All India Test Series (NEET-2022-23)

TEST – 01

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 13/11/2022 M. MARKS : 720

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each
subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all compulsory) and Section
B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
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electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
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[1]
 Topics Covered

Physics : Basic Maths, Vectors, Motion in a Straight Line

Chemistry : Mole Concept

Biology : (Botany) : Cell: The Unit of Life

(Zoology) : Structural organisation in Animals

[2]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A 7. A ball starts moving eastward with speed 35 m/s.
1. If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere An acceleration of 10 m/s2 is acting on it in
is 3% then the error in determination of its volume westward direction. What is distance travelled by
will be particle in 4th second of its motion?
(1) 6% (2) 8% (1) Zero (2) 1.25
(3) 9% (4) 3% (3) 2.5 m (4) 5 m

2. A person takes T1 second to move up a certain 8. If a particle is moving on a curved path with
distance on the stationary escalator. While moving constant speed, then
up on a moving escalator, the person takes T2 (1) Velocity remains constant
second to cover the same distance. The time taken (2) Body is said to be under acceleration
to cover the same distance if man just stands on the (3) Body remains unaccelerated
moving escalator is
(4) Body is moving with decreasing velocity
T12 − T22 T2T1
(1) (2)
T2 − T1 T2 + T1 9. Let v and a denote the velocity and acceleration
T2T1 T +T respectively of a body in one dimensional motion. Then
(3) (4) 2 1
T1 − T2 2 correct option is
(1) v must decrease when a = 0
3. If a car travels from city A to city B with speed v1 (2) Speed must increase when a is non-zero
3 (3) Speed will decrease when v and a anti-parallel
for th part of total distance and remaining distance is
7 (4) All of these
covered with speed v2, then average speed of the car is
2v1v2 3v1 + 4v2 10. If the initial velocity of a particle is u and its
(1) (2)
v1 + v2 7 acceleration is given as a = At3, where A is constant
7v1v2 7v1v2 and t is time, then its instantaneous velocity v as a
(3) (4) function of time is given as
3v1 + 4v2 4v1 + 3v2
At 4
(1) v = u + At4 (2) v = u +
4
4. If velocity of a body is given by v = t3/2, then
dimension of  should be (t is time) At 3
(3) v = u + At3 (4) v = u +
(1) [LT5/2] (2) [L–1T5/2] 3
(3) [LT–5/2] (4) [LT–3/2]
11. A body is moving with speed (10.00  0.01) m/s.
5. Two vectors A and B are such that A + B = C and The distance covered in time (5.00  0.01) s is
A2 + B2 = C2. Which of the following statements is (1) (50  0.3%) m (2) (2.00  0.3%) m
correct? (3) (20.0  0.3) m (4) (50.0  2%) m
(1) A is perpendicular to B
12. A car is moving with speed 72 km/h on a straight
(2) B and A is parallel road. Suddenly brakes are applied due to which car
(3) A and B are equal in magnitude retards at the rate of 10 m/s2, distance travelled by
(4) A and C are equal in magnitude car before coming to rest is
(1) 20 m (2) 200 m
6. Choose the incorrect options among the following (3) 260 m (4) 190 m
(1) A physical quantity with units may not have
dimensions 13. A vernier calliper has each main scale division
(2) A physical quantity with dimensions may not equal to 1 mm. 20 vernier scale division are equal
have unit to 16 main scale divisions. The least count of this
(3) A physical quantity having constant value is vernier calliper is
dimensionless (1) 0.1 mm (2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.02 mm (4) 0.04 mm
(4) Both (2) and (3)
[3]
14. The vectors aiˆ + 2 ˆj + 6kˆ and 2iˆ + 2 ˆj + 6kˆ are 21. Which of the following has the least number of
significant figures?
equal vectors. The value of a is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 1.63 × 1020 kg (2) 0.003 m2
(3) 4 (4) 6 (3) 7.3420 m2 (4) 3.021 m

15. A particle is moving on a straight line such that its 22. If an object is falling freely in vacuum, then body
velocity is given by v = 6t + 3t2, where v is in m/s moves with
and t is in second. If at t = 0, the particle is at origin (1) Uniform velocity
then average velocity during t = 0 to t = 3 is is (2) Uniform acceleration
(1) 18 m/s (3) Variable acceleration
(2) 9 m/s (4) Uniform speed
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 27 m/s 23. Position(x) - time(t) graph of an object is shown in
the figure. Ratio of speed of the particle at t = 3 to
16. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius ‘R’ that at t = 7 second is
as shown in the figure. If it starts from point A, then
displacement of the particle after rotating through
780° is

3 5
(1) (2)
5 3
(1) R 3 (2) R 2 5 1
(3) R (4) Zero (3) (4)
8 1
17. If a body is moving along a straight path then which 24. Two cars A and B are approaching each other head-
of the following is true?
on with speeds 20 m/s and 10 m/s respectively.
(1) Distance is always equal to magnitude of
When their separation is X, then A and B start
displacement
braking at 4 m/s2 and 2 m/s2 respectively. Minimum
(2) Body is always accelerated
value of X to avoid collision is
(3) Distance may be greater than the magnitude of
displacement (1) 60 m (2) 75 m
(4) Speed of body will always be zero once in the (3) 80 m (4) 90 m
journey
25. The angle made by the vector A = iˆ + ˆj with x-axis
18. Which of the following operations is not defined for is
any vector A and an integer n? (1) 90° (2) 45°
A (3) 22.5° (4) 30°
(1) (2) nA
n
(3) n2 A (4) n + A 26. Consider following two statements.
a. Component of a vector can have a magnitude
19. Resultant of three forces F1 , F2 and F3 is zero. If greater than the magnitude of the vector itself.
F1 = 2iˆ + 6 ˆj and F2 = iˆ + ˆj , then F3 will be b. A vector can be divided by another vector.
The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) 3iˆ + 3 ˆj (2) −3iˆ − 7 ˆj (1) a only (2) b only
(3) 3iˆ + 7 ˆj (4) iˆ + 5 ˆj (3) Both a and b (4) Neither a nor b

