AP Biology Exam

SECTION I: Multiple Choice

Instructions
Section I of this exam contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Indicate all of your answers
to the Section I questions on the answer sheet.
Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy. Do not
spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and come back to
the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected that everyone will
know the answers to all of the multiple-choice questions.
Your total score on Section I is based only on the number of questions answered correctly.
Points are not deducted for incorrect answers or unanswered questions.

Exam Content and Format

The AP Biology Exam is approximately 3 hours long. There are two sections.
• Section I is 1 hour, 30 minutes and consists of 60 multiple-choice questions,
accounting for 50 percent of the final score.

• Section II is 1 hour, 30 minutes and consists of 2 long free-response

questions and 4 short free-response questions, accounting for 50 percent
of the final score.

SECTION I: Multiple Choice

When you are ready to begin Section I, say:

Section I is the multiple-choice portion of the exam. Mark all of your

responses on your answer sheet, one response per question. If you need
to erase, do so carefully and completely. Your score on the multiple-
choice section will be based solely on the number of questions answered
correctly. You may use a four-function (with square root), scientific, or
graphing calculator. Are there any questions?

You have 1 hour and 30 minutes for this section. Open your Section I
booklet and begin.

Note Start Time here . Note Stop Time here . After 1 hour
and 20 minutes, say:

There are 10 minutes remaining.

After 10 minutes, say:

Stop working. I will now collect your Section I booklet and multiple-
choice answer sheet.

There is a 10-minute break between Sections I and II.

 AP® BIOLOGY EQUATIONS AND FORMULAS
Statistical Analysis and Probability
Mean Standard Deviation x = sample mean
n
1 Â(xi - x )2 n = sample size
n i
x= x s=
i=1 n -1
s = sample standard deviation (i.e., the sample-based
Standard Error of the Mean Chi-Square estimate of the standard deviation of the
population)
SE = s 2 (o − e)2
x
n  =  e o = observed results

Chi-Square Table e = expected results

p Degrees of Freedom
value  = sum of all
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
0.05 3.84 5.99 7.81 9.49 11.07 12.59 14.07 15.51
Degrees of freedom are equal to the number of
0.01 6.63 9.21 11.34 13.28 15.09 16.81 18.48 20.09 distinct possible outcomes minus one.

Laws of Probability Metric Prefixes

If A and B are mutually exclusive, then:
Factor Prefix Symbol
P (A or B) = P (A) + P (B)
109 giga G
If A and B are independent, then:
106 mega M
P (A and B) = P (A)  P (B) 103 kilo k
10–1 deci d
Hardy-Weinberg Equations
10–2 centi c
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 p = frequency of allele 1 in a
10–3 milli m
population
p+q=1 10–6 micro μ
q = frequency of allele 2 in a 10–9 nano n
population 10– 12 pico p

Mode = value that occurs most frequently in a data set

Median = middle value that separates the greater and lesser halves of a data set

Mean = sum of all data points divided by number of data points

Range = value obtained by subtracting the smallest observation (sample minimum) from the greatest (sample maximum)
 Rate and Growth Water Potential ( Y )
Rate dY = amount of change Y = YP + YS
dY dt = change in time
dt YP = pressure potential
B = birth rate
Population Growth YS = solute potential
dN D = death rate
=B-D
dt N = population size The water potential will be equal to the
Exponential Growth K = carrying capacity solute potential of a solution in an open
container because the pressure potential of
rmax = maximum per capita
dN the solution in an open container is zero.
= rmax N growth rate of population
dt
The Solute Potential of a Solution
Logistic Growth
YS = -iCRT

dt max
K (
dN = r N K - N
) i = ionization constant (1.0 for sucrose
because sucrose does not ionize in
water)
Simpson’s Diversity Index
2
Diversity Index = 1 - Â( )
N
n C = molar concentration
R = pressure constant
n = total number of organisms of a particular species ( R = 0.0831 liter bars/mole K)
N = total number of organisms of all species T = temperature in Kelvin (ºC + 273)

