4) Both (1) and (2)

56) In Frog, forebrain includes :

(1) Olfactory lobes, paired cerebral hemisphere & unpaired diencephalon

(2) Olfactory lobes, Optics lobes
(3) Olfactory lobes, unpaired cerebral hemisphere, paired diencephalon
(4) Olfactory lobes, unpaired cerebral hemisphere, unpaired diencephalon

57) Select the correct option with respect to cockroaches.

(1) Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous wastes into Urea.

(2) The forewings are called tegmina which are used in flight.
(3) Forewings arised from prothorax
(4) Male bear short anal style not present in females.

58) Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime.
Select the best option from the following statements.
A. Frog is a poikilotherm
B. Frog does not have any coronary circulation
C. Heart is "myogenic" in nature
D. Heart is autoexcitable

(1) A and B
(2) C and D
(3) Only C
(4) Only D

59) Read the following statements and select the wrong statement ?

(1) Elastic cartilage is found in eustachian tube

(2) White fibrous cartilage makes pubic symphysis
(3) Hyaline cartilage is found at the junction of two long bones
(4) Perichondrium is absent on hyaline cartilage.

60) Find out incorrect match

1 Endocardium - Simple squamous epithelium

2 Iris - Simple cuboidal epithelium

3 Duodenum - Ciliated columnar epithelium

4 PCT - Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) What is not true for the nervous system of cockroach?

(1) Consists of fused Ganglia

(2) Ganglia are joined to longitudinal connectives
(3) Thorax possess six ganglia
(4) Nerve chords are located on the ventral side

62) Assertion : Cartilage and bone are rigid connective tissue.

Reason : Both, Cartilage and bone have a matrix of proteins and calcium.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) both Assertion and Reason are false.

63) In male cockroach the ejaculatory duct opens into male gonopore, which is situated :-

(1) Dorsal to anus

(2) Ventral to anus
(3) Lateral to anus
(4) Posterior to anus

64) Genital or brood pouch in female cockroach is formed by :

(1) 7th, 8th and 9th sterna

(2) 9th and 10th terga, 9th sterna
(3) 9th to 10th terga only
(4) 9th and 10th sterna only

65)

Which of the following is correct for the common cockroach?

(1) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon
(2) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
(3) Nitrogenous excretory waste is urea
(4) The food is grinded by mandibles and gizzard

66) Which of the following is mismatched ?

(1) Squamous epithelium : Walls of all blood vessels

(2) Simple cuboidal : Glands and gonads

(3) Ciliated epithelium : Nasal chamber and trachea

 (4) Compound epithelium : Bronchi and bronchioles
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Ciliated epithelium is modified ________ cells which bear cilia on their free surface.

(1) Cuboidal epithelium only

(2) Columnar epithelium only
(3) Both cuboidal and columnar
(4) None of the above

68) The mid brain of frog is charecterised by :

(1) Two pairs of optic lobe

(2) One optic lobe
(3) Three optic lobes
(4) A pair of optic lobes

69) In frogs, testes are attached to kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum known as

(1) Pericardium
(2) Mesorchium
(3) Urinogenital duct
(4) Vasa efferentia

70) Which one is not a difference between male and female frog?

(1) They both possess cloaca

(2) They both possess urogenital tract
(3) Gonads have functional connection with kidney
(4) They both possess copulatory pads

71) Select the correct option w.r.t. cockroaches

(1) Testes present in 4th to 6th segment

(2) There are total 8 ovarioles in female cockroach
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Nervous system comprises of a dorsal nerve cord with 10 pair cranial nerve

72) The entire body of cockroach is covered by a hard and brown chitinous exoskeleton plates called
sclerites. Select the correctly matched name of sclerites :-

(1) Dorsal sclerite – pleuron

(2) Ventral sclerite – sternum
(3) Lateral sclerite – tergum
(4) Abdominal sclerite – notum

73) Sinus venosus occurs on

(1) Dorsal side of heart and contain mixed blood

(2) Ventral side of heart and contain deoxygenated blood
(3) Dorsal side of heart and contain deoxygenated blood
(4) Ventral side of heart and contain mixed blood

74) About frog, select incorrect statement only

(1) The skin is smooth and slippery

(2) Dorsal side of body is generally olive green
(3) On the ventral side the skin is pale yellow
(4) Frog drink water but absorb it through skin

75) In frog, RBCs are

(1) Nucleated and biconcave

(2) Enucleated and biconvex
(3) Nucleated and biconvex
(4) Non-nucleated and biconcave

76) How many statements are true in the following?

