From the 2017 Administration

Biology
Practice Exam

NOTE: This is a modified version of the 2017 AP Biology Exam.

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teachers should collect all materials removal of access to other online
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Contents

Exam Instructions

Student Answer Sheet for the Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Section

Section I: Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Questions

Section II: Free-Response Questions

Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Answer Key

Free-Response Scoring Guidelines

Scoring Worksheet

Question Descriptors and Performance Data

Note: This publication shows the page numbers that appeared in

the 2016−17 AP Exam Instructions book and in the actual exam.
This publication was not repaginated to begin with page 1.

© 2017 The College Board. College Board, Advanced Placement Program, AP, SAT and the acorn logo are
registered trademarks of the College Board. All other products and services may be trademarks of their
respective owners. Permission to use copyrighted College Board materials may be requested online at:
[Link]/inquiry/[Link].
Exam Instructions

The following contains instructions taken from

the 2016−17 AP Exam Instructions book.
 AP® Biology Exam AP Exam Instructions
Regularly Scheduled Exam Date: Monday morning, May 8, 2017
Late-Testing Exam Date: Friday afternoon, May 19, 2017

Section I Total Time: 1 hour 30 minutes Section II Total Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
Number of Questions: 69* Number of Questions: 8 questions
(63 multiple-choice questions plus 6 grid-in (2 ten-point questions, 3 four-point questions,
questions; 1 hour 30 minutes) and 3 three-point questions, 10-minute reading
Percent of Total Score: 50% period, 1-hour and 20-minute writing period)

Writing Instrument: Pencil required Percent of Total Score: 50%

Writing Instrument: Pen with black or
*The number of questions may vary slightly
dark blue ink
depending on the form of the exam.

Note: Four-function calculators (with square root) may be used on all sections of the AP Biology Exam.

What Proctors Need to Bring to This Exam

• Exam packets • Container for students’ electronic
• Answer sheets devices (if needed)
• AP Student Packs • Extra No. 2 pencils with erasers
• 2016-17 AP Coordinator’s Manual • Extra pens with black or dark blue ink
• This book — AP Exam Instructions • Lined paper
• AP Exam Seating Chart template • Stapler
• School Code and Home-School/Self- • Watch
Study Codes • Signs for the door to the testing room
• Extra calculators – “Exam in Progress”
• Pencil sharpener – “Cell phones are prohibited in the
testing room”

Before Distributing Exams: Check that the title on all exam covers is Biology. If there are any
exam booklets with a different title, contact the AP coordinator immediately.

SECTION I: Multiple Choice and Grid-In

Students are allowed to use four-function (with square root) calculators throughout the entire
AP Biology Exam. Graphing calculators and scientific calculators are not permitted for use on the
AP Biology Exam. See pages 46–49 of the 2016-17 AP Coordinator’s Manual for more information.
Before starting the exam administration, make sure each student has an appropriate calculator.
If a student does not have a calculator, you may provide one from your supply. If the student does
not want to use the calculator you provide or does not want to use a calculator at all, he or she
must hand copy, date, and sign the release statement on page 47 of the 2016-17 AP Coordinator’s
BIOLOGY

Manual. Students may have no more than two calculators on their desks. Calculators may not
be shared.

33
Biology

!
Do not begin the exam instructions below until you have completed the appropriate
General Instructions for your group.
Make sure you begin the exam at the designated time. Remember, you must complete a seating
chart for this exam. See pages 325–326 for a seating chart template and instructions. See the
2016-17 AP Coordinator’s Manual for exam seating requirements (pages 51–54).

If you are giving the regularly scheduled exam, say:

It is Monday morning, May 8, and you will be taking the AP Biology Exam.
If you are giving the alternate exam for late testing, say:
It is Friday afternoon, May 19, and you will be taking the AP Biology Exam.

In a moment, you will open the packet that contains your exam materials.
By opening this packet, you agree to all of the AP Program’s policies and
procedures outlined in the 2016 -17 Bulletin for AP Students and Parents.
Look at your exam packet and confirm that the exam title is “AP Biology.”
Raise your hand if your exam packet contains any title other than “AP Biology”
and I will help you.
Once you confirm that all students have the correct exams, say:
You may now remove the shrinkwrap from your exam packet and take out
the Section I booklet, but do not open the booklet or the shrinkwrapped
Section II materials. Put the white seals aside. . . .
Carefully remove the AP Exam label found near the top left of your exam
booklet cover. Now place it on page 1 of your answer sheet on the light blue
box near the top right corner that reads “AP Exam Label.”
If students accidentally place the exam label in the space for the number label or vice versa, advise
them to leave the labels in place. They should not try to remove the label; their exam can still be
processed correctly.
Read the statements on the front cover of Section I and look up when you
have finished. . . .
Sign your name and write today’s date. Look up when you have finished. . . .
Now print your full legal name where indicated. Are there any questions? . . .
Turn to the back cover of your exam booklet and read it completely. Look
up when you have finished. . . .
Are there any questions? . . .
You will now take Section I of the exam. Section I is the multiple-choice and
grid-in portion of the exam. You may never discuss the multiple-choice exam
content at any time in any form with anyone, including your teacher and
other students. If you disclose the multiple-choice exam content through
any means, your AP Exam score will be canceled.

34
 AP Exam Instructions

For the multiple-choice questions, the answer sheet has circles marked A–E
for each question. For Biology, you will use only the circles marked A–D. You
must complete the answer sheet using a No. 2 pencil only. Open your answer
sheet to page 2. Mark all of your responses beginning on page 2 of your
answer sheet, one response per question. No credit will be given for anything
written in the exam booklet. Scratch paper is not allowed, but you may use
the margins or any blank space in the exam booklet for scratch work. If you
need to erase, do so carefully and completely. Your score on the multiple-
choice section will be based solely on the number of questions answered
correctly. Four-function calculators (with square root) are allowed.
For the grid-in questions, you will solve each problem, write your final numeric
answer in the boxes at the top of the grid, and fill in the corresponding circles.
Enter your responses for the grid-in questions on page 3 of the answer sheet
beginning with number 121. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in
correctly. Please pay close attention to the directions in your exam booklet for
completing the grid-in questions.
Are there any questions? . . .
You have 1 hour and 30 minutes for this section. Open your Section I booklet
and begin.
12
9
6Note Start Time here
3
. Note Stop Time here . Check that students
are marking their answers in pencil on their answer sheets and that they are not looking at their
shrinkwrapped Section II booklets. After 1 hour and 20 minutes, say:
There are 10 minutes remaining.
After 10 minutes, say:
Stop working. Close your booklet and put your answer sheet on your desk,
face up. Make sure you have your AP number label and an AP Exam label on
page 1 of your answer sheet. Sit quietly while I collect your answer sheets.
Collect an answer sheet from each student. Check that each answer sheet has an AP number label
and an AP Exam label. After all answer sheets have been collected, say:
Now you must seal your exam booklet using the white seals you set aside
earlier. Remove the white seals from the backing and press one on each area
of your exam booklet cover marked “PLACE SEAL HERE.” Fold each seal over
the back cover. When you have finished, place the booklet on your desk, face
up. I will now collect your Section I booklet. . . .
Collect a Section I booklet from each student. Check that each student has signed the front cover of
the sealed Section I booklet.
There is a 10-minute break between Sections I and II. When all Section I materials have been
BIOLOGY

collected and accounted for and you are ready for the break, say:
Please listen carefully to these instructions before we take a 10-minute break.
All items you placed under your chair at the beginning of this exam must stay
there, and you are not permitted to open or access them in any way. Leave
your shrinkwrapped Section II packet on your desk during the break. You

35
Biology

are not allowed to consult teachers, other students, notes, or textbooks

during the break. You may not make phone calls, send text messages, use
your calculators, check email, use a social networking site, or access any
electronic or communication device. Remember, you may never discuss the
multiple-choice exam content at any time in any form with anyone, including
your teacher and other students. If you disclose the multiple-choice exam
content through any means, your AP Exam score will be canceled. Are there
any questions? . . .
12
9
6
3
You may begin your break. Testing will resume at .

SECTION II: Free Response

After the break, say:
May I have everyone’s attention? Place your Student Pack on your desk. . . .
You may now remove the shrinkwrap from the Section II packet, but do not
open the exam booklet until you are told to do so. . . .
Read the bulleted statements on the front cover of the exam booklet. Look
up when you have finished. . . .
Now take an AP number label from your Student Pack and place it on the
shaded box. If you don’t have any AP number labels, write your AP number in
the box. Look up when you have finished. . . .
Read the last statement. . . .
Using a pen with black or dark blue ink, print the first, middle, and last
initials of your legal name in the boxes and print today’s date where
indicated. This constitutes your signature and your agreement to the
statements on the front cover. . . .
Turn to the back cover and, using your pen, complete Item 1 under
“Important Identification Information.” Print the first two letters of your last
name and the first letter of your first name in the boxes. Look up when you
have finished. . . .
In Item 2, print your date of birth in the boxes. . . .
In Item 3, write the school code you printed on the front of your Student
Pack in the boxes. . . .
Read Item 4. . . .
Are there any questions? . . .
I need to collect the Student Pack from anyone who will be taking another
AP Exam. You may keep it only if you are not taking any other AP Exams this
year. If you have no other AP Exams to take, place your Student Pack under
your chair now. . . .
Read the information on the back cover of the exam booklet. Do not open the
booklet until you are told to do so. Look up when you have finished. . . .
Collect the Student Packs. Then say:
Are there any questions? . . .
36
 AP Exam Instructions

The total Section II time is 1 hour and 30 minutes. This includes a 10-minute
reading period. The reading period is designed to provide you with time to
develop thoughtful, well-organized responses. You are advised to spend the
10-minute period reading all the questions, and to use the unlined pages
to sketch graphs, make notes, and plan your answers. The focus of the
reading period should be the organization of questions 1 and 2. You may
begin writing your exam responses before the reading period is over. You
may make notes on the pages that contain the exam questions, but your
responses must be written on the designated lined pages using a pen with
black or dark blue ink. Are there any questions? . . .
You are responsible for pacing yourself and may proceed freely from one
question to the next. Be sure that you answer all of the questions. If you
need more paper to complete your responses, raise your hand. At the top of
each extra sheet of paper you use, be sure to write only:
• your AP number, and
• the question number you are working on.
You may now open the Section II booklet and begin the 10-minute
reading period.
12
9
6
3
Note Start Time here . Note Stop Time here . After 10 minutes, say:
The reading period is over. You have 1 hour and 20 minutes remaining to complete
Section II.
12
9
Note Start Time here
6
3
. Note Stop Time here . Check that students are
using pens to write their answers in their exam booklets. After 1 hour and 10 minutes, say:
There are 10 minutes remaining.
After 10 minutes, say:
Stop working and close your exam booklet. Place it on your desk, face up.
If any students used extra paper for a question in the free-response section, have those students
staple the extra sheet(s) to the first page corresponding to that question in their exam booklets.
Complete an Incident Report. A single Incident Report may be completed for multiple students
per exam subject per administration (regular or late testing) as long as all of the required
information is provided. Include all exam booklets with extra sheets of paper in an Incident
Report return envelope (see page 62 of the 2016-17 AP Coordinator’s Manual for complete details).
Then say:
Remain in your seat, without talking, while the exam materials are collected. . . .
Collect a Section II exam booklet from each student. Check for the following:
• Exam booklet front cover: The student placed an AP number label on the shaded box and
BIOLOGY

printed his or her initials and today’s date.

• Exam booklet back cover: The student completed the “Important Identification
Information” area.
When all exam materials have been collected and accounted for, return to students any electronic
devices you may have collected before the start of the exam.

37
Biology

If you are giving the regularly scheduled exam, say:

You may not discuss or share the free-response exam content with anyone unless
it is released on the College Board website in about two days. Your AP Exam score
results will be available online in July.
If you are giving the alternate exam for late testing, say:
None of the content in this exam may ever be discussed or shared in any way
at any time. Your AP Exam score results will be available online in July.

If any students completed the AP number card at the beginning of this exam, say:
Please remember to take your AP number card with you. You will need the
information on this card to view your scores and order AP score reporting
services online.
Then say:
You are now dismissed.

Post-Exam Tasks
Be sure to give the completed seating chart to the AP coordinator. Schools must retain seating
charts for at least six months (unless the state or district requires that they be retained for a longer
period of time). Schools should not return any seating charts in their exam shipments unless they
are required as part of an Incident Report.
The exam proctor should complete the following tasks if asked to do so by the AP coordinator.
Otherwise, the AP coordinator must complete these tasks.
All exam materials must be placed in secure storage until they are returned to the AP Program
after your school’s last administration. Before storing materials, check the “School Use Only”
section on page 1 of the answer sheet and:
• Fill in the appropriate section number circle in order to access a separate AP
Instructional Planning Report (for regularly scheduled exams only) or subject
score roster at the class section or teacher level. See “Post-Exam Activities” in the
2016-17 AP Coordinator’s Manual.
• Check your list of students who are eligible for fee reductions and fill in the
appropriate circle on their registration answer sheets.