20. If random error in an experiment for 10 27. If x denotes position of an object at time t as
observations is e, then random error in experiment x = 5 cost, then its acceleration is
for 60 observations will be (1) 5 cos(t) (2) – 5 cos(t)
(1) e (2) e/6
(3) 5 sin(t) (4) – 5 sin(t)
(3) 6e (4) e/36
[4]
28. Two stones of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are dropped from SECTION – B
height 30 m and 40 m respectively. The ratio of time 36. Magnitude of component of vector 2iˆ + 6kˆ along
taken by the stones to reach the ground is y axis is
1 (1) 6 (2) 1
(1) (2) 1 : 1
2 (3) 2 (4) Zero
4 3
(3) (4)
3 4 37. A particle is thrown vertically up such that distance
travelled by it in 2nd second and 9th second is same.
29. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus Maximum height up to which the particle rises is (g
time (t) curve is shown in the figure. Maximum = 10 m/s2)
speed of the particle will be (1) 90 m (2) 125 m
(3) 180 m (4) 45 m

A3
38. A physical quantity p is given as p = and the
BC
percentage errors in the measurements of A, B and
C are 1%, 2% and 4% respectively. The maximum
(1) 400 m/s (2) 100 m/s percentage error in the calculation of p is
(3) 200 m/s (4) 500 m/s (1) 4% (2) 6%
(3) 8% (4) 10%
30. The value of (10004)1/4 according to binomial
approximation is 39. 100 J of energy is equivalent to K ergs (in CGS
(1) 10.001 (2) 10.04 system). The value of K is
(3) 10.004 (4) 10.01 (1) 107 (2) 108
(3) 109 (4) 105
31. Zero error in an instrument is a
(1) Random error (2) Systematic error 40. 10 N of force is to be converted in a new system of
(3) Least count error (4) Personal error units in which unit of mass is 10 kg, unit of length
is 10 m and unit of time is 10 s. The numerical value
32. The pair of quantities having same dimensions are of given force in new system of units is
(1) Displacement, Focal length (1) 10 (2) 100
(2) Tension, Surface tension (3) 1000 (4) 1
(3) Power, Time
(4) Force, Impulse 41. The displacement-time (x-t) graph of two moving
objects A and B are shown in the figure. Choose the
33. If force F, velocity v and acceleration γ are taken as incorrect statement.
fundamental quantities, then dimensional formula
for time period of simple pendulum is
(1)  F 0v1 −1  (2)  F1v11 
   
(3)  F 0v−11  (4)  F 0v1 −2 
    t
(1) A is moving with constant velocity
34. If A, B and C are physical quantities, having (2) B is moving with increasing speed
different dimensions, which of the following (3) The acceleration of B may be constant
combination can never be meaningful quantity? (4) A is moving with non-zero constant acceleration
(1) (A – B)/C (2) AB – C
(3) AB/C (4) AB – C2 42. The motion of a particle along a straight line is
described by equation x = 2 + 12t – t2, where x is in
35. For two vectors A and B , it is given, that metre and t is in second. The retardation of the
A + B = A = B , then angle between A and B is particle when its velocity becomes zero is
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 12 m/s2
(1) 90° (2) 30°
(3) –2 m/s2 (4) –12 m/s2
(3) 60° (4) 120°
[5]
43. The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a 46. A particle starts from rest under constant
straight line is shown in the figure. The distance acceleration a = 4 m/s2. Ratio of respective distance
covered by the particle from time t = 0 to t = 4 s is travelled by the particle in 3rd and 5th second of its
motion is
(1) 9 : 25 (2) 5 : 9
(3) 9 : 5 (4) 25 : 9

47. The addition of lengths 100 m and 0.2 m up to

appropriate significant figure will be
(1) 100 m (2) 100.2 m
(3) 101 m (4) 1000.02 m
(1) 2 m (2) 4 m
(3) 6 m (4) 3 m 48. The distance travelled by a particle is directly
proportional to t , where t is time elapsed. Which
44. A ball is dropped from the top of a building of of the following is correct regarding the motion of
height 100 m at time t = 0. At the same instant, the particle?
another ball is thrown upwards with speed of (1) Particle is moving with increasing
50 m/s from the bottom of the building. The time at acceleration
which balls will meet is (2) Particle is moving with decreasing
(1) 2 s acceleration
(2) 4 s (3) Particle is moving with decreasing retardation
(3) 3 s (4) Particle is moving with increasing retardation
(4) 2.5 s
49. A body in one dimensional motion has zero speed
at an instant. At that instant, body must have
45. For which of the following position(x) - time(t) (1) Zero velocity
graph for the motion of a body, the acceleration is (2) Non-zero velocity
negative initially? (3) Zero acceleration
(4) Non-zero acceleration
(1) (2) 50. 1° is equal to