(i) Simple epithelium forms lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes.
(ii) In epithelial tissue, cells are loosely packed with little intercellular matrix.
(iii) Simple epithelium provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
(iv) Gap junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

77) How many of the following are not sensory parts in cockroach? Antennae, eyes, Gonapophyses,
maxillary palps, labial palps, Anal style, Ocellus

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three

78) Assertion : A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic caeca is present at the junction of foregut
and midgut.
Reason : It secrete digestive juice to help in digestion of food.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

79) The aquatic respiratory organ in frog is/are :-

(1) Skin and Lungs

(2) Only Skin
(3) Lungs and Buccal cavity
(4) Skin and Buccal cavity

80) Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs :-

(1) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa effer → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(4) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca.

81) Which of the following is incorrect for Basement membrane?

(1) It is found in between epithelium and connective tissue.

(2) It is thin, non-living and non-cellular
(3) It is an impermeable membrane
(4) It is secreted by both epithelium and connective tissue.

82) Choose the correct statement :

(A) Tight junction help to stop substance from leaking across tissue.
(B) Adhering junction perform cementing to keep neighboring cell together.
(C) Gap junction facilitate exchange of ions by joining cytoplasm of adjoining cells.
(D) Compound epithelium is made of less than two layer of cell
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, B, D
(4) A, C, D

83) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones?
(a) Tendons are dense regular connective tissue and connect the one bone to another bone
(b) Tendons are dense irregular connective tissue and connect the skeletal muscles to bones
(c) Tendons are dense regular connective tissue and connect the skeletal muscle to bones
(d) Ligaments are dense regular connective tissue and connect the one bone to another bone
(1) Statements a and b only
(2) Statements c and d only
(3) Statements b, c and d
(4) Statements a, b and c

84) Given below is the diagrammatic representation of an epithelium

How many of the below mentioned features/characteristics are valid for such an epithelium?
(A) It is multilayered, hence known as compound epithelium
(B) It has maximum role in secretion and absorption
(C) Its main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses
(D) It cover the dry surfaces of skin, the moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts
of salivary glands and of pancreatic duct.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Two

85) Assertion : The mosaic vision of cockroach has more sensitivity but less resolution.
Reason : Each compound eye consists of about 2000 hexagonal ommatidia.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

86) Supra oesophageal ganglion supply nerve to:-

(1) Compound eye, Antennae

(2) Compound eye, Labrum
(3) Labrum, Antenna
(4) All of them

87)

Which of the following type of metamorphosis seen in nymph of cockroach:

(1) Holometabolous
(2) Ametabolous
(3) Paurometabolous
(4) Hypermetabolous
88) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Malpighian tubules (i) 50-75 pairs

(B) Hepatic caecae (ii) 3-4 pairs

(C) Spiracles (iii) 10 pairs

(D) Alary muscles (iv) 12 pairs

(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(4) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)

89)

How many statements are incorrect for bones ?

(A) Bones have hard and non-pliable ground substances.
(B) Matrix is rich in collagen fibres.
(C) Osteoblasts are present in lacunae.
(D) Matrix is present in layers called fascia.
(E) Blood supplies in bones is present only on periphery.

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

90) What is not true regarding heart of frog

(1) Heart has auto excitable muscles

(2) Blood before reaching to right auricle gets accumulated in another chamber
(3) Heart receives oxygenated and deoxygenated blood seperately
(4) Liver receives blood from heart in hepatic portal system
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 4 1 2 1 4 1 3 2 3 2 1 2 3 3 1 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 1 3 3 3 3 2 4 2 2 2 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 3 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 1 3 3 2 1 3 1 2 3 4 4 3 3 1 3 2 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 2 1 1 4 3 1 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 3 2 2 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 4 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 3 4 3 4 2 4 1 2 4 1 4 3 1 1 1 2 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 2 2 1 1 2 2 4 3 3 4 2 1 1 2 3 3 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 4 4 3 2 1 3 4 3 4 4 4 4 4 1 4 2 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 2 1 4 4 3 4 2 1 1 2 3 4 3 4 2 1 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 2 2 2 4 3 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) P =

P = 4 × (4)–1/2

P=
Using binomial approximation

P=2

P=2–

2)

y = cx – x2 ⇒ = c – 2x

= 0, x =

= –2 (maxima)

So, ymax =

3)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

4)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

5)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
6)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

7)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

8)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

9)

⇒ (∵ )
⇒ (∵ )
⇒n=4

10) is perpendicular to . The dot product of perpendicular vectors is zero.

11)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

12)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

13)

= ± [3×1 + 2×2+3+4]
= ± 14%

14)
Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

15) n1u1 = n2u2

∴ n2 = n1 =

16)

LC = 1 MSD

17) Reading = main scale reading + (varnier scale reading) (L.C.)