38
Student Answer Sheet for
the Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Section

Use this section to capture student responses. (Note that the following
answer sheet is a sample, and may differ from one used in an actual exam.)
 AP Exam Label PAGE 1
AP Number Label
(from Student Pack) (from Section I Booklet)
Answer Sheet
2017 123456789
COMPLETE THIS AREA AT EVERY EXAM. USE NO. 2 PENCIL ONLY E. EXAM G. ONLINE
D. EXAM DATE F. MULTIPLE-CHOICE BOOKLET
To maintain the security of the exam and the validity of my AP score, I will allow no one else to see the multiple-choice exam content. C. YOUR AP NUMBER START PROVIDER
I will seal the multiple-choice booklet when asked to do so, and I will not discuss the exam content with anyone at any time after Month Day TIME SERIAL NUMBER CODE
completing the section. I am aware of and agree to the AP Program’s policies and procedures as outlined in the 2016-17 Bulletin for AP
Students and Parents, including using testing accommodations (e.g., extended time, computer, etc.) only if I have been preapproved by AM PM S
College Board Services for Students with Disabilities.
Sign your legal name as it will appear on your college applications. Date
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 6 12 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
A. SIGNATURE
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 7 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 8 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
B. LEGAL NAME Omit apostrophes, Jr., II. 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 9 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
Legal Last Name — First 15 Letters Legal First Name — First 12 Letters MI 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 10 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 11 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E
COMPLETE THIS AREA ONLY ONCE. K. DATE OF BIRTH
F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F I. AREA CODE AND
G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G PHONE NUMBER J. SCHOOL YOU ATTEND Month Day Year
SCHOOL CODE School Name
H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H Jan
I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 Feb 0 0 0 0
J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 Mar 1 1 1 1
K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 Apr 2 2 2 2
L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 May 3 3 3 3
M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 3 3 3 3 3 3 City Jun 4 4 4
N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 4 4 4 4 4 4 Jul 5 5 5
O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 5 5 5 5 5 5 State Aug 6 6 6
P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 6 6 6 6 6 6 Sep 7 7 7
Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 7 7 7 7 7 7 Oct 8 8 8
113913-00657 • UNLWEB1116

Country
R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 8 8 8 8 8 8 Nov 9 9 9
S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S INTERNATIONAL PHONE 9 9 9 9 9 9 Dec
T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T
M. COLLEGE TO RECEIVE YOUR
U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U N. CURRENT
L. SOCIAL SECURITY AP SCORE REPORT
GRADE LEVEL
V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V NUMBER (Optional) COLLEGE CODE Using the college code listed
in the AP Student Pack,
indicate the ONE college Not yet in
W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W 11th
that you want to receive 9th grade
X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 your AP score report. 9th 12th
Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 College Name 10th No longer in
high school
Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

– – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 O. STUDENT SEARCH SERVICE®

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 Colleges and scholarship programs may
Exam Name: Form: Form Code: request your information to inform you of
H. AP EXAM I AM City
TAKING USING THIS 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 educational opportunities and financial aid.
Q4298/1-4

ANSWER SHEET 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 Would you like us to supply your information?

State
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 Yes No
SCHOOL USE ONLY
792107 Section Number Fee Reduction Granted 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 Country
If you don’t answer and previously chose to
participate in this service, we will continue
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 Option 1 2 Option 2 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 providing your information.
PAGE 2
COMPLETE THIS AREA AT EACH EXAM (IF APPLICABLE).

P. SURVEY QUESTIONS — Answer the survey questions in the AP Student Pack. Do not put responses to exam questions in this section.

1 A B C D E F G H I 4 A B C D E F G H I 7 A B C D E F G H I

2 A B C D E F G H I 5 A B C D E F G H I 8 A B C D E F G H I

3 A B C D E F G H I 6 A B C D E F G H I 9 A B C D E F G H I

Q. LANGUAGE — Do not complete this section unless instructed to do so.

If this answer sheet is for the French Language and Culture, German Language and Culture, Italian Language and Culture, Spanish Language
and Culture, or Spanish Literature and Culture Exam, please answer the following questions. Your responses will not affect your score.
1. Have you lived or studied for one month or more in a country where the language of the 2. Do you regularly speak or hear the language at home?
exam you are now taking is spoken?

Yes No Yes No

QUESTIONS 1–75

Indicate your answers to the exam questions in this section (pages 2 and 3). Mark only one response per question
for Questions 1 through 120. If a question has only four answer options, do not mark option E. Answers written in
the multiple-choice booklet will not be scored.

A B C D You must use a No. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It
EXAMPLES OF
COMPLETE MARK is very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response,
INCOMPLETE MARKS A B C D erase as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score.

1 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 51 A B C D E
2 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 52 A B C D E
3 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 53 A B C D E
4 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 54 A B C D E
5 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 55 A B C D E
6 A B C D E 31 A B C D E 56 A B C D E
7 A B C D E 32 A B C D E 57 A B C D E
8 A B C D E 33 A B C D E 58 A B C D E
9 A B C D E 34 A B C D E 59 A B C D E
10 A B C D E 35 A B C D E 60 A B C D E
11 A B C D E 36 A B C D E 61 A B C D E
12 A B C D E 37 A B C D E 62 A B C D E
13 A B C D E 38 A B C D E 63 A B C D E
14 A B C D E 39 A B C D E 64 A B C D E
15 A B C D E 40 A B C D E 65 A B C D E
16 A B C D E 41 A B C D E 66 A B C D E
17 A B C D E 42 A B C D E 67 A B C D E
18 A B C D E 43 A B C D E 68 A B C D E
19 A B C D E 44 A B C D E 69 A B C D E
20 A B C D E 45 A B C D E 70 A B C D E
21 A B C D E 46 A B C D E 71 A B C D E
22 A B C D E 47 A B C D E 72 A B C D E
23 A B C D E 48 A B C D E 73 A B C D E
24 A B C D E 49 A B C D E 74 A B C D E
25 A B C D E 50 A B C D E 75 A B C D E

ETS USE ONLY

R W O R W O
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 SELECTED MEDIA EXAMS OTHER EXAMS
Exam
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
PT02 TOTAL
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Exam PT03 Subscore (if applicable)
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
PT04 Subscore (if applicable)

DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA

 PAGE 3
QUESTIONS 76–120

Be sure each mark is dark and completely fills the circle. If a question has only four answer options, do not mark option E.

76 A B C D E 91 A B C D E 106 A B C D E
77 A B C D E 92 A B C D E 107 A B C D E
78 A B C D E 93 A B C D E 108 A B C D E
79 A B C D E 94 A B C D E 109 A B C D E
80 A B C D E 95 A B C D E 110 A B C D E
81 A B C D E 96 A B C D E 111 A B C D E
82 A B C D E 97 A B C D E 112 A B C D E
83 A B C D E 98 A B C D E 113 A B C D E
84 A B C D E 99 A B C D E 114 A B C D E
85 A B C D E 100 A B C D E 115 A B C D E
86 A B C D E 101 A B C D E 116 A B C D E
87 A B C D E 102 A B C D E 117 A B C D E
88 A B C D E 103 A B C D E 118 A B C D E
89 A B C D E 104 A B C D E 119 A B C D E
90 A B C D E 105 A B C D E 120 A B C D E

QUESTIONS 121–126

For Students Taking AP Biology

Write your answer in the boxes at the top of the griddable area and fill in the corresponding circles.
Mark only one circle in any column. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in correctly.

121 122 123 124 125 126

/ / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / /

– . . . . . – . . . . . – . . . . . – . . . . . – . . . . . – . . . . .

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

QUESTIONS 131–142

For Students Taking AP Computer Science Principles, AP Physics 1, or AP Physics 2

Mark two responses per question. You will receive credit only if both correct responses are selected.

131 A B C D 135 A B C D 139 A B C D

132 A B C D 136 A B C D 140 A B C D
133 A B C D 137 A B C D 141 A B C D
134 A B C D 138 A B C D 142 A B C D

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STREET ADDRESS (include street number, street name, apartment number, etc.) CITY ZIP OR POSTAL CODE CODE Female Male

W. WHICH LANGUAGE DO YOU

A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A 0 0 0 KNOW BEST?
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C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C 2 2 2 English and another language
about the same
D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D 3 3 3 Another language

E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E 4 4 4

F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F 5 5 5 X. RACIAL/ETHNIC GROUP

G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G 6 6 6 Please answer both questions about

Hispanic origin and about race. For the
H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H 7 7 7
following questions about your identity,
I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I 8 8 8 Hispanic origins are not races.

J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J 9 9 9
(You may mark all that apply.)
K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K
a. Are you of b. What is your race?
L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L Hispanic,
Latino, or
American Indian or
M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M Spanish origin? Alaska Native
N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N No, not of Asian (including Indian
Hispanic, Latino, subcontinent and
O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O or Spanish origin Philippines origin)

P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P Yes, Cuban Black or African American

(including Africa and
Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Yes, Mexican Afro-Caribbean origin)

R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R Yes, Puerto Rican Native Hawaiian or other

Pacific Islander
S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S Yes, another White (including Middle
Hispanic, Latino, Eastern origin)
T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T or Spanish origin

U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U
V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V Y. PARENTAL EDUCATION LEVEL
In the first column, indicate the highest level of education of
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one parent/guardian, and indicate whether this is your mother/
X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X female guardian or father/male guardian. Then, if applicable,
indicate the highest level of education of your other parent/
Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y guardian in the second column, and indicate whether this is
Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z your mother/female guardian or father/male guardian.

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 STATE MI NY VT 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 Mother or female guardian

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 AK HI MN OH WA 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 Father or male guardian

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 AL IA MO OK WI 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 Grade school

3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 AR ID MS OR WV 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 Some high school

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 AZ IL MT PA WY 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 High school diploma or equivalent

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 CA IN NC RI Puerto 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 Vocational or trade school

Rico
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7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 CT KY NE SD AA 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 Associate or two-year degree

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 DC LA NH TN AE 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 Bachelor’s or four-year degree

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 DE MA NJ TX AP 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 Some graduate or professional school

/ / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / FL MD NM UT Other / / / / / / / Graduate or professional degree

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Section I:
Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Questions

This is the multiple-choice and grid-in section of the 2017 AP exam.

It includes cover material and other administrative instructions
to help familiarize students with the mechanics of the exam.
(Note that future exams may differ in look from the following content.)

For purposes of test security and/or statistical analysis, some questions

have been removed from the version of the exam that was administered
in 2017. Therefore, the timing indicated here may not be appropriate
for a practice exam.
 ®
AP Biology Exam
SECTION I: Multiple Choice and Grid-In 2017
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
Instructions
At a Glance
Section I of this exam contains 53 multiple-choice questions and 5 grid-in questions.
Total Time Indicate all of your answers to the Section I questions on the answer sheet. No credit will
1 hour, 30 minutes be given for anything written in this exam booklet, but you may use the booklet for notes
Number of Questions or scratch work.
58
Percent of Total Score For questions 1 through 53, after you have decided which of the suggested answers is
50% best, completely fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. Fill in only the circles
Writing Instrument for questions 1 through 53. Because this section offers only four answer options for each
Pencil required question, do not mark the (E) answer circle for any question.
Electronic Device
Four-function calculator Give only one answer to each question. If you change an answer, be sure that the previous
(with square root) mark is erased completely. Here is a sample question and answer.

For questions 121 through 125, follow the instructions after question 53 to enter your
numeric answers. Write your numeric answer in the boxes at the top of the grid and fill in
the corresponding circles for questions 121 through 125.
Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy. Do not
spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and come back to
the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected that everyone will
know the answers to all of the multiple-choice questions.
Your total score on Section I is based only on the number of questions answered correctly.
Points are not deducted for incorrect answers or unanswered questions.

