01-06-2025

1712CJA101029250008 JM

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1)

A small air bubble is situated in a cube of 24 cm edge. When viewed from one side appears to be 10
cm from the surface and through the opposite face 6 cm from the surface. The R.I. of glass is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

2) A point object O is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a equi-convex lens (aμg = 1.5) of focal
length 10 cm . The lens is placed on a liquid of refractive index 2 as shown. Image will be formed at

a distance h from lens. The value of h is :-

(A) 5 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 40 cm

3) A light ray is coming parallel to principal axis, the distance between ray and axis is equal to R/2
(as shown). Find the angle of deviation after reflection :-
(A) 60°
(B) 90°
(C) 120°
(D) small deviation

4) Radius of curvature of a concave mirror varies as . Initially the object was at a

distance 100 cm from the pole as shown. At t = 0 the object started moving with velocity
(cm/s). Find the speed of image at time t = 3 sec. Mirror is moving with constant velocity .

(A) 12 cm/s
(B) 20 cm/s
(C) 5 cm/s
(D) 24 cm/s

5)

Find the value of d so that final image coincide with object :

(A) 60 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 50cm

6) The force of attraction between two coaxial dielectric dipoles whose centers are r meters apart
varies with distance as:-
(A) r–1
(B) r–2
(C) r–3
(D) r–4

7) Three charges +q, +2q and +4q are connected by strings as shown in the figure. What is the ratio

of tensions in the strings AB and BC.

(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 4 : 3

8) The electric field is V/m. The potential at the point (0, 5 m, 5 m) is ___ if the potential
at coordinate origin is taken as zero.

(A) – 25 V
(B) –15 V
(C) 0
(D) 15 V

9) Consider a solid insulating sphere of radius R with charge density varying as ρ = ρ0r2 (ρ0 is a
constant and r is measure from centre). Consider two points A and B at distance x and y respectively
(x < R, y > R) from the centre. If magnitudes of electric fields at points A and B are equal, then :-

(A) x2y = R3
(B) x3y2 = R5
(C) x2y3 = R5

(D)

10) A uniformly charged ring of charge Q and radius R is folded from its diameter such that two
halves make an angle 60° with each other then net electric field at centre of ring (O) is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

11) The electric field at A due to dipole p is perpendicular to . The angle θ is :-

(A) 0°
(B) 90°
(C) tan–12
tan–1
(D)

12) E varies along x as E = 3x2 the volume charge density at x = 1 is :-

(A) 6ε0
(B) –6ε0
(C) 3ε0
(D) None of these

13) The potential energy of a 2 kg particle moving along the x axis is given by
U(x) = (4.0J/m2)x2 + (1.0J/m4)x4.
When the particle is at x = 1.0m the magnitude of its acceleration is: [only conservative forces are
acting]

(A) –20m/s2
(B) –8m/s2
(C) 8m/s2
(D) –6 m/s2

14) A simple pendulum has a string of length l and bob of mass m. When the bob is at its lowest
position, it is given the minimum horizontal speed necessary for it to move in a circular path about
the point of suspension. When the string is horizontal the net force on the bob is

(A) mg
(B) 3mg
(C)
(D) 4mg

15) A ball of mass m is fired from a spring loaded gun that is mounted on a table. If ball strikes to
point B on ground, then find out initial compression of the spring. (Assume table in smooth and
spring constant of spring is k) :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

16) The displacement of a particle of mass 1kg on a horizontal smooth surface as a function of time

is given by x = . The work done by external agent for first one sec is :-

(A) 0.5 J
(B) 2J
(C) 0.60 J
(D) None of these

17) In the figure the variation of potential energy of a particle of mass m = 2kg is represented w.r.t.
its x–coordinate. The particle moves under the effect of this conservative force along the x-axis.
Which of the following statement is incorrect about the particle :

(A) If it is released at the origin it will move in negative x–axis

If it is released at x = 2 + Δ where Δ → 0 then its maximum speed will be 5 m/s and it will
(B)
perform oscillatory motion
(C) If initially x = –10 and then it will cross x = 10
(D) x = – 5 and x = + 5 are unstable equilibrium positions of the particle

18) A particle of mass 0.1 kg is subjected to a force which varies with distance as shown in figure. If
it starts its journey from rest at x = 0, its velocity at x = 12 m is

(A) 0 m/s
(B) 20 m/s
(C) 20 m/s
(D) 40 m/s

19) A block of mass m and charge q is connected to a point O with help of an inextensible string. The
system is on a smooth horizontal table. A uniform electric field is switched on in direction
perpendicular to string. What will be tension in string when it become parallel to electric field ?