Where L.C. =

So reading = 2mm + (31) = 2.31 mm

18)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

19)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

20)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

21)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

22)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

23)
ux = 10 m/s & uy = 10 m/s

t=

h = (uy t) – (uy t – gt2)

h= gt2

h= g = 1.25 m

24)

Ball strikes tower ⇒ Sx = 0

∴ ⇒ t = 4 sec
So displacement in y-direction in 4 sec

25)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

26)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

27)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

28)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

29)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

30) Concept :

Freebody diagram
Formula :

α=

Visual Aid :
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

Calculation :

a1 = =g

a2 (from figure ii) =

a3 (from figure iii) =
a1 > a3 > a2
Final Answer : (2) a1 > a3 > a2

31) T sinθ = F
T = F/sinθ

32) For no collision, the speed of car A should be reduced to vB before the cars meet, i.e., final
relative velocity of car A with respect to car B is zero, i.e., vr = 0
Here ur = initial relative velocity = vA – vB
Relative acceleration = ar = –a – 0 = –a
By using
(0)2 = (vA – vB)2 – 2asr

For no collision, sr < s

i.e.,

33)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

34) Concept : Inertia and Newton's Second Law of Motion.

Formula : fnet = Ma

Calculation : Assertion is Ture : A body can be momentarily at rest even through forces are
acting on it. For example, an object run upwards will he rest for a brief moment at its highest
point before it starts falling again gravity continues to act on it during that time.
Reason true : If forces are balanced (fnet = 0) it may not accelerate. It could remain at rest or
continue moving with constant velocity. If forces are unbalanced (fnet ≠ 0), the body will
accelerate in the deviation of net force.
Final Answer : (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation
of the Assertion.

35)

From the graph, it is a straight line so, uniform motion. Because of impulse direction of
velocity as can be seen from the slope of the graph.

Initial velocity = = 1m/s

 Final velocity = – = –1 m/s

Impulse =
= –0.4 – 0.4 = –0.8 N-s ( = impulse) |Impulse| = 0.8 N-s

36)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

37)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

38)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

39)
(as the block is at rest)

40) For (1) :

m1 is lifted off if ,

For (2) :

m2 is lifted off is

For (3) :
At t = 30 s acceleration of
 m1 = = = 5 m/s2

For (4) :
At t = 60 s acceleration of

m2 = = = 5 m/s2

41)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

42)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

43)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

44)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

45)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

CHEMISTRY

46)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

47)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
48)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

49)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

51)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

52)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

53)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

54)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

55)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

56)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

57) Fe = [Ar] 4s2, 3d6

Fe+2 = [Ar] 3d6
d electrons = 6

58) Angular momentum =

=

59) For maximum energy (n + ℓ) should be maximum.

60) Number of orbitals in a shell = n2

= (5)2
= 25

61)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

62)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

63)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

64)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

65)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

66)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

67)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

68)
Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

69)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

70)

Na2CO3.2H2O loses water on heating

63% of total mass in water and 37 % of total mass is anhydrous Na2CO3
37% mass → 106

Total mass of compound =

Na2CO3.2H2O = 286.48 ≈ 286
= 286 – 106
= 180 gm

moles of H2O =
So, x = 10
and compound will be Na2CO3.10H2O

71)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

72)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

73)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

74)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

75)

Ans. (3)
 3 is the correct answer

76)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

77)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

78)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

79) Answer - Option(1 )

Explanation - Let's break down each statement to determine the correct answer
Concept - The effective nuclear charge is the net positive charge experienced by an electron
in an atom. It's influenced by the number of protons in the nucleus and the shielding effect of
inner electrons.

A. Na+ has 11 protons and 10 electrons.

B. Al3+ has 13 protons and 10 electrons.

Since Al3+ has more protons for the same number of electrons, the effective nuclear charge is
greater. This stronger pull from the nucleus contracts the electron cloud, resulting in a smaller ionic
radius for Al3+ compared to Na+. Therefore, Statement 2 correctly explains Statement 1.

80)

Acidic strength ∝ Electronegativity

∝ oxidation state

81)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

82) Explanation :
The question asks to identify which of the given elements (Ta, Tl, Sg, Rf) does not belong to
the d-block of the periodic table.

Concept :
Identification of d-block element.

Solution :
d-block elements have their last electron in the d-subshell. Ta, Sg and Rf do. Tl (Thallium) has
its last electron in the p-subshell (6s26p1), thus it is not a d-block element.

Final Answer
Option (2)

83)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

84)

Ionic radii decrease on moving along a lanthanide series due to lanthanide contraction. As all
ion are in +3 oxidation state.
Thus, the ionic radii follow the trend are

85)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

86) Z = 103 is an actinide

87)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

88)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

89)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

90)

No. of orbitals in a period

(If n – even)
 36 orbitals can accommodate 72 e–s
So 72 elements can be present in 10th period.