Form I
Form Code 4NBP4-S

20
 AP® BIOLOGY EQUATIONS AND FORMULAS

Statistical Analysis and Probability

x = sample mean
Mean Standard Deviation
n = size of the sample
 ( xi - x )
n 2
x = Â xi
1
s =
n i =1 n -1 s = sample standard deviation (i.e., the sample-based
estimate of the standard deviation of the
Standard Error of the Mean Chi-Square population)
( o - e )2
Â
s
SEx = c2 = o = observed results
n e
e = expected results
Chi-Square Table
p Degrees of Freedom Degrees of freedom are equal to the number of
value 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 distinct possible outcomes minus one.
0.05 3.84 5.99 7.82 9.49 11.07 12.59 14.07 15.51
0.01 6.64 9.21 11.34 13.28 15.09 16.81 18.48 20.09

Laws of Probability Metric Prefixes

If A and B are mutually exclusive, then:
Factor Prefix Symbol
P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B)
10 9 giga G
If A and B are independent, then: 10 6 mega M
P(A and B) = P(A) ¥ P(B) 10 3 kilo k
10 – 2 centi c
Hardy-Weinberg Equations
p = frequency of the dominant allele 10 – 3 milli m
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 10 – 6 micro μ
in a population
p+q=1 q = frequency of the recessive allele 10 – 9 nano n
in a population 10 – 12 pico p

Mode = value that occurs most frequently in a data set

Median = middle value that separates the greater and lesser halves of a data set

Mean = sum of all data points divided by number of data points

Range = value obtained by subtracting the smallest observation (sample minimum) from the greatest (sample maximum)

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 Rate and Growth dY = amount of change Water Potential ( Y )
Rate
dY dt = change in time Y = YP + YS
dt
B = birth rate YP = pressure potential
Population Growth
D = death rate
dN YS = solute potential
= B- D
dt N = population size
Exponential Growth The water potential will be equal to
K = carrying capacity
dN the solute potential of a solution in an
= rmax N rmax = maximum per capita open container because the pressure
dt
potential of the solution in an open
growth rate of population
Logistic Growth container is zero.
dN
dt
= rmax N (
K-N
K ) The Solute Potential of a Solution
T2 = higher temperature
Temperature Coefficient Q10 YS = -iCRT
10 T1 = lower temperature
k T T
  2  2 1
i = ionization constant (this is 1.0 for
Q10
 k1  k2 = reaction rate at T2
sucrose because sucrose does not
ionize in water)
Primary Productivity Calculation
mg O2 0.698 mL mL O2 k1 = reaction rate at T1 C = molar concentration
× =
L mg L R = pressure constant
Q10 = the factor by which the (R = 0.0831 liter bars/mole K)
mL O 2 0.536 mg C fixed mg C fixed
× = reaction rate increases when
L mL O 2 L T = temperature in Kelvin (ºC + 273)
the temperature is raised by
(at standard temperature and pressure)
ten degrees

Surface Area and Volume Dilution (used to create a dilute solution from a
r = radius concentrated stock solution)
Volume of a Sphere
CiVi = CfVf
4
V = pr3  = length
3
i = initial (starting) C = concentration of solute
Volume of a Rectangular Solid h = height
f = final (desired) V = volume of solution
V = w h
w = width
Volume of a Right Cylinder Gibbs Free Energy
V = pr h 2 s = length of one ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
side of a cube
Surface Area of a Sphere ΔG = change in Gibbs free energy
A = 4 pr 2 A = surface area ΔS = change in entropy
Surface Area of a Cube
V = volume ΔH = change in enthalpy
A = 6s2
T = absolute temperature (in Kelvin)
Surface Area of a Rectangular Solid  = sum of all
pH = – log10 [H+]
A  S surface area of each side

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 BIOLOGY
Section I
53 Multiple-Choice Questions
5 Grid-In Questions
Time—90 Minutes

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by four suggested
answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding circle
on the answer sheet.

1. The food web represented above does not include bacteria and fungi. Which of the following best describes a
consequence of having no bacteria and fungi in the food web?
(A) Grasses will have no direct access to chemical components recycled from dead organisms.
(B) Rabbits will have no direct access to energy absorbed from secondary consumers.
(C) Shrews will have no direct access to matter transferred from tertiary consumers.
(D) Hawks will have no direct access to nitrogen acquired from the atmosphere.

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2. The following DNA sequence is a small part of the coding (nontemplate) strand from the open reading frame of
the b-hemoglobin gene. Given the codon chart listed below, what would be the effect of a mutation that deletes
the G at the beginning of the DNA sequence?
5¢ - GTT TGT CTG TGG TAC CAC GTG GAC TGA - 3¢

(A) The mutation precedes the gene, so no changes would occur.

(B) Lysine (lys) would replace glutamine (gln), but there would be no other changes.
(C) The first amino acid would be missing, but there would be no other change to the protein.
(D) The reading frame of the sequence would shift, causing a change in the amino acid sequence after that point.

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3. A widely accepted hypothesis about the origin of 5. Ciprofloxacin is given as an antibiotic to healthy
life on Earth is that life arose approximately livestock to promote efficient weight gain. Strains
3.5 billion years ago as the result of a complex of the bacterium Campylobacter jejuni naturally
sequence of chemical reactions that took place colonize the digestive tracts of livestock, and the
spontaneously in Earth’s atmosphere. Another C. jejuni can be transferred to people through the
hypothesis about the origin of life suggests that handling and consumption of contaminated meat.
life began somewhere else in the universe and People infected with C. jejuni also are treated
arrived on Earth by chance. with ciprofloxacin.
Which of the following questions might scientists Which of the following is the most likely
ask to most reliably determine if there has ever consequence of adding ciprofloxacin to animal
been life on Mars? feed?
(A) How far from Earth was Mars 3.5 billion (A) Naturally occurring strains of C. jejuni will
years ago? reproduce more rapidly in the digestive
(B) Is there scientific proof that Earth ever had tracts of livestock, reducing the risk of
an oxygen-free atmosphere? food-borne illnesses in people.
(C) Did Mars have the elements present in its (B) Ciprofloxacin-resistant strains of C. jejuni
atmosphere to support life? will have a selective advantage in the
(D) Was there oxygen gas on Mars 3.5 billion digestive tracts of livestock, increasing
years ago? the risk of serious infections in people.
(C) Ciprofloxacin-sensitive strains of C. jejuni
4. Cortisol is a hormone produced in response to will be consumed in meat that contains a
stress, including starvation, in humans. Which of chemical that inhibits bacterial growth,
the following is most likely an immediate effect reducing the risk of food poisoning in
of a starvation-induced increase in cortisol people.
secretion? (D) Actively growing strains of C. jejuni will
metabolize the nutrients in meat produced
(A) Increased activation of the immune system
by livestock operations, increasing the risk
(B) Increased urine production by the kidneys
of protein deficiencies in people.
(C) Increased bone and collagen formation
(D) Increased mobilization of fatty acids from fat
cells

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 Derived Characters (+ indicates the character is present)
Organisms
Hair Jaws Feathers Amniotic Eggs Two Pairs of Limbs b-Keratin Scales
Mammals + + + +
Crocodilians + + + +
Fish +
Amphibians + +
Birds + + + + +

6. The table above shows derived characters for selected organisms. Based on the information in the table, which of
the following cladograms best represents the evolutionary relationships among the organisms?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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7. Damaged tissue releases chemicals that activate 8. Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. In
platelets and stimulate the formation of blood an experiment, bacteriophages were labeled with
clots. Which of the following predictions about either radioactive phosphorus or radioactive
the activity of platelets best describes a positive sulfur. The labeled bacteriophages were incubated
feedback mechanism? with bacteria for a brief amount of time and then
removed. The infected bacteria cells were found
(A) Activated platelets release chemicals that
to contain significant amounts of radioactive
inhibit blood clot formation.
phosphorus but not radioactive sulfur.
(B) Activated platelets release signaling
molecules that inhibit cell division in Based on the results of the experiment, which
damaged tissue. of the following types of molecules did the
(C) Activated platelets constrict the blood bacteriophages most likely inject into the bacteria
vessels, stopping blood flow. cells?
(D) Activated platelets release chemicals that
(A) Simple carbohydrate
activate more platelets.
(B) Amino acid
(C) DNA
(D) Polypeptide

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Questions 9-13

In an investigation of interspecies competition, researchers grew the unicellular protozoan Paramecium aurelia in
a 5 mL culture and Paramecium caudatum in a separate 5 mL culture. P. aurelia and P. caudatum were grown
together in a third 5 mL culture. Each day a small sample of each culture was removed so the total number of
individuals could be estimated, and the remainder of the population was transferred to fresh growth medium.
The experimental results are represented in the graphs below.

Figure 1. Population of P. aurelia cultured alone

Figure 2. Population of P. caudatum cultured alone

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 Figure 3. Populations of P. aurelia and P. caudatum cultured together

9. Which of the following conclusions is best 11. Which of the following statements best justifies
supported by the results of the experiment? the use of the experimental results in an
investigation of interspecies competition?
(A) Neither population grows as large when
cultured together as each does when (A) When two populations use different sources
cultured separately. of energy, one of the populations will thrive
(B) P. caudatum prefers different food when in a shared environment and the other will
cultured with P. aurelia than when cultured become extinct.
separately. (B) When two populations use the same sources
(C) Competition for mates increases when the of energy, resource availability in a shared
species are cultured together compared with environment limits the growth of both
when they are cultured separately. populations.
(D) Individuals of the species P. caudatum are (C) Because the change in entropy of a system
smaller when cultured together with containing two different species is always
P. aurelia than when cultured separately. positive, populations typically grow faster
in shared environments.
10. The difference in carrying capacity between the (D) Because the free energy of a system
two species when cultured separately is closest to containing two different species is always
which of the following values? negative, populations that utilize similar
resources cannot coexist in nature.
(A) 0 individuals per 5.0 mL
(B) 60 individuals per 5.0 mL
(C) 150 individuals per 5.0 mL
(D) 350 individuals per 5.0 mL

Questions 12-13 are on the next page.

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12. If the mixed populations were cultured for an 13. Based on the experimental results, which
additional 25 days, which of the following of the following statements best describes the
predictions would be consistent with the data? relationship of the two populations that were
studied in the investigation?
(A) Both populations would stabilize at a small
size. (A) The populations have a parasitic relationship
(B) Both populations would stabilize at a large in which one species requires the presence
size. of the other to reproduce.
(C) Both populations would be eliminated from (B) The populations have a symbiotic
the culture. relationship in which both species require
(D) One population would stabilize at a large the presence of the other to reproduce.
size, and the other population would be (C) The populations have a competitive
eliminated from the culture. relationship in which each species limits the
ability of the other to reproduce.
(D) The populations have a predator/prey
relationship in which one species positively
influences the ability of the other to
reproduce.

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 PERCENT OF MOTHS RECAPTURED IN TWO DIFFERENT ENVIRONMENTS

Percent of Released Moths

Trial Moth Color and Environment
Recaptured

Light-colored moths were released in an

I 13%
unpolluted environment.

Light-colored moths were released in a

II 12%
polluted environment.

Dark-colored moths were released in an

III 7%
unpolluted environment.

Dark-colored moths were released in a

IV 28%
polluted environment.

14. A researcher released large numbers of moths into different environments in an attempt to better understand a
mechanism of evolution. The moths were released in four trials as described in the table above. Each of the
released moths had a small mark on the underside of a wing for identification. After an appropriate amount of
time, the researcher recaptured as many of the released moths as possible. Data from the experiment are included
in the table above. Which of the following claims is best supported by the data?
(A) Light-colored moths were more likely to be recaptured in the polluted environment than in the unpolluted
environment, suggesting an increased chance of reproductive success.
(B) Dark-colored moths were more likely to be recaptured in the polluted environment than in the unpolluted
environment, suggesting an increased chance of reproductive success.
(C) Light-colored moths were less likely to be recaptured in the polluted environment than in the unpolluted
environment, suggesting an increased chance of reproductive success.
(D) Dark-colored moths were less likely to be recaptured in the polluted environment than in the unpolluted
environment, suggesting an increased chance of reproductive success.

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15. Which of the following questions about the origin 16. A microelectrode is inserted into a neuron. A
of life on Earth is most scientifically testable? voltage recorder then measures the voltage
difference between the microelectrode inside the
(A) Why were the earliest life-forms created
cell and an electrode placed outside the cell.
using only twenty amino acids?
Which of the following plots most accurately
(B) Did life originate to make the universe a
represents the changes in membrane potential
better place?
throughout a single action potential?
(C) Was catalytic RNA used by ancient
organisms as a stepping stone to acquire (A)
protein enzymes?
(D) Can simple organic molecules form
spontaneously in an oxygen-free
atmosphere?

(B)

(C)

(D)

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 18. The graph above represents the proportions of
hatchlings of certain types of reptiles that are
male at different egg incubation temperatures.
Which of the following claims is best supported
by the data?
17. The diagram above depicts a karyotype of (A) The expression of sex-determination genes in
an individual human. Which of the following certain reptiles is influenced by temperature.
statements concerning the karyotype in the (B) Green turtle eggs do not hatch at
diagram is true? temperatures above 35°C.
(A) The diagram illustrates a genetic condition (C) In reptiles, sex determination is influenced by
found in females. the sex ratio of the existing population.
(B) The diagram indicates a mechanism (D) Incubating lizard eggs at constant low
for increasing genetic diversity in temperatures produces a large proportion
subsequent generations. of males.
(C) The diagram illustrates the results of
nondisjunction during gamete formation.
(D) The diagram indicates Down syndrome,
a genetic condition.