(A)

(B) 3qE

(C)

(D)

20) A charged particle enters at point A and comes out from B. Its velocity makes angle α and β with
electric field at these two points. Ratio of kinetic energy of charged particle at these two points will

be :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
 SECTION-II

1) Electric potential is given by

V = 6x – 8xy2 – 8y + 6yz – 4z2
Find electric force (in N) acting on 1/5 C point charge placed at origin.

2) In the figure, an object is placed at distance 25 cm from the surface of a convex mirror, and a
plane mirror is set so that the image formed by the two mirrors lie adjacent to each other in the
same plane. The plane mirror is placed at 20 cm from the object. What is the radius of curvature (in

cm) of the convex mirror?

3) A prism having refractive index has angle of minimum deviation equal to the angle of the
prism, if the angle of the prism is α then fill the value of sin α.

4) Find the deviation of light ray (in degree)

5) An electric field passes through the box shown in figure. The flux of the
electric field through surfaces ABCD and BCGF are marked as ϕI and ϕII respectively. The difference
between (ϕI – ϕII) is (in Nm2/C) ___________.

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) [NiCl4]–2 and [Ni(CN)4]–2 show similarity in :-

(A) Geometry
(B) Magnetic nature
(C) Hybridisation of state of Ni
(D) Primary valency of Ni

2) The Δ0(CFSE) for [CoCl6]4– is 18000 cm–1. The splitting energy for [CoCl4]2– will be :-

(A) 18000 cm–1

(B) 16000 cm–1
(C) 8000 cm–1
(D) 2000 cm–1

3) EAN of metal carbonyl M(CO)x is 36 if atomic no. of metal M is 26, what is the value of x:

(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 5
(D) 6

4)

Select appropriate ligand for given complex

; μ = 0 BM
2–
(A) C2O4
(B) en
(C) H2O
(D) F–

5) The oxidation state of Mo in its oxo-complex species [Mo2O4(C2H4)2(H2O)2]2– is:

(A) +2
(B) +3
(C) +4
(D) +5

6) π-bonding is not involved in :

(A) ferrocene
(B) dibenzene chromium
(C) Zeise's salt
(D) Grignard reagent

7) If the bond length of CO bond in carbon monoxide is 1.128Å, then what is the value of CO bond
length in Fe(CO)5?
(A) 1.15Å
(B) 1.15Å
(C) 1.72Å
(D) 1.118Å

8) Among [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2–, [NiCl4]2– species, the hybridization states at the Ni atom are,
respectively :-

(A) sp3, sp3, dsp2

(B) dsp2, sp3, sp3
(C) sp3, dsp2, dsp2
(D) sp3, dsp2, sp3

9) Which of the following complex is inner orbital as well as low spin -

2+
(A) [Ni(NH3)6]
(B) [Cr(gly)3]
3+
(C) [Ti(H2O)6]
(D) None

10) Which of the following is correct in spectrochemical series of ligand ?

– – –2 – –
(A) Cl < F < C2O4 < NO2 < CN
– –2 – – –
(B) NO2 < C2O4 < Cl < F < CN
–2 – – – –
(C) C2O4 < F < Cl < NO2 < CN
– – – – –2
(D) F < Cl < NO2 < CN < C2O4

11) In Fe(CO)5, the Fe—C bond possesses

(A) Ionic character

(B) -character only
(C) π-character only
(D) Both and character

12)

The correct name of [Pt(NH3)4Cl2] [PtCl4] is–

(A) Tetraammine dichloro platinum (IV) tetrachloroplatinate (II)

(B) Dichloro tetra ammine platinium (IV) tetrachloro platinate (II)
(C) Tetrachloro platinum (II) tetraammine platinate (IV)
(D) Tetrachloro platinum (II) dichloro tetraamine platinate (IV)

13) In the following reaction the major product (X) is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

14) In the given reaction A the product 'A' is :-

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

15) Identify (C) product of following reaction?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

