11-06-2025

2302CMD303031250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) If the unit of length and force be increased four times, then the unit of energy is :

(1) Increased 4 times

(2) Increased 8 times
(3) Increased 16 times
(4) Decreased 16 times

2) In a certain system, the units of length, mass and time are chosen to be 1 cm, 100 g and 10 s. The
unit of kinetic energy will be

(1) 0.1 erg

(2) 1 erg
(3) 10 erg
(4) None of these

3) Light year is a unit of :-

(1) Time
(2) Mass
(3) Distance
(4) Energy

4) Which physical quantities have same dimensions :-

(1) Force and power

(2) Torque and energy
(3) Torque and power
(4) Force and Torque

5) If area (A), velocity (v) and denisty (ρ) are taken as fundamental units, what is the dimensional
formula for force?

(1) [Av2ρ]
(2) [A2 vρ]
(3) [Avρ2]
(4) [Avρ]

6) The equation of a wave is given by :

where ω is angular velocity and v is the linear velocity. The dimension of K is

(1) [LT]
(2) [T]
(3) [T–1]
(4) [T2]

7) The function f is given by f = Asinαx + Bcosβt, where x is displacement and t is time. The

dimension of is :-

0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
0
(2) [M1L T–1]
0
(3) [M L–1T]
0
(4) [M L1T–1]

8) A student measures the resistance R1 = 10 ± 1Ω and R2 = 20 ± 0.5 Ω. What is the range of value
of resistance obtained when they are connected in parallel ?

(1)

(2)

(3) 30 ± 1.5 Ω
30 ±
(4)

9)

A physical quantity A is related to 4 observations a, b, c and d as follows. A = . The percentage

error of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 2% and 2% respectively. What is the percentage
error in the quantity A.

(1) 12%
(2) 7%
(3) 5%
(4) 14%

10) The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are:-

(1) 4, 4, 2
(2) 5, 1, 2
(3) 5, 1, 5
(4) 5, 5, 2
11) For the pitch of a screw gauge 0.1 cm and 200 divisions on circular scale. The least count will be
:-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.005 mm
(4) 0.0005 mm

12) A vernier calliper has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisios on the vernier scale
which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this vernier calliper, the least count is :-

(1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.05 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

13) body travels uniformly a distance of (13.8±0.2) m in a time (4.0±0.3) s. The velocity of the body
within error limets is :-

(1) (3.45 ± 0.2)m s–1

(2) (3.45 ± 0.3)m s–1
(3) (3.45 ± 0.4)m s–1
(4) (3.45 ± 0.5)m s–1

14) A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The
pitch of the screw gauge is :

(1) 1.0 mm
(2) 0.01 mm
(3) 0.25 mm
(4) 0.5 mm

15) What is the reading of micrometer screw gauge shown in figure

(1) 2.30 mm
(2) 2.29 mm
(3) 2.36 mm
(4) 2.41 mm

16) In a vernier calliper, N divisions of vernier scale coincide with (N – 1) divisions of main scale (in
which 1 division represents 1mm). The least count of the instrument in cm. should be
(1) N

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A gas bubble from an explosion under water oscillates with a period proportional of PadbEc where
P is the static pressure, d is the density of water and E is the energy of explosion. Then a, b and c
are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1, 1, 1

18) Find the value of time at which velocity is zero. Displacement as a function of time is given as x

= – 3t2 + 9t + 4

(1) 3 sec
(2) 6 sec
(3) 9 sec
(4) 0

19) A particle is moving towards East with a velocity 10 m/s. In 10 seconds the velocity changes to
10 m/s. Northwards. The average acceleration during this period is :-

(1) m/sec2 along North-East direction

(2) m/sec2 along North-West direction

(3)
m/sec2 along North-East direction

(4)
m/sec2 along North-West direction

20) Let and denote the velocity and acceleration respectively of a body in one-dimensional
motion

(1) must decrease when <0

(2) speed must increase when >0
(3) speed will increase when both < 0 and >0
(4) speed will decrease when < 0 and >0
21) A car moves form A to B with a uniform speed v1 and returns to A with a uniform speed v2. The
average speed for this round trip is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A person first goes m in East direction. Then after he goes 10 m in north direction and
finally he goes m 60° south of west. Net displacement of person will be :-

(1) 20 m, in north
(2) 10 m, in north
(3) 20 m, in south
(4) 10 m, in south

23) A particle moves in straight line in same direction for 20 seconds with velocity 3 m/s and then
moves with velocity 4 m/s for another 20 sec and finally moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20
seconds. What is the average velocity of the particle ?

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) Zero

24) The length of a seconds hand in a watch is 1cm. Magnitude of change in velocity of its tip in 15
second is :

(1) 0 cm/sec

(2)
cm/sec

(3)
cm/sec

(4)
cm/sec

25) A particle starts its motion from (2,0) to (20,0) & finally reaches to (–25,0). Find the magnitude
of displacement :- [All values are in cm]

(1) 25cm
(2) 27cm
(3) 23cm
(4) 29cm
26) If the displacement of a particle varies with time as :

(1) velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t

(2) velocity of particle varies linearly with t
(3) velocity of particle is proportional to
(4) initial velocity of the particle is zero

27) Which of the following is always correct :-

(1) Magnitude of displacment is equal to the distance covered by particle

(2) Magnitude of average velocity is equal to the average speed
(3) Magnitude of instantaneous velocity will be equal to instantaneous speed
(4) None of these

28) A body starts from rest. What is the ratio of distance travelled during the 4th and 3rd sec.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of constant force. If the distance covered
in the first 10 sec is x and that covered in first 20 sec is y then :-

(1) y = 2x
(2) y = 3x
(3) y = 4x
(4) y = x

30) If a train travelling at 72 km/hr is to be brought to rest in a distance of 200 m, then its
retardation should be :-

(1) 20 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

31) A car is moving with speed 'v' can be stopped by applying breakes after at least 'x' m. If same car
is moving speed of 4v then it can be stopped by applying same breakes after at least 'y' m. Find the
ratio of x and y :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 16

32) A body starts from rest and travels a distance S with uniform acceleration, then moves uniformly
a distance 2S and finally comes to rest after moving further 3S under uniform retardation. The ratio
of the average velocity to maximum velocity is :-

(1) 2/5
(2) 3/5
(3) 4/7
(4) 5/7

33) A car is moving along a straight road with a uniform acceleration. It passs through two points P
and Q separated by a distance with velocities 30 km/h and 40 km/h respectively. The velocity of the
car midway between P and Q is :-

(1) 33.3 km/h

(2) km/h
(3) km/h
(4) 35 km/h

34) A body moving with uniform acceleration crosses a distance 65 m in 5th sec and 105 m in 9th
second. How far it will go in 20 sec :-

(1) 2040 m
(2) 2004 m
(3) 2400 m
(4) 240 m

35) If a rubber ball and a iron ball is dropped from same height 'h' in vacuum then which will hit the
ground with greater velocity :-

(1) Iron ball

(2) Rubber ball
(3) Data insufficient
(4) Equal velocity

36) A bullet fired into a wall loses half of its velocity after penetrating 1 cm. How much further it will
penetrate before coming to rest assuming that it faces constant resistance of motion.

(1) 1/3 cm
(2) 1/4 cm
(3) 1/5 cm
(4) 1/6 cm

37) The displacement-time graph of a particle moving on the x-axis is given below, then :-
(1) The particle is continously going in +x-direction
(2) The particle is at rest
(3) The velocity increases up to a time 't0' and then becomes constant
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time 't0' and then stops.