(1) rad (2) 60'
180
180
(3) rad (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) (4) 

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A 54. 1.2044 1023 molecules of glucose are present in
51. For reaction, 2A + 3B → C, 6 moles of A and 12 100g of water. The molality of glucose solution
moles of B will produce maximum_____ of C. is:
(1) 2 moles (2) 3 moles (1) 0.1 m (2) 1 m
(3) 4 moles (4) 5 moles (3) 0.2 m (4) 2 m

52. Number of carbon atoms present in 44g of 55. If the mass percentage of Cu in an enzyme is
(
Oxalate ion C2O4−2 is) 0.1270%, then the minimum molecular mass of
the enzyme will be
(1) NA (2) 2NA
(3) 0.5 N (4) 1.5 NA (atomic mass of Copper = 63.54)
(1) 50,000 u
53. The molarity of 24.5% (w/w) H2SO4 (2) 60,000 u
solution having density 1.2 g/ml is (3) 25,000 u
(1) 1 M (2) 3 M (4) 30,000 u
(3) 1.2 M (4) 2.4 M
[6]
56. The mass percentage of Carbon in Acetic acid is: 65. The mass of 1 molecule of Glucose
(1) 77.40% (2) 40.00% 180
(1) 180N A g (2) g
(3) 19.00% (4) 25.40% NA
NA
57. The molarity of 2N H3PO3 solution is (3) 180 g (4) g
180
(1) 1 M (2) 2 M
(3) 0.5 M (4) 1.5 M 66. The empirical formula of a hydrocarbon
containing 80% carbon is
58. For complete oxidation of 2L of NO(g) to NO2(g) (1) CH2 (2) C2H3
at STP, the volume of O2(g) required at STP is (3) CH3 (4) CH4
(1) 0.5 L (2) 2 L
(3) 1 L (4) 1.5 L 67. 2.24L of ethane is present in
a closed container at STP. The number of atoms
59. Number of S atoms present in 0.5g molecules of of Ethane present in the container is
S8 is (1) 1.2 1023 (2) 2.4 1023
(1) 2NA (2) 4NA (3) 3.6 1023 (4) 4.81023
(3) NA (4) 3NA
68. Which of the following is an SI unit?
60. The maximum number of molecules are present (1) miles (2) mole
in (3) hour (4) gram
(1) 44.8L of H2
69. For which reaction, Gay Lussac’s law is not
(2) 6.022  1023 molecules of N2 applicable?
(3) 8 gm of O2 (1) 2SO2( g ) + O2( g ) → 2SO3( g )
(4) 0.25 mol of CO2
(2) CaCO3(S) → CaO(s) +CO2( g )

61. 22.2g of CaCl2 is present in 400 mL of an (3) 2NH3 ( g ) → N2 ( g ) + 3H2( g )

aqueous solution. The molarity of chloride ion in (4) 2H2( g ) + O2( g ) → 2H2O( g )
the solution is (atomic mass of Ca = 40u and Cl =
35.5u)
70. Which of the following is dependent on
(1) 1.5 M (2) 0.5 M
temperature?
(3) 2 M (4) 1 M
(1) Molality (2) Molarity
(3) % (w/w) (4) None of these
62. How many significant figures are in 0.03412?
CS)
(1) 1 (2) 5
71. The mole fraction of solute in an aqueous solution
(3) 6 (4) 4
of H2SO4 having molality one is:
(1) 0.09 (2) 0.018
63. The incorrect statement according to Dalton's (3) 0.04 (4) 0.27
Atomic theory is
(1) Atoms can be created in a chemical reaction 72. The element Q has the following isotopic
(2) Atoms of a given element are identical in all composition, Q200 :80% ; Q190 :15% and
respects 210
Q : 5% . The average atomic mass of the
(3) Atoms of different elements differ in mass.
naturally occurring element Q is
(4) Compounds are formed when atoms of
(1) 200 u (2) 198 u
different elements combine in fixed ratio
(3) 199 u (4) 202 u

64. Which of the following combinations does not 73. The volume occupied by one mol of Benzene is
illustrates the law of multiple proportions? (density = 0.877 gm)
(1) N2O4, NO2 (2) CS2, CO2 (1) 22.4 ml (2) 877 ml
(3) SO2, SO3 (4) H2O, H2O2 (3) 89 ml (4) 1 ml
[7]
74. The volume of 0.5M Urea required to prepare 82. Assertion: One atomic mass unit is defined as
0.1M of 100ml Urea solution is one twelfth of the mass of one carbon – 12 atom.
(1) 20 ml (2) 25 ml Reason: Carbon-12 isotopes is the most
(3) 40 ml (4) 50 ml abundant isotope of carbon and has been chosen
as standard.
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
75. The number of electrons present in 2.1g of Azide
is a correct explanation for assertion.
( )
ion N3− is (2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(1) 0.1 NA (2) 1.1 NA
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(3) 0.75 NA (4) 10 NA (4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

76. The volume of O2 required to completely burn 83. Assertion: Volume of a gas is inversely
52g at Ethyne (C2H2) of STP is: proportional to the number of moles of gas
(1) 224 L (2) 448 L Reason: The ratio by volume of gaseous reactants
and products is in agreement with their mole ratio.
(3) 112 L (4) 56 L
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
is a correct explanation for assertion.
77. The molarity of pure water is (density = 1 (2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
gm/cm3) is not a correct explanation for assertion
(1) 18 M (2) 30.55 M (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(3) 45.45 M (4) 55.55 M (4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

84. Assertion: Equal moles of different substances

78. A solution is prepared by adding 46 gm of
contain same number of constituent particles.
Toluene in 380 gm of carbon disulphide (CS2). Reason: Equal weights of different substances
The mole fraction of Toluene in the solution is contain the same number of constituent particles.
1 1 (1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
(1) (2)
9 11 is a correct explanation for assertion.
1 1 (2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
(3) (4) is not a correct explanation for assertion
5.5 21
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
79. Number of C atoms in 84 u of C14 is
(1) 14 (2) 7 85. Assertion: The empirical mass of ethene is half
(3) 12 (4) 6 of its molecular mass.
Reason: The empirical formula represents the
80. In different samples of laughing gas (N2O), mass simplest whole number ratio of various atoms
present in a compound.
ratio nitrogen to oxygen is found to be 7:4. This
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
observation obeys
is a correct explanation for assertion.
(1) Law of definite proportion. (2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
(2) Gay Loussac’s law of gaseous volumes is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Law of multiple proportion (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Law of conservation of mass. (4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

81. Assertion: 1.231 has three significant figures SECTION – B

86. Incorrect statement among the following is
Reason: All numbers right to the decimal point
(1) Isotopes of an element have equal relative
are significant.
abundances.
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason (2) Many natural occurring elements exists as
is a correct explanation for assertion. more than one isotopes.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason (3) Atomic mass of an element is average
is not a correct explanation for assertion atomic mass of its different isotopes.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect. (4) The percentage composition of elements in
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. a compound is independent of its source.

[8]
87. Mass of a proton in Kg is 95. If 23g of NOx occupies 11.2L at STP, then the
−24 −23
(1) 1.66 10 (2) 6.022 10 value of x is
−27
(3) 6.022 10 (4) 1.66 10−27 (1) 2 (2) 1
1
(3) 3 (4)
88. The ratio of molecular formula mass to empirical 2
formula mass of fructose (C6H12O6) is
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 1 : 6 96. Which one of the followings has maximum
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 6 : 1 number of atoms?
(1) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
89. Mass of 25% (w/w) HCl solution required to
(2) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
decompose 25g CaCO3 is
(1) 18.25  2g (2) 18.25g (3) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
(4) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
(3) 18.25  0.5g (4) 18.25  4g

97. The number of moles of hydrogen molecule

90. Moles of Hydrogen atoms present in 0.2 mole of
Mohr salt ( FeSO4 . ( NH4 )2 SO4  6H2O is ) required to produce 20 moles of ammonia
through Haber’s process is:
(1) 4.0 (2) 2.4 (1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 1.7 (4) 3.6 (3) 30 (4) 40
91. Which of the following molecules contains 98. In which case is number of molecules of water
maximum percentage of carbon by mass? maximum?
(1) C6H5OH (2) CH4 (1) 18 mL of water
(3) C4H8 (4) C2H2 (2) 0.18 g of water
(3) 10–3 mol of water
92. How many grams of conc. Nitric acid solution be
used to prepare 200 mL of 3.0 M HNO3 solution? (4) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
[Given concentrated nitric acid is 70% (w/w)
HNO3] 99. The number of water molecules is maximum in
(1) 54 g (2) 60 g (1) 18 molecules of water
(3) 72 g (4) 36 g (2) 1.8 gram of water
(3) 18 gram of water
93. 11.2 L of HCl (g) is completely dissolved in 500 ml (4) 18 moles of water
of aqueous solution. The molality of the solution
is
(1) 1.5 m (2) 2 m 100. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres
(3) 1 m (4) 0.5 m of Cl2(g), each at S.T.P. the moles of HCl(g)
formed is equal to
94. What is percentage purity of impure magnesium (1) 1 mole of HCl(g)
carbonate sample whose 8.4g sample on (2) 2 moles of HCl(g)
decomposition gives 1.1g of CO2? (3) 0.5 moles of HCl(g)
(1) 75% (2) 50% (4) 1.5 moles of HCl(g)
(3) 100% (4) 25%
SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION – A 104. Majority of chloroplasts in green plants are found in
101. Typically mitochondrion diameter varies from (1) xylem elements (2) epidermal cells
(1) 0.2 – 1.0 μm (2) 2 – 10 μm (3) Mesophyll cells (4) Stele
(3) 20 – 100 μm (4) 0.02 – 0.1 μm 105. Organised flattened membranous sacs present in
stroma of chloroplast are called
102. Plastids are not related to (1) Granum (2) Thylakoids
(1) Plant cell (2) Euglena (3) Stroma lamellae (4) Inner membrane
(3) Pisum (4) Amoeba 106. Ribosomes were first observed by
(1) Christian de Duve
103. Amyloplasts store (2) George palade
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Protein (3) Camillo Golgi
(3) Fats (4) Oils (4) Albert von Kolliker

[9]
107. Identify wrong statement associated with Golgi 114. The associated proteins of microtubule present in
apparatus core of cilium or flagella is called.
(1) It performs the function of packaging (1) Actin (2) Tubulin
(2) Performs osmoregulation and excretion (3) Axoneme (4) Microfilaments
(3) Remains in close association with ER
(4) Sites for formation glycoproteins & glycolipids
115. Mitochondria, Chloroplast, cytoplasm consist of
108. Identify single membrane organelle which type of ribosome respectively
(1) Nucleus (2) Plastids (1) 70S, 70S, 80S
(3) Mitochondria (4) Golgi apparatus (2) 80S, 70S, 70S
(3) 70S, 80S, 80S
109. Which structure is not related to Cytoskeleton (4) 80S, 80S, 70S
system of cells?
(1) Microtubules 116. Identify the correct labelling in diagram.
(2) Microfilaments
(3) Intermediate filaments
(4) Centrioles

110. What is the width of perinuclear space

(1) 10-50 nm (2) 1-5 nm
(3) 0.1-0.5 nm (4) 100-500 nm

111. Identify acrocentric chromosome (1) A – Granum, B – Stroma lamellae , C–Stroma

(2) A– Stroma lamellae, B–Granum, C–Stroma
(3) A – Stroma, B – Granum, C–Stroma lamellae.
(4) A – Granum, B – Stroma, C–Stroma lamellae.
(1) (2)
117. Chlorophyll are located in which part of the
chloroplast
(1) Outer membrane
(2) Thylakoid membrane
(3) Stroma
(3) (4) (4) Inner membrane

118. Identify incorrect statement in regards to centrioles

(1) They determine the poles during cell division
(2) They are two in member present in
112. Nucleus is present in centrosome perpendicular to each other
(1) Mature erythrocyte of Human (3) They are present in all higher plants
(2) Mature sieve tube cells (4) They possess 9 + 0 arrangement
(3) Escherichia coli
(4) Amoeba 119. Why liver cell, kidney cell and muscle cells are not
considered best material for study of structure of cell
113. Assertion: A Nucleoli are spherical structure
membrane.
present in nucleoplasm are active sites of ribosomal
RNA synthesis. (1) Because they have thick cell membrane
Reason: Larger number of nucleoli present in cells (2) Because they are hard to isolate
are increasing protein synthesis. (3) Because they have different structures
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (4) Because they have nucleus and other inter
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation membrane.
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the 120. Types of ribosomes present in E.coli
true but Reason (R) is not a correct (1) Sub units 50S, 30S
explanation of Assertion (A) (2) Sub units 60S, 40S
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (3) Sub units 80S
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true (4) Sub units 40S, 30S

[10]
121. Select the incorrect pair 130. The organelles which supports the process of
(1) Plasmodesmata → protection osmoregulation of cell
(2) Amyloplast → Food storage (1) Cell wall (2) ER
(3) Vacuole → osmoregulation (3) Golgi apparatus (4) Vacuole
(4) Cell wall → Mechanical support
131. The most abundant lipid in the cell membrane is?
122. Identify wrong statements regarding peroxisomes (1) Pectin (2) Glycolipid
(1) Takes part in photo respiration
(3) Steroid (4) Phosphoglycerides
(2) Single membrane bound organelle
(3) Takes part in synthesis and storage of lipids
(4) Protects cell from toxic effect of hydrogen 132. Semipermeable nature of membrane is due to
peroxide (H2O2) (1) Carbohydrates (2) Proteins
(3) Phospholipids (4) Embedded proteins
123. Which of the following does not belong to
Microbodies.
133. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by
(1) Mesosomes (2) Glyoxysomes
(3) Glycosomes (4) Peroxisomes (1) James Watson & Francis Crick
(2) Davson Danielli & John William Dawson
124. Endomembrane system includes (3) Fred Singer & Garth L. Nicolson
(1) Cell membrane, Golgi apparatus, Vesicles (4) Robert Robinson & Thomas Hunt Morgan
(2) Golgi body, Lysosomes, Vacuoles, ER
(3) Nuclear membrane, Vacuoles, ER, Ribosomes
134. Which of the process is energy dependent
(4) Cell membrane, Golgi apparatus, ER, Lysosomes
(1) Movement of H2O across the membrane
125. In injured and dead cell, these membranes vesicles (2) Movement of ions due to concentration
will rupture spontaneously releasing enzymes to gradient
dissolve the injured cell (3) Movement of gases across membrane
(1) Lysosome (2) Glyoxysome (4) Movement of sodium and potassium through
(3) Peroxisome (4) Ribosomes the pump

126. Golgi bodies were discovered in year

(1) 1898 (2) 1890 135. A: Cells vary greatly in their Morphology.
(3) 1868 (4) 1880 R: Morphology of cell does not depend on
function they preform.
127. Chromosome which have centromere at its terminal (1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
end. is a correct explanation for assertion.
(1) Metacentric chromosome (2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
(2) Sub-Metacentric chromosome
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Acrocentric chromosome
(4) Telocentric chromosome (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
128. Which of the following is not a leucoplast
(1) Amyloplasts (2) Chromoplast SECTION – B
(3) Aleuroplasts (4) Elaioplasts
136. A: A plant cell doesn’t gets denatured when
129. Factor which does not support semi autonomous placed in water
nature of mitochondria.
R: High turgor pressure causes endo-osmosis and
(1) Mitochondria have their own DNA which can
cell burst.
replicate independently
(2) All the 3 types of RNAs are present in matrix (1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
of mitochondria is a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Mitochondria fission leading to two separate (2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
mitochondrial organelles. is not a correct explanation for assertion
(4) Mitochondria can live independly outside the (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
cell. (4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

[11]
137. A: Rough endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for 144. In human the membrane of the erythrocyte contain
synthesis of proteins. lipid approximately
R: Large number of ribosomes are attached to the (1) 52% (2) 40%
surface of endoplasmic reticulum and helps is (3) 60%. (4) 80%
synthesis of proteins.
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
is a correct explanation for assertion. 145. Polyribosomes are aggregation of
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason (1) Ribosomes & rRNA
is not a correct explanation for assertion (2) Ribosomes & tRNA
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect. (3) Ribosomes & mRNA
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. (4) None

138. A: Leucoplast cannot perform photosynthesis 146. Cytoplasmic bridges between adjacent plant cells
R: Leucoplasts are devoid of chlorophyll molecules.
(1) Plasmodesmata (2) Pilli
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
(3) Tight junction (4) Microfilaments
is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion 147. Identify the process A, B and C mentioned in diagram.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

139. Distinguishing feature of plastids in related to

mitochondria
(1) They have two layer of membrane.
(2) They have ribosomes
(3) They have thylakoids
(4) They have DNA
A B C
140. Tonoplast refers to Simple Active
(1) Cell membrane of bacterial cell (1) Osmosis
diffusion transport
(2) Inner membrane of chloroplast Active Simple
(3) Membrane boundary of vacuole (2) Osmosis
transport diffusion
(4) Inner membrane of mitochondria
Facilitated Simple
(3) Osmosis
141. Which of the following is absent in eukaryotic cell. diffusion diffusion
(1) Cell wall (2) Centrioles Facilitated Simple
(4) Osmosis
(3) Nucleoid (4) 70S Ribosomes diffusion diffusion

142. A: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesis lipids 148. Plasma found inside nuclear membrane is
R: SER doesn’t have ribosomes attached so it helps
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Protoplasm
in lipid synthesis.
(3) Nucleoplasm (4) Centroplasm
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason
is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason 149. Cell sap is a
is not a correct explanation for assertion (1) Living content of cell
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect. (2) Non living content of the vacuole.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. (3) Non living content of protoplasm
(4) Living content of cytoplasm.
143. Select wrong statement with respect to the structure
of the plant cell (Higher plants.)
150. New cells arise through cell division of pre-existing
(1) Cellullosic cell wall is present
(2) Centrioles are present cells was proposed by
(3) Large vacuole is present (1) Singer (2) Robert Brown
(4) Golgi apparatus is formed by number of units (3) Robert Hooke (4) Rudolf Virchow
called dictyosomes

[12]
 SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION – A 156. Identify the diagram given below and select the
151. In cockroach, both prothoracic and mesothoracic option which is correct for it
segment bears
(1) Two pair of legs and forewings
(2) One pair of legs and tegmina
(3) Only a pair of legs
(4) Only a pair of legs ventrally and hindwings

152. Consider the following features

I. Muscle fibres are bundled together in a
connective tissue sheath
II. Cell junctions hold them together (1) Orientation of fibres shows an irregular pattern
III. Do not show striations (2) Present beneath the skin
Which of the following structure possess muscle (3) Matrix secreting cells are not present in it
fibres showing all the above mentioned features? (4) Present in the structure which attach one
(1) Heart bone to another bone
(2) Stomach
(3) Tongue 157. ____A________ help in removal of excretory
(4) Diaphragm products from ____B_____
Choose the option that correctly fills the blanks A
153. Given below are two statements and B, respectively
Statement I: Ducts of glands are lined with A B
cuboidal epithelium (1) Malpighian tubules Haemolymph
Statement II: Inner surface of hollow organs like
(2) Hepatic caeca Blood
fallopian tube is lined by ciliated epithelium
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (3) Malpighian tubules Rectum
appropriate answer from the options given below (4) Gastric caeca Haemolymph
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
158. Select the mouth parts in cockroach that are paired
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(1) Maxilla, mandible
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(2) Labium, labrum
154. A muscle cell is a muscle ________ (3) Hypopharynx, labrum
(1) Filament (4) Maxilla, labium
(2) Fibril
(3) Bundle 159. All of the following are present in all connective
(4) Fibre tissues without exception, except
(1) Cells (2) Fibres
155. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t cockroach (3) Matrix (4) Proteins
(1) Head is formed by the fusion of six segments
and shows great mobility in all directions due 160. Complete the analogy
to flexible neck Salivary gland: Multicellular gland: : Goblet cell:
(2) Abdomen in both males and females consists __________
of 10 segments Choose the option which correctly fills the blank
(3) Males bear 1 short, thread like anal style (1) Endocrine gland
(4) Genital pouch of males comprises dorsal (2) Unicellular gland
anus, ventral male genital pore and (3) Ductless gland
gonapophysis (4) Heterocrine gland

[13]
161. Which of the following statement is/are correct for 165. Read the following characteristics
Periplaneta americana? (a) Provide both structural and functional link
I. 34-53 mm long with wings that extend between its individual cells
beyond the tip of the head in males (b) Junction perform cementing to keep
II. Body is segmented and divisible into three neighbouring cells together
distinct regions – head, thorax and abdomen Which of the following options is correct?
III. A part of body is covered by a soft chitinous (1) Cell junction - Desmosomes
endoskeleton
(2) Intercalated disc – Gap
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(3) Cell junction – Adhering
options given below
(4) Intercalated disc – Tight
(1) I and II only (2) II and III only
(3) I and III only (4) Only II
166. Read the following statements and select the
162. Given diagram is a cross section of body tissue. option that correctly identifies them as true (T) or
Different labels are located in this diagram. Which false (F)
of the following is correctly matched with their I. Epithelial tissue has a free surface which
function? faces either a body fluid or the outside
environment
II. Tissue is a group of similar cells along with
intercellular substances perform a specific
function in unicellular organisms
III. Dense regular tissues are most abundant and
widely distributed in the body of complex
animals
IV. Neuroglia make up more than one-half the
volume of neural tissue in our body
I II III IV
(1) C, D & E (2) Only C & F (1) T T F T
(3) A, B & F (4) B, D & F (2) F T T F
(3) T F F T
163. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (4) T F F F
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Neural tissue exerts the greatest 167. Which of the following is not a correct type and
control over the body’s responsiveness to function of tissue?
changing condition (1) Glandular tissue – Absorption
Reason (R): Neural tissue inside the brain is (2) Muscular tissue – Contraction
essential for conduction of nerve impulses (3) Connective tissue – Linking and supporting
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (4) Neural tissue – Conduction and coordination
appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
168. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
correct explanation of (A)
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Assertion (A): Hindgut is narrower than midgut
correct explanation of (A)
Reason (R): Hindgut is differentiated into ileum,
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
colon and rectum
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
164. Sexual dimorphism can be established in
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
Periplaneta americana due to
correct explanation of (A)
(1) Presence of elytra in males
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(2) Presence of caudal styles in males correct explanation of (A)
(3) Presence of filiform antennae in males
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) Absence of compound eyes in females
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
[14]
169. The tissue which is present on the inner lining of 174. Read the following statements and select the
ducts of salivary glands is also present in correct option
(1) Inner lining of pharynx (i) Blood is a fluid connective tissue containing
(2) Ventricles of brain only plasma, RBCs & WBCs
(3) Inner lining of fallopian tubes
(4) Tubular parts of nephrons (ii) Osteocytes are present in the spaces called lamellae
(iii) Muscle fibres are composed of numerous fine
170. All of the following statements are correct w.r.t. fibrils called myofibrils
cockroach except
(iv) Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed
(1) Brain is represented by supra-oesophageal
ganglion in the skin
(2) Each eye consists of about 2000 hexagonal (1) Statements (iii) and (iv) are incorrect
ommatidia (2) Statements (ii) and (iv) are incorrect
(3) Heart consists of elongated neural tube lying (3) Statements (iii) and (iv) are correct
along mid dorsal line of thorax and abdomen
(4) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(4) The entire foregut is lined by cuticle

171. Complete the following sentence using options 175. Following are the statements about development
given below as of cockroach
I. 3 IV. Plasma membrane A. Development is paurometabolous
II. Gap junctions V. Cytoplasm
B. Nymphs look very much like adults
III. Slow VI. Nucleoplasm
________ types of cell junctions are found in the C. Nymph grows by moulting about 31 times to
epithelium and other tissues. _____facilitate the reach the adult form
cells to communicate with each other by D. The last nymphal stage has wings
connecting the __________of adjoining cells, for Choose the correct answer from the options given below
rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and
(1) A, B and D are incorrect
sometimes big molecules.
(1) I, II & III (2) II, III & IV (2) A, B, C and D are correct
(3) I, II & V (4) IV, V & VI (3) C and D are incorrect
(4) Only A is correct
172. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect
for Periplaneta americana?
I. Head capsule bears only one compound eye 176. Match the following with reference to tissue and
II. A pair of thread like antennae arise from its cells/glands and choose the correct options
membranous sockets lying in front of eyes A. Ligament E. Matrix
III. Antennae have sensory receptors that help in B. Fibroblast F. Insulin
monitoring the environment
IV. Posterior end of the head bears appendages C. Endocrine G. Bone to bone
forming biting and chewing type of mouth The correct combinations are
parts (1) A and F (2) B and E
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(3) C and G (4) A and E
options given below
(1) III and IV only (2) II and III only
(3) II, III and IV only (4) I and IV only 177. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Cells of connective tissue secrete
173. Refer to the following relationships between fibres of contractile proteins called collagen
duct/glands and their number and Choose the
Statement II: Fibres provide only flexibility to
correct option
I. Malpighian tubules — 100-150 the tissue
II. Spiracles — 20 In the light of the above statements, choose the
III. Hepatic caeca — 6-8 most appropriate answer from the options given
IV. Female abdomen — 10 below
I II III IV (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(1) Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) Correct Correct Correct Correct
(3) Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
[15]
178. Read the following statements 184. Given below are two statements
I. Matrix is solid and pliable Statement I: The lowermost layer of epithelial
II. Resist compression tissue normally rests upon a cellular basement
III. Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos membrane
are replaced by bones in adults Statement II: Basement membrane is only
IV. Chondrocytes are enclosed in small cavities protective and sensory in nature and also helps in
Identify the tissue on the basis of given exchange and movement of materials inside the
characteristics and choose the correct option body
(1) Areolar tissue (2) Adipose tissue In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Bones (4) Cartilage most appropriate answer from the options given
below
179. Given below are two statements w.r.t cockroach (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
Statement I: Opening of the spiracles is regulated
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
by the sphincters
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Statement II: Exchange of gases take place at the
tracheoles by active transport (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below 185. Choose the correct option w.r.t A, B, C and D in
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct the below diagram
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

180. Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of a

body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves
it?
(1) Triceps of upper arm – Voluntary Smooth
muscle
(2) Heart wall – Uninucleated striated muscle
(3) Intestine – Spindle shaped smooth muscle
(4) Iris - Involuntary non-straited muscle

181. Genital chamber in a male cockroach is formed by

(1) 6th and 7th sternum only A B C D
(2) 9th, 10th terga and 9th sternum
(1) Spermatheca Vestibulum Vagina Gonapophysis
(3) 8th, 11th sternum and 12th terga
(4) 11th and 12th sternum only (2) Spermatheca
Collaterial
Vagina
Genital
Glands Chamber
Collaterial Genital
182. How many of the following structures is/are (3) Vagina Spermatheca
Glands Chamber
present only in female cockroach?
Collaterial Genital
I. Tegmina II. Spermatheca (4) Vestibulum Vagina
Glands Chamber
III. Vestibulum IV. Collaterial glands
V. Anal style VI. Pseudopenis SECTION – B
(1) Only I, II & VI (2) Only IV & VI 186. Read the following statements
(3) Only II, III & IV (4) Only III & VI I. Hard and non-pliable ground substance rich
183. Periplaneta americana can receive several images in calcium salts and collagen fibres
of an object. This kind of vision is known as II. It is the main tissue that provides functional
____A ____with more sensitivity but frame to the body
_____B_____ resolution, being common during III. Bones only support softer tissues and organs
______C_______ IV. Long bones of the legs serve weight-bearing
A B C functions
(1) Mosaic vision Less Night How many of the above given statements are
(2) Nocturnal vision More Day correct w.r.t. bone?
(3) Mosaic vision More Night (1) 4 (2) 3
(4) Mosaic vision Less Day (3) 1 (4) 2
[16]
187. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect 191. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
with respect to cockroach? Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(1) Besides malpighian tubules, fat body, Assertion (A): Blood in cockroach is colourless
nephrocytes and urecose glands help in haemolymph with no respiratory pigment
excretion Reason (R): Respiration in cockroach occurs
(2) 7th segment bears a pair of jointed through 2 thoracic and 8 abdominal spiracles
filamentous structures called anal cerci In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(3) Anterior part of female genital pouch appropriate answer from the options given below
contains female gonopore, spermathecal (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
pores and collaterial glands correct explanation of (A)
(4) Blood from sinuses enter heart through ostia (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
and is pumped anteriorly to sinuses again
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
188. Inability to absorb digested nutrients may be due
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
to damage of ___________ type of epithelium
(1) Ciliated columnar
192. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its
(2) Simple columnar
location?
(3) Simple squamous
Tissue Location
(4) Simple cuboidal (1) Transitional epithelium Tip of nose
Lining of
(2) Cuboidal epithelium
189. Narrow tubular passage called ______A______ stomach
opens into a sac like structure called Wall of
(3) Smooth muscle
_____B______ used for storing of food intestine
Choose the option that correctly fills up the blanks (4) Areolar tissue Tendons
A and B, respectively
A B 193. Given below are two statements
(1) Oesophagus Crop Statement I: Adipose tissue provides support
(2) Crop Oesophagus framework for epithelium
(3) Gizzard Crop Statement II: Adipose tissue is a specialised loose
(4) Proventriculus Oesophagus connective tissue
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
190. In below diagram of adipose tissue, identify A, B and C appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

A B C 194. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from

(1) Vacuole Fat Cell membrane (1) Squamous epithelial cells
(2) Cytoplasm Fat Cell membrane (2) Columnar epithelial cells
(3) Nucleus Fat Cell membrane (3) Chondrocytes
(4) Fat storage area Nucleus Cell membrane
(4) Compound epithelial cells

[17]
195. All the given structures are paired in P. americana 199. Choose the odd one w.r.t cartilage
except (1) Collagen fibres (2) Chondrocytes
(1) Metathoracic wing (3) Lamellae (4) Lacunae
(2) Mesothoracic leg
(3) Collaterial gland 200. Read the given statements and select the option
(4) Phallic gland that identifies them correctly as true or false
regarding cardiac muscle
196. Which of the following is present between the I → Exclusively present in the heart
adjacent bones of the vertebral column? II → They are myogenic but are also controlled
(1) Cartilage (2) Areolar tissue by autonomic nervous system
(3) Smooth muscle (4) Intercalated discs III → They are voluntary in nature
IV → They contract rhythmically throughout life
197. ___________ constitute the main component of without getting fatigued
musculature of our body, primarily attached to the I II III IV
bones via tendon (1) T F T T
(1) Cardiac muscle (2) F F T F
(2) Smooth muscle (3) T F F T
(3) Non-straited muscle (4) T T F T
(4) Striated muscle

198. Match the following columns w.r.t. cockroach and

select the correct option
Column I Column II
A. Proventriculus i. Prothorax
B. Gastric caecae ii. Grinding of food
particles
C. Head iii. Secrete gastric
juice
D. Pronotum iv. Triangular
A B C D
(1) ii i iii iv
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) i ii iv iii

[18]
 [2]
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