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Questions 19-23

In response to elevated blood glucose levels, beta (b) cells in the pancreas release insulin, a regulatory hormone.
Insulin signals body cells to take up glucose from the blood, which returns blood glucose levels back to normal.
Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder that destroys b-cells, resulting in elevated blood glucose levels.
Researchers have proposed that diabetes could be treated by implanting human embryonic stem cells (hESCs)
that have been induced to develop into b-cells (hESC-b). To test the proposed treatment, the researchers set up
two groups of genetically identical mice and implanted the mice from one group with hESC-b cells. Several weeks
after the hESC-b implant, both groups of mice were given a drug (STZ) that selectively destroys the naturally
occurring mouse b-cells but does not affect the implanted hESC-b cells. Figure 1 shows a comparison of average
blood glucose levels in both groups of mice.

Figure 1. Average blood glucose levels in mice after STZ treatment. Error bars
indicate standard deviation.

In a continuation of the experiment, the researchers removed the hESC-b implant from one of the mice 16 weeks
after STZ treatment. Figure 2 shows the blood glucose levels in the mouse over the duration of the experiment.

Figure 2. Blood glucose levels for an individual mouse over the

duration of the experiment.

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19. Which of the following modifications to the 21. Based on the data in Figure 2, which of the
experimental design would improve the reliability following best justifies the researchers’ claim
of the results presented in Figure 1 ? that hESC-b implants can functionally replace the
mouse’s naturally occurring b-cells?
(A) Measuring blood glucose levels in human
patients who have type 1 diabetes (A) The mouse with an hESC-b implant
(B) Measuring blood glucose levels in a group of demonstrated a decrease in blood glucose
mice that were not given STZ levels for the duration of the experiment.
(C) Using a drug that destroys both mouse b-cells (B) The mouse with an hESC-b implant
and hESC-b cells demonstrated an increase in blood glucose
(D) Injecting the mice in the experiment with levels before STZ treatment.
sucrose or fructose (C) The mouse with an hESC-b implant
successfully regulated blood glucose levels
20. Which of the following conclusions is best by regenerating its naturally occurring
supported by the data presented in Figure 1 ? b-cells.
(A) Mouse b-cells are more effective than (D) The mouse with an hESC-b implant
implanted hESC-b cells at regulating blood successfully regulated blood glucose levels
glucose levels. after STZ treatment but not after the implant
(B) Implanted hESC-b cells are effective at was removed.
regulating blood glucose levels in the
absence of mouse b-cells. 22. In contrast to type 1 diabetes, where there is
(C) Mouse b-cells do not regulate blood glucose no insulin production, type 2 diabetes is
levels in the presence of implanted characterized by a failure of body cells to respond
normally to insulin. Based on the results of the
hESC-b cells.
experiment, which of the following best predicts
(D) Implanted hESC-b cells cause type 1 diabetes
the effectiveness of using hESC-b implantation to
in laboratory mice.
treat type 2 diabetes?
(A) The treatment would fail because insulin
produced by implanted hESC-b cells will
not stimulate glucose uptake by body cells.
(B) The treatment would fail because the
implanted hESC-b cells would require more
glucose than the body can produce.
(C) The treatment would succeed because the
implanted hESC-b cells can express the
gene that codes for human insulin.
(D) The treatment would succeed because the
body cells would secrete more insulin in the
presence of the implanted hESC-b cells.

23. Based on the data, which of the following best represents how the mice with the implanted hESC-b cells use
negative feedback to return blood glucose levels to normal if blood glucose levels increase?
(A) Decreased insulin secretion by body cells → increased glucose uptake by mouse b-cells → increased insulin
secretion by body cells
(B) Increased insulin production by mouse b-cells → increased glucose uptake by hESC-b cells → decreased
glucose metabolism by body cells
(C) Increased insulin secretion by hESC-b cells → increased glucose uptake by body cells → decreased insulin
secretion by hESC-b cells
(D) Increased metabolism of glucose by hESC-b cells → differentiation of hESC-b cells into body cells →
increased glucose production by body cells

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24. As represented in the model above, B cells are activated by direct contact with antigens or stimulated helper
T cells (TH). Based on the model, which of the following best describes an outcome of B cell activation?
(A) Activated B cells differentiate into plasma cells and memory cells.
(B) Activated B cells stimulate TH cells to secrete antibodies.
(C) Both B cells and TH cells release chemical signals that negatively regulate antigen-presenting cells.
(D) Plasma cells produce antibodies that activate additional B cells by a positive feedback mechanism.

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25. A student analyzed a viral genome and found that 26. Which of the following communities is likely
the genome had the following nucleotide to be most stable?
composition.
(A) One where a keystone predator has been
• 28% adenine removed
(B) One with uniformly spaced vegetation
• 20% thymine (C) One with high species diversity
• 35% cytosine (D) One that lacks decomposers

• 17% guanine
Which of the following best describes the
structure of the viral genome?
(A) Double-stranded DNA
(B) Single-stranded DNA
(C) Double-stranded RNA
(D) Single-stranded RNA

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27. Which of the following is true about the structure
of the prokaryotic cell represented in the figure?
(A) It possesses cilia and lysosomes.
(B) It has a diploid genome and contains
linear DNA.
(C) It has a cell wall exterior to the plasma
membrane and contains ribosomes.
(D) It possesses membrane-bound organelles and
a flagellum.

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28. Blackcap birds (Sylvia atricapilla) migrate out of Germany before wintertime. Prior to the 1960s, all members of
a particular blackcap population flew to Spain, which had an abundant natural food source. Now, some members
of the same blackcap population fly to the United Kingdom, where food placed in feeders by humans is
abundant. The blackcaps return to the same forests in Germany to nest during the breeding season.
Some blackcaps that migrate to the United Kingdom have become distinguishable by certain physical and
behavioral traits from blackcaps that migrate to Spain. Which of the following best predicts the effect on the
blackcap population if humans in the United Kingdom continue to place food in feeders during the winter?
(A) The blackcaps that migrate to Spain will selectively mate with the blackcaps that migrate to the
United Kingdom, resulting in increased genetic variation in the blackcap population.
(B) The blackcaps that migrate to the United Kingdom will become reproductively isolated from the blackcaps
that migrate to Spain, resulting in speciation in the blackcap population.
(C) The blackcaps in Spain and the United Kingdom will migrate to other geographical locations in search of
potential mating partners, resulting in a smaller blackcap population in Germany.
(D) The blackcaps will begin nesting at their wintering sites in Spain or the United Kingdom, resulting in a
larger blackcap population migrating back to Germany after the breeding season has ended.

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Questions 29-32

The functions of the loci of the lac operon shown in the diagram are described in the table below.

Locus Function
PI Attachment site for RNA polymerase
lacI Encodes a repressor protein that prevents transcription of the structural genes of the lac operon
Plac Attachment site for RNA polymerase
Operator Binding site for the repressor protein
lacZ Encodes beta-galactosidase, the enzyme that digests lactose to glucose and galactose
lacY Encodes lactose permease, the channel through which lactose moves into the cell
lacA Encodes galactoside transacetylase

The diagram above represents a segment of the E. coli chromosome that contains the lacI gene and part of the
lac operon, a coordinately regulated set of genes that are required for the metabolism of lactose. The presence of
lactose, which causes the repressor to be released from the operator, results in increased transcription of the
lac operon.

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29. Which of the following is the most likely 31. Which of the following best explains the
consequence of a mutation at the operator locus contribution of the lac operon to the metabolic
that prevents binding of the repressor protein? efficiency of a bacterial cell?
(A) Expression of the structural genes will be (A) Expression of the lacI gene requires lactose.
repressed, even in the presence of lactose. (B) RNA polymerase is rapidly degraded by the
(B) Beta-galactosidase will be produced, even in product of the lacP locus.
the absence of lactose. (C) The repressor binds to DNA only when the
(C) RNA polymerase will attach at the Plac locus, cellular concentration of glucose is low.
but transcription will be blocked. (D) The lacZ gene is highly expressed only when
(D) The operator locus will code for a different lactose is available.
protein and thereby prevent transcription of
the structural gene. 32. Bacterial cells that contain green fluorescent
protein (GFP) will fluoresce under ultraviolet
30. Which of the following describes the most likely light. Which of the following is the most likely
consequence of a negative feedback pathway outcome of replacing the lacZ gene in the E. coli
involving the lac operon? lac operon with the gene encoding GFP?
(A) The breakdown products of lactose block cell (A) Bacteria growing in the presence of lactose
division. will fluoresce under ultraviolet light.
(B) Diffusion of lactose across the plasma (B) Beta-galactosidase will be made only when
membrane would stop in the presence of bacteria are cultured under ultraviolet light.
lactose. (C) Ultraviolet light will cause a bond to form
(C) Expression of the lac operon diminishes as between glucose and galactose monomers.
lactose is depleted. (D) Ultraviolet light will cause a duplication of
(D) Binding of DNA by the repressor would the lac operon.
increase in the presence of lactose.

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33. Evolutionary biologists have observed variation
in the average age and size of mature individuals
in a population of small freshwater guppies.
Guppies found in pools with pike cichlids—
a predator fish that preys primarily on larger
guppies—reproduce at a young age and are small
at maturity. Guppies found in pools with killifish
—a different predator fish that preys primarily on
smaller guppies—reproduce at an older age and
are larger at maturity.
Which of the following predicts the most likely
outcome of moving a population of guppies from
a pool with pike cichlids to a pool with killifish?
(A) The introduced guppy population will remain
phenotypically similar to the original
population because the killifish will not
recognize them as prey.
(B) Because the introduced population was in
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, successive
generations in the new population will
continue to display the same allele
frequencies as the original population.
(C) After many generations, the offspring of the
introduced guppies will mature at an older
age and larger size because of selective
pressure from the new predator.
(D) Within two or three generations, the
introduced guppies will become extinct
because the killifish prefer the juveniles.

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 35. The figure above represents a rough endoplasmic
reticulum. Which of the following best describes
the role of the structure labeled Y ?
(A) Structure Y contributes the raw materials
required for the synthesis of proteins.
(B) Structure Y packages proteins for export
from the cell.
(C) Structure Y is the location where proteins are
synthesized.
(D) Structure Y contains enzymes that cut and
34. Which of the following questions will best
activate proteins.
direct an investigation of the mechanism of
ATP synthase?
(A) What is the source of the inorganic phosphate
that is used to generate ATP from ADP?
(B) Is the phosphorylation of ADP by
ATP synthase dependent on the formation
of a proton gradient?
(C) Can ATP synthase use the energy released by
phosphorylation of ADP to pump protons
against a concentration gradient?
(D) Can oxidative phosphorylation be uncoupled
from the electron transport chain?

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Questions 36-40

The TAS2R38 gene encodes a receptor protein that influences the ability to taste bitterness. The gene has
two alleles: a dominant, wild-type allele that enables an individual (taster) to taste bitterness and a recessive, mutant
allele that interferes with the ability of an individual (nontaster) to taste bitterness. Three single nucleotide mutations
in the coding region of the TAS2R38 gene are associated with the nontaster allele. The nucleotides present at the
three positions are shown in the table below.

NUCLEOTIDE VARIATION IN THE TAS2R38 GENE

Position in the Nucleotide Sequence
145 785 886
Human nontaster G T A
Human taster C C G
Bonobo C C G
Chimpanzee C C G
Gorilla C C G

A cladogram representing the evolutionary relatedness of selected primates is shown below.

