20-07-2025

0999DMD363101250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions on its circular scale. While
measuring diameter of a wire, the linear scale reads 2 mm and 23rd division of circular scale
coincides with the reference line. If the length of wire is 5.6 cm, the curved surface area of wire upto
appropriate significant figures is

(1) 3.82 cm2

(2) 3.92 cm2
(3) 3.9 cm2
(4) 3.922 cm2

2) A man can swim with speed of 4km h–1 in still water . He always swims perpendicular to the flow
of river of width 1km and flowing rate of river water is 3km/h. How far down the river does he go
when he reaches the other bank ?

(1) 500 m
(2) 750 m
(3) 600 m
(4) 850 m

3) While measuring the diameter of a wire by screw gauge, three readings taken were 2.002 cm,
2.004 cm and 2.006cm. The absolute error in the third reading is :-

(1) 0.002 cm
(2) 0.004 cm
(3) 0.006 cm
(4) Zero

4)

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

5) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Number) (Significant figure)
 (a) 1001 (i) 3

(b) 010.1 (ii) 4

(c) 100.100 (iii) 5

(d) 0.0010010 (iv) 6

Choose correct answer from the options given below :

(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)

6) The equation of state of a real gas is given by (V – b) = RT, where P, V and T are

pressure, volume and temperature respectively. R is universal gas constant. The dimension of is
similar to that of :-

(1) PV
(2) P
(3) RT
(4) R

7) The spherical shape balloon is filled with air at the constant rate of 4π cm3/sec. The rate of
increase of radius of balloon with respect to time, at the instant when it's radius is 2 cm.

(1)
cm/s
(2) 1 cm/s
(3) 2 cm/s
(4) None of these

8) A ball is thrown from the ground to clear a wall 3 m high at a distance of 6 m and falls 18 m away
from the wall, the angle of projection of ball is :-

(1)
tan–1

(2)
tan–1

(3)
tan–1

(4)
tan–1
9) Find x1 if

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

10) A body A starts from rest with an acceleration a1. After 2 seconds, another body B starts from
rest with an acceleration a2. If they travel equal distances in the 5th second, after the start of A, then
the ratio a1 : a2 is equal to:

(1) 5:9
(2) 5:7
(3) 9:5
(4) 9:7

11) Two particles P and Q get 6 m closer each second while travelling in opposite directions. They
get 2.4 m closer every second while travelling in the same direction. The speeds of P and Q
are respectively :

(1) 4.2 ms–1 and 2.4 ms–1

(2) 6 ms–1 and 2.4 ms–1
(3) 8.4 ms–1 and 3.6 ms–1
(4) 4.2 ms–1 and 1.8 ms–1

12) Find result of to the correct significant digits :

(1) 3.70
(2) 3.7
(3) 3.75
(4) 3.8

13) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
List-II
(Physical
(Unit)
Quantity)

Surface
(a) (i) Kgm–1s–1
tension
 (b) Pressure (ii) Kgms–1

(c) Viscosity (iii) Kgm–1s–2

(d) Impulse (iv) Kgs–2

Choose the correct answers from the options given below :

(1) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)
(3) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)

14) A particle returns to the starting point after 10 s. If the rate of change of velocity during the
motion is constant in magnitude, then its location after 7 seconds will be same as that after :

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 3 sec
(4) 3.5 sec

15) A very large number of balls are thrown vertically upward in quick succession in such a way that
the next ball is thrown when the previous one is at the the maximum height. If maximum height is 5
m, then the number of ball thrown per minute is: (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 120
(2) 80
(3) 60
(4) 40

16) A force is given by F = ax2 + bt1/2 where x is distance and t is time. Dimensions of are :

(1) [M1 L2 T–3]

(2) [M1 L1 T–3]
(3) [M1 L3 T–3]
(4) [M1 L4 T–3]

17) A vernier calliper is used to measure diameter of a small steel ball in which main scale has
divisions of 0.1 cm and 19 main scale divisions are equivalent to 20 vernier scale divisions. Three
observations for diameter were taken and recorded as follows :
(MS: Main Scale reading)

S.No. MS (cm) Coinciding VSD

1 0.4 14th

2 0.4 12th

3 0.4 10th
If the instrument has zero error of –0.02 cm, the mean corrected value of diameter is given by :

(1) 0.480 cm
(2) 0.468 cm
(3) 0.472 cm
(4) 0.485 cm

18) Assertion (A) : When a body starts from rest subjected to a uniform acceleration, it always
move in a straight line.
Reason (R) : Straight line motion is the natural tendency of the body.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

19) If radius of a spherical bubble starts increasing with time t as r = 0.5 t2. What is the rate of
change of volume of the bubble with time at t = 2sec.

(1) 8π unit/s
(2) 32 π unit/s
(3) 4π unit/s
(4) 16π unit/s

20) From the top of a tower, two stones, whose masses are in the ratio 1 : 2 are thrown, one straight
up with an initial speed u and the second straight down with the same speed u. Then neglecting air
resistance:

(1) the heavier stone hits the ground with a higher speed
(2) the lighter stone hits the ground with a higher speed
(3) both the stones will have the same speed when they hit the ground
(4) the speed cannot be determined with the given data

21) The area of the shaded region is :

(1) 12/5 m2
(2) 16/3 m2
(3) 20/3 m2
(4) 24/5 m2
22) Among the four graphs shown in the figure there is only one graph for which average velocity
over the time interval (0, T) can vanish for a suitably chosen T. Which one is it?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A particle moves along a straight line path. After some time it comes to rest. The motion is with
constant acceleration whose direction with respect to the direction of velocity is :

(1) positive throughout motion

(2) negative throughout motion
(3) first positive then negative
(4) first negative then positive

24) An artillery piece which consistently shoots its shells with the same muzzle speed has a

maximum range R. To hit a target which is from the gun and on the same level, the elevation
angle of the gun should be :-

(1) 15°
(2) 45°
(3) 30°
(4) 60°

25) In a screw gauge, 2 full rotations of screw, advances it by a linear distance of 3 mm. If there are
300 divisions on its circular scale, which among the following may be the possible readings for this
screw gauge ?

(1) 3.05 mm
(2) 3.05 cm
(3) 0.150000 m
(4) 0.00605 m

26) A bird flies for 4s with a velocity of |t – 2| m/s in a straight line, where t is time in seconds. It
covers a distance of :

(1) 2 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 8 m

27) The component of vector along the direction of is :

(1) ax – ay + az
(2) ax – ay

(3)

(4) ax + ay + az

28) A particle moves along a straight line. Its position at any instant is given by x = 32t – , where
x is in metre and t in second. Find the acceleration of the particle at the instant when particle is at
rest.

(1) –16 ms–2

(2) –32ms–2
(3) 32 ms–2
(4) 16 ms–2

29) A particle is released from rest from a tower of height 3h. The ratio of the intervals of time to
cover three equal heights his :

(1) t1 : t2 : t3 = 1 :
t1 : t2 : t3 = 1 :
(2)

(3) t1 : t2 : t3 =
(4) t1 : t2 : t3 = 1 :

30) A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f through a distance S, then continues at
constant speed for time t and then decelerates at the rate f/2 to come to rest. If the total distance
traversed is 15 S, then:

(1)
(2)

(3) S = ft

(4)

31) Two particles A and B are thrown from same point and in same vertical plane with velocity 30
m/s & 40 m/s as shown in the figure. Find the separation between them after 2 sec :

(1) 100 m
(2) 115 m
(3) 150 m
(4) 75 m

32) A ball is projected horizontal such that it hits the plane shown in figure perpendicularly. Find the

speed by which ball strikes with the plane.

(1) 40 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 15 m/s

33) A block slides down on the track shown below. Comment on its speed and acceleration in the

direction of motion. (friction is absent everywhere)

Speed Acceleration

(1) decreases decreases

(2) decreases increases

 (3) increases decreases

(4) increases increases

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Select correct statement :

(1) A unitless quantity always have a non-zero dimension.

(2) A unitless quantity never has a non-zero dimension.
(3) A unitless quantity may have a non-zero dimension.
(4) A unitless quantity does not exist.

35) A body travelling along a straight line traversed one third of the total distance with a velocity 4
m/s. The remaining part of the distance was covered with a velocity 2 m/s for half the time and with
velocity 6 m/s for the other half of the time. The mean velocity averaged over the whole time of
motion is :

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 4.5 m/s
(4) 3.5 m/s

36) A physical quantity P is given by P = a1/2 b2 c3d–4. If % error in measurement of a, b, c and d are
2%, 1%, 3% and 5% respectively. Then maximum possible % error in P is :

(1) 9%
(2) 15%
(3) 32%
(4) 20%

37) If units of length and force are increased to 5 times, then the unit of energy will be :

(1) Increased to 8 times

(2) Increased to 16 times
(3) Increased to 25 times
(4) Increased to 50 times

38) Rain is falling vertically downwards with a velocity of 3 km/h. A man walks in the rain with a
velocity of 4 km/h. The raindrops will fall on the man with a velocity of:

(1) 1 km/h
(2) 3 km/h
(3) 4 km/h
(4) 5 km/h

39) If mass 'M' time 'T' and energy 'E' are taken to be fundamental quantity, then dimensional
formula for length is :-

(1) ME2T2
(2) EM–2T–2

(3)

(4)

40) A particle is thrown vertically upward. Find its initial velocity so that it covers same distance in
5th and 6th seconds :

(1) 48 m/s
(2) 14 m/s
(3) 49 m/s
(4) 7 m/s

41) The angle between and is θ. What is the value of -

(1) P2Q cos θ

(2) Zero
(3) P2Q sin θ cos θ
(4) P2Q sin θ

42) A vernier calliper used for measurement has it 9 main scale divisions equivalent to 10 vernier
scale division and 1 cm on main scale is divided into 10 equal divisions. Figure shows the picture of
two scales during some measurement. The distance between divisions marked with X and Y is given

by :

(1) 0.21 cm
(2) 0.33 cm
(3) 0.36 cm
(4) 0.42 cm

43) In an experiment to measure angle, angular vernier calliper or vernier protector is used in which
each main scale division is of 1° and 24 divisions of main scale are equivalent to 25 divisions of
vernier scale. The least count of instrument is :

(1) 1.5 minute

(2) 2.0 minute
(3) 2.4 minute
(4) 0.5 degree

44) An aeroplane is flying horizontally at a height of 490 m with a velocity of 150 ms–1. A bag
containing food is to be dropped to the jawans on the ground. How far from them should the bag be
dropped so that it directly reaches them ?

(1) 1000 m
(2) 1500 m
(3) 750 m
(4) 2000 m

45) A particle is moving in a straight line path according to the following velocity-displacement

curve. The acceleration of the particle :

(1) is constant
(2) increases linearly with x
(3) increases parabolic with x
(4) None

CHEMISTRY

1) In 6th period of the modern periodic table, electronic energy levels in the increasing order :-

(1) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p

(2) 6s, 6p, 4f, 5d
(3) 4f, 5d, 6s, 6p
(4) None

2) Electronic configuration of chromium (At. No. = 24) :-

(1) [Ar]3d44s2
(2) [Ar]3d54s1
(3) [Ar]3d94s2
(4) [Ar]3d104s1

3) Incorrect order of acidic strength is :-

(1) H2S > H2Se
(2) HI > HBr
(3) HBr > HCl
(4) H2Te > H2S

4) If radius of K+ and F– are equal to 0.72 A° then radius of K and F is respectively :-

(1) 0.72 A°, 0.72 A°

(2) 0.56 A°, 1.78 A°
(3) 1.78 A°, 1.78 A°
(4) 1.78 A°, 0.56 A°

5) Electronic configurations of four elements A, B, C and D are given below :

(A)1s2 2s2 2p6 (B)1s2 2s2 2p4
(C)1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (D)1s2 2s2 2p5
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing order to ionization energy:

(1) A < C < B < D

(2) A < B < C < D
(3) C < B < D < A
(4) D < A < B < C

6) Consider the following statements :

(i) First Ionisation energy of 'N' atom is more than first Ionisation energy of 'O' atom.
(ii) Electron affinity of 'O' atom is less than electron affinity of 'S' atom.
(iii) Electronegativity of Cl is less than F.
The above statement (i), (ii),(iii) respectively are

(1) T.F.F.
(2) T.T.F.
(3) T.T.T.
(4) F.T.F.

7) Ionization energies of element A are given below in KJ/Mol :-

IE1 IE2 IE3
120 430 13000
If A reacts with different elements, which compounds are possible :-

(1) AF
(2) A2O
(3) A3N
(4) A3N2

8) Correct electron affinity order :-

(1) F > Cl
(2) S < P
(3) N > O
(4) O < Se

9) Outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is :-

(1) ns2 np3

(2) ns2 np5
(3) ns2 np4
(4) ns2 np6

10) Identify the block for 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s2. :-

(1) s-Block
(2) p-Block
(3) d-Block
(4) f-Block

11) Which of the following property is related with sequence F > Cl > Br > I :-

(1) Electron affinity

(2) Electronegativity
(3) Atomic radius
(4) None of these

12) Which of the following pair of element having approximate equal radius :-

(1) Co, Ni
(2) Fe, Co
(3) Zr, Hf
(4) All of these

13) Which of the following process is exothermic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14)

Which of the following electronic configuration has highest ionisation energy ?

(1) 1s22s2
(2) 1s22s22p6
(3) 1s2
(4) 1s22s22p3

15) Which are correct match :-

(a) Eka silicon – Be
(b) Eka aluminium – Ga
(c) Eka manganese – Tc
(d) Eka scandium – B

(1) b, c
(2) a, b, d
(3) a, d
(4) All

16) If the ionisation energy of Na, Mg & Si are 496, 737 & 786 kJ/mole respectively then ionisation
energy of Al is

(1) 760 kJ/mole

(2) 756 kJ/mole
(3) 577 kJ/mole
(4) 986 kJ/mole

17) Select the correct statement :-

(1) p-block consists of seven group

(2) All Alkaline earth metals are of p-block
(3) Outermost shell configuration for p-block is ns2 to ns2 np6
(4) General configuration for chalcogen family is ns2np4

18)

Aluminium is diagonally related to :-

(1) Li
(2) Be
(3) C
(4) B

19)

If metallic radii of an element is 1.72 Å then what may be its covalent radii :-

(1) 1.72 Å
(2) 1.32 Å
(3) 1.87Å
(4) can not predicted
20) Which of the following process involves absorbtion of energy ?

(1) Cl(g) + e– → Cl–(g)

(2) O–(g) + e– → O–2(g)
(3) O(g) + e– → O–(g)
(4) S(g) + e– → S–(g)

21) Which set of elements shows positive electron gain enthalpy

(1) He, N, O
(2) Ne, N, Cl
(3) O, Cl, F
(4) N, He, Ne

22) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II
(Atomic No.) (Block)
(a) 15 (p) s-block
(b) 19 (q) p-block
(c) 25 (r) d-block
(d) 64 (s) f-block
(1) a–(q), b–(p), c–(r), d–(s)
(2) a–(r), b–(p), c–(q), d–(s)
(3) a–(p), b–(r), c–(q), d–(s)
(4) a–(q), b–(r), c–(p), d–(s)

23) The first, second and third ionisation energies (E1, E2 & E3) for an element are 7eV, 12.5eV and
42.5eV respectively. The most stable oxidation state of the element will be

(1) +1
(2) +4
(3) +3
(4) +2

24) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(A) Gram atomic mass (P) 22.4 L

(B) Molar volume of ideal gas at STP (Q) 12 g

(C) Number of moles in 44 g of CO2 (R) 1 mole

(D) Mass of 1 mole of carbon atoms (S) Mass of 1 mole of atoms

Correct match is -
(A) (B) (C) (D)
 (1) Q P R S

(2) S P R Q

(3) S P Q R

(4) P Q R S
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Assertion :- Each electron in an atom has two spin quantum number.
Reason :- Spin quantum number is obtained by solving schrodinger wave equation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

26) At same temperature and pressure, three flasks of equal volume contain He, H2 and O3 gas
respectively. Find the incorrect statement.

(1) Number of moles of gases in three flasks will be same.

(2) Number of molecules in three flasks will be same.
(3) Number of atoms in three flasks will be same.
(4) Weight of gases present in all the three flask will be different.

27) Statement-I :- In a sample of hydrogen atoms the maximum number of spectral lines emitted
out during jump of electrons from IV to I orbit is six.
Statement-II :- The maximum number of spectral lines obtained during a transition are given by
(n2–n1).

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statement-I and II are correct.
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

28) The radius of which of the following orbit is same as that of the first Bohr's orbit of hydrogen
atom

(1) He+ (n = 2)
(2) Li2+ (n = 2)
(3) Li2+ (n = 3)
(4) Be3+ (n = 2)

29) How many moles of P4 can be produced by reaction of 0.1 moles Ca5(PO4)3F, 0.36 moles SiO2 and
0.9 moles C according to the following reaction ?
4Ca5(PO4)3F + 18 SiO2 + 30C
→ 3P4 + 2CaF2 + 18CaSiO3 + 30CO

(1) 0.060
(2) 0.030
(3) 0.045
(4) 0.075

30) Calculate the number of atoms of oxygen present in 88 amu of CO2

(1)

(2) 4

(3)

(4) 2

31) An enzyme peroxidase has 5% by weight of sulphur (S = 32) its minimum molecular weight will
be–

(1) 320
(2) 640
(3) 1280
(4) 480

32)

A compound contains 40% by mass carbon. The compound may be:

(1) glucose
(2) Acetic acid
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) C2H5OH

33) How many grams of 10% pure sulphur will produce 5.6 L SO2 at NTP ?

(1) 8g
(2) 80 g
(3) 0.8 g
(4) 800 g

34) Calculate number of neutrons present in 12 × 1025 atoms of oxygen (8O17) (NA = 6 × 1023)

(1) 1800
(2) 1600
(3) 1800 NA
(4) 3200 NA

35) Which of the following contains the largest mass of hydrogen atoms ?

(1) 5 moles C2H2O4

(2) 1.1 moles C3H8O3
(3) 1.5 moles C6H12O6
(4) 4 moles C2H4O2

36)

A mixture of gases contains O2 and CH4 gas in the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the
two gases in the mixture?

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 8
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

37) In which of the following options, the molecules are correctly matched with their atomicity ?

a P4 (p) 7
b HNO3 (q) 6
c N2H4 (r) 5
d H2SO4 (s) 4
(1) (a–s), (b–r), (c–p), (d–q)
(2) (a–q), (b–s), (c–p), (d–r)
(3) (a–q), (b–s), (c–r), (d–p)
(4) (a–s), (b–r), (c–q), (d–p)

38) 3.011 × 1022 atoms of an element weight 1.15 g. The atomic mass of the element is:-

(1) 10 amu
(2) 2.3 amu
(3) 35.5 amu
(4) 23 amu

39) Total number of moles of oxygen atoms in 3L O3(g) at 27°C and 8.21 atm are -

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 10

40) The mass to charge ratio (m/e) for a cation is 1.5 × 10–8 kg/c. What is the mass of this cation?
(1) 2.4 × 10–19 g
(2) 2.4 × 10–27 g
(3) 2.4 × 10–24 g
(4) 2.4 × 10–16 g

41) Wavelength for high energy EMR transition in H-atom is 91 nm. What energy is needed for this
transition ?

(1) 1.36 eV
(2) 1240 eV
(3) 13 eV
(4) 13.6 eV

42) Most of the -particles went straight through the gold foil in Rutherford's experiment because

(1) -particles are positively charged

(2) -particles move with high speed
(3) Most part of the atom is empty space
(4) There is no nucleus in an atom

43) A radio station is broadcasting at a wavelength of 300 m. If the radiating power of transmitter is
10 kW, then the number of photons radiated per second is :

(1) 1.5 × 1023

(2) 1.5 × 1031
(3) 1.5 × 1033
(4) 1.5 × 1035

44) Maximum number of total nodes is present in

(1) 5s
(2) 5p
(3) 5d
(4) All have same number of total nodes

45) When an electron jumps from 'L' level to 'M' level there occurs ?

(1) Emission of energy

(2) Absorption of energy
(3) Emission of γ rays
(4) Emission of X rays

BIOLOGY

1) The number of species that are known and described :-

(1) 1.7 - 1.8 billion
(2) 17 - 18 million
(3) 17 - 18 lakh
(4) 1.7 - 1.8 lakh

2) Consider the following;

Solanum tuberosum, Mangifera indica, Triticum aestivum, Solanum nigrum, Panthera leo, Panthera
pardus, Solanum Melongana, Panthera tigris, Homo sapiens
How many family, genus and species are represented by above set of organisms ?

(1) 5, 5, 5 respectively
(2) 5, 5, 9 respectively
(3) 9, 6, 5 respectively
(4) 6, 5, 9 respectively

3) As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number of common characters are ?

(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Neither increases nor decreases
(4) Increases in the members of kingdom plantae

4) A collection of species, which show a close resemblance to one another in the morphological
characters of the floral parts is known as -

(1) Family
(2) Genus
(3) Division
(4) Variety

5) Kingdom - Plantae
Division - Angiospermae
Class - Dicotyledonae
Order - "A"
Family - "B"
Genus - Mangifera
Species - Mangifera indica
Identify A and B in given classification.

(1) A - Fabaceae, B - Poales

(2) A - Sapindales, B-Anacardiaceae
(3) A - Poales, B - Solanaceae
(4) A - Diptera, B - Muscidae

6) In the given taxonomic categories the missing ranks A, B & C are sequently in reference to a
plant:

(1) Family, order, phylum

(2) Genus, order, phylum
(3) Genus, order, division
(4) Genus, order, kingdom

7)

What you call a process by which anything is grouped into convenient categories ?

(1) Identification
(2) Nomenclature
(3) Classification
(4) Taxonomy

8)

Which of the following 'suffixes' used for unit of classification in plants indicates of taxonomic
category of 'Family' ?

(1) – ales
(2) – onae
(3) – aceae
(4) – ae

9) Which option is not related with members of kingdom Monera ?

(1) They have flagella

(2) They show water bloom
(3) They show nitrogen fixation
(4) They have well defined nucleus and other membrane-bounded organelles

10) The major mode of nutrition of kingdom. Animalia, fungi and Plantae, respectively :-
(1) Autotrophs, Chemotrophs & Holozoic
(2) Phototrophs, Saprotrophs & Holophytic
(3) Holozoic, Osmotrophic, Holophytic
(4) Osmotrophs, Holozoic & Holophytic

11) Lichens are :-

(1) Made up of phycobiont and mycobiont

(2) Found in polluted areas
(3) Placed in kingdom-plantae according to the R.H. Whittaker
(4) All of these

12) Yeast is a :-

(1) Unicellular fungi

(2) Member of ascomycetes
(3) Non mycelial fungi
(4) All of the above are correct

13) In club fungi, which stage is usually prolonged :

(1) Stage between plasmogamy and karyogamy

(2) Stage between karyogamy and meiosis
(3) Stage between meiosis and formation of spores
(4) Stage between formation of basidia and basidiocarp

14) Which of the following unicellular algae are microscopic, have silicified cell wall and chief
producers in the ocean :

(1) Diatoms
(2) Red algae
(3) Dinoflagellates
(4) Euglenoids

15) Which of the following is related to mycorrhizae ?

(1) Symbiotic association of fungi and algae

(2) Symbiotic association of fungi with root of higher plants
(3) Albugo on mustard plant
(4) can be used as air pollution indicator

16) Archaebacteria found in Marshy place are.

(1) Methanogens
(2) Thermoacidophiles
(3) Halophiles
(4) Mycoplasma

17) Read the following point carefully.

(a) Nitrogen fixation ability
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Colonies are generally surrounded by gelatinous sheath
(d) Cause water bloom
These points are related with

(1) Archae bacteria

(2) Euglenoids
(3) Green algae
(4) Cyanobacteria

18) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
(a) Euglenoids (i) Plated cell wall
(b) Chrysophytes (ii) Saprophytic protists
(c) Slime moulds (iii) Indestructible walls
(d) Dinoflagellates (iv) Pellicle

Select the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

19) Assertion : Potato & Brinjal are two different species but both belong to the genus Solanum.
Reason : Members of the same genus of a family are more similar than members of the other genus
of a family.

(1) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

20) How many of the following terms are not related with Mango ? Mangifera, Anacardiaceae,
Poales, Dicotyledonae,
Angiospermae, Monocotyledonae

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

21)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only ?
(a) Genus is a group of related species which has less characters in common in comparison to
species of other genera.
(b) Classification is not a single step process.
(c) Solanum, Petunia and Datura are placed in family solanaceae

(d) Taxonomic categories are both distinct biological entities and morphological aggregates.
(1) Statements a, b
(2) Statements a, b, d
(3) Statements b, c, d
(4) Statements a, b, c

22) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Mesosomes Oxidative Enzyme Cell respiration

(ii) Capsule Loose nature Protein Synthesis

(iii) Flagella Flagellin Protein Help in genetic recombination

(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (iii)
(4) Only (i)

23) Given below are the two statements.

Statement-I :- In algae asexual reproduction is by the production of different type of spores.
Statement-II :- The zoospores are non-flagellated and on germination give rise to new plants.
Select the correct option :-

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and II are incorrect
(3) Only statement-I is correct
(4) Only statement-II is correct

24) Assertion (A) :- Members of chlorophyceae are grass green due to dominance of pigments
chlorophyll a and b.
Reason (R) :- Members of chlorophyceae are commonly called green algae.
Choose the correct option :-

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.

25) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Red algae I Mannitol

(B) Brown algae II Starch

(C) Green algae III Floridean starch

Choose the correct option :-

(1) A-III, B-I, C-II
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III

26) Select the incorrect option :-

(1) Gymnosperms have naked seeds

(2) Pteridophytes have vascular tissue
(3) Algae also reproduce by vegetative means
(4) Rhizoids are present in gymnosperm.

27) Which of the following is a homosporous pteridophyte ?

(1) Pinus
(2) Cycas
(3) Dryopteris
(4) Salvinia

28) Which among the following lacks vascular tissues ?

(1) Pteridophytes
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Angiosperms
(4) Bryophytes

29) Which pigment is characteristic of red algae?

(1) Chlorophyll a
(2) Phycoerythrin
(3) Carotene
(4) Xanthophyll
30) In which of the following plant's cell wall contain polysulphate esters ?

(1) Cycas
(2) Porphyra
(3) Fern
(4) Pinus

31) Which of the following have seeds but no fruits ?

(1) Mango
(2) Maize
(3) Cycas
(4) Pea

32) Which of the following exhibit heterospory ?

(1) Funaria
(2) Riccia
(3) Selaginella
(4) Spirogyra

33) In which of the following gametophyte is completely depend on sporophyte ?

(1) Marchantia
(2) Selaginella
(3) Funaria
(4) Cycas

34) Antheridia and archegonia both are present in ?

(1) Volvox
(2) Marchantia
(3) Cycas
(4) Pinus

35) Which part of the fern is haploid ?

(1) Roots
(2) Leaf
(3) Sporophyte
(4) Prothallus

36) Which of the following is characteristic feature of gymnosperm ?

(1) Fruit formation

(2) Closed seeds
(3) Ovule exposed before and after fertilization
(4) Triploid endosperm formation

37) Protonema stage is found in ?

(1) Fern
(2) Moss
(3) Liverwort
(4) Cycas

38) Which of the following algae lacks motile stages ?

(1) Ulothrix
(2) Ectocarpus
(3) Fucus
(4) Gelidium

39) Given below are the two statements-

Statement-I : In Pinus small specialised roots called coralloid roots are associated with N2 fixing
cyanobacteria.
Statement-II : In Cycas the pinnate leaves persist for a few years.
Select the correct option.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Only statement-I is correct
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct
(4) Only statement-II is correct

40) In which of the following the gametes are pyriform and bear two laterally attached flagella ?

(1) Sargassum
(2) Ectocarpus
(3) Polysiphonia
(4) Both (1) and (2)

41) Assertion (A) : Bryophytes are of little ecological importance.

Reason (R) : Bryophytes are the first organisms to colonise rocks.
Select the correct option :-

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

42) In Gymnosperms, pollination occur mainly by :-

(1) Insect
(2) Birds
(3) Wind
(4) Water

43) In cycas, female cones are ______

(1) Large and woody

(2) Small and herbaceous
(3) Absent
(4) Fleshy and edible

44) Given below are the two statements :-

Statement-I : In red algae sexual reproduction is oogamous and accompanied by complex post
fertilization developments.
Statement-II : Red algae reproduce asexually by motile spores and sexually by non-motile gametes.
Select the correct option.

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct

(2) Only statement-I is correct
(3) Only statement-II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

45) Which algae is used to prepare agar ?

(1) Spirogyra
(2) Gelidium
(3) Chlamydomonas
(4) Volvox

46)

Read the following statements and find out the true (T) or false (F) statement :-
(A) All chordates possess Jaws and paired appendages
(B) All euchordates have bony vertebral column and cranium
(C) Aves have air sacs connected to lungs for supplement respiration.
(D) Generally skin of amphibians is scale less and moist

Options :
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) T T T F

(2) F T T F

(3) F T F T

(4) F F T T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47)

Which of the following statements are True (T) and which are False (F) ? Choose the correct option.
I. Amphibians have metanephric kidneys
II. The skull of mammals is dicondylic
III. Aves respire by cloacal apposition
IV. In Aves long bones are hollow

V. Cloaca is present in Lizard

(1) I, II and V are true, III and IV are false
(2) II, III and IV are true, I and V are false
(3) II and V are true, I, III and IV are false
(4) II, IV and V are true, I and III are false

48) Which of the following is not correct for amphibians ?

(1) Tympanum represents the ear.

Alimentary canal and reproductive tracts open into a common chamber called cloaca while
(2)
urinary tract open directly outside.
(3) Most of them have two pairs of limbs.
(4) Skin is moist

49)

Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Phylum (P) Agnatha

(b) Subphylum (Q) Cyclostomata

(c) Division (R) Tetrapoda

(d) Super class (S) Chordata

(e) Class (T) Vertebrata

a b c d e

(1) S T P Q R

(2) S T Q R P

(3) S T P R Q

(4) S R Q P T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

50) Identify below animal and choose incorrect option :-

(1) It belongs to protochordata

(2) Exclusively marine
(3) Notochord found in adult
(4) Notochord found in larva

51) Which one of the following is a chordate but not vertebrate :-

(1) Icthyophis
(2) Carcharodon
(3) Branchiostoma
(4) Columba

52) Assertion : Amphibians are first land vertebrates.

Reason : Amphibian shows only internal fertilisation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

53) Assertion (A) :– Amphioxus is exclusively marine.

Reason (R) :– Notochord is present from head to tail and persistent through out the life.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

54) Statement-1 : Class name reptilia refer to creeping or crawling mode of locomotion.
Statement-2 : Vipera is a non-poisonous snake.

(1) Both Statements are true

(2) Both Statements are false
(3) Only statements-1 is true
(4) Only statements-2 is true
55) Statement – 1 : The characteristics feature of Aves are presence of feather.
Statement – 2 : Fore limbs of birds are modified into wings.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Statement–1 is correct but statement–2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement–1 is incorrect but statement–2 is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

56) Which group of animals can respire through skin ?

(1) Pisces
(2) Amphibia
(3) Reptilia
(4) Aves

57)

Invertebrate chordates are :-

(1) Cyclostomata
(2) Urochordata
(3) Cephalochordata
(4) both (2) & (3)

58) Sting-ray is :-

(1) Torpedo
(2) Clarias
(3) Wallagonia
(4) Trygon

59) Which of the following have placoid scales ?

(1) Pterophyllum
(2) Catla
(3) Scoliodon
(4) Exocoetus

60) Mostly birds are :-

(1) Uricotelic and oviparous

(2) Uricotelic and viviparous
(3) Ammonotelic and oviparous
(4) Uricotelic and ovoviviparous

61) Read the following statements from A-D :-

(A) All animals ectoparasites on few fishes
(B) Circular mouth with out jaw
(C) In their body scales and paired fins absent
(D) Circulatory system closed type
These statements are correct for which class.

(1) Chondricthyes
(2) Osteicthyes
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Amphibia

62)

Chordates are exhibit the :

(1) Bilaterally symmetry, coelomate

(2) Posses a post anal tail
(3) Closed circulatory system and triploblastic
(4) All of these

63)

Identify the fresh water bony fishes.

(1) Flying fish, Catla

(2) Magur, Sea horse
(3) Rohu, Clarias
(4) Saw fish, Labeo

64) The enclosed figure shows chordate characters. Select correctly matched ?

(1) A - Notochord
(2) B - Vetebral column
(3) C - Ctenidial gills
(4) D - Post anal tail

65) Members of class reptilia are :-

(1) Homoiothermic and oviparous

(2) Homoiothermic and viviparous
(3) Poikilothermic and oviparous
(4) Poikilothermic and viviparous
66) Characteristic features such as four-chambered heart, feather and pneumatic bone is applicable
to the class of vertebrate :-

(1) Cyclostomata
(2) Aves
(3) Reptilia
(4) Mammals

67) Ornithorhynchus is an example of :

(1) Egg laying amphibia

(2) Egg laying Reptilia
(3) Egg laying bird
(4) Egg laying mammal

68) Hemichordata was earlier considered as a ____A___ under phylum chordata.

Find out correct answer about 'A'.

(1) Super-phylum
(2) Order
(3) Sub-class
(4) Sub-phylum

69) The body of which animal is cylindrical and is composed of anterior probscis, a collar and a long
trunk?

(1) Ophiura
(2) Cucumaria
(3) Ascaris
(4) Balanoglossus

70) The excretory organ of balanoglossus is :-

(1) Protonephridia
(2) Proboscis gland
(3) Prostate gland
(4) Pyloric gland

71) In which of the following phylums the adults are radially symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally
symmetrical ?

(1) Arthropoda
(2) Mollusca
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Hemichordata

72) Which of the following animal is commonly known as brittle star ?

(1) Echinus
(2) Antedon
(3) Ophiura
(4) Cucumaria

73) What is mantle ?

(1) A soft and chitinous layer over the visceral hump.

(2) A hard and calcareous layer over the visceral hump.
(3) A soft and non spongy layer of skin over the visceral hump.
(4) A soft and spongy layer of skin over the visceral hump.

74) In which of the following arthropod eyes are simple, antennae are absent and body bears 4 pair
of legs ?

(1) Locusta
(2) Prawn
(3) Scorpion
(4) Butter fly

75) Which of the following is a living fossil ?

(1) Locusta
(2) Limulus
(3) Saccoglossus
(4) Octopus

76) What are the two common characters about earthworm, Nereis and Hirudinaria ?

(1) All these are marine and endoparasitic.

(2) All these are monoecious and metamerically segmented.
(3) They all possess lateral appendages, parapodia and suckers.
(4) All these are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and metamerically segmented.

77) Which group of animals belongs to the same phylum with atleast one character ?

(1) Loligo, octopus and pila – Excretion through neural gland.

(2) Astarias and echinus – Direct development
(3) Apis, laccifer and Bombyx – Jointed appendages
(4) Nereis and earthwarm – Open type circulatory system

78) Which of the following characteristic is shared by all round worms ?

(1) They are covered by a chitinous exoskeleton.

(2) They are bilaterally symmetrical and metamerically segmented
(3) They are bilaterally symmetrical, Triploblastic and Pseudocoelomate
(4) All these are monoecious with external fertilisation

79) Which of the following cnidarians have a skeleton composed of calcium carbonate ?

(1) Hydra
(2) Meandrina
(3) Adamsia
(4) Physalia

80)

Which of the following group of animals is exclusively marine, Radially symmetrical, diploblastic and
have a comb plate for locomotion ?

(1) Physalia, Hydra, Fasciola

(2) Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana, Meandrina
(3) Gorgonia, Adamsia, Pennatula
(4) Ctenoplana, Pleurobrachia

81) Which of the following is not a feature of flatworms ?

(1) They have dorso-ventrally flattened body.

(2) Hooks and suckers are present only in non-parasitic forms.
(3) Hooks and suckers are present only in parasitic forms.
(4) Some of them absorb nutrients from the host directly through their body surface.

82) Cnidarians have a central _____ with a single opening only.

(1) Cranial cavity

(2) Gastro-vascular cavity
(3) Thoracic cavity
(4) Pelvic cavity

83) Identify the given below figure and select correct answer about it.

(1) Lasso cell

(2) Cnidoblast
(3) Nephridia
(4) Collar-Flagellated cell
84) Which of the following cnidarians is commonly known as Sea-pen ?

(1) Tubipora
(2) Gorgonia
(3) Pennatula
(4) Meandrina

85) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Polyps are sexually reproducing sessile and cylindrical forms.
Statement II : In sponges fertilisation is external and development is indirect having a larval stage
which is morphologically distinct from the adult.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I and II both are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I and II both are correct.

86) Match the column I with column II and select the correct answer about them.

Column I Column II

Radially symmetrical and

a. i. Echinus
diploblastic

Bilateral symmetry and blind

b. ii. Gorgonia
sac body plan

Endoskeleton of calcareous
c. iii. Apis
ossicles

Excretion through malpighian

d. iv Fasciola
tubules and 3 pairs of legs.
(1) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

87)

Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and another is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : Though all members of animalia are multicellular, all of them do not exhibit the
same pattern of organisation of cells.
Reason (R) : In some animals the body is externally and internally divided into segments with a
serial repetition of atleast some organs.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.

(2) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

88) Select the option which inclued all the correct statements only about the given below figure.

a. The excretion takes place by green glands.

b. Excretion takes place by malpighian tubules.
c. Antennae are absent.
d. Eyes are of compound type.
e. Locomotion takes place by 3-pairs of legs.

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) b, d, e
(3) b, c, d, e
(4) a, c, d

89) Read the following statements :

(a) - In balanoglossus fertilisation is external and development is direct.
(b) - Round warms are dioecious and fertilisation is external.
(c) - In Cnidarians the digestion is extracellular and intracellular both.
(d) - In echinoderms the digestive system is complete with mouth on ventral side and anus on dorsal
side.
(e) - Sponges reproduce asexually by gamete formation and sexually by fragmentation.
Select the option which includes all the incorrect statements only ?

(1) a, b, c, e
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) a, b, e
(4) b, c, d, e

90) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

Animal Characteristics

The body is supported by a skeleton made up of spicules

(A) Sycon
or spongin fibres

(B) Aurelia Sessile and cylindrical form exhibit metagenesis

(C) Taenia Hooks and suckers are present

(D) Pila Body is covered by a calcareous shell and is unsegmented

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, C and D
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 3 1 2 4 2 2 1 4 4 2 3 3 3 1 1 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 2 1 3 2 3 2 4 4 1 1 3 2 2 3 3 4 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 1 4 3 3 4 4 2 3 2 4 4 3 1 3 4 2 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 4 2 4 3 1 4 1 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 4 4 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 2 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 1 2 2 3 3 3 4 3 1 4 1 1 2 1 4 2 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 3 3 1 4 3 4 2 2 3 3 4 2 4 3 2 4 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 3 2 2 4 4 2 3 3 3 3 2 3 1 2 4 4 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 3 4 3 2 4 4 4 2 3 3 4 3 2 4 3 3 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 2 3 1 2 3 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) = 0.01 mm
Diameter of wire = 2 mm + 23 × 0.01 mm
= 2.23 mm
Curve surface area = πDℓ
= (π) (0.223 cm) (5.6 cm)
= 3.922 cm2 ≈ 3.9 cm2 (2SF)

2) Horizontal drift

x = VR × t = VR ×

x=

3) average value =
= 2.004
Absolute error in third reading
= 2.006 – 2.004
= 0.002 cm

4)

= 2x1/2 + lnx + πx + C

5)

1001 → All zero between two non-zero are significant so, 4 significant.
010.1 → 3 significant
100.100 → All trailling zero are significant for decimal number so, 6 significant.
0.0010010 → 5 significant

6)
 ⇒ [a] = [p] [V2]

[V] = [b] ⇒ [b] = [V]

then

7)

cm/s

8) From equation of trajectory, y = xtanθ

⇒ 3 = 6 tanθ

⇒ tanθ =

9)

From figure y1 = 5

Possible when,
⇒ y1 = 5
⇒ 2 – 1 = x1 – 2
x1 = 3

10) Time taken by body A, t1 = 5 sec.

Acceleration of body A = a1.
Time taken by body B, t2 = 5 – 2 = 3 sec.
Acceleration of body B = a2.
Distance covered by first body in 5th second after start,

Distance covered by the second body in the 3rd second after its start,

Since, s5 = s3

∴
or a1 : a2 = 5 : 9

11) (i)
uP + uQ = 6 m/s
(ii)
uP – uQ = 2.4 m/s
uP = 4.2 m/s
uQ = 1.8 m/s

12) ⇒ 2.55 + 1.15

⇒ 2.6 + 1.15
⇒ 3.75
⇒ 3.8

13) (a) Surface tension = = [M1T–2]

(b) Pressure = = [M1L–1T–2]

(c) Viscosity = = [M1L–1T–1]

(d) Impulse = Force × time = [M1L1T–1]
14) Because the particle returns to the starting point after 10 sec and the rate of change of
velocity during motion remains constant in magnitude, hence time taken in upward motion =
time taken in backward motion = 5 sec (Example: a stone thrown upwards). Hence, the
location of particle after 7 sec, i.e., 2 sec after the start of downward motion will be same as its
location 2 sec. before the end of upward motion, i.e, after 3 sec.

15) Given that maximum height = 5 m, g = 10 m s–2 Now, υ2 = u2 – 2gs

or 0 = u2 – 2 × 10 × 5 = u2 – 100
∴ u = 10 m/s
Further, at maximum height, υ = 0
∴ 0 = u – gt = 10 – 10 × t
or t = 1 sec
It means that each ball is thrown after 1 sec. Therefore, number of balls thrown per minute =
60.

16) [ax2] = [F]

and [bt1/2] = [F]

dimension

17) = 0.005 cm
Reading 1 : 0.4 cm + 14 × 0.005 cm = 0.470 cm
Reading 2 : 0.4 cm + 12 × 0.005 cm = 0.460 cm
Reading 3 : 0.4 cm + 10 × 0.005 cm = 0.450 cm
Average reading = (0.470 + 0.460 + 0.450)/3 = 0.460 cm
Corrected reading = 0.460 + 0.02 = 0.480 cm

18)

If a body initially at rest is under acceleration, then it start motion in direction of acceleration
and if acceleration is constant, then its speed increases and direction remain same (motion
along straight line).

19)

= 4πr2[t] …(1)
t=2
r = 0.5(2)2 = 2
Put in equation (1)
 = 32 π cm3/sec.

20) During journey both fall down with the same velocity when they fall through the same
height h. The velocity is independent of mass. Therefore, both will reach the ground at same
speed.

21)

22)

Vavg = 0 when
dnet = 0
⇒ initial position = final position

23)

Acceleration is constant and particle comes to rest that means acceleration is opposite to the
velocity throughout the motion.

24)

Rmax = R = or u2 = Rg

Now, as range =

Then or sin 2θ = = sin 30°

or θ = 15°

25) = 1.5 mm

= 0.005 mm
= 0.000005 m (6 decimal places)

26)

The velocity time graph for given problem is shown in the figure.

Distance travelled S = Area under curve = 2 + 2 = 4m

27) Component of along

28)

x = 32t –

=0
2
8t = 32
t2 = 4
t = ±2

= –16t
a = –16 × 2 = –32 m/s2

29) ⇒

30)
in OA → v = f t1 .....(1)

.....(2)
in AB →
12 S = v × t .....(3)

(Put in eq(2))

31)

Srel = Vrel t = 50(2) = 100 sec.

32)
v cos 60° = 20

33) Because the surface is concave up, the acceleration of the block is always positive and the
speed increases. Because the steepness of the curve decreases with decreasing height, the
acceleration decreases.

34) A unitless quantity always having zero dimension or dimensionless.

35)
VAB = 4m/s

VBC (average) = =

VAC (average) =
= 4m/s

36) P = a1/2 b2 c3 d–4

= (1%) + (2%) + (9%) + (20%)

= 32%

37) Energy = Work = (Force) (displacement)

[Energy] = [Force] [length]
New energy will be increased to 25 times

38) =

39)

L = MxTy[ML2T–2]z

, y = 1, z =

40)

v = 0 = u – 9.8 × (5)
u = 49 m/s.

41)

42)
1 MSD = 1 mm

1 VSD = MSD = 0.9 mm

7th vernier division is coinciding marked as 'O'
Now OX = 6 MSD
OY = 3 VSD
XY = OX – OY = 6 MSD – 3 VSD
= 6 mm – 2.7 mm = 0.33 cm

43) 1 MSD = 1° & 24 MSD = 25 VSD

 ⇒

= 2.4 min = 2.4'

44)
∴ R = 150 × 10 = 1500 m

45)

For given v–x graph, let slope = m,

and intercept = c ; we can write,
v = mx + c

a= = (mx+c)(m) = m2x + mc
⇒ a = m2x + mc
⇒ 'a' changes linearly with 'x'

CHEMISTRY

46) Question Explanation : question is asking about electron filling energy levels in 6 period
according to Aufbau’s rule
Concept : Aufbau's rule for 6 period.
Explanation & Solution : In the 6th period of the modern periodic table, the electronic
energy levels are filled in the order 6s, 4f, 5d, and 6p.

Answer : Option 1

47)

Due to stable half filled configuration is [Ar] 3d54s1

48)

On moving top to bottom bond strength decreases so easily gives H⊕ so incorrect order is (1)

49)

Neutral atom > Cationic size

Neutral atom < Anionic size

50)

On moving left to right zeff increases.

51)

(i) N > O [IP1]

2p3 2p4
⇒ Due to pairing of e⊖ repulsion increases in O so IP1 decreases
(ii) from 2nd to 3rd period electron affinity increases
(iii) Highest electronegativity in periodic table is for F

52)

IE1 IE2 Big jump IE3

120 430 13000
+2 +2 –3
∴A A N
A3N2

53)

Oxygen have least EA in their respective group.

54)

Most electronegative element in their respective period is halogens so general confn is ns2np5

55)

last e– is entering in 'd' subshell.

56)

On moving top to bottom EN decreases regularlily so correct answer is (2)

57) Explanation : element having equal radius is asked.