38) The velocity-time graph of a body is given in figure. The maximum acceleration in ms–2 is :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

39) The velocity-time graph of a particle moving along straight line is

shown in figure. Find the displacement of the particle in 5 seconds :-

(1) 16 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 12 m
(4) 10 m

40) A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The
maximum speed of the particle will be :-

(1) 110 m/s

(2) 55 m/s
(3) 550 m/s
(4) 660 m/s

41)

The velocity of a particle moving on the x-axis is given by V = x2 + x where V is in m/s and X is in m.
Find its acceleration in m/s2 when passing through the point X = 2m :-

(1) 0
(2) 5
(3) 11
(4) 30

42) A car moves a distance of 60 km with 10 km/hr and next 120 km with 20 km/hr. Calculate
average speed for total journey :-

(1) 15 km/hr
(2) 12 km/hr
(3) 18 km/hr
(4) 16 km/hr

43) A body thrown vertically upwards from the ground, such that it passes through the same point at
4 sec and 6 sec respectively. Then find total height reached by body (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 150 m
(2) 125 m
(3) 200 m
(4) 250 m

44) A balloon is moving upward with velocity 20 m/s. It release a stone which comes down to the
ground in 15 sec. The height of the balloon from the ground at the moment when the stone was
dropped is

(1) 620 m
(2) 825 m
(3) 1035 m
(4) 1215 m
45) Two bodies are thrown vertically upwards with their initial speeds in the ratio 2 : 3 the ratio of
the maximum heights reached by them and the ratio of time taken by them to return back to the
ground respectively :

(1) 4 : 9 and 2 : 3
(2) 2 : 3 and
(3) and 4 : 9
(4) and 2 : 3

CHEMISTRY

1) Identify the incorrect statement from the following :-

(1) Value of Azimuthal quantum number is same for 3d, 4d & 5d subshells.
Electron distribution in dxy orbital & px orbital is in between the axis & along the axis
(2)
respectively.
(3) Ψ520 represents 5dz orbital
2

(4) In an Hydrogen atom, energy of 5d & 4f subshell are same.

2) In the hydrogen atom, the electrons is excited to the 5th energy level. The number of the lines that
may appear in the emission spectrum will be :

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 12

3) An electron in excited hydrogen atom falls from fifth energy level to first energy level, in which of
the following regions, the spectrum line will be observed and it is the part of which series of atomic
spectrum ?

(1) Visible, Balmer

(2) Ultraviolet, Lyman
(3) Infrared, Paschen
(4) Infrared, Brackett

4) If an ion of Mn has a magnetic moment of 3.873BM, then oxidation state of Mn in the ion is:

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +4
(4) +5

5) Select the incorrect graph for velocity of electron in an orbit with Z, and n.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) If r0 is the radius of first Bohrs' orbit of H-atom, the de-Broglie's wavelength of an electron
revolving in the second Bohr's orbit will be:-

(1) 4πr0
(2) 6πr0
(3) 2πr0
(4) 18πr0

7) According to Bohr theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to
the least energetic photon ?

(1) n = 6 to n = 1
(2) n = 5 to n = 4
(3) n = 6 to n = 5
(4) n = 5 to n = 3

8) In a hydrogen atom, the electron is at a distance of 4.768 Å from the nucleus. The angular
momentum of the electron is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The mass number of an anion, X3– is 14. If there are ten electrons in the anion, the total number of
neutrons in the nucleus of X2 will be :-

(1) 10
(2) 14
(3) 7
(4) 5

10) The approximate radius of the nucleus of 28Ni64 is :-

(1) 3 × 10–15 m
(2) 4 × 10–15 m
(3) 5 × 10–15 m
(4) 2 × 10–15 m

11) Which of the following atoms have same density of nucleus :

(1) H
(2) He
(3) Na
(4) All have same

12) For which species bohr atomic model is valid

(1) H+
(2) He
(3) Li+
(4) Na10+

13)

What is the max no. of orbitals identified by the following quantum numbers :-

n = 2, =1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 5
14) Isotone of is/are -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (2) & (3) both

15) The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10–34 Js. The velocity of light is 3.0 × 108 ms–1. Which
value is closest to the wavelength in metres of a quantum of light with frequency of 8 × 1015 s–1 :-

(1) 2 × 10–25
(2) 5 × 10–18
(3) 3.75 × 10–8
(4) 3 × 107

16) In which of the following electron distribution in ground state, only Hund's rule is violated ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Calculate maximum and minimum number of electrons which may have magnetic quantum

number, m = 0 and spin quantum number in Na(Z = 11) :-

(1) 3, 2
(2) 4, 3
(3) 2, 1
(4) 3, 0

18) In a hydrogen atom, if energy of an electron in ground state is –13.6 e.v, then that in second
excited state is:-

(1) –1.51 e.v

(2) –3.4 e.v
(3) –6.04 e.v
(4) –13.6 e.v

19) If energy of 4th Bohr orbit of Li+2 ion is X eV, then calculate energy in 6th excited state of He+ ion
in terms of X ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) What is the separation energy (in eV) for Be3+ in the first excited state in eV ?

(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 27.2 eV
(3) 40.8 eV
(4) 54.4 eV

21) Two radiations have the ratio of energies 3 : 8. If first radiation has the wave number 150 cm–1,
then the wave number of second radiation will be :-

(1) 200 cm–1

(2) 20 cm–1
(3) 56.25 cm–1
(4) 400 cm–1

22) The first Lyman transition in the hydrogen spectrum has ΔE = 10.2eV. The same energy change
is observed in the second Balmer transition of :-

(1) Li+2
(2) Li+
(3) He+
(4) Be3+

23) What transition in the hydrogen spectrum would have the same wavelength as Balmer transition,
n=4 to n=2 in the He+ spectrum ?

(1) n = 3 to n = 1
(2) n = 3 to n = 2
(3) n = 4 to n = 1
(4) n = 2 to n = 1

24) If ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, then ionisation potential of He+ will be

(1) 54.4 eV
(2) 6.8 eV
(3) 13.6 eV
(4) 24.5 eV
25) 32 electrons isoelectronic pair is :-

–3 –2
(1) BO3 , CO3
–3 –2
(2) PO4 , SO4
(3) N2, CO
–2 –
(4) SO4 , ClO4

26) Which of the following acid is most acidic ?

(1) HCl
(2) HF
(3) HI
(4) HBr

27) Which of the following species are amphoteric :

(I) Al(OH)3 (II) Ba(OH)2 (III) Zn(OH)2

(1) I only
(2) I, II only
(3) I & III only
(4) II & III only

28) Which group of elements belong to the same period in periodic table :-

(1) Li, Na, K

(2) Cu, Ag, Au
(3) Sn, Sb, Te
(4) Al, Ga, Ge

29) Consider the given elements /ion, Mg, Mg2+, Al, Al3+. Find species which has largest & smallest
radius respectively :-

(1) Al & Al3+

(2) Mg & Mg2+
(3) Mg & Al3+
(4) Al & Mg2+

30) Which of following statement is incorrect :

(1) Lithium and Magnesium exhibit diagonal relationship

(2) Elements of groups 1, 2, 13, 14, 15, 16 and 17 are known as representative elements
(3) In 5th period, the subshells 5s, 4f, 4d, 5p would be filled
(4) General configuration of f-Block elements is (n – 2)f1–14 (n – 1)d0–1 ns2

31) Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same group, the atomic numbers of elements placed above
and below Ag will be:
(1) 37, 67
(2) 29,79
(3) 39, 69
(4) 29, 65

32) Mendeleev predicted and named certain future elements as Eka – Aluminium and Eka – Silicon.
These elements were

(1) Ga and Ge
(2) Al and Si
(3) Fe and S
(4) H and Si

33) Lanthanoids are :-

(1) 14 elements in the seventh period (Atomic no. = 58 to 71) that are filling 4f sub level
(2) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no. = 90 to 103) that are filling 4f sublevel
(3) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic no. = 90 to 103) that are filling 5f sublevel
(4) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no=58 to 71) that are filling 4 f sublevel

34) Which order for atomic radii is incorrect?

(1) Cl– > Na+ > Mg+2 > Al+3

(2) MnO2 > KMnO4
(3) O–2 > F– > Na+ > Mg+2
(4) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl

35) Electronic configuration of X2+ and Y3+ are : X2+ = [Ar]3d8,Y3+=[Ar]3d3. What are the atomic
number of X and Y respectively ?

(1) 28, 24
(2) 28, 25
(3) 28, 26
(4) 28, 27

36) Atomic number 34 belongs to :-

(1) 3rd period, 15 group, p block

(2) 4th period, 16 group, p block
(3) 4th period, 2 group, s block
(4) 5th period, 12 group, d block

37) Which statement is incorrect :-

(1) Ionisation potential order : F– < Cl–

(2) Electron Affinity order : F < Cl
(3) Ionisation potential order : O– < S–
(4) Electronegatively order : sp3 > sp (for carbon atom)

38) The elements having maximum EA, EN will be :-

(1) F, Cl
(2) Cl, Br
(3) Cl, F
(4) He, Cl

39) Correct order of IP will be :-

(1) F– > Cl–

(2) F– < Cl–
(3) O– > S–
(4) Be < B

40) Which is correct order of EN :-

(1) P > Si
(2) C > N
(3) C > Br
(4) B > I

41) Select the correct statements about element "Uue" :-

(1) It is chalcogen
(2) Formula of its oxide is M2O
(3) It is alkaline earth metal
(4) None of these

42) Match List I (Atomic Number of Element) with List II (Block to which the Element Belongs) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below :

List I List II
(Atomic Number of Element) (Block to which the element belongs)

A. 24 1. p

B. 38 2. f

C. 49 3. s

D. 59 4. d
(1) A→ 2; B→ 1 ; C→ 3 ; D→4
(2) A→ 4 ; B→ 3 ; C→ 1 ; D→2
(3) A→ 2 ; B→ 3 ; C→ 1 ; D→4
(4) A→ 4 ; B→ 1 ; C→ 3 ; D→2
43) The covalent and vander waal's radii of hydrogen respectively are :

(1) 0.37 Å, 0.8 Å

(2) 0.37 Å, 0.37 Å
(3) 0.8 Å, 0.8 Å
(4) 0.8 Å, 0.37 Å

44) Which of the following configuration represents atoms of element having large difference
between first and the second ionisation energy ?

(1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p4

(2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6
(3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
(4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2

45) The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that :-

(1) Zr and Y have about the same radius

(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state

BOTANY

1) Crossing over occurs in which phase of meiosis?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

2) (A) Appearance of chiasmata

(B) Appearance of tetrad
(C) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(D) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(E) Chromosomes get fully condensed
(F) Meiotic spindle assembled
How many of the above events occur during final stage of prophase-I ?

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

3) Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence :-

(a) Crossing over
(b) Synapsis
(c) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(d) Disappearance of nucleolus

(1) b → c → d → a
(2) d → a → b → c
(3) b → a → c → d
(4) a → b → c → d

4) Which of the following is correct about the above diagram ?

(1) It shows prophase-I of meiosis-I

(2) Disappearance of golgi body, ER, nucleolus, nuclear envelope in late prophase
(3) Telophase-I of meiosis-I
(4) Telophase of mitosis

5) If the number of bivalents are 20 in metaphase-I, what shall be the number of chromosomes in
each daugher cell after meiosis I and meiosis-II respectively :-

(1) 20, 20
(2) 10, 10
(3) 10, 20
(4) 20, 10

6) Which stage of cell cycle is shown in figure given below :-

(1) Anaphase-I of meiosis-I

(2) Metaphase-I of meiosis-I
(3) Metaphase-II of meiosis-II
(4) Anaphase-II of meiosis-II

7) Formation and dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs in :

(1) Laptotene and diplotene respectively

(2) Zygotene and diplotene respectively
(3) Zygotene and diakinesis respectively
(4) Zygotene and anaphase respectively

8) Homologous chromosomes separate during:-

(1) Metaphase-I
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Metaphase-II
(4) Anaphase-II

9) Match the following -

Column - I Column - II

(a) Prophase (I) Decondensation of chromosome

(b) Metaphase (II) Division of centromere

Attachment of spindle fibres on

(c) Anaphase (III)
kinetochores of chromosomes

Initiation of assembly of mitotic

(d) Telophase (IV)
spindles
(1) a (IV) b (III) c (I) d (II)
(2) a (IV) b (III) c (II) d (I)
(3) a (III) b (IV) c (II) d (I)
(4) a (III) b (IV) c (I) d (II)

10) Sister chromatids of a chromosome in bivalent are separated in :-

(1) Metaphase-I
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Metaphase-II
(4) Anaphase-II

11) After S-phase, a meiocyte has 16 pg of DNA. The amount in a gamete will be:-

(1) 16 pg
(2) 8 pg
(3) 4 pg
(4) 32 pg

12) Which of the following structure serve as the sites of attachment of spindle fibres to the
chromosome?

(1) Telomere
(2) Kinetochore
(3) Secondary constriction
(4) Satellite

13) Which of the following is wrong about S phase?

(1) Replication of DNA

(2) Increase in the chromosome number
(3) Gap between G1 & G2
(4) Centriole duplication

14) Mature nerve cells are incapable of cell division. These cell are in :-

(1) G0 phase
(2) S phase
(3) G2 phase
(4) Mitosis

15) Prophase–I of meiotic division is typically longer and more complex, it is subdivided into five
phases, on the basis of :-

(1) Staining
(2) Behaviour of chromosomes
(3) Duration
(4) Protein synthesis

16) How many chromosome and chromatid are present in one bivalent during metaphase-I
respectively :-

(1) Two and two

(2) Two and four
(3) Four and two
(4) Four and four

17) Double Metaphasic plate is formed during.

(1) Mitosis
(2) Meiosis I
(3) Meiosis II
(4) Mitosis & Meiosis II

18) Nuclear Envelope reappears at :-

(1) Metaphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase
19) Statement I : Centriole division occurs in anaphase of mitosis.
Statement II: Daughter chromosome formation occurs in anaphase of mitosis.

(1) Statement I & II both are true

(2) Statement I & II both are false
(3) Statement I is false II is true
(4) Statement I is true II is false

20) The final stage of meiotic prophase I is :-

(1) Diplotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Metaphase

21) Select the correct matches :-

(a) S-phase–DNA replication
(b) Zygotene–Synapsis
(c) Diplotene–Crossing over
(d) Meiosis–Both haploid and diploid cells
(e) Gap 2 phase – Quiescent stage

(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) c and e
(4) a, c and e

22) Pairing of homologous chromosomes in zygotene is called :-

(1) Crossing over

(2) Synapsis
(3) Interkinesis
(4) Disjunction

23) Number of chromatids in each chromosome at anaphase is-

(1) One in mitosis, one in meiosis-I and two in meiosis-II

(2) One in mitosis, two in meiosis-I and one in meiosis-II
(3) Two in mitosis, one in meiosis-I and two in meiosis-II
(4) Two in mitosis, two in meiosis-I and two in meiosis-II
24) Which stage of cell division is shown in figure given below ?

(1) Anaphase I of meiosis

(2) Metaphase of mitosis
(3) Anaphase of mitosis
(4) (1) and (3) both

25) Mark the stage of cell cycle in which centromeres split and chromatids move to opposite poles.

(1) Anaphase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Telophase–1
(4) Anaphase–1

26) The most dramatic period of the cell cycle is :-

(1) M phase
(2) G1 phase
(3) S phase
(4) Interphase

27) Syncytium is seen in :-

(1) Seive-tube of vascular plant

(2) Ascomycetous fungi
(3) Liquid endosperm in coconut
(4) Mammalian RBC's

28) Which of the following can be regarded as defining features of all life forms ?

(1) Metabolism, growth

(2) Growth, cellular organisation
(3) Self consciousness, reproduction
(4) Consciousness, metabolism

29) At which of the given categories lesser is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other
taxa at the same level?
(1) Division
(2) Class
(3) Order
(4) Genus

30) Systematics differs from taxonomy as the former includes :-

(1) Identification of organisms

(2) Characterisation of organisms
(3) Nomenclature of organisms
(4) Evolutionary relationship among organisms

31) The word systematics is derived from a _____________ word 'systema'.

(1) Greek
(2) English
(3) Roman
(4) Latin

32) The category which includes related families is :-

(1) Class
(2) Phylum
(3) Order
(4) Kingdom

33) ICBN is :-

(1) Indian Code of Botanical Naming

(2) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(3) International Class of Botanical Nomenclature.
(4) International Classification of Botanical Nomenclature

34) Which of the following combinations is correct for Wheat?

(1) Genus-Triticum, Family-Poaceae, Order-Poales, Class-Dicotyledonae

(2) Genus-Triticum, Family-Poaceae, Order-Sapindales, Class-Monocotyledonae
(3) Genus-Triticum, Family-Poaceae, Order-Poales, Class-Monocotyledonae
(4) Genus-Triticum, Family-Anacardiaceae, Order-Poales, Class-Monocotyledonae

35) Match the following and choose the correct option

(A) Family (I) tuberosum

(B) Kingdom (II) Polymoniales

(C) Order (III) Solanum

 (D) Species (IV) Plantae

(E) Genus (V) Solanaceae

(1) D-I, C-II, E-III, B-IV, A-V
(2) E-I, D-II, B-III, A-IV, C-V
(3) D-I, E-II, B-III, A-IV, C-V
(4) E-I, C-II, B-III, A-IV, D-V

36) Who of the following is called "The Darwin of the 20th century".