BIOLOGY

91)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

92) NCERT Pg. # 132

93) The correct answer is:

3. A - iii; B - ii; C - i; D -
iv Explanation:
Match each organism type (Column-I) with its corresponding cell wall composition (Column-II):
1. Algae (A - iii):
• The cell wall of algae is composed of cellulose, galactans, and mannans, along with other
polysaccharides like agar in some species. 2. Fungi (B - ii):
• The fungal cell wall is primarily made of chitin (a nitrogen-containing polysaccharide) and
other polysaccharides.
3. Bacteria (C - i):
• The bacterial cell wall is made of peptidoglycans, a mesh-like polymer of sugars and amino
acids.
4. Higher plants (D - iv):
• The plant cell wall is composed of cellulose, hemicellulose, and pectin, providing structural
support and rigidity.
Thus, the correct matching is: A - iii; B - ii; C - i; D - iv.

94) NCERT-XII Pg#138

95) Explanation:

Given question is match the column type:

Correct mathes of column I with column (II) as below:
Column - I Column-II
(i) oxidative phosphorylation (c) Mitrocondria
(ii) Autolysis (a) Lysosome
(iii) Detoxification (d) S E R
(iv) Membraneless (b) Centriole

So correct answer is option is (3).

96)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

97)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

98) NCERT Pg. # 137

99)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

100) NCERT-135,136

101)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

102)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

103) NCERT Page No. 134, 135

104)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

105)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

106)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer
107) NCERT XI pg.# 163

108)

Explain Question : This question is asking to find the incorrect match where one or both
events do not occur in the stated phase.

Concept : This question is based on Cell cycle phases: G1, S, G2, M phase

Explanation : Anaphase

(i) Splitting of centromere – Correct

Happens during anaphase of mitosis/meiosis II.

(ii) Movement of centrioles toward opposite poles – Incorrect

This occurs during prophase, not anaphase. During prophase, centrioles move to opposite
poles to set up the spindle apparatus.

Final answer : 2

109)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

110) NCERT XI Pg.#165

111)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

112)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 164,165, 166

113)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 164,165,166

114)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
 115) NCERT Pg. # 168

116) NCERT Pg#167

117) NCERT XI Pg # 125

118) NCERT Pg. # 11

119)

NEW NCERT Pg.# 7

120) NCERT XI, Pg.# 6

121)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

122) NCERT XI Pg # 9,10

123) NCERT Pg. # 9,10

124)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

125) Explanation:
In binomial nomenclature both words are separately underlined when handwritten.
Underlining indicates the latin origin.
Correct Answer: 1
If both assertion and reason are ture and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.

126)

In a diploid cell before the S-phase, the DNA content is 20 picograms (pg).

A. After the S-phase, the DNA is replicated, so the DNA content doubles to 40 pg.
B. During meiosis I, the chromosomes are separated into two daughter cells, and DNA content
become just half after meiosis I.
C. So the correct answer should be Option 2: 20 pg,
127)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

128)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

129)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

130)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

131)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

132)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

133)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

134) NCERT, Pg # 9

135)

NCERT Page No. # 30

136)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
137)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

138)

Pg. No. 119 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

139)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

140) Ans. (3)

3 is the correct answer

141)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

142)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

143)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

144)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

145)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

146)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer
147) NCERT XI Pg. # 112, 114

148)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

149)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

150) Module

151)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

152)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

153)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

154) Ans. (1)

1 is the correct answer

155)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

156)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

157)

NCERT Page # 116,117,118

158)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

159) Testes in frog are elongated or avoid light yellow body, attached to upper part of kidney
by double fold of peritoneum called ‘mesorchium’.

160)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

161)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

162)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

163)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

164) NCERT XI, Pg. # 116, Para - 7.5.1

165) RBC in frog are nucleated, oval and biconvex and have haemoglobin (respiratory
pigment).

166) Question Explanation: True statement about epitnelial tissue ?

Concept : Epithelial tissue
Solution : Let's analyse each statement
(i) Simple epithelium forms lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes. – true
(ii) In epithelial tissue, cells are loosely packed with little intercellular matrix. – False, because
cells are tishtty pocked.
(iii) Simple epithelium provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses. – false
because. It is function fo compound epithelium.
(iv) Gap junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together. – false, because
cementing is tunetion of Adhering junction.
Final Answer : option (4). One

167) Ans. (2)

2 is the correct answer

168) NCERT Pg. # 113

169) NCERT Pg. # 117

170) NCERT Pg. # 118

172) NCERT Pg. # 80

173)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

174) NCERT Pg. No. 102, Fig. 7.3, Para No. 2)

175) NCERT Pg. # 114

176) NCERT XI pg# 144

177)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

178) NCERT Pg. # 113

179) NCERT-XI, Page # 104

180)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer