03-09-2025

MT2_03092025_PH12 MD

PHYSICS

1) For a man walking with speed rain appears to fall vertically downward. When he starts
running with rain appears to fall on him at an angle of 45° with vertical. The speed of rain
w.r.t. ground (in km/h) is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) The velocity of a swimmer in still water is v1 and water current in river is v2. The swimmer is
applying strokes perpendicular to water current. If ‘d’ is width of river, the time taken by the
swimmer to cross river is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A train is moving towards east and a car is along north, both with same speed. The observed
direction of car to the passenger in the train is

(1) East-north direction

(2) West-north direction
(3) South-east direction
(4) None of these

4) A projectile is given initial velocity of . The equation of the path is : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) A parachutist after jumping out, falls 50m without friction. When parachute opens he decelerates
at 2ms–2. He reaches the ground with a speed of 3ms–1. At what height did he jump out ?
(1) 111 m
(2) 293 m
(3) 182 m
(4) 91 m

6) A projectile is fired with a speed u at angle θ with the horizontal. Its speed when its direction of
motion makes an angle α with the horizontal is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Two trains A and B 100 m and 60 m long are moving in opposite directions on parallel tracks. The
velocity of shorter train is 3 times that of the longer one. If the trains take 4 seconds to cross each
other, the velocities of the trains are :

(1) VA = 10 m/s, VB = 30 m/s

(2) VA = 2.5 m/s, VB = 7.5 m/s
(3) VB = 20 m/s, VB = 60 m/s
(4) VA = 5 m/s, VB = 15 m/s

8) Acceleration of the particle is given by a = (6t + 6) m/s2. Find position of the particle at t = 2 s, if
at t = 0 velocity of particle is 2 m/s and position is at origin

(1) 12 m
(2) 24 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 28 m

9) The displacement (x) – time (t) graph of the particles A and B is shown. What is relative velocity of
B with respect to A?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

10) A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower of height H with velocity 20m/s. A man is
standing at the foot of tower starts running at the same instant when ball is thrown. What should be
the velocity of man to catch the ball before striking to the ground. (Consider height of man

negligible):-

(1) 10 m/s
(2)
(3) 20 m/s
(4) none of these

11) A particle is moving with velocity 5 m/s towards east and its velocity changes to 5 m/s north in
10 sec. Find the acceleration.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A particle is constrained to move on a straight line path. It returns to the starting point after 10
sec. The total distance covered by the particle during this time is 30 m. Which of the following
statements about the motion of the particle is false :

(1) Displacement of the particle is zero

(2) Average speed of the particle is 3 m/s
(3) Displacement of the particle is 30 m
(4) Both (1) and (2)

13) Ratio of minimum kinetic energies of two projectiles of same mass is 4 : 1. The ratio of the
maximum height attained by them is also 4 : 1. The ratio of their ranges would be :-

(1) 16 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

14) A stationary wheel starts rotating about its own axis at constant angular acceleration. If the
wheel completes 50 rotations in first 2 seconds, then the number of rotations made by it in next two
seconds is-

(1) 75
(2) 100
(3) 125
(4) 150

15) The distance of a particle moving on a circle of radius 12 m measured from a fixed point on the
circle and measured along the circle is given by s = 2t3 (in meters). The ratio of its tangential to
centripetal acceleration at t = 2 s is –

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 3 : 1

16) In a circular motion of a particle, the tangential acceleration of the particle is given by at = 9
ms–2. The radius of the circle is 4 m. The particle was initially at rest. Time after which total
acceleration of the particle makes an angle 45o of with the radial acceleration is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A particle P is moving in a circle of radius 'a' with a uniform speed . C is the centre of the circle
and AB is a diameter. When passing through B the angular velocity of P about A and C are in the
ratio :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 4 : 1

18) Find angular velocity of A with respect to O at the instant shown in the figure.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A body starts from rest, with acceleration 'a', given by a = Rt as function of time where R is
constant then find displacement of particle in interval t = 0 to t = T

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) If the position vector of a particle is

then what is the magnitude of its acceleration ?

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) sin2 t
(4) cos t

21) Position of a particle moving along x-axis is given by x = 4 + 16t – 8t2. The distance travelled by
the particle from t = 0 to t = 2 is:

(1) 0 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 12 m
(4) 16 m

22)

A particle (initially in motion) is subjected to different accelerations separately. These acceleration

vary with time as shown. In which of these cases particle will definitely return to its initial position.

(i) (ii) (iii)

(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) & (iii) only
(3) in all cases
(4) in no case

23) The retardation of a moving particle, if the relation between time and position is t = x2 + x will
be-

(1) 2 (x + 1)–3
(2) 2(2x + 1)–3
(3) 1/2 (x + 1)–3
(4) 1/2 [2x + 1]–3

24) The equations of motion of a projectile are given by x = 36t m and 2y = 96t – 9.8 t2m. The angle
of projection is :-

(1)
sin–1

(2)
sin–1

(3)
sin–1

(4)
sin–1

25) A particle is fired vertically upwards with initial speed = 20 m/s, at t = 0. With what upward
speed should another particle be fired from the same point at t = 1s so that the two particles collide
at a height of 15 m above the firing point :-

(1) 5m/s
(2) 17.5 m/s
(3) m/s
(4) 10 m/s

26) For motion of an object along the x-axis the velocity v depends on the displacement x as v = 3x2 –
2x, then what is the acceleration at x = 2m.

(1) 48 ms–2
(2) 80 ms–2
(3) 18 ms–2
(4) 10 ms–2

27) A particle starts from rest, accelerates at 2 m/s2 for 10 s and then goes for constant speed for 30
s and then decelerates at 4 m/s2 till it stops. What is the distance travelled by it :–

(1) 750 m
(2) 800 m
(3) 700 m
(4) 850 m

28) A car is moving along a straight road with a uniform acceleration. It passs through two points P
and Q separated by a distance with velocities 30 km/h and 40 km/h respectively. The velocity of the
car midway between P and Q is :-

(1) 33.3 km/h

(2) km/h
(3) km/h
(4) 35 km/h

29) Acceleration-velocity graph of a moving particle is shown in figure. The particle is

(1) speeding up at P
(2) speeding up at Q
(3) slowing down at S
(4) speeding up at R

30) The engine of a motorcycle can produce a maximum acceleration 5 m/s2. Its brakes can produce
a maximum retardation 10 m/s2. What is the minimum time in which it can cover a distance of 1.5 km
:

(1) 30 s
(2) 15 s
(3) 10 s
(4) 5 s

31) A body covers first 1/3 part of its journey with a velocity of 2 m/s, next 1/3 part with a velocity of
3 m/s and rest of the journey with a velocity 6m/s. The average velocity of the body will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Figure shows four paths for a kicked football. Ignoring the effects of air on the flight, rank the
paths according to initial horizontal velocity component, highest first :

(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 2, 3, 4, 1
(3) 3, 4, 1, 2
(4) 4, 3, 2, 1

33) A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h metres. It takes T seconds to reach the
ground. What is the position of the ball in T/3 seconds?

(1) h/9 metre from the ground

(2) 7h/9 metre from the ground
(3) 8h/9 metre from the ground
(4) 17h/9 metre from the ground

34) When the angle of elevation of a gun are 60º and 30º respectively. The height it shoots are h1
and h2 respectively, h1/h2 equals to- :-

(1) 3/1
(2) 1/3
(3) 1/2
(4) 2/1

35) A man in a balloon rising vertically with an acceleration of 5 ms–2 releases a ball 2 second after
the balloon is let go from the ground. The greatest height above the ground reached by the ball is :-
(g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 15 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 25 m

36) It takes one minute for a passenger standing on an escalator to reach the top. If the escalator
does not move it takes him 3 minute to walk up. How long will it take for the passenger to arrive at
the top if he walks up the moving escalator?

(1) 30 sec
(2) 45 sec
(3) 40 sec
(4) 35 sec
37) Two particles are simultaneously projected in opposite directions horizontally from a given point
in space where gravity ‘g’ is uniform. If u1 and u2 be their initial speeds then the time ‘t’ after which
their velocities are mutually perpendicular is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Two transparent elevator cars A and B are moving in front of each other. Car A is moving up and
retarding at a1, while car B is moving down and retarding at a2. Person in car A drops a coin inside
the car. What is the acceleration observed by person in car B.

(1) g + a2 downward
(2) g – a1 – a2 downward
(3) g – a1 + a2 downward
(4) None of these

39) A particle has initial velocity and acceleration . The magnitude of velocity
after 10 seconds will be :

(1) 5 units
(2) 9 units
(3) 9 units
(4) 5 units

40) A bullet fired into a fixed target loses half of its velocity after penetrating 3 cm. How much
further it will penetrate before coming to rest assuming that it force is constant resistance to motion

(1) 1.5 cm
(2) 1.0 cm
(3) 3.0 cm
(4) 2.0 cm

41) The splash is heard after 2.05 s, after the stone is dropped into a well of depth 19.6 m. The
velocity of sound is:

(1) 342 m s–1

(2) 372 m s–1
(3) 392 m s–1
(4) 352 m s–1
42) The velocity of a particle is given by , where x is position in metre and v in m/s.
The acceleration of the particle will be

(1) 7 m/s2
(2) –4 m/s2
(3) –8 m/s2
(4) –2 m/s2

43) The retardation of a particle moving in a straight line is proportional to its displacement
(proportionality constant being unity). Initial velocity of the particle is v0. Find the total displacement
of the particle till it comes to rest.

(1)

(2) v0

(3)

(4)

44) A particle moves in the xy plane and at time t is at the point whose coordinates are (t2, t3 - 2t).
Then at what instant of time will its velocity and acceleration vectors be perpendicular to each
other?

(1) 1/3 sec

(2) 2/3 sec
(3) 3/2 sec
(4) never

45) A body is moving in a straight line with initial velocity u and acceleration a. If distance covered
in 4th second is 40 m and distance covered in 6th second is 60 m. Then find u.

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 10m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

CHEMISTRY

1) Oxidation state of nitrogen is incorrectly given for :

Compound Oxidation State

(1) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 –3

(2) NH2OH –1

(3) (N2H5)2SO4 +2
 (4) Mg3N2 –3

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) In which of the following reactions is there a change in the oxidation number of nitrogen atom:-

(1) 2 NO2 → N2O4

+ –
(2) NH3 + H2O → NH4 + OH
(3) N2O5 + H2O → 2HNO3
(4) N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

3) Which of the following statements are not true for the reaction : 4Fe + 3O2 → 4Fe+3 + 6O–2
(a) It is a redox reaction
(b) Metallic iron is a reductant
(c) Fe+3 is a reductant
(d) Metallic iron is reduced to Fe+3
Correct option is :

(1) c, d
(2) a, b
(3) a, c
(4) a, b, d

4) When HNO3 is converted into NH3, the equivalent weight of HNO3 will be :-

(1) M/2
(2) M/1
(3) M/6
(4) M/8

5)

The values of coefficients to balance the following reaction are

Cr(OH)3 + ClO– + OH– → CrO42– + Cl– + H2O

Cr(OH)3 ClO– CrO42– Cl–
(1) 2 3 3 3
(2) 2 4 3 2
(3) 2 4 4 2
(4) 2 3 2 3
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Number of mole of MnO4– required to oxidise two moles of Ferrous oxalate completely in acidic
medium will be :-

(1) 0.6 mol

(2) 1.2 mol
(3) 2.4 mol
(4) 3.33 mol

7) The brown ring complex is formulated as [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4. The oxidation state of iron is :-

(1) +1
(2) +2
(3) +3
(4) +6

8) The oxidation state(s) of Cl in CaOCl2 (bleaching powder) is/are :-

(1) +1 only
(2) –1 only
(3) +1 and –1
(4) none of these

9) What is oxidation state of S in Na2S4O6 :

(1) +2.5
(2) +2, +2, +3, +3
(3) +2, +2, +2, +3
(4) +5, 0, 0, +5

10) 1 mole of each stannous oxalate and stannic oxalate are oxidised into Sn+4 and CO2 using x mole
and y mole KMnO4 in acidic medium in separate reactions. Value of x : y will be :

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 4

11) In the following reaction the value of 'X' is – H2O + → + 2H+ + X

(1) 4e–
(2) 3e–
(3) 2e–
(4) 1e–

12) Calculate value of (a+b) in following reaction:-

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 3

13) Number of moles of K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium required to oxidise one mole of Cu3P to CuSO4 and
H3PO4 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

Calculate the correct increasing order of average oxidation number of sulphur in :

S8,S2O32–, S2O7–2, S4O6–2, SO3–2 :-

(1) S8 <

(2)
(3)
(4)

15) One mole of N2H4 loses 10 mol of electrons to form a new compound Y. Assuming that all
nitrogen appear in the new compound, what is the oxidation state of nitrogen in Y ? (There is no
change in the oxidation state of hydrogen)

(1) +3
(2) –3
(3) –1
(4) +5

16) Phosphorus of +3 oxidation state is present is the acid :-

(1) Orthophosphorus acid

(2) Orthophosphoric acid
(3) Pyrophosphoric acid
(4) Metaphosphoric acid
17) What volume of decinormal K2Cr2O7 solution would be needed to convert 1.19 g of tin to stannic
chloride in acidic medium (Atomic mass of Sn = 119)

(1) 200 mL
(2) 250 mL
(3) 300 mL
(4) 400 mL

18) The oxide, which cannot act as a reducing agent is

(1) CO2
(2) ClO2
(3) NO2
(4) SO2

19) Oxidation state of Fe in Fe3O4 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) If 6 × 10–3 mole K2Cr2O7 reacts completely with 9 × 10–3 mole of Xn+ to give and Cr3+, then
the value of n is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 5

21) The most electropositive element possesses the electronic configuration :

(1) [He]2s1
(2) [Ne]3s1
(3) [Xe]6s1
(4) [Xe]6s2

22) Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same group, the atomic numbers of elements placed above
and below Ag will be:

(1) 37, 67
(2) 29,79
(3) 39, 69
(4) 29, 65

23) Which of following is most Acidic in aqueous solution :-

(1) H2Te
(2) H2S
(3) H2Se
(4) H2O

24) A M+2 ion derived from a metal in the first transition series have 6 electrons in 3d-subshell.
Identify element M ?

(1) Cr
(2) Mn
(3) Fe
(4) Ni

25) The amount of energy released for the process X(g) + e– → X–(g) is minimum and maximum
respectively for
(a) F (b) Cl
(c) N (d) B
Correct answer is

(1) c & a
(2) d & b
(3) a & b
(4) c & b

26) M(g) → M+(g) + e–, ΔH = 100eV

M(g) → M2+(g) + 2e–, ΔH = 250eV
Which is incorrect statements

(1) I1 of M(g) is 100 eV

(2) I2 of M(g) is 150 eV
(3) I2 of M(g) is 250 eV
(4) None

27) The IUPAC symbol for element with atomic number 109 could be :

(1) Une
(2) Uns
(3) Uuq
(4) Uun

28) Which of the following graphs shows correct trends in the size of +3 ions of lanthanides ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Generally Greater is the nuclear charge, greater is the electron affinity.
(2) Neon has zero electron affinity.
(3) Electron affinity increases from fluorine to iodine in the group.
(4) Generally electron affinity of 3rd period is greater than 2nd period.

30) The decreasing order of the ionisation potential of the following element is :-

(1) Ne > Cl > P > S > Al > Mg

(2) Ne > Cl > P > S > Mg > Al
(3) Ne > Cl > S > P > Mg > Al
(4) Ne > Cl > S > P > Al > Mg

31)

Which of the following order is wrong?

(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 – Acidic

(2) Li < Be < B < C – (IE)1
(3) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O – Basic
(4) Li+ (g) < Na+(g) < K+(g) < Cs+(g) – Ionic radius

32) The correct values of ionization enthalpies (in kJ mol–1) of Si, P, Cl and S respectively are :-

(1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256

(2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
(3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999
(4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256

33) Atomic number of element E (E = Alkaline earth metal) is 56. What should be the formula of its
halide ?

(1) EX
(2) E2X
(3) EX2
(4) E2X3

34) The tendency to lose electron is maximum for the element :-

(1) Be
(2) B
(3) Rb
(4) Mg

35) Correct order of first ionisation potential of C, N, O, F :-

(1) C > N > O > F

(2) C < N < O < F
(3) F > N > O > C
(4) N > O > F > C

36) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) H+ is the smallest size cation in the periodic table

(2) Vander wall radius of chlorine is more than the covalent radius
(3) Ionic mobility of hydrated Li+ is greater than that of hydrated Na+
(4) He atom has highest ionisation enthalpy in the periodic table

37) Which of the following is the correct order of electronegativity.

(1) O > O+1 > O+2

(2) O–3 > O–1 > O–2
(3) MnO < MnO2
(4) CH4 > CF4

38) Find exothermic reaction :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4) O +
(g)

39) Select the correct order of radius :-

(1) Ti4+ < Mn7+

(2) Cr+6 > Cr3+
K⊕ >
(3)

(4) P3+ > P5+

40) If atomic number of an inert gas is Z then an element with which of the following atomic number
will have highest I.E. ?

(1) Z – 2
(2) Z – 1
(3) Z + 1
(4) Z + 2

41) Select equation having exothermic step :-

(i) S–(g) —→ S–2(g)
(ii) Na+(g) —→ Na(s)
(iii) N(g) —→ N–(g)
(iv) Al+2(g) —→ Al+3(g)
Choose the correct code :-

(1) (ii)
(2) (i), (ii)
(3) (iii) & (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

42) Number of electrons in penultimate shell of d-block elements :-

(1) 1 – 10
(2) 8 – 17
(3) 9 – 18
(4) 18 – 32

43) The correct order of relative basic character of NaOH, Mg(OH)2 and Al(OH)3 is –

(1) Al(OH)3 > Mg(OH)2 > NaOh

(2) Mg(OH)2 > NaOH > Al(OH)3
(3) NaOH > Mg(OH)2 > Al(OH)3
(4) Al(OH)3 > NaOH < Mg(OH)2

44) Lithium show abnormally close relationship with :-

(1) Na
(2) Mg
(3) H
(4) Al

45) In lithium atom, the shielding is due to :-

(1) 2s1 orbital

(2) 2s2 orbital
(3) 1s1 orbital
(4) 1s2 orbital

BIOLOGY

1) Identify the correct option for A, B, C regarding taxonomic categories of wheat.

Triticum → A → Poales → B → Angiosperm → C.

(1) A-aestivum, B-Dicotyledonae, C-Plantae

(2) A-Poaceae, B-Monocotyledonae, C-Plantae
(3) A-Monocotyledonae, B-aestivum, C-Dicotyledonae
(4) A-Polymoniales, B-Monocotyledonae, C-Plantae

2) The main criteria used by Whittaker are all except one:

(1) Phylogenetic relationships

(2) Mode of respiration
(3) Body organisation
(4) Cell structure

3) Choose the correct option with respect to given diagram :-

(1) Nostoc - Cyanobacteria, can fix N2

(2) Spirillum - Red algae with motile gamates
(3) Anabaena - Archaebacteria, Grow in polluted water
(4) Chara - Brown algae, gives agar
4) Choose true statement regarding classification:
(i) Aristotle used simple morphological characters to classify plants.
(ii) Aristotle classified plants into trees, shrubs and herbs.
(iii) Aristotle divided animals into three groups
(iv) Aristotle divided animals into two groups, those which has red blood and those that did not.
(v) Linnaeus developed three kingdom system of classification.

(1) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)

(2) (i), (iv) and (v)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

5)

How many statements are wrong for cyanobacteria?

(i) They are multicellular, colonial or filamentous, fresh water/marine or terrestrial algae.
(ii) The colonies are generally surrounded by gelatinous sheath.
(iii) They often form blooms in polluted water bodies.
(iv) Nostoc and Anabaena are included in this group.

(1) One
(2) Zero
(3) Three
(4) Four

6) Which of the following are responsible for the production of methane in the gut of several
ruminant animals :-

(1) Halophiles
(2) Thermoacidophiles
(3) E.Coli
(4) Methanogens

7) Consider the table given below and answer what are A, B and C:

Characters Monera Protista Fungi Plantae

Present
Cell wall Peptidoglycan A Cellulose
in some
Nuclear
B Present Present Present
Membrane
Body Tissue/
Cellular Cellular C
organisation Organ
(1) A: Peptidoglycan; B: Present; C: Cellular
(2) A: Chitin; B: Present; C: Loose Tissue
(3) A: Chitin; B: Absent; C: Loose Tissue
(4) A: Peptidoglycan; B: Absent; C: Cellular

8) Carl Woese divided monera into _______ domains:-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

9) In 5 kingdom classification of Whittaker eukaryotes were assigned to :-

(1) 3 of 5 kingdom
(2) 2 of 5 kingdom
(3) 4 of 5 kingdom
(4) All the 5 kingdom

10) A unicellular eukaryotic cell having cell wall was collected by a student from rain water. His
teacher grouped the organism in ___ kingdom according to linnaeus system and in___kingdom
according to whittaker's system.

(1) Animalia, monera

(2) Monera, plantae
(3) Plantae, protista
(4) Animalia, protista

11) Chlorella, Chlamydomonas and Paramoecium, Amoeba were earlier placed with plants and
animals respectively but after Whittaker's 5 kingdom classification, they should be brought together
in:-

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia

12) Assertion : Archaebacteria are special since they live in some of the most harsh habitats
Reason: Archaebacteria having a different cell wall structure and this feature is responsible for
their survival in extreme conditions.

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(3) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

13) Which of the following statement is/are correct with respect to Bacteria ?
(a) Bacteria are the sole members of the Kingdom Monera
(b) Bacteria occur almost everywhere
(c) Bacteria are the most abundant micro organism
(d) 80 S type of Ribosome are present in bacteria

(1) a & d
(2) b & d
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, c, d

14) Assertion : Cyanobacteria have chlorphyll 'a' similar to green plants and are photosynthetic
autotrophs.
Reason : Some of cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cells called heterocysts.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

15) Match the column I with column II :

Column I Column II
(Shape of bacteria) (Bacteria)

A P Bacili

B Q Coci

C R Vibrio

D S Spiral

(1) A : Q; B : P; C : S; D : R
(2) A : P; B : S; C : R; D : Q
(3) A : R; B : Q; C : P; D : S
(4) A : R; B : P; C : Q; D : S

16) Assertion : The mycoplasma are organisms that completely lack a cell wall.
Reason: They are the smallest living cells known and cannot survive without oxygen.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

17) Which of the following disease is caused by bacteria in plants?

(1) Cholera
(2) Typhoid
(3) Citrus canker
(4) Tetanus

18) Which of the following kingdom have members that are chemosynthetic autotroph?

(1) Plantae
(2) Monera
(3) Protista
(4) All of the above

19) Match the entities in Column I with in Column II.

Column I Column II

(A) Hominidae (i) Dog

(B) Muscidae (ii) Wheat

(C) Anacardiaceae (iii) Mango

(D) Poaceae (iv) House fly

(E) Canidae (v) Man

(1) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-i

(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv, E-v
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-i, E-ii
(4) A-v, B-iv, C-i, D-iii, E-ii

20) Assertion: Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic blue-green algae with prokaryotic structure.
Reason: They are green due to presence of chloroplasts.

(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and reason explains the assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but reason does not explain the assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true

21)

Consider the following statements about Mycoplasma :

(I) They have cell membrane
(II) Many mycoplasma are pathogenic in plants.
(III) Many mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I and II only
(2) II and III only
(3) I, II and III only
(4) I only
22)

Read the following statements regarding methanogens and select the correct option :-
(i) They are included in the group Archaebacteria
(ii) They are responsible for the production of biogas in gobar gas plants.
(iii) They live in marshy area.

(iv) They are present in dung of cattle.

(1) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct
(2) Statements (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(3) Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(4) All statements are correct

23) Hot spring contains which kind of archaebacteria?

(1) Thermoacidophiles
(2) Thermoalkalophiles
(3) Halophiles
(4) Methanogens

24) Which of the following features of living organisms is unique to human beings?

(1) Growth
(2) Metabolism
(3) Reproduction
(4) Self-consciousness

25) Statement-I : Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals are twin characteristics of
growth.
Statement-II : In majority of higher animals and plants, growth and reproduction are mutually
inclusive events.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

26) In the names Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum and Panthera leo, the words indica,
tuberosum and leo represent :-

(1) Generic name

(2) Generic epithet
(3) Name of genus
(4) Specific epithet

27) Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Linnaeus-
(1) Mangifera indica
(2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) mangifera indica
(4) Mangifera Indica.

28) Classes in plants with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called

(1) Phylum
(2) Division
(3) Order
(4) Family

29) Which taxon is related to mango?

(1) Sapindales
(2) Poaceae
(3) Monocotyledonae
(4) Triticum

30) Statement I : All organisms, including those in the plant and animal kingdoms have species as
the lowest category in taxonomic hierarchy.
Statement II : Taxonomic group/categories are distinct biological entities and not merely
morphological aggregates.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(4) Both statements I and II are correct

31)

If a cell has 2n number of chromosome in G1 phase. What is the number of chromosome in cell after
S-phase?

(1) n
(2) 4n
(3) 2n
(4) 8n

32)

M-phase in humans lasts for ________ of the total duration of cell cycle

(1) 90%
(2) 60%
(3) 96%
(4) <5%
33) Which of the following stage is characterised by the appearance of the sites at which crossing
over occurs ?

(1) Zygotene
(2) Leptotene
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Pachytene

34) Identify the given diagram (A - D) : - (A) (B)

(C) (D)

A B C D
(1) Meta phase-I Prophase -I Telophase -I Prophase - II
(2) Prophase-I Meta phase -I Meta phase Anaphase
(3) Prophase-I Meta phase Prophase Telophase
(4) Prophase-I Meta phase-I Prophase - II Telophase
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Morphology of chromosome can be best seen at:

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) G2 phase
(4) Telophase

36) The given figure shows a diagrammatic view of a stage of mitosis. Find the correct statement
for this stage :-

(1) Chromosome cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identify is lost as discrete elements
The homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their
(2)
centromeres
(3) Centromere split and chromatids separate and move to opposite poles
(4) Nucleolus, golgicomplex and ER reform.

37) Cytokinesis in animal cell takes place by

(1) Furrow formation in the plasma membrane

(2) Cell plate formation
(3) Formation of phragmoplast
(4) More than one is correct

38) Identify the following figure :-

(1) Early prophase

(2) Late prophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Telophase

39) Bivalents align at equator during :-

(1) Metaphase I of meiosis

(2) Anaphase I of meiosis
(3) Metaphase of mitosis
(4) Anaphase of mitosis

40)
Zygotene of prophase–I is chracterised by

(1) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

(2) Formation of synaptonemal complex
(3) Crossing over
(4) Terminalisation of chiasmata

41) How many chromosomes will the cell have in S, G2 and prophase if initially the number of
chromosomes in G1 is 14

(1) 7, 14, 14
(2) 14, 14, 14
(3) 14, 14, 7
(4) 7, 7, 14

42) Meiosis involves ______A_______ cycle(s) of DNA replication and ______B_______ cycle(s) of nuclear
division.
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks A and B.

(1) A - Single, B - Two

(2) A - Two, B - Two
(3) A - Two, B - Four
(4) A - Two, B - Single

43) The number of species that are known and described range between :-

(1) 2.7 to 2.8 Million

(2) 1.7 to 1.8 Million
(3) 2.7 to 2.8 Billion
(4) 1.7 to 1.8 Billion

44) Proteins required for spindle fibre formation are synthesized in.

(1) G1 phase
(2) S-phase
(3) G2 phase
(4) Early prophase

45) In which phase of meiosis spitting of centromere occur?

(1) Anaphase - I
(2) Metaphase - I
(3) Diplotene
(4) Anaphase - II
46)
This reaction takes place in which medium :-

(1) Acidic
(2) Basic
(3) Neutral
(4) Isoelectric point

47) _____ subunits of and _____ of together constitute the human

haemoglobin(Hb):-

(1) 2;4
(2) 2;2
(3) 4;2
(4) 4;4

48) Which of the following is a zwitterionic form.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

49) How many of the following statements [A-D] are correct :-

(A) Leucine & Valine are neutral amino acids
(B) Lysine & Arginine are basic amino acids
(C) Alanine is basic amino acid
(D) Tryptophan is the simplest amino acid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
50) Following structure is

(1) Deoxyribonucleoside
(2) Ribonucleotide
(3) Deoxribonucleoside
(4) Ribonucleoside

51) Which one out of A-D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino
acid ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

52) Which of the following describes the given graph correctly ?

(1) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(2) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.

53) A segment of dsDNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides
present in the segment is :

(1) 120
(2) 480
(3) 60
(4) 240

54) Which of the following is a protein ?

(1) Antibody
(2) GLUT-4
(3) Sensory receptors and collagen
(4) All of the above

55) An enzyme obtained from a plant source has been classified by enzyme commission and
allocated its unique four digit number 1.2.1.4. To which of the following class does it belong?

(1) Ligases
(2) Oxidoreductases
(3) Hydrolases
(4) Isomerases

56) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer Statement-A : A non-competitive
inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that to which substrate binds. Statement-B : The
competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate of breakdown of the enzyme-substrate complex

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

57) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase its presence will cause all of the
following except

(1) Increased Km
(2) Vmax unchanged.
(3) Binds to the active site of succinic dehydrogenase.
(4) Increase in Vmax.

58) Find out the correct match from the following table: -

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Intra molecular hydrogen

(i) α helix Keratin
bonding

Intra molecular hydrogen

(ii) β pleated sheet Fibroin
bonding

(iii) Haemoglobin Tertiary structure 2 Polypeptide chain

(1) i only
(2) i and ii only
(3) i, ii and iii
(4) iii only

59) A polypeptide made up of 5 amino acids. If molecular weight of one amino acid is 120 then what
will be the molecular weight of that polypeptide ?
(1) 480
(2) 426
(3) 462
(4) 528

60) Arrange the steps of catalytic action of an enzyme in order and select the correct option. I. The
enzyme release the products of the reaction and gets free
II. The active site of enzyme is in close proximity of the substrate and breaks the chemical bonds of
the substrate.
III. The binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape IV. The substrate binds to the
active site of the enzyme.

(1) IV, III, II, I

(2) II, IV, III, I
(3) I, IV, III, II
(4) III, II, I, IV

61) Which of the following group represents only essential amino acids?

(1) Alanine, Glutamine, Valine, Leucine

(2) Glycine, Histidine, Isoleucine, Serine
(3) Leucine, Lysine, Methionine, Threonine
(4) Proline, Tyrosine, Tryptophan, Aspartic acid

62) Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. enzymatic reactions.

(1) ES complex possibly shows highest potential energy in the enzymatic reaction.
In an enzymatic reaction, there could be many altered structural states between stable
(2)
substrate and the product.
(3) Proteins with three dimensional structure including active site can convert substrate to product.
(4) In a multistep biochemical reaction, all steps can be catalyzed by the same enzyme

63) Which one is correct ?

(1) E + S → ES → E + P → EP
(2) E + S → ES EP → E + P
(3) E + S ES E P E+P
(4) E + S ES → EP → E + P

64) Assertion (A): The reaction ultimately reaches a maximum velocity which is not exceeded by
any further rise in concentration of substrate.
Reason (R): Before saturation of the enzyme molecule, there are no free enzyme molecule to bind
with the additional substrate molecules.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A)
 Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but Reason (R) is not correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect

65) Select false statements for an enzyme promoting a chemical reaction by:
(i) Lowering the energy of activation.
(ii) Causing the release of heat always.
(iii) Increasing molecular motion.
(iv) Changing the free energy difference between substrate and product.

(1) (i) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

66) Choose correct response with respect to given equation:-

Carbon dioxide + water carbonic acid

(1) Carbonic anhydrase is enzyme required for accelerated reaction.

(2) In absence of enzyme, still this reaction is fast enough
(3) 200 molecules of H2CO3 being per hour formed by enzyme accelerated reaction.
(4) 600,000 molecules of H2CO3 being formed every second in absence of any enzyme.

67)

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC.
B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma.
C- Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the tissues
D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A

68) Choose correct statement :-

(1) Expiration is active process

(2) EICM, Diaphragm, IICM and abdominal muscle contract during forceful expiration
(3) Dead space do not participate in gaseous exchange
(4) Value of FRC is less than RV

69) A person suffers punctures in his chest cavity in an accident, without any damage to the lungs.
Its effect could be :
(1) Reduced breathing rate
(2) Cessation of breathing
(3) Rapid increase in breathing rate
(4) No change in respiration

70) How many organism in the list given below do respiration by general body surface.
Insects, Sponges, Flatworm, Fishes, Birds, Coeleterates, Reptiles

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

71) What are correct values of a, b, c, & d in the above diagram ?

(1) a-45, b-40 , c-40, d-95

(2) a-40, b-45 , c-95, d-40
(3) a-95, b-40 , c-95, d-45
(4) a-45, b-40 , c-95, d-40

72) Which is the correct sequence of steps in respiration

(a) Transport of gases by the blood
(b) Pulmonary ventilation
(c) Cellular respiration
(d) Diffusion of gases between blood & tissues
(e) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane.

(1) b → e → a → d → c
(2) b → a → e → c → d
(3) b → d → a → e → a
(4) b → e → d → a → c

73) During one circuit of blood from lungs to the tissues and back through circulatory system, the
percentage of haemoglobin giving up its oxygen to tissues is

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

74)

Mark the incorrect statement

(1) Respiratory center are found in medulla oblongata

(2) Near lungs Cl- move out of the RBC
(3) RBCs of deoxygenated blood are slightly bigger than that of oxygenated blood
(4) Haemoglobin become oxidised when it binds with Oxygen.

75)

(A) inspiratory capacity

(B) expiratorycapacity
(C) functional residual capacity

Choose the correct option for A , B and C

(1) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+IRV,C–ERV+RV
(2) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+ERV,C–TV+IRV
(3) A–TV+IRV,B–TV+ERV,C–ERV+RV
(4) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+IRV,C–ERV+RV+TV

76)

How many factors in the list given below does not favours the dissociation of O2 from HbO2 ?
pO2↓, pO2 , H+ concentration , temperature ,

CO2 , CO2↓ ,pH , pH↓

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three

77) Read the following four (a-d) statements.

(a) The partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in atmosphere air is 1.59 mmHg and 0.3 mmHg respectively.
(b) The total thickness of diffusion membrane is much more than a millimetre.
(c) Solubity of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than that of O2
(d) The partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in oxygenated blood is 95 mmHg and 40 mmHg respectively.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

78) Which of the following would have same CO2 content ?

(1) Blood entering the lungs and leaving the lungs

(2) Blood entering in tissue and leaving the tissue
(3) Blood entering right side and leaving left side of heart
(4) Blood entering right side of the heart and leaving right side of the heart

79)

Which points are incorrect during inspiration?

(A) Intrapulmonary pressure is higher than the atmospheric pressure
(B) Contraction in diaphragm and external inter costal muscles
(C) Increase in the thoracic volume
(D) Air move from outside to lungs

(E) Pressure over lungs increases

(1) A, C
(2) B, C
(3) A, E
(4) C, E

80) Read the following statements.

(a) High H⊕ concentration and higher temperature are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from
oxyhaemoglobin .
(b) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is higher than in Tissue.
(c) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is vital capacity
(d) In alveoli PCO2 low and PO2 high are for dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-haemoglobin.
How many statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

81) If total O2 transported by blood from lungs to cell in a minute is 500 ml. Then the volume of O2
transported by blood found dissolved in plasma is

(1) 970 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 1000 ml
(4) 30 ml

82) Identify A,B and C in the given diagram and choose the correct option accordingly :-
(1) A-Alveolar cavity, B-WBC, C-Capillary wall
(2) A-Alveolar cavity, B-RBC, C-Alveolar wall
(3) A-Alveolar cavity, B-RBC, C-Basement substance
(4) A-Alveolar cavity, B-WBC, C-Systemic wall

83) Oxygen (O2) is utilised by an organism to –

(1) Directly breakdown the nutrient molecules

(2) Indirectly breakdown the nutrient molecules
(3) Obtain nourishment from the food
(4) Burn the organic compounds indirectly

84) In the given diagrarm, what A, B and C depicts ?

A- Air goes inside to lungs, B-Ribs and sternum returned to original position, C-Diaphragm
(1)
contracted
A-air expelled from lungs, B-Ribs and sternum returned to original position, C-Diaphragm
(2)
relaxed and arched upward
A-Air expelled from lungs, B-Ribs and sternum goes upward, C-Diaphragm relaxed and arched
(3)
upward
A-Air goes inside to lungs, B-Ribs and sternum goes upward, C-Diaphragm relaxed and arched
(4)
upward

85) Identify the wrong differences between inspiration, and expiration :-

Inspiration Expiration
(a) EICM Contract Relax
Size of
(b) thoracic Decreases Increases
cavity
Shape of Dome
(c) Flat
Diaphragm shaped
Movement Atmosphere Lungs to
(d)
of Air to lungs atmosphere
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) b, d
(4) c, d

86)

Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column I Column II Column III

(i) At tissue level pO2 = 40 mm Hg pCO2 = 45 mm Hg

(ii) In pulmonary vein pO2 = 95 mm Hg pCO2 = 50 mm Hg

(iii) In systemic artery pO2 = 40 mm Hg pCO2 = 40 mm Hg

(iv) In alveoli pO2 = 104 mm Hg pCO2 = 40 mm Hg

(1) Both (i) and (ii)
(2) Both (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) Both (i) and (iv)

87) Read the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only:-
(a) Exchange of O2 & CO2 at the alveoli and tissues occur by active transport
(b) Long exposure to industrial dust leads to inflammation leading to fibrosis and thus causing
serious lung damage
(c) EICM & IICM are muscles actively involved in normal and forced inspiration respectively
(d) Spirometer is unable to find out the functional residual capacity and total lung capacity
Options :-

(1) Statements b,c & d

(2) Statements b & d only
(3) Statement a,b & d
(4) Statements a,b,c &d

88) Which of the following option gives the correct categorisation of animals according to the type of
respiratory structures.

Tracheal tubes Gills Lungs

 Sponge, coelentrates
(1) Insects Tadpoles
flat worms
Aquatic arthropods, Reptiles, Aves,
(2) Insects
pisces Mammals
Aquatic arthropods
(3) Earthworm and frog Insects
pisces
(4) Earthworm and frog Insect Amphibia
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

89)
What will be partial pressure of oxygen at sites A, B, C and D ?

A B C D
(1) 40 104 95 40
(2) 95 40 104 40
(3) 40 95 104 40
(4) 104 95 40 40
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90)

Read the following statements :

(A) It is a chronic disorder.
(B) Major cause of it is cigarette smoking.
(C) It is an allergy.
(D) Alveolar walls are damaged.
(E) Due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
(F) Respirator surface is decreased.
How many points are correct about Emphysema.
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 2 1 2 3 1 2 4 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 2 1 2 2 1 3 1 1 1 4 3 1 1 2 1 1 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 2 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 1 4 4 2 1 3 4 1 3 2 1 1 1 1 4 1 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 1 3 4 3 1 2 3 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 3 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 1 3 2 4 3 2 3 3 2 4 3 2 1 4 3 2 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 1 4 1 4 2 2 1 4 3 4 4 4 2 3 1 2 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 2 3 4 2 2 2 2 2 4 4 2 4 2 3 4 1 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 4 3 3 1 1 3 2 1 2 1 1 4 3 4 4 4 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 2 2 2 4 2 2 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Option (3) is correct

2)

Option (3) is correct

3)

Option (2) is correct

4)

Option (1) is correct

5)

Option (2) is correct

6)

Option (3) is correct

7)

Option (1) is correct

8)

Option (2) is correct

9)

Option (4) is correct

10)

Option (3) is correct

11)

Option (2) is correct

12)

Option (3) is correct

13)

Option (3) is correct

14)

Option (4) is correct

15)

S = 2t3

V= = 6t2

at = = 12t
At t = 2 ; at = 24
At t = 2 ; V = 24

∴ ac = = 48

16)

v = 6 ms-1
6 = 0 + 9t

17)

Option (2) is correct

18)

Option (4) is correct

19)

a = Rt
20)

21) x = 4 + 16t – 8t2

at t = 0 x = 4
at t = 2 x = 4
xi = xf
⇒ displacement is zero
we need to check for distance
at t = 1 x = 12m
So,
t = 0, x = 4

t = 2, x = 4
total distance = 8 + 8 = 16 m

22) In question it is clearly written that "definitely return". Since scaling is not done, in all the
cases we can find atleast a situation in which the particle can not return to its initial position.

23)

As t = x2 + x ⇒ dt/dx = 2x + 1
⇒ v = (2x + 1)–1 … (i)
[as dx/dt = v], Now by chain rule

⇒ a = (2x + 1)–1 (2x + 1)–1

–3
= – 2 (2x + 1)
So, Retardation = – a = 2 (2x + 1)–3

24) Given x = 36t

and 2y = 96t – 9.8t2
or y = 48t – 4.9 t2 …(i)
Let the initial velocity of projectile be u and angle of projection is θ. Then,
Initial horizontal component of velocity,

ux = u cos θ = = 48
or u sin θ = 48 …(ii)
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get

∴ tan θ =

sin θ = or θ = sin–1

25)

15 = 2u – ; u= m/s

26)

v = 3x2 – 2x

∴ a = (3x2 – 2x) (6x – 2)

at x = 2 m, a = [3(2)2 – (2)] [6 × 2 – 2]
∴ a = (12 – 4) (10) = 80 m/s2

27)

Velocity acquired by body in 10 sec.

v = 0 + 2 × 10 = 20 m/s and distance travelled by it in 10 sec.

S1 =
then it moves with constant velocity (20 m/s) for 30 sec. S2 = 20 × 30 = 600m.
After that due to retardation (4 m/s2)

It stops S3 =
Total distance travelled S1 + S2 + S3 = 750 m

28)
V2 – 900 = 350
29) Particle is speeding up if sign of v and a are same.

30)

t = 30 second

31)

32) Hmax is same for all

Time of hight will be same
R = T × ux
R4 > R3 > R2 > R1

33) Second law of motion gives

s = ut + gt2
or h = 0 + gt2 (∵ u = 0)

∴ T=

At t = sec,

s=0+ ⇒ s=

⇒ s =

∴ s= m
Hence, the position of ball from the ground

=h–

34) For angle of elevation of 60º, we have maximum height h1 =

For angle of elevation of 30º, we have maximum height

h2 = ⇒

35) Height ascended by balloon in 2 s:

Velocity of balloon after 2 s:
v1 = 5 × 2 = 10 m/s
This will also be the velocity of ball when released from balloon. So further maximum height
ascended by ball

Total height s = s1 + s2 = 10 + 5 = 15 m

36) Let speed of elevator be ve.

Let speed of person relative to elevator be vp, then

when the escalator is moving:

37) Slope of velocities = vy/vx = tanθ

tanθ1 = gt/u1 tanθ2 = gt/(–u2)
for perpendicularity tanθ1 × tanθ2 = – 1

⇒ =–1⇒t=

38)

aCB → aCoin w. r. t. car B

aCB = aCa – aBa
= (–g) – (a2)
= – (g + a2) Or
(g + a2) downwords.

39)
Hence units
40)

41)

42)
v2 = 169 – 8x
Comparing with v2 = u2 + 2as
u = 13 m/s and a = –4 m/s2

43)

44)

45)

∴ ........... (1)

∴ ........... (2)
From equation (1) & (2)
U = 5 m/s
CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

48)

49)
∴ v.f ( n-factor) = 8

therefore Ew =

50)

Cr(OH)3 + 5OH– → CrO42– + 4H2O + 3e–] × 2

ClO– + H2O + 2e– → Cl– + 2OH–] × 3
2Cr(OH)3 + 4OH– + 3ClO– → 2CrO42– + 5H2O + 3Cl

51)

3 × (8H+ + MnO4– + 5e– —→ Mn2+ + 4H2O)

5 × (FeC2O4 —→ Fe3+ + 2CO2 + 3e–)
3MnO4– + 5FeC2O4 + 24H+ → 3Mn2+ + 5Fe3+ + 10CO2 + 12H2O
5 mol FeC2O4 requires 3 mol MnO4–

2 mol FeC2O4 requires =

52) [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4
x + (0 × 5) + 1 – 2 = 0
⇒ x = +1

53)

Given :
The compound is CaloCl), which contains calcium (Ca), oxygen (O), and chlorine (CI).
 Concept : → Oxidation
Analysis
• Oxidation state of Ca :
Calcium (Ca) typically has an oxidation state of + 2.

Oxidation state of O :

Oxygen in the hypochlorite ion (OCl) typically has an oxidation state of – 2.

Oxidation state of Cl :

In the hypochlorite ion (CCI), chlorine (Cl) has an oxidation state of + 1.

In the chloride ion (Cl), chlorine (Cl) has an oxidation state of – 1.
In Ca(OCl)2, there is both Cl in +1 oxidation state (as part of OCl–) and Cl in – 1 oxidation state
(as part of chloride ion).

The compound contains both hypochlorite ions (OCI) with chlorine in the + 1 oxidation state
and chloride ions (Cl–) with chlorine in the – 1 oxidation state.
Final Answer : (3) + 1 and – 1

54)

Question explanation: To determine oxidation state of 'S' in Na2S4O6

Given data: given compound "Na2S4O6"

O.S. of 'S' ⇒ +5, 0, 0, +5

Final answer: option (4)

55)
n-factor = 4

n-factor = 4
geq. of SnC2O4 = geq. of KMnO4

1 mole × 4 = x mole × 5 ; x =
geq. of Sn(C2O4)2 = geq. of KMnO4

1 mole × 4 = y mole × 5 ; y =
x:y=1:1

56)
H2O + → + 2H+ + X
X = 2e–

57)

MnO4– + 5Fe+2 +8H+ → Mn+2 + 5Fe+3 + 4H2O

58)
n factor of Cu3P = (3×1) + (1×8) = 11
gram eq of Cu3P = gram eq of K2Cr2O7

1 × 11 = Mole × 6

59)

S8 (ON = 0)
(ON of S = +2)
(ON of S = +6)
(ON. of S = +2.5)
(ON. of S = +4)

60) 1. Explaining Question:

The question describes a reaction where one mole of N2H2 (hydrazine) loses 10 moles of
electrons. It asks for the oxidation state of nitrogen in the new compound Y formed after the
loss of electrons.

2. Concept:
Oxidation is the loss of electrons, resulting in an increase in oxidation number. The oxidation
state of hydrogen remains constant at +1 in most compounds.

3. Solution:
In N2H4, the oxidation state of nitrogen (N) is -2.
The total negative charge from 4 H atoms is -4. Since the molecule is neutral, the 2 N atoms
must have a total positive charge of +4, so each N atom has a charge of +2.
When N2H2 loses 10 electrons, each nitrogen atom loses 5 electrons.
Therefore, the new oxidation state of nitrogen is:
–2 + 5 = +3
4. Final Answer: (1) +3

61)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 260, Part-II, First Edition 2006

62) No. of gm eq. of K2Cr2O7 = No. of gm eq. of Sn

V = 0.4 L = 400 ml

63) Since carbon is in its maximum oxidation state of +4, therefore, carbon dioxide (CO2)
cannot act as a reducing agent.

64) Fe3O4 : 3x + 4(–2) = 0 ⇒ x = +

65) gram equivalent of K2Cr2O7 = gram equivalent of Xn+

(6 × 10–3) × 6 = (5–n) × 9 × 10–3
5–n=4
n=1

66) Alkali metal [Xe]6s1 is the most electropositive element in the periodic table.

67) Z = 103 is an actinide

68)

Acidic nature of hydrides increases down the group in p-block

so H2Te will be most acidic among given options.

69) 26Fe = [Ar]183d64s2

+2
26Fe = [Ar]183d64so

70) Nitrogen and Chlorine

71) I2 of M(g) is 250 Ev

72) Z = 109 = Unnilennium [Une]

73) Asking for: Which of the following graphs shows correct trends in the size of +3 ions of
lanthanides
Concept: Lanthanide contraction, ionic radii, periodic trends.
Formula: N/A, but understanding the concept of lanthanide contraction.
Solution/Explanation:
1. Lanthanides: The lanthanide series consists of elements from lanthanum (La) to lutetium
(Lu).
2. Lanthanide Contraction: As we move across the lanthanide series, the effective nuclear
charge increases due to the poor shielding of 4f electrons. This leads to a gradual decrease in
the ionic radii of the L n^ 3- ions.
3. Trend: The size of L n3+ ions decreases from L a3+ Lu3+
4. Correct Graph: The graph that shows a gradual decrease in ionic size from La3+ to is the
correct representation. Ln3+
Analyzing the Options:
• Option 1: Shows an increase in ionic size, which is incorrect.
• Option 2: Shows a decrease in ionic size, which is correct.
• Option 3: Shows a linear increase in ionic size, which is incorrect,
• Option 4: Shows a V-shaped trend, which is incorrect.
Therefore, the correct graph is the one that shows a gradual decrease in ionic size from La to
Lu
Answer:
Option: 2
.

74) NCERT Pg # 91
Cl > F > Br > I > At
ΔegH –349 –328 –325 –295 –270
Kj mol–1

75)

NCERT Pg # 88, 89

76)

77) Order of IE
Si < P > S < Cl
2 2 2 3 2 4
3s 3p 3s 3p 3s 3p 3s23p5

78)

E, Z = 56 (IIA element)
∴ 2 valence e–
 79) Answer - Option(3)
Explanation - Let's go step-by-step to determine which element has the maximum tendency to
lose electrons.
Concept - Rubidium (Rb), being an Alkali metal in Group 1, has the lowest ionization energy of
all the elements listed. This means it has the maximum tendency to lose an electron.

80)
IP ⇒ F > N > O > C
NCERT - XI, Part-I, Page No. 88, Edition 20-21, figure 3.6

81)

Ionic mobility of hydrated alkali metal ions are as

82)

Explaining : electronegativity
Concept : This question is based on electronegativity.

Solution :
Final Answer : (3)

83) Answer - Option(3)

Explanation - To identify the exothermic reaction, we need to consider the energy changes
associated with electron gain (electron affinity). A reaction is exothermic if energy is released
when electrons are added to an atom or ion.
Concept - F(g)- → F(g) + e- :

A. This reaction represents the removal of an electron from F-F-F-, which is the reverse of
electron affinity.
B. It is highly endothermic because fluorine already has a stable F-F-F- ion, and removing an
electron requires a significant amount of energy.

Be(g) + e- → Be(g):

A. Beryllium is an alkaline earth metal with a stable electron configuration. Adding an electron to
form Be-Be-Be- is endothermic because it disrupts the stable configuration.

O(g) + e → O(g):

A. Oxygen has a high electron affinity because it is in Group 16. Adding one electron to form O
releases energy. This reaction is exothermic.
O(g) + 2e- O(g)2-

A. Adding the first electron to oxygen is exothermic, but adding a second electron to the
negatively charge O- ion is endothermic because of electron-electron repulsion.

84)

Zeff Size

85) Explanation :- The question asks which element, relative to an inert gas (noble gas) with
atomic number Z, will have the highest ionization energy (L.E.).
Concept- :- Inert gases (Z) have full shells, high I.E. Z-1 is a halogen, one electron short of a
full shell, thus also has a very high I.E. Z-2, Z+1, and Z+2 are further from the noble gas
configuration, having lower I.E. Therefore, Z-1 has the highest ionization energy.
Answer -2 (Z – 1)

86)

87) For d-block

88)

Explain Question : Identify the correct order of basic character

Concept : This question is based on Basic nature.

Solution :
NaOH – Strong base
Mg(OH)2 – Moderately basic
Al(OH)3 – Amphoteric ; Order – NaOH > Mg(OH)2 > Al(OH)3

Final Answer : option (3)

89) Li show diagonal relationship in properties with magnesium.

90) Answer - Option(4 )

Explanation - In this question we have to find the correct option for the given statement
Concept - In the lithium atom (Z=3), the electronic configuration is 1s2, 2s1.
The screening effect (or shielding effect) experienced by the valence electron (2s1) is caused
by the inner electrons that reduce the effective nuclear charge felt by the outermost electron.
BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT XI,Pg#11

92)

Question Explanation : Which of the given criteria was not used by Whittaker.

Concept : Mode of respiration was not used as criteria.

Solution :
• Cell structure.
Body organization.
Phylogenetic nelationships.
Used as criteria. (were)
• Mode of respiration was not used by whittaker.
So, the correct option is (2)

Final Answer : option (2)

93)

NCERT XI Pg. # 19, Para No. # 2.1.2

94)

NCERT XI,Pg#12

95)

NCERT-XIth, Pg # 16

96) NCERT (XI) Pg # 19

97)

Module No.1, Pg # 18

98)

NCERT XI,Pg#11

99)
NCERT Pg # 17

100)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17

101)

NCERT XI,Pg#11

102)

NCERT XI,Pg#13

103)

NCERT XI,Pg#13

104)

NCERT XI,Pg#13

105) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 12

106)

NCERT XI,Pg#14

107)

NCERT XI,Pg#14

108)

NCERT XI,Pg#13

109)

NCERT XI,Pg#8

110)

NCERT XI,Pg#13
111) NCERT XI Pg.# 20

112) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 19, Para-2.1.1

113)

NCERT XI,Pg#13

114) Only human beings show self-consciousness.

115)

NCERT Pg. # 4

116)

NCERT Pg. # 9

117)

Module

118)

NCERT XI,Pg#8

119) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 5

120)

NCERT XI,Pg#6

121)

SOLUTION—

If a cell has 2n number of chromosomes in the G1 phase, the number of chromosomes in the
cell after the S-phase will remain 2n. During the S phase, DNA replication occurs, which
results in the duplication of the DNA content, but the chromosome number does not change

The correct answer is: OPTION(3) 2n

122)

NCERT Pg. # 163

 123)

SOLUTION—

The stage characterized by the appearance of the sites at which crossing over occurs is
Pachytene.

The correct answer is:OPTION(4)Pachytene

124)

NCERT XIth Pg. # 166, 169, 170

125)

NCERT Pg. # 165

126) Explanation

A. This describes anaphase, a stage of mitosis.

During anaphase, the centromere splits, and the sister chromatids are pulled toward opposite poles
of the cell. This is the defining feature of anaphase.

Correct Answer 3 ✔ Centromere split and chromatids separate and move to opposite poles

127)

SOLUTION —
The cleavage furrow forms as the actin filaments contract, pinching the cell membrane and
eventually splitting the cell into two daughter cells.

The correct answer is: OPTION(1) Furrow in the plasma membrane

128)

Correct answer is option 2 Late prophase.

Given figure represent a cell with diad chromosome surrounding nuclear envelop, cell orgenell
like golgi body ,endoplasmic reticulum are disappeared
On the behalf of above characteristics cell is showing Late prophase stage of mitosis.

129) NCERT XI Pg # 168, 10.4.1

130)

NCERT XI, Pg#126

131)

NCERT XI, Pg#121

132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 125

133) NCERT XI, Pg.# 6

134)

The proteins required for spindle fiber formation (such as tubulin) are synthesized during the
G2 phase of the cell cycle. During this phase, the cell prepares for mitosis by synthesizing the
necessary proteins and structures, including those needed to form the spindle apparatus.
• G1 phase: Cell grows and prepares for DNA replication but does not yet synthesize spindle
fibers.
• S-phase: DNA replication occurs, but spindle fiber proteins are not primarily synthesized
here.
• G2 phase: This is when the cell prepares for mitosis, including the synthesis of proteins
needed for spindle fiber formation.
• Early prophase: Chromosomes condense, but spindle fibers are not fully formed yet.
Final Answer:
Option 3: G2 phase.

135)

In meiosis, the splitting of the centromere occurs during Anaphase II. This is when the sister
chromatids, which were held together by the centromere, separate and move towards opposite
poles of the cell.

136) NCERT Pg. # 144

137) [Pg- 150,M]

138) [Pg - 144, E]

139)

Explaining the Question: Correct statement

Concept: Amino acid

Solution: → Leucine and valine neutral amino acid

→ Lisine and Arginine are basic amino acid.

Final Answer: Option_2
140) Concept :
• Nucleotide : A molecule consisting of a nitrogenous base, a sugar (ribose or deoxyribose),
and a phosphate group.

Explanation :
1. Ribonucleoside : This is a nucleoside containing ribose.

141) Allen module

142)

NCERT_2024-25_Pg.#116

143)

NCERT XI, Pg # 147

144)

All of the above

145) Question Explanation: Enzyme Name 1.2.1.4.

Concept : This question is based on Enzyme - Class
Solution :
1.2.1.4 → Oxidoreductases Class.
Final Answer : option (2)

146) Question Explanation: Statements - Inhibitor.

Concept : This question is based on Enzyme → Inhibiting factors.
Solution :
Statement I → Non Competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that to which
substrate binds → Correct
→ Competitive inhibitor affects breakdown of enzyme - substrate.
Final Answer : option (3)

147) NCERT Page no. 117

148)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 112

149)

Explaining the Question: One amino acid = 120 molecular weight of polypeptide chain

Concept: Polypeptide chain → Protein

Solution:

→ 1 Amino acid = 120

5 Amino acid = 120 × 5 = 600

approx. → 528
Final Answer: Option_4

150) Question Explanation:

Correct steps.

Concept:
This question is based on Enzyme- working

Solution:
(A) → Substrate binds at active site
(B) Binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape
(C) Breaking of chemical bonds of substrate
(D) Releasing of product

Hence,
Correct option: (1) IV, III, II, I

151)

The correct answer is option3: Leucine, Lysine, Methionine, Threonine

Correct option: (3)

152)

NCERT_2024-25_Page #_114, 115

153)

NCERT XI Pg # 156

154) NCERT XI, Page # 115

155) Enzymes are biological molecules (proteins) that act as catalysts and help complex
reactions occur. Enzymes bind temporarily to one or more of the reactants the substrate(s) of
the reaction they catalyse by lowering the amount of activation energy needed and thus speed
up the reaction.

156) [Pg- 155,E]

 157)

A. Question: Identify the correct statements regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood.
B. Given Data: Four statements (A, B, C, and D) about CO2 transport are provided.
C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of the physiological mechanisms of carbon dioxide
transport in the blood.
D. Explanation:

A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC: This is correct. Red

blood cells (RBCs) contain a high concentration of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is
crucial for the rapid conversion of CO2 and water into bicarbonate ions (HCO3–) and protons
(H+). This facilitates the transport of CO2.
​ B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma: This is also correct.
While the majority of carbonic anhydrase is in RBCs, small amounts are also present in
plasma, contributing to CO2 conversion there as well, though to a lesser extent.
C- Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO 2 to the tissues: This is
incorrect. 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the lungs (not
tissues). The tissues produce CO2, which is then picked up by the blood.
D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin: This is correct.
About 20-25% of CO2 binds to hemoglobin, forming carbaminohaemoglobin. This is one of the
ways CO2 is transported in the blood.
E. Final Answer: The correct answer is 1: A, B and D.

158)

A. Question: Identify the correct statement about respiration.

B. Given Data: Four statements regarding the mechanics and properties of respiration are
provided.
C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of respiratory physiology and lung volumes.
D. Explanation:

1. Expiration is an active process: While normal expiration is a passive process (due to the
elastic recoil of the lungs and chest wall), forceful expiration is indeed an active process
involving the contraction of certain muscles. So, this statement is partially correct, depending
on context.

2. EICM, Diaphragm, IICM and abdominal muscle contract during forceful expiration: This
statement is incorrect. During forceful expiration, the internal intercostal muscles (IICM) and
abdominal muscles contract to actively push air out of the lungs. The diaphragm relaxes and moves
upward. EICM (external intercostal muscles) are involved in inspiration, not forceful expiration. 3.
Dead space does not participate in gaseous exchange: This statement is correct. Dead space
refers to the portions of the respiratory tract (like the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles) where air is
present but no gas exchange occurs. These areas are primarily for conducting air to the alveoli. 4.
Value of FRC is less than RV: This statement is incorrect. FRC (Functional Residual Capacity) is
the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal exhalation. RV (Residual Volume) is the
volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal exhalation. Therefore, RV is always a
component of FRC, and FRC will always be greater than RV. FRC = ERV + RV
E. Final Answer: The correct answer is 3: Dead space does not participate in gaseous exchange.

159) NCERT XI Pg. # 275

160) NCERT Pg. # 268, Para 2

161) NCERT – XI, Pg. #273

162) NCERT # XI, Pg. 270

163) NCERT XI Page # 189

Hint :- Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues under
normal physiological conditions.

164)

165) NCERT XI, Page # 272, para-2,3,4

166) NCERT XI, Page # 274, para-2

167) Pg. No. 188 XI-NCERT

168) NCERT XI, Page # 273

169) NCERT XI, Page # 271

170)

(a) High H⊕ concentration and higher temperature are favourable for dissociation of oxygen
from oxyhaemoglobin. Correct. This describes the Bohr effect. Increased H+ concentration
(lower pH) and higher temperature both decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen,
causing it to release oxygen more readily. This is important in metabolically active tissues
where these conditions prevail.
(b) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is higher than in Tissue. Correct. The alveoli are where
oxygen is loaded into the blood. For oxygen to diffuse from the alveoli into the blood and then
to the tissues, the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) in the alveoli must be higher than in the
tissues. This pressure gradient drives oxygen transport.
(c) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is vital
capacity. Correct. Vital capacity (VC) is the total volume of air a person can exhale after a
maximal inhalation. It represents the total exchangeable air in the lungs.
(d) In alveoli PCO2 low and PO2 high are for dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-haemoglobin.
Correct. In the alveoli, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) is low, and the partial
pressure of oxygen (PO 2 ) is high. These conditions favor the release of CO 2 from
carbaminohemoglobin (hemoglobin bound to CO2) and the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin.
 171) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 274

172)

Option (3) is correct

173) NCERT Page no. 268

174)

Explain Question: Identify breathing phase and structures A, B, C involved in thoracic

volume change

Concept: Breathing Mechanism

Solution: The correct answer is option 2.

Diagram Analysis:
Volume of thorax is decreased, indicating expiration.

A. A – Arrow shows air moving out ⇒ air expelled from lungs

B. B – Ribs and sternum returned to resting position
C. C – Diaphragm is relaxed and arched upward

Final Answer : Option (2)

175)

NCERT PAGE NO. 185, 186

176) NCERT XI Pg.# 272

177) NCERT XIth Pg # 276

178) NCERT Pg. # 268, Para 2

179) NCERT XI- Pg. # 273

180)

NCERT Pg. No 190