pH = – log[ H+]
Surface Area and Volume

Surface Area of a Sphere Volume of a Sphere r = radius

SA = 4r 2 V = 4 r3 l = length
3
Surface Area of a Rectangular Volume of a Rectangular Solid h = height
Solid V = lwh
w = width
SA = 2lh + 2lw + 2wh
Volume of a Cylinder s = length of one
Surface Area of a Cylinder V = r h 2 side of a
SA = 2 rh + 2r 2 cube
Volume of a Cube SA = surface area
Surface Area of a Cube V =s 3
SA = 6s2 V = volume
 BIOLOGY
SECTION I
Time—1 hour and 30 minutes
60 Questions
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by four suggested answers or
completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then enter the letter in the corresponding space on the
answer sheet.

1. Humans produce sweat as a cooling mechanism

to maintain a stable internal temperature. Which
of the following best explains how the properties
of water contribute to this physiological process?

(A) The high specific heat capacity of water

allows the body to absorb a large amount
of excess heat energy.
(B) The high heat of vaporization of water
allows the body to remove excess heat
through a phase change of water from
liquid to gas.
(C) The high surface tension of water
contributes to the physical process by
which water leaves the body.
(D) The high melting temperature of water 2. A student placed a semipermeable membrane
allows the body to remove excess heat inside a U-shaped channel with two chambers,
through a phase change of water from as shown. The membrane permits the movement
solid to liquid. of water but not salt. The student wants to vary
the rate of osmosis that occurs across the
membrane. Which of the following
experimental designs will result in the fastest net
rate of water movement into chamber A?

(A) Placing salt water in chamber A and

distilled water in chamber B
(B) Placing distilled water in both chambers
(C) Placing distilled water in chamber A and
salt water in chamber B
(D) Placing salt water in both chambers
3. Which of the following best describes the role of 4. What evolutionary advantage does
water in photosynthesis? compartmentalization of core metabolic
processes offer eukaryotes?
(A) Water is the only source of protons for the
formation of a proton gradient. (A) Evolution of the mitochondria allowed
(B) Water molecules donate electrons to the eukaryotes to perform respiration.
electron transport chain. (B) With the evolution of mitochondria in
(C) Water molecules combine with stored eukaryotes, the Krebs cycle and electron
carbon molecules to produce glucose. transport chain also evolved.
(D) Water is the terminal electron acceptor for (C) Evolution of a nucleus in eukaryotes
electrons that pass through the electron separates the processes of transcription
transport chain. and translation and they can be regulated
separately.
(D) A nucleus in bacteria provides separation
of respiration from transcription.

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7
NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE
Questions 5 - 8

Pyruvate dehydrogenase is an enzyme that converts pyruvate to acetyl-CoA. Acetyl-CoA is further metabolized in
the Krebs cycle. A researcher measured the accumulation of acetyl-CoA in a reaction containing pyruvate and
pyruvate dehydrogenase under several different conditions (Figure 1).

Figure 1. Accumulation of acetyl-CoA under different conditions

5. Which of the following best describes the

7. Which of the following observations provides
cellular location where pyruvate dehydrogenase
is most likely active? the best evidence that acetyl-CoA negatively
regulates pyruvate dehydrogenase activity?
(A) The cytosol
(A) The rate of the pyruvate
(B) The lysosomes
dehydrogenase–catalyzed reaction is
(C) The nucleus slower in the presence of a higher
(D) The mitochondrial matrix concentration of acetyl-CoA.
(B) The gene that encodes pyruvate
dehydrogenase is transcribed when excess
6. The maximum production rate of acetyl-CoA acetyl-CoA is detected.
under condition 1 is closest to which of the
(C) The accumulation of acetyl-CoA stops
following? after 70 seconds, regardless of the
reaction mixture.
(A) 1 micromole/sec
(D) Acetyl-CoA is continuously broken down
(B) 24 micromoles/sec in the Krebs cycle.
(C) 35 micromoles/sec
(D) 65 micromoles/sec