16) What is the final product (B) of this sequence :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

17)
Ease of SN1 reaction among these compound will be in order as-

(A) I > III > II > IV

(B) IV > III > II > I
(C) III > II > I > IV
(D) III > IV > II > I

18) Which of the following represent correct reactivity order for SN1 as well as SN2 mechanism –

(A)

(B) CH2=CHCl > CH3CH2–Cl

(C)

(D) CH2=CHCl > CH2=CH–CH2Cl

19) Which of the following is the least reactive towards hydrolysis:-

(A) Ph–CH2Cl
(B) CH2=CH–CH2–Cl
(C) (CH3)3C–Cl

(D)

20)
X & Y should be:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

SECTION-II

1) The half life period and intial concentration for a reaction are as follows.

order of reaction is

2) For the chemical reaction M N, the rate of disappearance of M becomes 8 times on doubling
the concentration of M. The order of the reaction with respect to M is

3) The rate constant for a reaction is 4 × 10–3 mol L–1S–1. What is the order of reaction ?
4) What is the value of ?

5) How many alkenes are produced when following compound is heated with alc. KOH :

Number of alkenes

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

1) Let ƒ(x) = and g(x) = . If ƒ(g(x)) is continuous at x = 1

then

(A)

(B)
α= ,β=5

(C)
α= ,β=–5

(D)
α = , β = 10

2) Consider two functions ƒ(x), g(x) as follows

g(x) = ƒ(x + 2) + ƒ(x – 2). The number of points of discontinuity of g(x) is-

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
3) is equal to-

(A) e

(B)

(C)

(D)

4) If the system of equations x + 2y + 3z = 4, x + py + 2z = 3 and x + 4y + qz = 3 has infinite

number of solutions then value of (p + q) equals is

(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10

5) If the system of three equations is consistent then value/s of a is equal to (a + 1)3x + (a + 2)3y =
(a + 3)3
(a + 1)x + (a + 2)y = (a + 3)
x+y=1

(A) 2
(B) –2
(C) 0
(D) 4

6) (where [.] denotes greatest integer function)-

(A) is equal to 1
(B) is equal to –1
(C) does not exist
(D) is equal to 0

7) If , then :

(A) f(x) is continuous at x = 0

(B) f(x) is differentiable at x = 0

(C) does not exist

(D)

8) Which of the following functions is not differentiable at x = 1 ?

(A) f(x) = (x2 – 1)|(x – 1) (x – 2)|
(B) f(x) = sin(|x – 1|) – |x–1|
(C) f(x) = tan(|x – 1|) + |x – 1|
(D) None of these

9) The value of is equal to :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

10) The number of solutions of the equation , for x ∈ [–1, 1] and

[x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, is :

(A) 2
(B) 0
(C) 4
(D) Infinite

11) Let → R be defined as

If f is continuous at x = 0, then the value of 6a + b2 is equal to :

(A) 1 – e
(B) e – 1
(C) 1 + e
(D) e

12) Let . Then is equal to:

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D) tan–1(3)

13) If , α, β, γ ∈ R , then the value of α – β – γ is

(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9

14) Let f : N → N be a function such that f(m + n) = f(m) + f(n) for every m, n ∈ N. If f(6) = 18, then
f(2)·f(3) is equal to

(A) 6
(B) 54
(C) 18
(D) 36

15) The value of is equal to :

(A)

(B)

(C) 0

(D)

16)

If is continuous ∀ x ∈ R then which of the following holds good

(A) a ≠ b
(B) d = 2c

(C)
a+b+c+d=
(D) a + b + d = –1
17) Let a, b, c be positive numbers such that a + b + c = 15. Then the value of

can not be

(A) 5
(B) 4

(C)

(D) 6

18) Number of points at which is discontinuous in x ∈ [0, 3], is

(where [.] and sgn(.) denotes greatest integer and signum function respectively)

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

19) If then the value of is equal to

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 11

20) Let a, b, c > 0 and , then which of the following is not correct?

(A) Δ = –[a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc]

(B) Δ ≤ 0
(C) Δ = 0 ⇒ a + b + c = 0
(D) Δ = 0 if a = b = c

SECTION-II

1) Let f(x) =
If f(x) is continuous and derivable at x = 0, then (20b + 13k) is :
2) If , then is equal to -

3) Number of points where the function :

(here, f(1) = 0)
is continuous but non-differentiable. (Where [ · ] denotes greatest integer function and { } denotes
fraction part function.)