(1) Ernest Mayer

(2) Eichler
(3) Oswald Tippo
(4) Alexander

37) In five kingdom system of classification blue green algae included in :-

(1) Animalia
(2) Plantae
(3) Monera
(4) Protista

38) In Whittaker's five-kingdom classification eukaryotes are assigned to :-

(1) All the five kingdoms

(2) Only four kingdoms
(3) Only three kingdoms
(4) Only two kingdoms

39) Assertion: Archaebacteria are special since they live in some of the most harsh habitats like
extremely salt areas & Hot springs.
Reason: Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

40) Choose the incorrect match :

(1) Salty area — Halophiles

(2) Hot springs — Thermoacidophiles
(3) Marshy areas — Methanogens
(4) Hot springs — Eubacteria

41) The name of some common disease are given below in the box:-
 Cholera, Tobacco mosaic, Typhoid, Tetanus Influenza, Citrus canker
How many of these diseases are caused by bacteria?
(1) Three
(2) Six
(3) Two
(4) Four

42) Select the incorrect statements w.r.t Mycoplasma

(1) These completely lack cell wall

(2) These cannot live without oxygen
(3) These are pathogenic both in animals and plants
(4) These are smallest living cells

43) Choose the correct names of the different bacteria given below according to their shapes.

(1) A – Cocci, B – Bacilli, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio

(2) A – Bacilli, B – Cocci, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
(3) A – Spirilla, B – Bacilli, C – Cocci, D – Vibrio
(4) A – Spirilla, B – Vibrio, C – Cocci, D – Bacilli

44) The sole members of kingdom Monera :

(1) Lack cell walls

(2) Are structurally simple but very complex in behaviour
(3) Have true nucleus
(4) Are photosynthetic due to presence of chloroplast

45) Which one is not used as a criteria for classification by R.H. Whittaker?

(1) Mode of nutrition

(2) Cell structure
(3) Phylogenetic relationship
(4) Mode of respiration

ZOOLOGY

1) A list of different metabolites is given below in this list find out the number of primary &
secondary metabolites, respectively & choose the correct option: Alkaloids, Abrin, Ricin,
Carotenoids, Amino acids, Glucose, Fructose, Fatty acids, Thymine, Uracil, Lectins, Drugs.
(1) Five and Six
(2) Six and Six
(3) Seven and five
(4) Four and Eight

2) A nucleotide has three chemically distinct components. One is a ......‘A’........ the second is a
......‘B’....... and the third a phosphoric acid or phosphate.

(1) A = nitrogen base, B = hexose sugar

(2) A = heterocyclic compound, B = monosaccharide
(3) A = nucleic acid, B = pentose sugar
(4) A = nitrogen base, B = glucose

3) Which of the following is not an 'R' group alone in an amino acid?

(1) – H
(2) – NH2
(3) – CH3
(4) – CH2–OH

4) Primary structure of a protein relates to

(1) α-helical folding of a polypeptide

(2) Association of two polypeptides
(3) The sequence of amino acids
(4) β-pleated sheet folding of a polypeptide

5) Most of the biological activities of proteins are due to :-

(1) Primary configuration

(2) Secondary configuration
(3) Tertiary configuration
(4) Quaternary configuration

6) is :-

(1) Amphipathic
(2) Zwitter ion
(3) Hydrophobic
(4) Both (1) & (3)
7) structure represent :-

(1) Glycine
(2) Alanine
(3) Serine
(4) Valine

8)

How many amino acid in the list given below are aromatic ?

Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, Cystine, Proline, Methionine, Valine, Serine.

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

9) Match the column A to B.

Column-A Column-B

(P) Uridine (i) Alkaline amino acid

(Q) Lecithin (ii) Aromatic amino acid

(R) Phenylalanine (iii) Nucleoside

(S) Lysine (iv) Phospholipid

(1) P-iii Q-iv R-ii S-i
(2) P-i Q-ii R-iii S-iv
(3) P-i Q-ii R-iv S-iii
(4) P-iv Q-iii R-ii S-i

10) (i) Transient association with the protein part of conjugated enzyme
(ii) Non protein organic substance
(iii) Usually made up of vitamins
All the above characters are applicable to :-

(1) Apoenzyme
(2) Holoenzyme
(3) Coenzyme
(4) Isoenzyme

11) Represented below is the effect of change in pH on enzyme activity. Which one of the following
conclusions can be made by this diagram ?

Enzyme show its highest activity at a particular pH, both below and above this pH, activity
(1)
declines
(2) With increasing pH, activity increases upto a limit then it become constant
(3) At a particular pH, activity is minimum, both below and above this pH activity increases
(4) Enzyme activity is affected by temperature not by pH so it is completely a hypothetical graph

12) Value of Km–constant (Michaelis–Menten constant) for an enzyme will be :–

(1)
Vmax.

(2)
Vmax.

(3)
Vmax.

(4)
Vmax.

13) Refer the given reaction -

C12H22O11 + H2O 2C6H12O6
Maltose Glucose
Enzyme A used in the reaction belong to which class :-

(1) Dehydrogenase
(2) Transferase
(3) Hydrolases
(4) lyases

14) Which of the following is a correct match according to secondary metabolites :-

(A) (B) (C)

Alkaloid Toxins Drug

(1) Vinblastin Abrin Morphine

(2) Codeine Ricin Curcumin

(3) Ricin Morphine Abrin

(4) Rubber Cellulose Morphine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Match the following column :-

Column I Column II
(Amino acid) (Example)

A Aromatic I Glycine

B Acidic II Lysine

C Basic III Glutamic acid

D Simplest IV Tryptophan
(1) A–IV B–III C–I D–II
(2) A–IV B–I C–III D–II
(3) A–IV B–III C–II D–I
(4) A–I B–III C–II D–IV

16) The inhibition of synthesis of folic acid by sulpha drugs in control of bacterial pathogen is an
example of :-

(1) Competitive irreversible

(2) Non-competitive irreversible
(3) Competitive reversible
(4) Non-competitive reversible

17) Which of the following bond is formed by dehydration process ?

(1) Glycosidic bond

(2) Peptide bond
(3) Phosphoester bond
(4) All of the above

18)

In following graphical representation A, B and C is:-

(1) A = Potential energy (B) Product (C) Substrate
(2) A = Product (B) substrate (C) Potential energy
(3) A = Potential energy (B) Substrate (C) Product
(4) All of these

19) A hexapeptide contains :-

(1) 6 peptide bonds

(2) 5 peptide bonds
(3) 4 peptide bonds
(4) 7 peptide bonds

20)

Adenine + X —→ Adenosine
Adenosine + Y —→ Adenylic acid
What does X and Y represent here ?

X Y

(1) Phosphate group Sugar molecule

(2) Sugar molecule Phosphate group

(3) Sugar molecule Nitrogenous base

(4) Nitrogenous base Sugar molecule

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Which two groups of the following formula are involved in peptide linkage between different
amino acids :-

(1) 2 and 3
(2) 1 and 4
(3) 1 and 3
(4) 2 and 4

22) DNA fragments are joined by

(1) Isomerases
(2) Lyases
(3) Hydrolases
(4) Ligases

23) Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a ...'B'... state whereas high temperature destroys
enzymatic activity because proteins are ...'A'... by heat. Choose the correct option:-

(1) A = temporarily inactive, B = denatured

(2) A = temporarily inactive, B = temporarily inactive
(3) A = permanently inactive, B = denatured
(4) A = denatured, B = temporarily inactive

24)

Holoenzyme is consist of :-

(1) Co-enzyme & Co-factor

(2) Apo-enzyme & Co-factor
(3) Pro-enzyme & Prosthetic group
(4) Apo-enzyme & Ribozyme

25)

The chemical and physical properties of amino acids are due to :-

(1) – COOH group

(2) – NH2 group
(3) – R group
(4) All the above

26) In a linear polypeptide protein the left end represents :-

(1) First amino acid and C-terminal

(2) Last amino acid and N-terminal
(3) First amino acid and N-terminal
(4) Last amino acid and C-terminal

27) D.N.A and R.N.A differ from each other with respect to :-

(1) Nitrogen base only

(2) Sugar only
(3) Nitrogen bases and phosphate
(4) Nitrogen bases and sugars

28) Bond present between two successive nucleotides is :-

(1) Ester bond

(2) Phosphodiester bond
(3) Peptide bond
(4) N-Glycosidic bond

29) Choose the correct option for co-factors of enzyme :-

(1) Enzymes are composed of only several polypeptide chains.

(2) The protein portion of the enzyme is called the holoenzyme.
(3) Co-enzymes are also inorganic compounds
(4) Catalytic activity is lost when co-factor is removed.

30) How do enzymes bring about high rates of chemical conversions ?

(1) By increasing substrate concentration

(2) By decreasing activation energy
(3) By increasing activation energy
(4) By decreasing potential energy

31) Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes in that

(1) They require metal ions for their activity

(2) They are tightly bound to apoenzymes.
(3) Their association with apoenzymes is transient
(4) They are essentially vitamin derivatives

32) Mark the Incorrect statement

(1) Co-enzymes are also organic compounds but their association with apoenzyme is only transient
Vmax (maximum velocity) represent that there are no subatrate molecules to bind with free
(2)
enzyme molecule
(3) The protein portion of the enzyme is called the apoenzyme.
 Enzymes eventually bring down the energy barrier making the transition of substrate to product
(4)
more easy

33) Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

(1) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme.
(2) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme.
(3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.
(4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.

34) Cytosine is :-

(1) N-base
(2) Nucleoside
(3) Nucleotide
(4) Amino acid

35) Purines are :-

(1) single ring structure

(2) double ring structures
(3) open chain structure
(4) open chain with alternate double bond

36) Deoxyribose is :-

(1) Pentasaccharide
(2) Tetrose
(3) Heptose
(4) Pentose

37) Read the following statements and choose the option with all correct statements.
a. α-amino acids are substituted methanes
b. Amino acids are classified only on the basis of nature of -NH2 group.
c. There are only 20 amino acids present in different protein molecules.
d. Hydroxy methyl is a functional R-group in amino acid alanine
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and c

38) There are some nucleic acids that behaves like enzymes and are called-

(1) DNase
(2) RNase
(3) Endonuclease
(4) Ribozymes

39) The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the

(1) Km value
(2) pH value
(3) Product amount
(4) Size of enzyme

40) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : The positional information in a protein-which is the first amino acid, which is second,
and so on is called the secondary structure of a protein.
Statement-II : Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for the many biological activities of
proteins.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(4) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false

41) S – G + S' —→ S + S' – G

The above reaction is catalysed by which of the following enzyme class ?

(1) Class-I
(2) Class-II
(3) Class-V
(4) Class-IV

42) What does X and Y represent in the structures provided?

(1) X = Adenylic acid, Y = Guanine
(2) X = Uridine, Y = Uridylic aicd
(3) X = Thymidylic acid, Y = Adenine
(4) X = Adenylic acid, Y = Adenine

43) The given below structure represents __

(1) Nucleotide of DNA

(2) Nucleotide of RNA
(3) Nucleoside of DNA
(4) Nucleoside of RNA

44) Assertion : Valine is a neutral amino acid

Reason : Valine contains one amino group and one carboxyl group only.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False

45)
In the above diagram (B) is zwitterionic form of an amino acid. (A) and (C) form of amino acid
develop respectively in :-

(1) Acidic and basic medium

(2) Basic and basic medium
(3) Basic and acidic medium
(4) Acidic and neutral medium
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 2 1 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 4 1 3 1 1 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 2 4 2 2 3 1 3 4 4 2 3 3 4 1 4 1 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 2 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 2 3 3 1 3 1 2 3 4 4 3 4 3 3 2 1 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 4 1 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 1 4 4 1 2 4 3 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 1 3 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 3 2 1 2 2 2 2 4 3 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 2 3 1 1 3 4 4 4 4 3 2 3 1 1 3 2 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 2 1 2 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 2 2 3 3 2 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 2 3 3 4 3 2 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 4 1 2 4 3 4 2 4 2 2 2 4 1 2 4 4 4 1 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 2 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) [E] = [F] . [L]

[ऊजा] = [बल] [लबाई]

2) [KE] = [ML2T–2]

K.E. = (100 g) =1 g cm2/s2

= 1 erg

3)

Conceptual.

4) 1. Question Explanation:
We are asked to determine which of the following pairs of physical quantities have the same
dimensions. We need to check the dimensional formulas of each pair and compare them.

2. Concept-Based:
The subtopic is Dimensional Analysis. Dimensional analysis helps us understand the
relationship between physical quantities by comparing their dimensions. The dimensions of
physical quantities are expressed in terms of fundamental quantities like mass (M), length (L),
and time (T)

3. Formulas for Dimensional Analysis:

A. Force (F): The dimension of force is given by

B. Power (P): Power is the rate of doing work and its dimension is
C. Torque( ): Torque is the product of force and distance, so its dimension is
D. Energy (E): Energy is the work done, and its dimension is

4. Calculation:
Let's check the dimensions of each pain

A. Option 1 (Force and Power):

B. Force:
C. Power:
D. Not the same dimensions.
E. Option 2 (Torque and Energy):
F. Torque:
G. Energy:
H. Same dimensions.
I. Option 3 (Torque and Power):
 J. Torque:
K. Power:
L. Not the same dimensions.
M. Option 4 (Force and Torque):
N. Force:
O. Torque:
P. Not the same dimensions.

Answer:
Option 2: Torque and Energy have the same dimensions .

5) F = Aαvβργ
or [MLT]–2 = [L2]α[LT–1]β[ML–3]γ
= [MγL2α+β–3γT–β]
This gives: γ = 1, β = 2
and 2α + β – 3γ = 1
or α = 1; F = Av2ρ

6) What is asked :
An equation is given & we have to determine the dimension of 'K'

Concept :
Based on Dimensional analysis : Argument of trigonometry function must be dimensionless.

Formula used :
w = T–1 (Angular velocity)
n = L (distance)
v = LT–1 (velocity)

Calculation :

y = A sin

T–1 k = M°L°T°
k = M°L°T
k = [T]

7)

sin(αx) :
0 0 0
[αx] = M L T

Similarly cos(βt) :
0 0 0
[βt] = M L T

⇒ [T–1]
8)

R=

dR =

9)

= 2(1%) + 3(3%) + 1(2%) +

= 14%

10)

5, 1, 2

11)

L.C. =

L.C. =

L.C = 0.005 mm

12) Explanation : The question describes a vernier caliper main scale divisions, Vernier scale
divisions: and Vernier scale matching. find the least count (LC) of this vernier caliper.
Concept : The least count of a vernier caliper.
Formula :
Least Count (LC) = Value of 1 Main Scale Division (MSD) - Value of 1 Vernier Scale Division
(VSD)

Calculation :
20 VSD = 16 MSD
1 VSD = (16/20) MSD = (16/20) × 1 mm = 0.8 mm
Least Count (LC) : = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
= 1 mm – 0.8 mm = 0.2 mm
Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

13) Here, S = (13.8 ± 0.2) cm; t = (4.0 ± 0.3)s

Also,

ΔV = ± 0.0895 × 3.45 = ± 0.3

(rounding off to one place of decimal)
V = (3.45 ± 0.3) m s–1.

14) L.C. =

⇒ 0.01 mm = ⇒ Pitch = 0.5 mm

15) Reading = 2.30 mm

16) Least count = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

(N–1) MSD = N(VSD) ⇒ VSD =

Least count = 1MSD –

(1mm)

17) Time period T = PadbEc

Taking dimensions of each physical quantity,
[T] = [ML–1T–2]a [ML–3]b [ML2T–2|]c
Equating the exponents of M, L and T on both the sides,
Ma+b+cL–a–3b+2cT–2a–2c = T
a+b+c=0
–a –3b + 2c = 0
–2a – 2c = 1
Solving these equations for a, b and c, we get

a=– and

18) 1. Question Explanation (in 30 words ) : The displacement function is

We need to find the time at which the velocity is zero by differentiating

the displacement equation.
2. Concept Based (Name of subtopic in 30 words ) :
Kinematics. velocity, and displacement. Velocity is the first derivative of displacement with
respect to time. To find when velocity is zero. we calculate the derivative and solve for time.
3. formula Used:
● Velocity (v) = dx/dt
● Set v = 0 to find time when velocity is zero.
4. Calculation:
● Given displacement equation:

● Differentiate to get velocity:

● To find h time when velocity is zero set v = 0:

● Factor the quadratic equation:

t = 3 seconds
Thus the time at which velocity is zero is 3 seconds.

19)

20)

In retardation and both are in opposite direction.

21) 1. Question Explanation:

A car travels from point A to point B with a uniform speed of v1 and then returns from point B
to A with a uniform speed of v2 We need to find the average speed for the round trip.

2. Concept Based:
The average speed for a round trip where the car covers the same distance both ways but at
different speeds is calculated using the formula for average speed in the case of unequal
speeds:

Average Speed =
This formula is derived from the harmonic mean of the two speeds.

3. Formula Used:
The formula for average speed when the distances for the two parts of the trip are the same
but the speeds are different is:

Average Speed =

4. Calculation:
Let the distance between A and B be d.

Time taken to travel from A to B: t1 =

Time taken to travel from B to A: t2 =

The total distance traveled in the round trip is 2d, and the total time taken is t1 + t2 =
The average speed is:

Average Speed =
Simplifying:

Average Speed =

Answer: Option 3
The average speed for the round trip is:

22)

= –20
20 m south

23)

= 4 m/s

24)
speed of second hand

change in velocity :- V= ×

25)
Displacement =
Magnitude of displacement = 27 cm

26) Concept: Velocity is the time derivative of displacement:

Formula :

ν=
Calculation/Explanation :
Given:

Squaring both sides:

Differentiating w.r.t. t:

Since ν = 2t + 6, velocity is a linear function of t.

Final Answer: Option (2): Velocity of the particle varies linearly with t.

27)

For a very short time interval, magnitude of instantaneous velocity will be equal to
instantaneous speed.

28)

29)

St : S2t = 1 : 4 ⇒ y = 4X

30) u = 72 km/hr = 20 m/s

v=0
s = 20 m
2 2
v = u + 2as
0 = 400 + 2a × 200
a = –1m/s2, so retardation = 1 m/s2

31)

S= ⇒ S ∝ V2
x : y = 1 : 16

32)
 ⇒

33)
V2 – 900 = 350

34)

∵ Snth = u +

∴ 65 = u +

∴u+ ............(1)

and u + ............(2)
from equation (1) and equation (2) :
u = 20 m/s & a = 10 m/s2

∴ S20 = 20 × 20 + × (20)2 = 2400 m

35)

∵ v2 = u2 + 2as ∴
because h → same ∴ v → same

36)

37) Concept: & Explanation

• The displacement-time graph represents how the position of a particle changes with time.
 • The slope of the displacement-time graph gives the velocity of the particle.

A. A positive slope indicates motion in the positive x-direction.

B. A horizontal segment (zero slope) means the particle is at rest.
C. A constant slope corresponds to uniform velocity.
D. A changing slope indicates varying velocity.

Analysis of the Given Graph:

A. From t = 0 to t = t0:

A. The graph shows a straight line passing through the origin with a positive slope.
B. This indicates that the particle is moving with a constant velocity in the positive x-direction.

B. From t = t0 onwards:

A. The graph becomes a horizontal line (zero slope).

B. This means the particle has stopped moving and is at rest.

Formula used:
The velocity v is the slope of the displacement-time graph:

Where:

A. is the change in displacement.

B. is the change in time.

Calculation:
1.For t = 0 to t = t0:

A. The slope of the line is constant.

B. Let the displacement at t = 0 be x0.Then,

A. The particle moves with this constant velocity until t = t0.

2. For t > t0:

A. The graph is horizontal, so the velocity v = 0 The particle is at rest.

Final Answer:
The correct option is:
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time t0 and then stops.

38)
from 0 to A
from A to B

from B to C

from C to D

So a3 is maximum

39)

displacement = (3 + 2) × 4 – (2 + 1) × 4
= 10 – 6 = 4 m

40) The area under the acceleration-time graph gives change in velocity. Since, particle starts

with u =0, therefore change in velocity = vƒ – vi = vmax – 0 = area under a – t graph = × 10 ×

11 = 55 m/s.

41)

∵ v = x2 + x

∴ = (x2 + x) (2x + 1)
at x = 2m, a = [(2)2 + 2] [2 × 2 + 1]
∴ a = 30 m/s2

42)

43)

Sy = Uyt + ayt2
 h = 4U – 80 ...................(1)

h = U × 6 – × 10 × (6)2
h = 6U – 180 ............(2)
from (2) & (1)
6U – 180 = 4U – 80
∴ U = 50 m/s

∴ max. height

44) S = (–20)(15) + (10)(15)2

S = –300 + 1125 = 825 m

45)

∵T= ∴

CHEMISTRY

46) In H-atom energy depends only on value of n. Energy of 5d is greater than 4f.

47)

Number of emission line = = 10

48) Question Explanation:

The question asks in which region of the electromagnetic spectrum the spectral line is
observed when an electron in an excited hydrogen atom falls from the fifth energy level (n=5)
to the first energy level (n=1), and which series of atomic spectrum this transition belongs to.
Given Data:

A. Electron transition: n=5 to n=1

B. Options: Visible, Balmer; Ultraviolet, Lyman; Infrared, Paschen; Infrared, Brackett

Concept:

A. Hydrogen Spectrum:
Analysis:

A. Lyman Series: Transitions to n=1 (ultraviolet region).

B. Balmer Series: Transitions to n=2 (visible region).
C. Paschen Series: Transitions to n=3 (infrared region).
D. Brackett Series: Transitions to n=4 (infrared region).
E. Pfund Series: Transitions to n=5 (far infrared region).

The transition is from n=5 to n=1.

A. Transitions to n=1 belong to the Lyman series.

B. The Lyman series falls in the ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

E: Final Answer

The transition from n=5 to n=1 belongs to the Lyman series, and the spectral line will be
observed in the ultraviolet region.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (2) Ultraviolet, Lyman.

F: Question Level
Easy

49) As magnetic moment is 3.83, so no of unpaired =3

electronic configuration of Mn–18[Ar]4s23d5
no. of unpaired will be 3, when
0
Mn+4 = 18[Ar]4s 3d3

50) v = 2.18×106
so by the equation
option C is incorrect

51) mVrn =

mV = P =

So, prn =
for second orbit n=2

λ = πr2
r2 = r0n2
r2 = r0(2)2
r2 = 4r0 ,
Sol = 4πr0
 52)

ΔE will be min. If n1 and n2 will be high and closer. OR For minimum energy ⇒ n1 = maximum
n2 = minimum

53)

54)

Question Explanation:
This problem involves determining the number of neutrons in the nucleus.

Given Data:

A. Anion: X3–
B. Mass number of X3– = 14
C. Number of electrons in X3– = 10

Concept:
Fundamental particles

Explanation:

A. Mass number (A) = Number of protons (Z) + Number of neutrons (N)

B. Number of electrons in a neutral atom = Number of protons.
C. In an ion, the number of electrons is different from the number of protons due to the gain or
loss of electrons.
D. X3– means the atom has gained 3 electrons.

Mathematical Calculation:

1. Finding the number of protons:

A. Since X3– has 10 electrons, the neutral atom X must have 10 – 3 = 7 electrons.
B. Therefore, the number of protons (Z) in X is 7.

2. Finding the number of neutrons:

A. Mass number (A) = 14

B. Number of neutrons (N) = Mass number (A) – Number of protons (Z)
C. N = 14 – 7 = 7 neutrons.

3. X2 neutron count:
 A. The number of neutrons in X2 is 7 + 7 = 14

Final Answer:
The total number of neutrons in the nucleus of X2 is 14.
Therefore the correct option is (2).

55)

r = ro A1/3
r = 1.33 × 10–15 × 641/3
= 1.33 × 10–15 × 4

= 5.32 × 10–15 m

56)

We know that

Density =

i.e. =
So, density does not depend on mass number.

57)

Question Explanation:
The question asks for which species the Bohr atomic model is valid. The Bohr model is
specifically applicable to species with only one electron.
Given Data:
The given options are:

A. H⁺ (Hydrogen ion)
B. He (Helium)
C. Li⁺ (Lithium ion)
D. Na¹⁰⁺ (Sodium ion with 10 positive charges)

Concept: Bohr Atomic Model

Analysis :

A. One-Electron Species: Species that have only one electron in their electron configuration.
B. H⁺: Hydrogen has one proton and normally one electron. When it loses that electron, it
becomes H⁺, which has zero electrons. Therefore, the Bohr model is not applicable.
C. He: Helium has two protons and two electrons. The Bohr model does not apply to multi-
electron species.
D. Li⁺: Lithium has three protons and three electrons. When it loses one electron, it becomes Li⁺,
 which has two electrons. The Bohr model does not apply.
E. Na¹⁰⁺: Sodium has 11 protons and 11 electrons. When it loses 10 electrons, it becomes Na¹⁰⁺,
which has only one electron. The Bohr model is applicable.

Final Answer

The Bohr model is valid only for species with one electron. Among the given options, only
Na¹⁰⁺ has one electron.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (4) Na¹⁰⁺.

58) Question Asking : What is the maximum number of orbitals

Concept : Quantum numbers
Solution :
n = 2 tells us the electrons is in the second energy level.
l = 1 tells us the electrons is in the p subshell
For l = 1, the possible values of ml are –1, 0, and +1
Each ml value corresponds to one orbital. Therefore, there are three orbitals in the p subshell
(px, py, pz)
Therefore, the maximum number of orbitals identified by n = 2 and l = 1 is 3.

59)

A. Explanation:
Isotones are atoms of different elements that have the same number of neutrons but a
different number of protons.

B. Given Data: You haven't provided the options, but I'll explain how to find them. Let's say
the options were:

1. ¹⁴₆C
2. ¹⁵₇N
3. ¹⁶₈O
4. ¹⁷₉F

C. Concept:
Isotones, atomic number (number of protons), and mass number (number of protons +
neutrons). The number of neutrons is calculated as: Number of Neutrons = Mass Number -
Atomic Number.

D. Mathematical Calculation:

Calculate the number of neutrons in : 16 - 8 = 8 neutrons

Now, check each option:

¹⁴₆C: 14 - 6 = 8 neutrons

¹⁵₇N: 15 - 7 = 8 neutrons

¹⁶₈O: 16 - 8 = 8 neutrons
 ¹⁷₉F: 17 - 9 = 8 neutrons

F. Final Answer: All the options listed (¹⁴₆C, ¹⁵₇N, ¹⁶₈O, and ¹⁷₉F) are isotones of because they all
have 8 neutrons. So, the correct answer would be "all of the above" or option (4)

60) ν = 8 × 1015 s–1

λ=?
= 3.75 × 10–8 m.

61)

Explanation

A. Hund's rule states that electrons will singly occupy each orbital within a subshell before
any orbital is doubly occupied, and all electrons in singly occupied orbitals will have the
same spin.

Concept:

A. Violation of Hund's rule means electrons are paired in an orbital before all orbitals in the
subshell have at least one electron with the same spin.

B. An electron distribution where all orbitals in a subshell have at least one electron, but
one orbital has two electrons while others have only one with the same spin, violates
only Hund's rule.

Answer option 3

62)

63) Second excited state n = 3

E3 = –13.6 × = –1.51 e.v

64)

65) For Be3+ E∞ – E2 = + 13.6

66)

67) Page No. 48 Paragraph - 5 XIth NCERT

68) As it will have same wavelength

So, n1 = 1
n2 = 2

69) × Z2 = 13.6 × 4 = 54.4 eV

70) Explanation : isoelectronic pair 32e– is asked

Concept : by calculating e–

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

71)

Acidic strength order

HF < HCl < HBr < HI

72) Explanation : Amphoteric hydroxide is asked

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
Al(OH)3 & Zn(OH)2 are amphoteric in nature
Ba(OH)2 ⇒ basic hydroxide
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

73)

Explanation -

The question asks to identify the set of elements from the given options that are all located in
the same horizontal row (period) of the periodic table.

Concept - Identification of period

Solution -

Elements in the same period have the same highest electron shell. Examining the periodic
table positions, Sn (Period 5, Group 14), Sb (Period 5, Group 15), and Te (Period 5, Group 16)
all belong to Period 5.

Final Answer - Option (3)

74)

Mg, Mg2+, Al, Al3+

Mg > Mg2+, Al > Al3+ Neutral > cation of same element (size)
Largest Mg > Al
Mg+2 > Al+3 smallest

75) Explanation :- The question asks which statement about periodic trends and electronic
configurations is incorrect.
Concept :- (Electronic configuration)
The incorrect statement is that in the 5th period, the subshells 5s, 4f, 4d and 5p are filled in
that order. The correct filling order is 5s, 4d, and 5p. The 4f subshells are filled in the 6th
period. The other statements about diagonal relationships, representative elements, and f-
block configurations are correct.
Final Answer Option 3 (In 5th period, the subshells 5s, 4f, 4d, 5p would be filled)

76) Z = 103 is an actinide

77)

NCERT-XI, Part-I, Pg. # 72

78)

(58–71) ⇒ 6th period ⇒ 4f

79) Explanation :- The question asks which of the given orders of atomic radii is incorrect.
Concept- :- The correct order should be B > Al > Ga > In > Tl.
 Answer Option -4 (B > Al > Ga > In > Tl)

80)

X+2[Ar]3d8 = 26 'e'
0
hence X = 28 'e'
Y+3[Ar]3d3 = 21 'e'
0
hence Y = 24 'e'

81) Question Explanation:- The atomic number 34 corresponds to the element Selenium
(Se).
Concept:- Electronic configuration

Se = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d¹⁰ 4s² 4p⁴

Final Answer: Option (2). 4th period, 16th group, p block.

82)

Question Explanation : INCORRECT STATEMENT

Concept : application of EN.

Solution :- E.N is directly proportional to % s character

Thus sp > sp3 has more E.N

Final Answer : option (4). Electronegatively order : sp3 > sp (for carbon atom)

83) Fact

84) IP of mono anion is calculated by

EA so, answer Cl– > F–

85)
Zeff EN

86) UUe is 119

87)

Atomic number E.C. Block

(A) 24 [Ar]4s1 3d5 d-4

(B) 38 [Kr]5s2 s-3

 (C) 49 [Kr]4d10 5s2 5p1 p - 1

(D) 59 [Xe]4f3 6s2 f–2

A B C D
4 3 1 2

88)

V.W.R ≊ 2 × Covalent Radius

89)

Large difference between IE1 and IE2 So only 1e– in outermost shell.

90) Approximate same radius due to poor screening of f-electrons.

BOTANY

91) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 168

92) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 168

93)

Correct answer: Option 3 - b → a → c → d

Correct Sequence of Events in Meiosis:
1. (b) Synapsis → Occurs in Zygotene

A. Homologous chromosomes start pairing (synapsis) and form the synaptonemal complex.

2. (a) Crossing over → Occurs in Pachytene

A. Exchange of genetic material takes place between homologous chromatids.

B. G1 phase (Option 1) → Cell grows and prepares for DNA replication but does not synthesize
spindle proteins.
C. S-phase (Option 2) → DNA replication occurs, but spindle fibre proteins are not produced.
D. G2 phase (Option 3) → Spindle fibre proteins (like tubulin) are synthesized, preparing for
mitosis.
E. Early Prophase (Option 4) → Spindle fibres start assembling, but their synthesis happens
earlier in G2 phase.

Thus, spindle fibre proteins are synthesized in the G2 phase.

94) NCERT-XI Pg#123

95)
NCERT-XI Page No.126

96) NCERT-XI, Page#169, Fig.10.3

97) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 168, Para - 10.4.1

98)

Explanation

A. During anaphase I of meiosis, the homologous chromosomes are separated and pulled to
opposite poles of the cell. Each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids.

B. This is the key event that reduces the chromosome number from diploid (2n) to haploid
(n).

Correct Answer ✔ 2. Anaphase I

99)

NCERT-XI Page No.123

100)

NCERT-XI Pg#127

101)

NCERT-XI Page No.128

102) NCERT (XI) Pg # 165

103)

NCERT-XI Pg#121

104)

NCERT XI Pg # 163

105)

NCERT-XI Page No.126

 106)

NCERT-XI Page No.126

107)

NCERT-XI Page No.126

108) Module Pg. # 229, 3rd para

109) NCERT XIIth page no. # 165, Fig. 10.2.3

110) Correct Answer: 3. Diakinesis

Short Explanation:

A. Diakinesis is the final stage of Prophase I in meiosis.

B. It is marked by chromosome condensation, terminalization of chiasmata, and nuclear envelope
breakdown, preparing the cell for Metaphase I.

Why Are the Other Options Incorrect?

A. Diplotene → Chiasmata formation is visible, but nuclear envelope is still intact.

B. Pachytene → Crossing over occurs, but chromosomes are not fully condensed yet.
C. Metaphase → Not part of Prophase I, it follows after Diakinesis.

Final Answer: Diakinesis (Option 3).