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9
8. Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency is a genetic 9. The diagram shows how water can adhere to the
disease most commonly linked to a mutation in xylem in the stems of plants, which contributes
the a -subunit of the mitochondrial enzyme that to water movement in the plant. Which of the
causes the enzyme to cease functioning. As a following best explains how water is able to
result of the mutation, affected individuals build move upward from the roots of a plant, through
up dangerous amounts of lactic acid. Which of its xylem in the stem, and out to the leaves?
the following best explains the buildup of lactic
acid in individuals with the mutation?

(A) Cells use lactic acid to shunt electrons

from pyruvate to the electron transport
chain in the mitochondria.
(B) Cells undergo glycolysis because there is a
buildup of pyruvate in affected
individuals.
(C) Cells cannot transport pyruvate to the
mitochondria in the absence of pyruvate
dehydrogenase activity, so the pyruvate is
broken down to lactic acid and ethanol.
(D) Cells undergo fermentation because
pyruvate cannot be metabolized to
proceed into the Krebs cycle. (A) Water is polar, and the walls of the xylem
are nonpolar. Water molecules have the
ability to form hydrogen bonds with one
another but not with the xylem walls.
(B) Water is nonpolar, and the walls of the
xylem are polar. Water molecules are
able to form hydrogen bonds with the
xylem walls, and they are pulled up the
xylem.
(C) Water and the xylem are both nonpolar.
Water molecules have the ability to form
hydrogen bonds with one another but not
with the xylem walls.
(D) Water and the xylem are both polar. Water
molecules have the ability to form
hydrogen bonds with each other and with
the walls of the xylem.
10. Protein X activates gene expression only in cells 11. The hormone prolactin has varying effects in
exposed to a specific signaling molecule. In a many different animal species. All vertebrates
study, researchers determined the intracellular produce prolactin, which is involved in signal
transduction pathways. In mammals, prolactin
location of Protein X in cultured cells both
stimulates the production of milk in mammary
before and after exposing the cells to the glands. In fish, prolactin plays an important role
signaling molecule. The results of the study are in osmoregulation. In birds, prolactin is
shown in the diagram. involved in lipid metabolism.
Which of the following best explains the
presence of prolactin in various vertebrate
species?

(A) Though all vertebrates produce prolactin,

its varied uses indicate it arose as a result
of convergent evolution and not as a result
of common ancestry.
(B) Prolactin is a homologous hormone
because it has a common origin but
different functions in various species.
(C) Prolactin will bind only to intracellular
receptors in animal species with
Based on the results, which of the following best phospholipid bilayers, so its effects are
describes what Protein X is? varied in different species.
(D) Because of different receptors activating
(A) Protein X is an RNA splicing enzyme. different signal transduction pathways
(B) Protein X is a cell membrane receptor within the same species, it is likely that
protein. prolactin production is a trait with highly
(C) Protein X is a transcription factor. selective pressure.
(D) Protein X is a hormone.

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11
NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE
Questions 12 - 17

Certain reef-building corals contain photosynthetic, symbiotic algae that have the ability to make
dimethylsulphoniopropionate (DMSP), a chemical involved in the marine sulfur cycle. DMSP is released into the
surrounding water, where it is converted to the gas dimethyl sulfide (DMS) by microorganisms and enters the
atmosphere. Once in the atmosphere, it triggers the formation of sulfate aerosols, which induce cloud formation and
block sunlight from heating up the water.

The symbiotic algae produce DMSP when they are stressed by a high water temperature. If water temperature is too
high, corals will expel the symbiotic algae that produce DMSP. Researchers measured the amount of DMSP
produced by juvenile and adult coral and their symbionts under normal and thermally stressed conditions. The data
are shown in the graphs in Figure 1.