4) If (where a > 0, b > 0) then value of a + b is

5) If function (where a ∈ N) is continuous at x = 1, then value of 5a

– 20b is
 ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. C D C A B D B D B A D A D C A A D D B A

SECTION-II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 2 75 1 17 48

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. D C C C B D A D D A D A C C C D A C D C

SECTION-II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 3 0 5 4

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. A A C B B C D C B B C C D B A C D C A C

SECTION-II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 79 7 1 2 20
 SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

1)

Ans.

2) ⇒
⇒ R = 10 cm.
Refraction from Ist surface,

⇒
⇒ v1 = ∞

for the second surface,

⇒ v = –40 cm

3) ΔCAM sin i =

i = 30
δ = (π – 2i) = 180 – 2 × 30 = 120°

4) At t = 3 sec the radius becomes ∞ and the mirror behaves like plane mirror.

VI = – 12

5)

For lens,
u = –15 cm
f = +20 cm

v = –60 cm
This image position will act as object for mirror. To coincide final image with object, the light
rays must retrace their path for which object for mirror must be at its center of curvature
hence,
|v| + d = R
60 + d = 80
d = 20 cm

6)

7)

T1 =

T2 =

8)

V = 15 Volt

9) Ans. (2)

x3y2 = R5

10) Both would produce electric field and angle between field would be 60°
∴ Eresoltant =

11)

tanα =

α+θ=

12)

13)

F=
at x = 1, F = –12

a=

14)

Ans.

15)
16) ΔK = W
v = t2
vt = 1 = 1

× 1 × 1 – 0 = W = 0.5J

17) If the particle is released at the origin, it will try to go in the direction of force.

Here is positive and hence force is negative, as a result it will move towards –ve x–axis.
When the particle is released at x = 2 + Δ; it will reach the point of least possible potential
energy (–15 J) where it will have maximum kinetic energy.

∴ mv2max = 25
⇒ vmax = 5m/s
The particle will now perform oscillatory motion between – 15 ≤ U ≤ 15, because reaching U =
+15J, the kinetic energy and hence speed becomes zero. In (C) ; Ei = Ui + ki = 15 + 6 = 21 J
At x =10; Uf = 20
⇒ kf =1 ≠ 0 ⇒ the particle cross x = 10

18) ΔKE = Area = 20 + 40 + 20 =

v = 40 m/sec

19) From work energy theorem

WT = Δk

(qE)ℓ =
mv2 = (2qE)ℓ

At position A (T – qE) =
T = qE + 2qE = 3qE

20) Ans. (1 or 2)
21)

E=

Force =

22) Image due to plane mirror will form at a distance of 20 cm left of the mirror.
Since image formed by two mirrrors lie adjacent to each other.
For convex mirror, image position is 15 cm towards left.
u = – 25 cm
v = + 15 cm

using + = =

– =
R = 75 cm.
Ans. R = 75 cm.

23)
for min. deviation
i=e
r1 = r2 = A/2
So

Now apply Snell's law

So
 24)

⇒ r1 = 37° ⇒ r2 = 3°

= sine ⇒ e = 4°
δ=i+e–A
= 53 + 4 – 40
= 17°

25)
The flux passes through ABCD (x – y) plane is zero, because electric field parallel to surface.
Flux of the electric field through surface BCGF (y - z)

At BCGF (electric field)

(x = 3m)
Flux ϕII = 12 × 4 = 48 Nm2/C
So ϕI – ϕΙΙ = 0 – 48 = – 48 Nm2/C
∴ Correct answer –48

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

26)

[NiCl4]–2 sp3, Tetrahedral , paramagnetic, Primary valency = +2

[Ni(CN)4]–2 dsp2, square planar, diamagnetic , primary valency = +2

27) » = 8000 cm–1

28)

[M(Co)x] EAN = 36
36 = 26 – 0 + 2x

x=5

29) [Co(H2O)6]+3 H2O act as strong field ligand with Co+3 (CN=6)

30)
[MO2O4 (C2H4)2 (H2O)2]–2
2x + (–2)× 4 + 0 × 2 + 0 × 2 = – 2
2x = 6

x=+3

31)

Grignard reagent

32)

1.15Å

33)

sp3, dsp2, sp3

34) For d8, d3, and d1 electronic configuration in octahedral field, low spin and high spin terms
are not defined.