111)

NCERT-XI Page No.126

112)

NCERT-XI Page No.126

113)

NCERT-XI Page No.126

114)

NCERT-XI Page No.124

115)

NCERT-XI Page No.124

116)

NCERT-XI Page No.122

117)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 124

118)

NCERT-XI (old), Pg. # 04 (Ans. 4)

119) Ncert Pg No: 8

120) Ncert Pg No: 6

121) Ncert Pg No: 5

122)

NCERT-XI Page No.07

123)

NCERT Page No. 6

124)

NCERT Page No. 11

125)

NCERT Page No. 11

126)

NCERT Page No. 2

127)

NCERT-XI Page No.13

128)
 NCERT-XI Page No.11

129) NCERT pg- 19

130)

NCERT-XI Page No.13

131)

NCERT-XI Page No.14

132)

NCERT-XI Page No.14

133)

NCERT-XI Page No.12

134)

NCERT-XI Page No.13

135)

NCERT-XI Page No.11

ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 145, 146

137) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 149

138)

Concept:

A. Amino acid structure

B. R-group definition

C. Explanation:

D. Amino Acid Structure: An amino acid consists of a central carbon atom (the alpha
 carbon) bonded to:

A. An amino group (–NH2)

B. A carboxyl group (–COOH)

C. A hydrogen atom (–H)

D. A side chain (R-group)

E. R-Group: The R-group is the variable part of an amino acid that determines its unique
properties. It can be a simple hydrogen atom (as in glycine) or a complex organic group.

F. –H: Hydrogen itself is a valid R group, and is the R group of Glycine.

G. –NH2: The amino group (–NH2) is a fundamental part of the amino acid backbone, not the
R-group.

Final Answer 2 : – NH2

139) Correct Answer option 3. The sequence of amino acids Explanation/Solution : The
primary structure is simply the linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain,
held together by peptide bonds. It does not involve any folding or interactions.

140)

Correct Answer option 3. Tertiary configuration

Explanation/Solution : The tertiary structure gives the protein its three-dimensional
shape, which is essential for its biological activity, including enzyme function, binding, and
interaction with other molecules.

141)

Explanation:

Zwitterion: The molecule has both a positive (NH3+) and a negative (COO-) charge, making it
a zwitterion.

The correct answer is 2. Zwitter ion.

142) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 145

143) Solution/Explanation:
 A. Tyrosine: Does not contain sulfur.

B. Phenylalanine: Does not contain sulfur.

C. Cystine: Contains a disulfide bond (S-S) between two cysteine residues, so it contains
sulfur.

D. Proline: Does not contain sulfur.

E. Methionine: Contains sulfur in its side chain.

F. Valine: Does not contain sulfur.

G. Serine: Does not contain sulfur.

Therefore, the sulfur-containing amino acids in the list are Cystine and Methionine.

The correct answer is option 3 (Two).

144) NCERT-XI Pg. # 145

145) Eng. : NCERT Page No. 159 (3rd last paragraph)

146) NCERT-XI Page no. 107

147) Explanation:
Km constant: This was coined by Michaelis and Menten.
It is the concentration of substrate at which rate of reaction attains half of its maximum
velocity.
(1/2Vmax ).
The correct answer option 3

148) NCERT XI Pg. # 158

149)

NCERT XI Pg. # 146, Table 9.3

150)
 Concept: Aromatic amino acids: Contain aromatic rings (e.g., tryptophan, phenylalanine,
tyrosine).

A. Acidic amino acids: Have an extra carboxyl group (e.g., glutamic acid, aspartic acid).
B. Basic amino acids: Have an extra amino group (e.g., lysine, arginine, histidine).
C. Simplest amino acid: Glycine (has a hydrogen as its R group).

Explanation: A. Aromatic: Tryptophan (IV) is an aromatic amino acid.

A. B. Acidic: Glutamic acid (III) is an acidic amino acid.

B. C. Basic: Lysine (II) is a basic amino acid.
C. D. Simplest: Glycine (I) is the simplest amino acid.

Therefore, the correct matching is: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.

Final Answer: 3 A–IV B–III C–II D–I

151)

Sulphur controls bacterial pathogen by competitive inhibitors.

152) NCERT XIth Pg.#151

153)

Explanation

A. In a reaction coordinate diagram, the vertical axis represents potential energy.

B. The starting point of the reaction represents the reactants (substrate), and the ending
point represents the products.

C. Therefore, the beginning of the reaction will have the substrate, and the end will have
the product.

D. The Y axis is potential energy.

E. Thus, the correct sequence is:

A. A = Potential energy

B. B = Substrate

C. C = Product
Final AnswerThe correct answer is (3) : A = Potential energy (B) Substrate (C)
Product.

154)

Concept

A. Peptide bonds: Covalent bonds formed between amino acids.

B. The number of peptide bonds in a polypeptide is always one less than the number of
amino acids.

Explanation

A. Each peptide bond links two amino acids together.

B. Therefore, for a hexapeptide (6 amino acids), there will be 6 - 1 = 5 peptide bonds.

Final AnswerThe correct answer is (2) : 5 peptide bonds.

155)

Adenine + Sugar → Adenosine

Here, adenine (a nitrogenous base) combines with a sugar molecule (ribose or deoxyribose) to
form a nucleoside (Adenosine).
So, X = sugar molecule
Adenosine + Phosphate → Adenylic acid (AMP - Adenosine Monophosphate)
When a phosphate group is added to adenosine, it forms a nucleotide called adenylic acid
(AMP)
So, Y = phosphate group
Thus, X = sugar molecule & Y = Phosphate group,

156)

–NH2 and –COOH are involved in peptide linkage.

157)

NCERT XI Page # 145

158)

Concept
A. Enzyme activity: Enzymes are proteins that catalyze biochemical reactions.
B. Temperature effects: Temperature affects enzyme activity.

Explanation

A. Low temperature: At low temperatures, enzymes are not permanently damaged but their
activity is greatly reduced. They are temporarily inactive.
B. High temperature: High temperature causes proteins to denature, which is an irreversible
change in their structure, leading to permanent loss of enzymatic activity. The protein's
structure is disrupted and cannot return to its original form.

Therefore, 'A' is denatured and 'B' is temporarily inactive.

Final Answer

The correct answer is 4. A = denatured, B = temporarily inactive.

159)

Concept

A. Holoenzyme: A complete, catalytically active enzyme.

Explanation

A. A holoenzyme consists of an apoenzyme (the protein part) and a cofactor (the non-protein
part).

Final Answer

The correct answer is 2. Apo-enzyme & Co-factor.

160)

–NH2, –COOH and –R group determines physical and chemical properties of enzymes.

161)

The first amino acid is present in N-Terminal.

162)

DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) and RNA (Ribonucleic Acid) differ in two main components:

1 Sugar Difference:

A. DNA contains deoxyribose (lacks an -OH group at the 2' carbon).

B. RNA contains ribose (has an -OH group at the 2' carbon).

2 Nitrogen Base Difference:

A. DNA has Thymine (T).

B. RNA has Uracil (U) instead of Thymine.

The correct answer is:

1. A = temporarily inactive, B = denatured

163)

NCERT EDITION 2022 - 2023 Pg. No. 151

164)

Upon addition of co-factor the catalytic property of enzyme is activated.

165)

NCERT Page.No 156

166)

Prosthetic group is tightly bonded to apoenzyme.

167)

At Vmax no enzyme molecules are free.

168) Concept:
Exothermic reactions release energy, meaning the products have lower energy than the
reactants.
Endothermic reactions absorb energy, meaning the products have higher energy than the
reactants.
Enzymes lower the activation energy required for a reaction, but they don't change the overall
energy of the reaction.
D. Explanation:
the reaction is exothermic, the products will be at a lower energy level than the reactants.
The enzyme lowers the activation energy, which is represented by the difference in energy
between A and B.
Since the reaction is exothermic, energy A is higher than B when the enzyme is present, and
energy A is in the absence of the enzyme.
Final Answer: Option 4: Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in
absence of enzyme.
169)

Cytosine is Nitrogen base of DNA & RNA

170)

Purines are heterocyclic Nitrogen containing compounds with double ring.

171)

Deoxyribose sugar is pentose.

172)

20 amines acid form protein.

173)

RNA that act like enzyme are called Ribozyme.

174)

Km indicates catalytic efficiency of an enzyme.

175) NCERT-XII, Pg. # (E)-149,150, (H)-149,150

176)

Transferase

177)

NCERT XI, Pg # 145

178)

NCERT Page #145 (Class XIth)

179)

No additional –NH2 or –COOH group in valine.

180) NCERT-XI Pg. # 144