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36. In a sample of 2,400 people, 1,482 were found to 39. The TAS2R38 receptor protein has been detected
have the dominant (taster) phenotype. Assuming on the surface of cells from individuals who are
that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg homozygous for the nontaster allele of the
equilibrium, approximately how many individuals TAS2R38 gene. Which of the following is the
in the sample are expected to be heterozygous for most likely effect of the mutations associated with
TAS2R38 ? the nontaster allele on TAS2R38 gene expression?
(A) 741 (A) The mutations change the primary structure
(B) 918 of the encoded receptor protein.
(C) 1,133 (B) The mutations increase the stability of
(D) 1,482 the TAS2R38 mRNA.
(C) The mutations prevent transcription of
37. Which of the following scientific questions the TAS2R38 gene.
will best help researchers determine when the (D) The mutations prevent translation of
nontaster allele arose in the evolutionary history the TAS2R38 mRNA.
of the selected primates?
40. Toxic substances often have a bitter taste that
(A) How does the nontaster allele contribute to
causes animals who try to eat such substances
individual fitness?
to spit them out rather than swallow them.
(B) Does the nontaster allele exist in any
Additional data suggest that gorilla populations
nonhuman primate populations?
have a very low frequency of nontasters. Which of
(C) What caused the mutations in the TAS2R38
the following best describes the likely evolution
gene?
of the TAS2R38 locus in the gorilla population?
(D) How do the mutations in the nontaster allele
affect the structure of the resulting protein? (A) Gorillas who could taste bitter toxins were
more likely to survive and reproduce than
38. Which of the following conclusions is supported nontasters.
by the data? (B) Gorillas who could taste bitter toxins became
resistant to the toxins, so the taster gene was
(A) Humans and bonobos belong to the same
no longer under selective pressure.
genus because the nucleotide sequence of
(C) Gorillas acquired the taster allele by
the TAS2R38 gene is the same.
horizontal gene transfer from chimpanzees.
(B) Chimpanzees are equally related to humans
(D) Gorillas who could taste bitter toxins could
and bonobos because all three groups
utilize food resources that nontasters
possess variants of the TAS2R38 gene.
could not.
(C) Humans are more closely related to bonobos
than to chimpanzees because the branch of
the tree with humans is closest to the branch
of the tree with bonobos.
(D) Bonobos are more closely related to humans
than to gorillas because bonobos and
humans share a more recent common
ancestor than bonobos and gorillas do.

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41. The manner in which several different ions and molecules move through a cell membrane is shown in the
diagram above. For each ion or molecule, the relative concentration on each side of the membrane is indicated.
Which of the following accurately describes one of the movements taking place?
(A) Glucose is transported into the cell by active transport.
(B) Na+ is transported into the cell by active transport.
(C) The movement of glucose through the membrane requires ATP hydrolysis.
(D) Na+ transport out of the cell requires ATP hydrolysis.

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42. Which of the following best describes how 43. The fossils in a layer of rock are significantly
myelination affects the transmission of nerve different from those in the rock layer directly
impulses? above it. One hypothesis to explain the difference
is that a major extinction event occurred at the
(A) It speeds up the transmission of impulses by
point in time represented by the transition
acting as an electrical insulator.
between the two rock layers.
(B) It speeds up the transmission of impulses by
integrating signal information more quickly. Which of the following is the best plan for
(C) It slows down the transmission of impulses collecting data to use in a test of the hypothesis?
by forming gaps of unsheathed axons.
(A) Examining the upper part of the lower rock
(D) It slows down the transmission of impulses
layer for evidence of a catastrophic event,
by impeding the movement of ions across
such as the presence of shocked quartz,
the neuronal membrane.
iridium, or soot particles
(B) Digging farther into the hillside to look for a
section of sedimentary rock that has a third
layer below the two layers that were already
identified
(C) Comparing the genomes of organisms from
different evolutionary lineages to estimate
the relative geologic age of the upper rock
layer
(D) Searching fossil collections in several
museums for examples of the types of
features once shared among organisms that
are now extinct

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Questions 44-48

In the American Southwest, annually emerging cicadas are dependent upon the cottonwood trees in the
floodplain. Adult male cicadas perch in the cottonwood trees and chirp to attract females. Females lay their eggs in
the branches of the cottonwoods, and, upon hatching, the cicada nymphs drop to the ground, burrow into the soil,
feed on the tree roots, and later emerge as adults. Other organisms in the floodplain community prey on the cicadas,
as shown in the food web.

Figure 1. Food web in floodplain community

Human activity has caused a decrease in the amount of flooding and an increase in the incidence of wildfires in
the floodplain. In an investigation into the recent changes in the floodplain ecosystem, researchers monitored the
soil temperature, amount of cottonwood ground coverage (i.e., area of the ground that is shaded by leaves), and
cicada emergence for a period from mid-June until late July. The results of the investigation are represented in
Figure 2 and Figure 3.

Figure 2. Effect of cottonwood ground Figure 3. Relationship between soil

coverage on soil temperature temperature and cicada emergence date

To assess the impact of wildfires on soil temperature and cicada emergence, the researchers compared mean
emergence dates for two natural sites where portions had been affected by wildfire. In addition, cicada emergence
was monitored at an experimental site where the soil temperature was experimentally maintained. The data are
shown in the table.

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 MEAN CICADA EMERGENCE DATES AT SITES AFFECTED BY WILDFIRES OR WITH
EXPERIMENTALLY CONTROLLED SOIL TEMPERATURE

Natural Site 1 Natural Site 2 Experimental Site

Unburned Burned Unburned Burned 24°C 27°C

Mean Emergence Date July 8 June 18 July 15 July 3 July 14 July 5

44. Which of the following statements best predicts 46. Based on the data, which of the following
the effect of increased cottonwood growth on the describes the most likely relationship between
food web? wildfires, soil temperature, and the timing of
cicada emergence in the same year?
(A) Increased cottonwood growth will lead to an
increase in the number of primary (A) Wildfires caused a reduction in ground cover,
consumers, resulting in more competition which in turn caused increased soil
between kestrels and sparrows for food. temperatures leading to earlier emergence
(B) Increased cottonwood growth will decrease of cicadas.
the habitat available for lizards, resulting in (B) Wildfires caused an increase in ground cover,
a decline in the number of kestrels. which in turn caused increased soil
(C) Increased cottonwood growth will provide temperatures delaying the emergence of
more resources for cicadas, resulting in an cicadas.
increase in the kestrel population. (C) Wildfires caused an increase in growth of
(D) Increased cottonwood growth will lead to a new plants, which in turn caused a decrease
large accumulation of dead wood that serves in soil temperatures which led to earlier
as fuel for wildfires, resulting in the emergence of cicadas.
collapse of the food web. (D) Wildfires caused a decrease in ground cover,
which in turn caused a decrease in soil
45. Based upon the data, which of the following best temperatures leading to later emergence of
describes the effect on the timing of cicada cicadas.
emergence if the cottonwood ground cover
decreases from 50 percent to 25 percent? 47. Yellow-billed cuckoos typically hatch in mid-
July. Emerging cicadas are a primary food source
(A) Cicadas will emerge approximately 10 days
for nesting cuckoos. Which of the following best
earlier.
predicts the effect of wildfires on yellow-billed
(B) Cicadas will emerge approximately 2 days
cuckoo populations?
earlier.
(C) Cicadas will emerge approximately 10 days (A) The yellow-billed cuckoo population will
later. decline because the decreased ground cover
(D) Cicadas will emerge approximately 2 days will allow lizards to prey on cuckoo nests.
later. (B) The yellow-billed cuckoo population will
decline because the cicadas will emerge
before the hatching season begins.
(C) The yellow-billed cuckoo population will
grow because the adults will more easily see
and eat the cicada nymphs.
(D) The yellow-billed cuckoo population will
remain unchanged because cuckoos do not
nest in areas affected by wildfires.

Question 48 is on the next page.

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48. The data from the temperature-controlled
experimental plots can best be used to support
which of the following conclusions about cicada
development?
(A) Adult cicadas lay more eggs when the soil is
warmer than when the soil is cooler.
(B) Adult cicadas mate more frequently when the
soil is warmer than when the soil is cooler.
(C) Cicada nymphs grow larger in warmer soil
than in cooler soil.
(D) Cicada nymphs mature to adults faster in
warmer soil than in cooler soil.

Primary Nitrogenous Waste

Representative Product
Vertebrate
Ammonia Urea Uric Acid

Fish X

Tadpole X

Frog X

Reptile X

Bird X

Mammal X

Property of Nitrogenous Waste Product

Solubility in Water High High Low

Toxicity High Medium Low

49. The table above shows the types and properties of nitrogen-
containing wastes produced by several vertebrates. Which of
the following is the best evolutionary explanation of the data?
(A) The data support convergent evolution for nitrogen
excretion in organisms occupying dramatically different
environmental niches.
(B) The nitrogenous waste excreted by each vertebrate is the
result of evolutionary adaptations that have decreased
vulnerability to predators.
(C) Nitrogen homeostasis in terrestrial vertebrates reflects
an adaptation for more frequent and higher-volume
urination than that occurring in aquatic vertebrates.
(D) Ammonia secretion requires a large volume of water and
was therefore selected against in terrestrial vertebrates.

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 51. Which of the following best describes an event
during step 2 in the simplified model above?
(A) A new RNA molecule is synthesized using a
DNA template.
(B) A new polypeptide is synthesized using an
RNA template.
(C) Thymine nucleotides in an RNA molecule are
replaced with uracil nucleotides.
(D) Noncoding sequences are removed from a
newly synthesized RNA molecule.
50. The figure above shows an organelle typically
found in eukaryotic cells. Which of the following
best describes the function of the double
membrane system of this organelle?
(A) The outer membrane allows the transport of
all molecules into the intermembrane space,
while the inner membrane serves as the
regulatory boundary.
(B) The inner membrane has specialized proteins
that create a hydrogen ion concentration
gradient between the intermembrane space
and the matrix.
(C) The outer membrane contains transport
proteins that establish a sodium ion
concentration gradient used for ATP
production, while the inner membrane
contains transport proteins that establish a
hydrogen ion concentration gradient used
for glucose production.
(D) The toxins and wastes entering a cell cross
the outer membrane and are detoxified by
digestive enzymes stored within the
intermembrane space.

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52. Which of the following correctly compares the two processes shown above?
(A) Both processes increase genetic variation.
(B) Both processes represent aspects of sexual reproduction.
(C) Both processes require partitioning of genetic material and organelles.
(D) The amount of genetic material per cell remains constant in both processes.

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53. The diagram above represents a model of signal transduction pathways (I and II) in a cell that is targeted by two
different hormones (H1 and H2). The components of the signal transduction pathways are identified in the figure
legend. Each cellular molecule in both pathways can exist in an inactive or active form. When the components
in pathway I are sequentially activated, the TAP molecules promote cell division. When the components in
pathway II are sequentially activated, downstream signaling by the G protein is inhibited. Based on the model,
which of the following mutations is most likely to result in a cell that will generate a cancerous tumor?
(A) A mutation in the gene encoding PP that results in a nonfunctional protein
(B) A mutation in the gene encoding G-PIP that results in a nonfunctional protein
(C) A mutation in the gene encoding R1 so that it is inactive even in the presence of H1
(D) A mutation in the gene encoding R2 so that it is active even in the absence of H2

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Directions: The next five questions, numbered 121–125, require numeric answers.
Determine the correct answer for each question and enter it in the grid on page 3 of the answer sheet.
Use the following guidelines for entering your answers.

• Start your answer in any column, space permitting. Unused columns should be left blank.
• Write your answer in the boxes at the top of the grid and fill in the corresponding circles. Mark only one
circle in any column. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in completely.
• Provide your answer in the format specified by the question. The requested answer may be an integer, a
decimal, or a fraction, and it may have a negative value.
• To enter a fraction, use one of the division slashes to separate the numerator from the denominator, as shown
in the example below. Fractions only need to be reduced enough to fit in the grid.
• Do not enter a mixed number, as this will be scored as a fraction. For example, 2 1/2 (two and one-half) will
be scored as 21/2 (twenty-one halves).

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 GENETIC MAKEUP OF A MOUSE POPULATION
Number of Individuals Number of Individuals
Genotype Phenotype
in Original Population in New Population
BB Brown 841 841
Bb Tan 1,218 1,218
bb Gray 441 0
2,500 2,059

121. The genetic makeup of a mouse population is provided in the table above. At the start of an experiment,
researchers remove all the gray mice from the population, resulting in a population that is not in Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium. Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele in the remaining population of mice.
Give your answer as a decimal to two places.

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122. A cell has a surface area of 32 μm2 and a volume 124. Male chickens carry two Z sex chromosomes,
of 8 μm3. A different cell has a surface area of while female chickens carry one Z sex
36 μm2 and a volume of 12 μm3. What is the ratio chromosome and one W sex chromosome.
Located on the Z chromosome is a gene for
of surface area to volume for the cell that is barring. Barred feathers have black and white
predicted to exchange materials with the stripes. The barred trait is dominant to the
surrounding environment at a faster rate by unbarred trait.
diffusion? Enter your answer as a fraction or a
Chickens have a fleshy growth on top of the head
whole number. called a comb. An autosomal trait called rose
comb is dominant to a trait called single comb.
123. A researcher proposes that the transmembrane
portion of a certain protein consists of 24 amino An unbarred male heterozygous for the rose-comb
acids. Based on the proposed model, calculate the trait is crossed with a barred female with a single
number of nucleotides in the mRNA that encode comb. What proportion of the resulting progeny
only the amino acids in the transmembrane are expected to be barred males with single
portion of the protein. combs? Give your answer as a fraction or as a
decimal to the nearest hundredth.

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125. A student proposes a model of an energy pyramid for an isolated ecosystem, as shown above. The amount of
energy available at each trophic level is given in kcal/m2/year. According to the proposed model, what percent
of the available energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next? Round your answer to the nearest whole
percent, and disregard the percent sign when gridding your answer.

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 END OF SECTION I

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION.

DO NOT GO ON TO SECTION II UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

________________________________

MAKE SURE YOU HAVE DONE THE FOLLOWING.

• PLACED YOUR AP NUMBER LABEL ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET

• WRITTEN AND GRIDDED YOUR AP NUMBER CORRECTLY ON YOUR ANSWER

SHEET

• TAKEN THE AP EXAM LABEL FROM THE FRONT OF THIS BOOKLET

AND PLACED IT ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET

-40-
Section II: Free-Response Questions

This is the free-response section of the 2017 AP exam.

It includes cover material and other administrative instructions
to help familiarize students with the mechanics of the exam.
(Note that future exams may differ in look from the following content.)
 ®
AP Biology Exam
SECTION II: Free Response 2017
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

At a Glance
Total Time
1 hour, 30 minutes
Number of Questions
8
Percent of Total Score
50%
Writing Instrument
Pen with black or dark
blue ink
Electronic Device
Four-function calculator
(with square root)

Reading Period
Time
10 minutes. Use this Instructions
time to read the
questions and plan your The questions for Section II are printed in this booklet. You may use the unlined pages to
[Link] may begin organize your answers and for scratch work, but you must write your answers on the
writing your responses
before the reading labeled pages provided for each question.
period is over.
The proctor will announce the beginning and end of the reading period. You are advised
Writing Period to spend the 10-minute period reading all the questions, and to use the unlined pages to
Time
sketch graphs, make notes, and plan your answers. The focus of the reading period should
1 hour, 20 minutes be the organization of questions 1 and 2. You may begin writing your responses before
Suggested Time the reading period is over.
Approximately Each answer should be written in paragraph form; an outline or bulleted list alone is not
22 minutes per long
question, and 6 minutes acceptable. Do not spend time restating the questions or providing more than the number
per short question. of examples called for. For instance, if a question calls for two examples, you can earn
Weight credit only for the first two examples that you provide. Labeled diagrams may be used to
Approximate weights supplement discussion, but unless specifically called for by the question, a diagram alone
Questions 1 and 2:
25% each will not receive credit. Write clearly and legibly. Begin each answer on a new page. Do not
Questions 3 5: skip lines. Cross out any errors you make; crossed-out work will not be scored.
10% each
Questions 6 8: Manage your time carefully. You may proceed freely from one question to the next. You
7% each may review your responses if you finish before the end of the exam is announced.

Form I
Form Code 4NBP4-S

20
 AP® BIOLOGY EQUATIONS AND FORMULAS

Statistical Analysis and Probability

x = sample mean
Mean Standard Deviation
n = size of the sample
 ( xi - x )
n 2
x = Â xi
1
s =
n i =1 n -1 s = sample standard deviation (i.e., the sample-based
estimate of the standard deviation of the
Standard Error of the Mean Chi-Square population)
( o - e )2
Â
s
SEx = c2 = o = observed results
n e
e = expected results
Chi-Square Table
p Degrees of Freedom Degrees of freedom are equal to the number of
value 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 distinct possible outcomes minus one.
0.05 3.84 5.99 7.82 9.49 11.07 12.59 14.07 15.51
0.01 6.64 9.21 11.34 13.28 15.09 16.81 18.48 20.09

Laws of Probability Metric Prefixes

If A and B are mutually exclusive, then:
Factor Prefix Symbol
P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B)
10 9 giga G
If A and B are independent, then: 10 6 mega M
P(A and B) = P(A) ¥ P(B) 10 3 kilo k
10 – 2 centi c
Hardy-Weinberg Equations
p = frequency of the dominant allele 10 – 3 milli m
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 10 – 6 micro μ
in a population
p+q=1 q = frequency of the recessive allele 10 – 9 nano n
in a population 10 – 12 pico p

Mode = value that occurs most frequently in a data set

Median = middle value that separates the greater and lesser halves of a data set

Mean = sum of all data points divided by number of data points

Range = value obtained by subtracting the smallest observation (sample minimum) from the greatest (sample maximum)

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 Rate and Growth dY = amount of change Water Potential ( Y )
Rate
dY dt = change in time Y = YP + YS
dt
B = birth rate YP = pressure potential
Population Growth
D = death rate
dN YS = solute potential
= B- D
dt N = population size
Exponential Growth The water potential will be equal to
K = carrying capacity
dN the solute potential of a solution in an
= rmax N rmax = maximum per capita open container because the pressure
dt
potential of the solution in an open
growth rate of population
Logistic Growth container is zero.
dN
dt
= rmax N (
K-N
K ) The Solute Potential of a Solution
T2 = higher temperature
Temperature Coefficient Q10 YS = -iCRT
10 T1 = lower temperature
k T T
  2  2 1
i = ionization constant (this is 1.0 for
Q10
 k1  k2 = reaction rate at T2
sucrose because sucrose does not
ionize in water)
Primary Productivity Calculation
mg O2 0.698 mL mL O2 k1 = reaction rate at T1 C = molar concentration
× =
L mg L R = pressure constant
Q10 = the factor by which the (R = 0.0831 liter bars/mole K)
mL O 2 0.536 mg C fixed mg C fixed
× = reaction rate increases when
L mL O 2 L T = temperature in Kelvin (ºC + 273)
the temperature is raised by
(at standard temperature and pressure)
ten degrees

Surface Area and Volume Dilution (used to create a dilute solution from a
r = radius concentrated stock solution)
Volume of a Sphere
CiVi = CfVf
4
V = pr3  = length
3
i = initial (starting) C = concentration of solute
Volume of a Rectangular Solid h = height
f = final (desired) V = volume of solution
V = w h
w = width
Volume of a Right Cylinder Gibbs Free Energy
V = pr h 2 s = length of one ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
side of a cube
Surface Area of a Sphere ΔG = change in Gibbs free energy
A = 4 pr 2 A = surface area ΔS = change in entropy
Surface Area of a Cube
V = volume ΔH = change in enthalpy
A = 6s2
T = absolute temperature (in Kelvin)
Surface Area of a Rectangular Solid  = sum of all
pH = – log10 [H+]
A  S surface area of each side

-4-
 BIOLOGY
Section II
8 Questions
Total Time—90 minutes
Reading Period—10 minutes
Writing Period—80 minutes

Directions: Questions 1 and 2 are long free-response questions that require about 22 minutes each to answer and are
worth 10 points each. Questions 3–8 are short free-response questions that require about 6 minutes each to answer.
Questions 3–5 are worth 4 points each and questions 6–8 are worth 3 points each.

Read each question carefully and completely. You are advised to spend the 10-minute reading period planning your
answers. You may begin writing your responses before the reading period is over. Write your response in the space
provided for each question. Only material written in the space provided will be scored. Answers must be written out
in paragraph form. Outlines, bulleted lists, or diagrams alone are not acceptable.

Question 1 is on the following page.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

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 Figure 1. Production of light in the lantern organ of fireflies

Figure 2. Flash pattern characteristics in fireflies

Figure 3. Flash pattern characteristics of selected firefly species

Figure 4. Evolutionary relatedness among

selected firefly species

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-6-
1. Fireflies are a group of insects that possess a lantern organ composed of numerous light-producing cells
(photocytes) in their abdomens. The light is produced by a chemical reaction involving the light-emitting organic
compound luciferin. In each photocyte, luciferin is activated in an ATP-dependent reaction that is catalyzed by
the enzyme luciferase. In the presence of oxygen, the activated luciferin emits light as it is converted to
oxyluciferin (Figure 1).
The flashes of light are controlled by neurons that innervate the lantern organ. Activated neurons stimulate the
release of nitric oxide (NO), an inhibitor of the electron transport chain. The pattern of light flashes (Figure 2)
emitted by males is a signal to attract females as a component of mating behavior. Different species of firefly
display different patterns of flashes (Figure 3). The evolutionary relatedness of these species, as determined
using multiple morphological characteristics, is shown in Figure 4.
(a) Identify the main source of the ATP used for activating luciferin, as shown in Figure 1, and describe the
effect of the release of NO on oxygen levels in the photocyte during flashing.
(b) Describe TWO differences in the flash patterns of P. pyralis and P. knulli. Justify the use of differences in
flash signal patterns as evidence to support the claim that P. pyralis and P. knulli are different species.
(c) Use the template provided to construct a cladogram based on the data in Figure 3. Circle the position on the
cladogram that represents the outgroup.
(d) Evaluate the data used to construct the cladogram in Figure 4 and the cladogram you constructed in part (c)
and identify which cladogram is most likely to represent a more accurate phylogeny of the organisms.
Propose ONE type of additional data that that could be used to refine the phylogeny of these species.

THIS PAGE MAY BE USED FOR TAKING NOTES AND PLANNING YOUR ANSWERS.
NOTES WRITTEN ON THIS PAGE WILL NOT BE SCORED.
WRITE ALL YOUR RESPONSES ON THE LINED PAGES.

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PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 1

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 1

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 1

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 1

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 EFFECT OF ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS ON DNA
Treatment Mean Percent of DNA with 2SE X
Double-Strand Breaks
Untreated control 9.8 2.4
BaP only 9.7 3.2
UVA only 10.1 3.4
UVA and BaP 35.1 5.0

2. Environmental mutagens can affect DNA in cells. Benzo[a]pyrene (BaP) is a mutagen that is commonly found
in urban air pollution. Researchers claim that the effect of UVA radiation (UVA), another known mutagen, is
amplified by the presence of BaP. To test their claim, the researchers exposed cultured eukaryotic cells to either
BaP, UVA radiation, or both mutagens. The researchers then determined the percent of chromosomal DNA that
contained damage in the form of double-strand breaks. The results are shown in the table.
(a) On the template below construct a graph using the data in the table to represent the effect of UVA and BaP
on DNA.
(b) Using the results from all treatments, describe the effect of BaP alone and UVA alone compared with the
effect of the combined treatment of BaP and UVA on DNA.
(c) Predict the most likely effect on cell division for a cell containing DNA with double-strand breaks. Justify
your prediction.
(d) Point mutations alter the DNA sequence at a single nucleotide. Describe how point mutations affect the
genetic makeup of the population AND impact the evolution of the population.

THIS PAGE MAY BE USED FOR TAKING NOTES AND PLANNING YOUR ANSWERS.
NOTES WRITTEN ON THIS PAGE WILL NOT BE SCORED.
WRITE ALL YOUR RESPONSES ON THE LINED PAGES.

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any part of this page is illegal.

-12-
THIS PAGE MAY BE USED FOR TAKING NOTES AND PLANNING YOUR ANSWERS.
NOTES WRITTEN ON THIS PAGE WILL NOT BE SCORED.
WRITE ALL YOUR RESPONSES ON THE LINED PAGES.

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PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 2

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 2

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 2

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 2

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 Figure 1. Effect of karrikins and strigolactones on seed germination in an
autotrophic host plant and its obligate parasitic weed

3. Strigolactones and karrikins are structurally similar compounds that can affect seed germination in certain
species of plants. However, plants with different life strategies (autotrophic plants or obligate parasitic weeds)
germinate in response to the presence of different compounds in the soil. After germination, many species of
autotrophic plant release strigolactones from their roots into the soil, which promotes uptake of nutrients.
The graphs above represent the results of a laboratory experiment to test the effect of different concentrations of
strigolactones or karrikins on the seed germination of an autotrophic host plant and of an obligate parasitic weed.
(a) Based on an analysis of the data, describe the effect of karrikins on seed germination in the autotrophic host
plants and the obligate parasitic weed plants.
(b) A researcher proposes that the obligate parasitic weed requires exposure to a signal from the host plant
before it can germinate. Using the data as evidence, provide support for the researcher’s claim and give
ONE reason the response would be an advantage for the weed plants.

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 3

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 Figure 1. Chemical structure of cyanide

4. The secondary compound cyanide (Figure 1) is a toxic, bitter-tasting chemical that is found in apple seeds.
Cyanide in seeds is only released and tasted if the seed is crushed. When animals eat apples, they typically eat
the sweet fleshy part of the fruit and spit out the seeds or swallow them whole.
(a) Based on the chemical structure of cyanide, identify ONE type of biological macromolecule that could serve
as a chemical precursor for the production of cyanide in a plant. Justify your choice.
(b) It has been proposed that apple trees are in a mutualistic relationship with the animals who eat the apples.
Describe ONE benefit to each organism in the mutualistic relationship.