35)

Cl– < F– < C2O4–2 < NO2– < CN–

36) CO shows synergic bonding.

37)

Tetraammine dichloro platinum (IV) tetrachloroplatinate (II)

38)

Free radical substitution.

39)

40)
41)

42)

Rate of SN1 ∝ stability of carbocation

Order of stability of carbocation

43) The reactivity order of SN1 and SN2 are same for

44) at bridgehead carbon, carbocation is not stabilized so can’t get hydrolyzed.

45)

46)

Ans. 2

47)

Ans. 3

48)

Ans. 0
 49)

Photohalogenation involves free radical mechanism.

x=6
y=4

50)

The above compound undergoes E2 elimination in prasence of alc. KOH and thus result in
formation of alkenes as product
So The number of alkenes is 4

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

51) ƒ(g(1)) = ƒ(2) = 5

∴ α = , β = –10

52) The graph of

ƒ(x)

ƒ(x – 2)

ƒ(x + 2)
Then graph of g(x) will be

No point of discontinuity

53)
54) D = D1 = D2 = D3 = 0
⇒ p = 4 and q = 2

55) If system is consistent then

or ((a + 1) + (a + 2) + (a + 3)) = 0
a = –2

56)

∴ limit does not exist

57)

RHL = =0

LHL =

58) f(x) = (x2 – 1) |(x – 1)(x – 2)|

f'(1+) = =0

f'(1–) = =0
Hence, it is differentiable at x = 1
For, f(x) sin (|x – 1|) – |x – 1|

f'(1+) = =0

f'(1–) = =0
= =0
Hence, f(x) is differentiable at x = 0
for f(x) = tan(|x – 1|) + (x – 1)

f'(1+) = = 2,

f'(1–) = = = –2
Hence, f(x) is non-differentiable at x = 0.

59)

60)

Given equation

Now, is defined if

...(1)

and is defined if

...(2)
So, form (1) and (2) we can conclude

Case-I if

⇒ x2 = π

but
⇒ No value of 'x'

Case-II if
sin–1(1) + cos–1(0) = x2

⇒ x2 = π

but
⇒ No value of 'x'
So, number of solutions of the equation is zero.

61)

(6a + b2) = (1 + e)

62)
Divde by 32r

Let

∴
63)

For limit to exist

...(i)

Put in (i)

64)

f(m + n) = f(m) + f(n)

Put m = 1, n = 1
f(2) = 2f(1)
Put m = 2, n = 1
f(3) = f(2) + f(1) = 3f(1)
Put m = 3, n = 3
f(6) = 2f(3) ⇒ f(3) = 9
⇒ f(1) = 3, f(2) = 6
f(2). f(3) = 6 × 9 = 54

65)

66)

At x = 0 f(0–) = f(0+) ⇒ = 1
At x = 1 f(1–) = f(1+) ⇒ a + 1 = c –2
At x = 2 f(2–) = f(2+) ⇒ 4c –2 = 0
At x = 4 f(4–) = f(4+) ⇒ 6c = 18

67)

Let (1∞ form)

Since and a + b + c = 15
⇒L<5
∴ L cannot be 6.

68)

⇒ function is discontinuous at x = 1,2,3

69)

70) c1 → c1 – c2

= –[a3 + b3 + c3–3abc]

Or D = (a+b+c)[(a–b)2 + (b–c)2 + (c–a)2]

So Δ < 0
Also Δ = 0 ⇒ a = b = c (∴ a + b + c > 0)
Since a + b + c ≠ 0

71) For continuity

0+0+2=b=2 ⇒ b=2
For derivability

=
2 = –1 + k ⇒ k = 3
∴ b+k=5

72) = f'(1)

Now f'(x) = .(8x7 + 4x3 + 2x)

∴ f'(1) =

73)
continuous but not differentiable at x = 1.

74)

form must be form ⇒ a = b ....(1)

so a + b = 2

75)
if limit exist, then

⇒ 5a –20b = 20