Concept : lanthanoid & Zeff = σ
Solution/Explanation/Calculation :

All have approx same size

lanthanoid contraction
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

58)

Cl → Cl– (exothermic)

59)

In neutral state highest IP of He due to its very stable configuration 1s2.

60)

According to mendeleev prediction of element is like

Eka B – Sc
Eka Al – Ga
Eka Mn – Tc
Eka Si – Ge

61)

Na Mg Al Si
3s1 3s2 3p1 3p2
Na < Al < Mg < Si
496 ? 737 786
So value of IP for Al is b/w Na & Mg so correct answer is 577.

62) Chalcogen means ore generator, means oxygen family.

= ns2np4

63)

All show diagonal relation with Be.

64)

Metallic radii always greater than covalent radii.

65)

2nd electron gain enthalpy is always endothermic.

66)

Due to stable confn in N, He, Ne show positive electron gain enthalpy.

67) Atomic no. Element Block 15 P p-Block

19 K s-Block
25 Mn d-Block
64 Gd f-Block

68)
Largest difference is from IE2 to IE3 so there is 2e– in outermost shell show +2 oxidation state.

69)

(A) Gram atomic mass is mass of one mole of atoms

(B) Molar volume at STP is equal to 22.4 L

(C) nCO2 =
(D) Gram atomic mass of carbon is 12 g

70)

n, ℓ, m are solutions of schrodinger wave equation spin quantum number is not obtained by
solving schrodinger wave equation.
Both A & R false because in a language of Assertion term is use atom instead of orbital.

71) Avogadro's law

72) Total number of spectral lines

73)

74) SiO2 (L.R.)

18 mole SiO2 give 3 mole P4

0.36 mole SiO2 will give =

= 0.06

75) No. of molecule of CO2 =

No. of O atom = 2 × 2 = 4

76) Min. M.W. =

77)

[NCERT pg # 10]

% by mass = × 100
For glucose = × 100 = 40%

For acetic acid = × 100 = 40%

78) Question
Determine 10% pure S mass in following
given data

Calculation

1mol SO2 → 1mol S

let x be the mass of 10% pure sulphur

0.10x =8gm ⇒ x = 80gm
Ans. (2)
Conclusion
Hence, option (2) is correct

79) Number of neutrons = 200 × NA × 9

= 1800 NA

80) 1.5 mole C6H12O6 = 18 mole H atoms = 18 g Hydrogen

81)

O2 : CH4
Mass 1:4

Mole

1:8

82)

Atomicity = Total no. of atoms present in a molecule

⇒ 4 in P4, 1 + 1 + 3 = 5 in HNO3, 2 + 4 = 6
in N2H4 & 2 + 1 + 4 = 7 in H2SO4.

83) Moles of atoms =

Atomic mass =

84) Moles of O3 =
Moles of O atoms = 3

85)
m = 1.5 × 10–5 × 1.6 × 10–19 g
2.4 × 10–24 g

86)

87)

Explanation
In the famous Gold Foil Experiment conducted by Ernest Rutherford in 1909, alpha particles
(which are positively charged) were directed at a thin foil of gold. Most of the alpha particles
passed straight through the foil, which led Rutherford to conclude that:
1. Most of the atom is empty space - Since the majority of alpha particles went straight
through without deflection, this suggested that atoms are mostly composed of empty space.
This was a significant departure from the earlier idea that atoms were a uniform, solid mass.
2. Presence of a dense nucleus -Some alpha particles were deflected at large angles or even
bounced straight back. This indicated the existence of a small, dense, positively charged
region at the center of the atom (the nucleus). This helped establish the nuclear model of the
atom.

88)

∵ E=
No. of photons emitted per second

=
= 1.51 × 1031

89) Total node = n – 1

90)

When electron jumps from inner orbit to outer orbit then energy is absorbed.
 if e⊖ jump from L to M then energy is required.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 3

92)

NCERT XI Page No. # 6,7

93)

NCERT XI Page No. # 8

94)

NCERT XI Page No. # 7

95)

NCERT XI Page No. # 8

96)

NCERT-XI Page No. # 8

97)

NCERT XI Page No. # 4

98)

NCERT XI Page # 7

99)

NCERT XI Page # 90
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NCERT XI Page No. # 11

101)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 21

102)

NCERT XI Page No. # 16

103)

NCERT XI Page No. # 17

104)

NCERT XI Page No. # 14

105)

NCERT-XI Page No. # 16

106)

NCERT-XI Page No. # 13

107)

NCERT XI Page No. # 13

108) NCERT XI, Page # 14,15

109) NCERT Page No. 06

110)

NEW NCERT XI pg no. 8

111)

NCERT XI Page No. # 7

112)

NCERT XI Page # 90,91

113) NCERT XI Pg. # 24

114) NCERT XI Pg. # 26

115) NCERT XI Pg. # 26,27

116) NCERT XI Pg. # 24,30,32,33

117) NCERT XI Pg. # 32

118) NCERT XI Pg. # 29

119) NCERT XI Pg. # 27

120) NCERT XI Pg. # 27, 28

121) NCERT XI Pg. # 32

122) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 33

124) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 28

125) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 30, 31

126) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32

127) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 30

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 27,28

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32

130) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 27

131) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 29

132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 33

133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 33

134) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 27, 28

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 26

136) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 46,47,49

137)

Module Pg # 53

138) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 48

139) NCERT-XI, Pg # 47

140)

NCERT Pg # 46

141)

NCERT Pg # 46

142)

NCERT Pg # 48

143) NCERT XI, Pg. # 46

144)

NCERT Pg # 49

145)

NCERT Pg # 49
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NCERT Pg # 48

147) NCERT-XI ; Page No. # 46

148)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 48

149) NCERT Page No. # 47

150)

NCERT Pg # 47

151) NCERT XI, Page # 47

152)

NCERT Pg # 46

153)

NCERT, Pg. # 48

154)

NCERT Pg # 46

155)

NCERT Pg # 49

156)

NCERT Pg # 49

157)

NCERT Pg. No. # 51

Ornithorhynchus is an example of egg laying mammal.

158) NCERT Pg # 45
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NCERT Pg # 45

160) NCERT Pg # 45

161) NCERT Pg # 45

162) NCERT Pg # 45

163)

NCERT Pg. # 44

164) NCERT Pg # 44

165) NCERT Pg # 44

166) NCERT Pg # 43

167) NCERT Pg # 43 - 45

168) NCERT Pg # 43

169) NCERT Pg # 41

170) NCERT Pg # 42

171) NCERT Pg # 42

172) NCERT Pg # 41

173) NCERT Pg # 41

174) NCERT Pg # 41

175) NCERT Pg # 40-41

176)
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177) NCERT Pg # 37 - 39

178) NCERT Pg # 44

179) NCERT Pg # 40-45

180) NCERT Pg # 40-44