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 4

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5. Caenorhabditis elegans is a species of soil-dwelling nematode (roundworm) that feeds on soil bacteria,
including Bacillus thuringiensis. B. thuringiensis is a virulent bacterial pathogen that produces BT toxin, a
protein that can kill different invertebrate species, including C. elegans.
In a laboratory experiment, C. elegans and B. thuringiensis were cultured individually (control) or together
(experimental) for 150 days. Under optimal conditions, the generation time of C. elegans is approximately
3.5 days and the generation time of B. thuringiensis is approximately 25 minutes. At the end of the experiment,
the change in virulence of B. thuringiensis and the change in resistance of C. elegans to BT toxin were
determined.
(a) Calculate the maximum number of generations that is possible in individual cultures of C. elegans AND the
maximum number of generations that is possible in individual cultures of B. thuringiensis in 150 days.
(b) The researchers found that after 150 days, the magnitude of the change in both B. thuringiensis virulence
and C. elegans resistance was less when they were cultured individually (control) than when they were
cultured together (experimental). Provide ONE reason for the difference in results between the two
treatments.
(c) The researchers also found that after 150 days, the relative change in virulence of B. thuringiensis was
greater than the relative change in the resistance in C. elegans when the organisms were cultured together.
Provide ONE reason that the relative change in B. thuringiensis virulence was greater than the relative
change in C. elegans resistance.

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 5

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 Figure 1. Time course of events during fertilization of a sea urchin egg

6. Figure 1 shows the events during and immediately following fertilization of a sea urchin egg. Sexual
reproduction relies on the successful fusion of only one sperm with one egg (time 1) during fertilization. In sea
urchins, a diploid organism, several events prevent additional sperm from fertilizing the egg. One of the first
events following fertilization is the fusion of secretory vesicles called cortical granules with the egg plasma
membrane (time 2). The cortical granules release their contents, a mixture of polysaccharides and proteins, into
the perivitelline space. Subsequent to this, water moves into the perivitelline space, causing it to expand and
physically separate the fertilization envelope from the egg plasma membrane (time 3). The fertilization envelope
prevents fusion of more than one sperm with the egg.
(a) Provide ONE reason that preventing fusion of multiple sperm with one egg in sea urchins has provided
a survival advantage over evolutionary time.
(b) Describe how the release of the contents of the cortical granules into the perivitelline space results in the
movement of water and causes the subsequent expansion of the perivitelline space.

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 6

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7. Cyanobacteria are a large group of prokaryotic organisms. Cyanobacteria are found in marine microbial mats
that include many species of eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms that can participate in mutualistic symbiotic
relationships. One recently discovered species of cyanobacteria, UCYN-A, lacks the genes that encode ribulose
bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase (RuBisCo), components of photosystem II, and the Krebs cycle. UCYN-A
contains genes enabling nitrogen fixation, which allows the enzymatic conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to
biologically available nitrogen compounds such as nitrate. Within the microbial community there is relatively
little available nitrogen. The majority of organisms in the microbial mat cannot fix nitrogen.
(a) Identify the metabolic process whereby UCYN-A is most likely to produce ATP.
(b) In low-nitrogen conditions, UCYN-A participates in a mutualistic symbiotic relationship with other
organisms in the microbial mat. Predict the most likely type of symbiotic relationship between UCYN-A
and the other organisms in the microbial mat if nitrogen becomes readily available from another source.
Provide reasoning to support your prediction.

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 7

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 Figure 1. MDM2 and p53 signaling in response to DNA
damage controls cell cycle progression.

8. The p53 and MDM2 proteins are involved in the DNA damage response pathway (Figure 1). In the absence of
DNA damage, MDM2 mediates the degradation of p53. In the presence of DNA damage, p53 is not broken
down and forms active tetramers that stimulate the expression of genes that block cell cycle progression.
Red blood cells are produced by the division and differentiation of multipotent stem cells. Researchers have
observed that mice with a partial loss-of-function mutation in the MDM2 gene have a lower concentration of red
blood cells in the blood than do mice that express the wild-type MDM2 allele.
(a) Using the model of the p53/MDM2 pathway, connect the reduction of MDM2 function in mutant mice to
the observed concentration of red blood cells.
(b) Predict how a loss-of-function mutation in the p53 gene is most likely to affect the cell cycle in response to
DNA damage. Justify your predictions.

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 8

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-29-
 STOP

END OF EXAM

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION.

________________________________

THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS APPLY TO THE COVERS OF THE

SECTION II BOOKLET.

• MAKE SURE YOU HAVE COMPLETED THE IDENTIFICATION

INFORMATION AS REQUESTED ON THE FRONT AND BACK
COVERS OF THE SECTION II BOOKLET.

• CHECK TO SEE THAT YOUR AP NUMBER LABEL APPEARS

IN THE BOX ON THE FRONT COVER.

• MAKE SURE YOU HAVE USED THE SAME SET OF AP

NUMBER LABELS ON ALL AP EXAMS YOU HAVE TAKEN
THIS YEAR.

-30-
Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Answer Key

The following contains the answers to

the multiple-choice and grid-in questions in this exam.
 Answer Key for AP Biology
Practice Exam, Section I

Question 1: A Question 19: B Question 37: B

Question 2: D Question 20: B Question 38: D
Question 3: C Question 21: D Question 39: A
Question 4: D Question 22: A Question 40: A
Question 5: B Question 23: C Question 41: D
Question 6: A Question 24: A Question 42: A
Question 7: D Question 25: B Question 43: A
Question 8: C Question 26: C Question 44: C
Question 9: A Question 27: C Question 45: A
Question 10: D Question 28: B Question 46: A
Question 11: B Question 29: B Question 47: B
Question 12: D Question 30: C Question 48: D
Question 13: C Question 31: D Question 49: D
Question 14: B Question 32: A Question 50: B
Question 15: D Question 33: C Question 51: D
Question 16: C Question 34: B Question 52: A
Question 17: C Question 35: C Question 53: B
Question 18: A Question 36: C

Question 121: 0.29 through 0.30, 29/100 through 30/100

Question 122: 4/1, 4
Question 123: 72
Question 124: 1/4, 0.25
Question 125: 14 through 15
Free-Response Scoring Guidelines

The following contains the scoring guidelines

for the free-response questions in this exam.
 AP® BIOLOGY
2017 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 1

Figure 1. Production of light in the lantern organ of fireflies

Figure 2. Flash pattern characteristics in fireflies

Figure 3. Flash pattern characteristics of selected firefly species

© 2017 The College Board.

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 AP® BIOLOGY
2017 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 1 (continued)

Figure 4. Evolutionary relatedness among selected firefly species

Fireflies are a group of insects that possess a lantern organ composed of numerous light-producing
cells (photocytes) in their abdomens. The light is produced by a chemical reaction involving the
light-emitting organic compound luciferin. In each photocyte, luciferin is activated in an
ATP-dependent reaction that is catalyzed by the enzyme luciferase. In the presence of oxygen,
the activated luciferin emits light as it is converted to oxyluciferin (Figure 1).
The flashes of light are controlled by neurons that innervate the lantern organ. Activated neurons
stimulate the release of nitric oxide (NO), an inhibitor of the electron transport chain. The pattern
of light flashes (Figure 2) emitted by males is a signal to attract females as a component of mating
behavior. Different species of firefly display different patterns of flashes (Figure 3). The evolutionary
relatedness of these species, as determined using multiple morphological characteristics, is shown
in Figure 4.
(a) Identify the main source of the ATP used for activating luciferin, as shown in Figure 1, and
describe the effect of the release of NO on oxygen levels in the photocyte during flashing. (2 points)
Identification (1 point)
 Mitochondria
 Cellular respiration
 Oxidative phosphorylation/electron transport chain
Description (1 point)
 Oxygen levels increase
(b) Describe TWO differences in the flash patterns of P. pyralis and P. knulli. Justify the use of
differences in flash signal patterns as evidence to support the claim that P. pyralis and P. knulli
are different species. (3 points)
Description (2 points maximum; 1 point per row)
Signal characteristic P. pyralis P. knulli
Flash duration Longer Shorter
Interflash interval Not present Present
Flash pattern interval Longer OR Shorter
Rate of flashes per unit of time Lower Higher
Fewer More
Flashes per flash pattern interval
One AND Three

© 2017 The College Board.

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 AP® BIOLOGY
2017 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 1 (continued)

Justification (1 point)
 Different flash patterns serve as a reproductive barrier
(c) Use the template provided to construct a cladogram based on the data in Figure 3. Circle the
position on the cladogram that represents the outgroup. (2 points)
Construct Cladogram (1 point)

P. brimleyi
P. dismissus Species in any order
P. punctulatus

P. knulli
Species in any order
P. consanguineous

P. pyralis

Identify outgroup (1 point)

 Circle bottom-most position in the cladogram
(d) Evaluate the data used to construct the cladogram in Figure 4 and the cladogram you constructed
in part (c) and identify which cladogram is most likely to represent a more accurate phylogeny of
the organisms. Propose ONE type of additional data that that could be used to refine the
phylogeny of these species. (3 points)
Evaluation (1 point)
 Multiple characteristics provide more evidence than does a single characteristic
Identification (1 point)
 Figure 4
Proposed type of data (1 point)
 Evidence from DNA/protein

© 2017 The College Board.

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 AP® BIOLOGY
2017 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 2

EFFECT OF ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS ON DNA

Treatment Mean Percent of DNA with 2SE X

Double-Strand Breaks
Untreated control 9.8 2.4

BaP only 9.7 3.2

UVA only 10.1 3.4
UVA and BaP 35.1 5.0

Environmental mutagens can affect DNA in cells. Benzo[a]pyrene (BaP) is a mutagen that is commonly
found in urban air pollution. Researchers claim that the effect of UVA radiation (UVA), another known
mutagen, is amplified by the presence of BaP. To test their claim, the researchers exposed cultured
eukaryotic cells to either BaP, UVA radiation, or both mutagens. The researchers then determined the
percent of chromosomal DNA that contained damage in the form of double-strand breaks. The results
are shown in the table.
(a) On the template below construct a graph using the data in the table to represent the effect of
UVA and BaP on DNA. (3 points)
Contruct graph (3 points)
 Appropriate labels, units and scaling
 Correctly plotted means on a bar graph/modified bar graph
 Correctly plotted error bars

(b) Using the results from all treatments, describe the effect of BaP alone and UVA alone compared
with the effect of the combined treatment of BaP and UVA on DNA. (3 points)
Description (3 points)
Treatment Effect (1 point per box)
UVA alone Did not cause damage
BaP alone Did not cause damage
 Caused damage
BaP plus UVA
 Caused more damage than did BaP alone or UVA alone

(c) Predict the most likely effect on cell division for a cell containing DNA with double-strand breaks.
Justify your prediction. (2 points; points may only be earned from one row)

Prediction (1 point) Justification (1 point per box)

 DNA replication cannot be completed
 The cell cannot pass through a cell cycle checkpoint with
Cell division will not occur DNA damage
 Cell enters apoptosis pathway

Cell division will be delayed The cell requires time to repair DNA

© 2017 The College Board.

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 AP® BIOLOGY
2017 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 2 (continued)

(d) Point mutations alter the DNA sequence at a single nucleotide. Describe how point mutations
affect the genetic makeup of the population AND impact the evolution of the population.
(2 points)

Description (1 point each; 2 points maximum)

 Increase genetic diversity
Genetic makeup  Introduce new alleles
 Introduce new protein/amino acid

 Mutant/new phenotypes are subject to natural selection

Evolution  Mutation is subject to evolutionary forces

© 2017 The College Board.

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 AP® BIOLOGY
2017 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 3

Figure 1. Effect of karrikins and strigolactones on seed germination in an

autotrophic host plant and its obligate parasitic weed

Strigolactones and karrikins are structurally similar compounds that can affect seed germination in
certain species of plants. However, plants with different life strategies (autotrophic plants or obligate
parasitic weeds) germinate in response to the presence of different compounds in the soil. After
germination, many species of autotrophic plant release strigolactones from their roots into the soil,
which promotes uptake of nutrients.
The graphs above represent the results of a laboratory experiment to test the effect of different
concentrations of strigolactones or karrikins on the seed germination of an autotrophic host plant and
of an obligate parasitic weed.
(a) Based on an analysis of the data, describe the effect of karrikins on seed germination in the
autotrophic host plants and the obligate parasitic weed plants. (2 points)

Type of plant Description (2 points; 1 point per box)

Autotrophic host plant Promoted germination
 Did not promote germination
Obligate parasitic weed  Inhibited germination
 Did not affect germination

(b) A researcher proposes that the obligate parasitic weed requires exposure to a signal from the host
plant before it can germinate. Using the data as evidence, provide support for the researcher’s
claim and give ONE reason the response would be an advantage for the weed plants. (2 points)

Support (1 point)
 Strigolactones promote germination (of the obligate parasitic weed)
Reasoning (1 point)
 Seeds only germinate when host plant/food source is present
 Seeds do not germinate when host plant/food source is not present

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 AP® BIOLOGY
2017 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 4

Figure 1. Chemical structure of cyanide

The secondary compound cyanide (Figure 1) is a toxic, bitter-tasting chemical that is found in apple
seeds. Cyanide in seeds is only released and tasted if the seed is crushed. When animals eat apples,
they typically eat the sweet fleshy part of the fruit and spit out the seeds or swallow them whole.
(a) Based on the chemical structure of cyanide, identify ONE type of biological macromolecule that
could serve as a chemical precursor for the production of cyanide in a plant. Justify your choice.
(2 points)
Identification (1 point)
 Amino acids OR proteins/polypeptides
 Nucleotides OR nucleic acids

Justification (1 point)
 Macromolecule contains nitrogen

(b) It has been proposed that apple trees are in a mutualistic relationship with the animals who eat the
apples. Describe ONE benefit to each organism in the mutualistic relationship. (2 points)

Organism Description of benefit (2 points; 1 point per row)

 Seed dispersal
Plant
 Animal feces provides nutrients for the plant
Animal Nutrient/energy acquisition

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 AP® BIOLOGY
2017 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 5
Caenorhabditis elegans is a species of soil-dwelling nematode (roundworm) that feeds on soil bacteria,
including Bacillus thuringiensis. B. thuringiensis is a virulent bacterial pathogen that produces
BT toxin, a protein that can kill different invertebrate species, including C. elegans.
In a laboratory experiment, C. elegans and B. thuringiensis were cultured individually (control) or
together (experimental) for 150 days. Under optimal conditions, the generation time of C. elegans is
approximately 3.5 days and the generation time of B. thuringiensis is approximately 25 minutes. At the
end of the experiment, the change in virulence of B. thuringiensis and the change in resistance of
C. elegans to BT toxin were determined.
(a) Calculate the maximum number of generations that is possible in individual cultures of C. elegans
AND the maximum number of generations that is possible in individual cultures of B. thuringiensis
in 150 days. (2 points)
Calculations (2 points; 1 point per calculation)
 C. elegans: 150/3.5 = 42 or 43
 B. thuringiensis: 150*24*60/25 = 8,640
(b) The researchers found that after 150 days, the magnitude of the change in both B. thuringiensis
virulence and C. elegans resistance was less when they were cultured individually (control) than
when they were cultured together (experimental). Provide ONE reason for the difference in
results between the two treatments. (1 point)
Reasoning (1 point)
 Selection for the traits is present/stronger when both organisms are cultured together
(c) The researchers also found that after 150 days, the relative change in virulence of B. thuringiensis
was greater than the relative change in the resistance in C. elegans when the organisms were
cultured together. Provide ONE reason that the relative change in B. thuringiensis virulence was
greater than the relative change in C. elegans resistance. (1 point)
Reasoning (1 point)
 More generations for B. thuringiensis/shorter generation time for B. thuringiensis
 Generally larger population size of B. thuringiensis
 More opportunity for mutation in B. thuringiensis
 B. thuringiensis are haploid and C. elegans are diploid

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 AP® BIOLOGY
2017 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 6

Figure 1. Time course of events during fertilization of a sea urchin egg

Figure 1 shows the events during and immediately following fertilization of a sea urchin egg. Sexual
reproduction relies on the successful fusion of only one sperm with one egg (time 1) during fertilization.
In sea urchins, a diploid organism, several events prevent additional sperm from fertilizing the egg.
One of the first events following fertilization is the fusion of secretory vesicles called cortical granules
with the egg plasma membrane (time 2). The cortical granules release their contents, a mixture of
polysaccharides and proteins, into the perivitelline space. Subsequent to this, water moves into the
perivitelline space, causing it to expand and physically separate the fertilization envelope from the egg
plasma membrane (time 3). The fertilization envelope prevents fusion of more than one sperm with the
egg.
(a) Provide ONE reason that preventing fusion of multiple sperm with one egg in sea urchins has
provided a survival advantage over evolutionary time. (1 point)

Reasoning (1 point)
 Cells with too many chromosomes do not live
 Organisms with too many chromosomes are likely sterile

(b) Describe how the release of the contents of the cortical granules into the perivitelline space
results in the movement of water and causes the subsequent expansion of the perivitelline space.
(2 points)

Description of movement (1 point)

 Increased osmolarity/decreased water potential (of perivitelline space)
 (Perivitelline space becomes) hypertonic to its surroundings

Description of expansion (1 point)

 Water movement adds volume
 Water movement increases pressure

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 AP® BIOLOGY
2017 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 7
Cyanobacteria are a large group of prokaryotic organisms. Cyanobacteria are found in marine microbial
mats that include many species of eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms that can participate in
mutualistic symbiotic relationships. One recently discovered species of cyanobacteria, UCYN-A, lacks
the genes that encode ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase (RuBisCo), components of
photosystem II, and the Krebs cycle. UCYN-A contains genes enabling nitrogen fixation, which allows
the enzymatic conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to biologically available nitrogen compounds such
as nitrate. Within the microbial community there is relatively little available nitrogen. The majority of
organisms in the microbial mat cannot fix nitrogen.
(a) Identify the metabolic process whereby UCYN-A is most likely to produce ATP. (1 point)
Identification (1 point)
 Glycolysis
 Photosystem I
 Electron transport chain/system
 Fermentation
 Anaerobic respiration

(b) In low-nitrogen conditions, UCYN-A participates in a mutualistic symbiotic relationship with other
organisms in the microbial mat. Predict the most likely type of symbiotic relationship between
UCYN-A and the other organisms in the microbial mat if nitrogen becomes readily available from
another source. Provide reasoning to support your prediction. (2 points; points may only be
earned from one row)

Predicted Reasoning (1 point) – requires effects on both organisms

relationship
(1 point) Effect on UCYN-A Effect on other microbes
Not dependent on UCYN-A for fixed nitrogen
Parasitism (+/-) Receives nutrients
AND harmed by loss of nutrients
Not dependent on UCYN-A for fixed nitrogen
Commensalism (+/0) Receives nutrients
AND not harmed by loss of nutrients

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 AP® BIOLOGY
2017 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 8

Figure 1. MDM2 and p53 signaling in response to DNA damage controls cell cycle progression.

8. The p53 and MDM2 proteins are involved in the DNA damage response pathway (Figure 1). In the
absence of DNA damage, MDM2 mediates the degradation of p53. In the presence of DNA damage,
p53 is not broken down and forms active tetramers that stimulate the expression of genes that block
cell cycle progression.
Red blood cells are produced by the division and differentiation of multipotent stem cells. Researchers
have observed that mice with a partial loss-of-function mutation in the MDM2 gene have a lower
concentration of red blood cells in the blood than do mice that express the wild-type MDM2 allele.
(a) Using the model of the p53/MDM2 pathway, connect the reduction of MDM2 function in mutant
mice to the observed concentration of red blood cells. (1 point)
Connection (1 point)
 p53 is (constitutively/always) active (in MDM2 mutant)
 p53 is not degraded (regardless of DNA damage)
(b) Predict how a loss-of-function mutation in the p53 gene is most likely to affect the cell cycle in
response to DNA damage. Justify your predictions. (2 points)

Prediction (1 point) Justification (1 point)

Cell cycle will proceed (even in Nonfunctional p53 (protein) cannot
the presence of DNA damage) regulate the cell cycle

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Scoring Worksheet

The following provides a scoring worksheet and conversion table

used for calculating a composite score of the exam.
 2017 AP Biology Scoring Worksheet

Section I: Multiple Choice and Grid-In

× 1.0344 =
Number Correct Weighted Section I Score
(out of 58) (Do not round)

Section II: Free Response

Question 1 × 1.5000 =
(out of 10) (Do not round)

Question 2 × 1.5000 =
(out of 10) (Do not round)

Question 3 × 1.4285 =
(out of 4) (Do not round)

Question 4 × 1.4285 =
(out of 4) (Do not round)

Question 5 × 1.4285 =
(out of 4) (Do not round)

Question 6 × 1.4285 =
(out of 3) (Do not round)

Question 7 × 1.4285 =
(out of 3) (Do not round)

Question 8 × 1.4285 =
(out of 3) (Do not round)

Sum =
Weighted
Section II Score
(Do not round)

Composite Score

+ =
Weighted Weighted Composite Score
Section I Score Section II Score (Round to nearest
whole number)

AP Score Conversion Chart

Biology
Composite
Score Range AP Score
93-120 5
75-92 4
51-74 3
29-50 2
0-28 1
Question Descriptors and Performance Data

The following contains tables showing the content assessed,

the correct answer, and how AP students performed on each question.
 2017 AP Biology
Question Descriptors and Performance Data
Multiple-Choice Questions

Question Learning Objectives Essential Knowledge Science Practices Key % Correct

1 4.15 4A6 1.4 A 92
2 3.6 3A1 6.4 D 87
3 1.30 1D1 6.5 C 91
4 2.28 2D3 1.4 D 87
5 3.24 3C1 6.4 B 75
6 1.19 1B2 1.1 A 81
7 2.19 2C1 6.4 D 64
8 3.2 3A1 4.1 C 64
9 4.19 4B3 5.2 A 70
10 4.14 4A6 2.2 D 74
11 4.11 4A5 1.4|4.1 B 76
12 4.13 4A5 6.4 D 91
13 2.24 2D1 5.1 C 90
14 1.26 1C3 5.3 B 87
15 1.28 1D1 3.3 D 80
16 3.49 3E2 1.1 C 59
17 3.27 3C2 7.2 C 50
18 4.23 4C2 6.2 A 79
19 2.23 2D1 4.2|7.2 B 75
20 2.24 2D1 5.1 B 82
21 2.15 2C1 6.1 D 77
22 2.18 2C1 6.4 A 70
23 2.16 2C1 7.2 C 61
24 2.29 2D4 1.1|1.2 A 73
25 3.3 3A1 1.2 B 50
26 4.27 4C4 6.4 C 80
27 2.14 2B3 1.4 C 54
28 1.22 1C2 6.4 B 80
29 3.6 3A1 6.4 B 39
30 2.18 2C1 6.4 C 58
31 3.20 3B1 6.2 D 55
32 3.21 3B1 1.4 A 72
33 1.5 1A2 7.1 C 68
34 2.4 2A2 1.4|3.1 B 52
35 4.6 4A2 1.4 C 63
36 1.6 1A3 1.4|2.1 C 47
37 1.17 1B2 3.1 B 54
38 1.18 1B2 5.3 D 66
 2017 AP Biology
Question Descriptors and Performance Data
Question Learning Objectives Essential Knowledge Science Practices Key % Correct
39 3.6 3A1 6.4 A 48
40 1.25 1C3 1.2 A 79
41 2.12 2B2 1.4 D 58
42 3.45 3E2 1.2 A 54
43 1.21 1C1 4.2 A 67
44 4.16 4A6 6.4 C 83
45 4.12 4A5 2.2 A 56
46 2.37 2E2 7.2 A 67
47 4.13 4A5 6.4 B 70
48 2.24 2D1 5.1 D 52
49 2.27 2D2 7.1 D 37
50 2.12 2B2 1.4 B 43
51 3.4 3A1 1.2 D 45
52 3.27 3C2 7.2 A 41
53 3.38 3D4 1.5 B 47
0.29 ‒ 0.30,
121 1.3 1A1 2.2 16
29/100 ‒ 30/100
122 2.6 2A3 2.2 4/1, 4 46
123 3.4 3A1 1.2 72 47
124 3.14 3A3 2.2 ¼, 0.25 50
125 4.14 4A6 2.2 14 ‒ 15 68

Free-Response Questions

Question Learning Objectives Essential Knowledge Science Practices Mean Score

1 1.13|1.10|1.19|1.18|1.23|2.24|4.6 1A4|1B2|1C2|2D1|4A2 1.1|2.1|5.2|1.1|5.3|4.1|5.1|1.4 4.53
2 1.13|2.15|2.24|3.8|3.7|3.10|3.27|4.17 1A4|2C1|2D1|3A2|3C2|4B1 1.1|2.1|6.1|5.1|1.2|6.4|7.1|7.2|5.1 4.24
3 2.1|2.38|3.40 2A1|2E3|3E1 6.2|5.1|5.1 1.84
4 1.25|4.3 1C3|4A1 1.2|6.1|6.4 2.09
5 1.5|1.13|4.12 1A2|1A4|4A5 7.1|1.1|2.1|2.2 1.93
6 2.11|2.12|3.9 2B1|2B2|3A2 1.1|7.1|7.2|1.4|6.2 0.47
7 2.41|2.22|2.40|4.16 2A2|2D1|2E3|4A6 5.3|7.1|1.3|3.2|7.2|6.4 0.51
8 2.15|3.7|3.19 2C1|3A2|3B1 6.1|6.4|7.1 0.98
 AP Biology

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