Figure 1: DMSP concentration in juvenile and adult corals and their symbionts in normal and thermally-stressed
conditions. Error bars represent 2SE x .

The researchers also measured the density of the symbiont as well as the photosynthetic yield in adult corals at the
two temperatures. Photosynthetic yield is an index measure of energy output compared to sunlight energy input in
which larger photosynthetic yield values represent photosynthetic organisms producing more energy.

Figure 2: Variation in symbiont density and photosynthetic yield in adult corals grown in normal and
thermally-stressed conditions. Error bars represent 2SE x .

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13
12. Which of the following best describes the
production of DMSP by coral and coral
symbionts?

(A) A negative feedback mechanism that

increases the environmental change
(B) A negative feedback mechanism that
reverses the environmental change
(C) A positive feedback mechanism that
increases the environmental change
(D) A positive feedback mechanism that
reverses the environmental change

13. Which of the following best describes the effect

of temperature on corals’ ability to produce
DMSP as shown in Figure 1 ?

(A) Both juvenile and adult corals produce less

DMSP at 27C than at 32C.
(B) Both juvenile and adult corals produce less
DMSP at 32C than at 27C.
(C) The amount of DMSP produced over time
increases at 32C in juveniles only.
(D) The amount of DMSP produced over time
increases at 32C in adults only.

14. Which of the following best describes the

difference between the total amount of DMSP
produced by adults compared to juveniles at the
start of the 32C trial?

(A) Adult corals produced 3 times more

DMSP than juveniles produced.
(B) Adult corals produced 3 times less DMSP
than juveniles produced.
(C) Adult corals produced 5 times more
DMSP than juveniles produced.
(D) Adult corals produced 5 times less DMSP
than juveniles produced.
15. Which of the following best explains the result 17. A particular genetic disorder results from a
of adult corals being exposed to elevated single change in the amino acid sequence coded
temperatures for extended periods? for in a gene. Parts of the sequence in normal
and mutated genes are shown below.
(A) They are able to obtain more energy from
their symbionts because the algae are Normal: TAC CTC GTG GAC TGA GGT CTC
receiving more light.
(B) They are able to obtain more energy from Mutated: TAC CTC GTG GAC TGA GGT CAC
their symbionts because the efficiency
increases slightly over time.
(C) They are able to obtain less energy from
their symbionts because the algae have
been expelled.
(D) They are able to obtain less energy from
their symbionts because more DMSP is
being produced at lower temperatures.

16. A particular gene has two alleles, a dominant

allele A and a recessive allele a. The frequency
of allele A is 0.55. If the population is in
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with respect to the
gene, then what is the expected frequency of
genotype Aa ?
Based on the codon chart above, which of the

(A) 0.203 following amino acid changes is most likely

found in the mutated protein?
(B) 0.303
(C) 0.405 (A) Glu → Val
(D) 0.495 (B) Val → Glu
(C) Glu → Pro
(D) Pro → Val

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 19. Oncogenes are genes that can cause tumor
formation as a result of a particular mutation.
Which of the following potential therapies
would be most effective at preventing the
expression of an oncogene?

(A) Reducing the number of ribosomes in the

cell to prevent the creation of the
oncogene’s proteins
(B) Blocking membrane-bound receptors of
transcription factors
(C) Introducing a chemical that binds to
transcription factors associated with the
oncogene’s promoter
(D) Producing additional transcription factors
for tumor suppressor genes in the cell

Figure 1. A pedigree of three generations of a family

that have a high frequency of a particular genetic 20. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation can damage DNA by
condition breaking weak bonds. Which of the following
best explains how this occurs?

18. Figure 1 shows the inheritance of a particular (A) UV radiation disrupts the double helix
genetic condition in three generations of one structure by breaking the covalent bonds
family. Which of the following best explains the between the nitrogenous base pairs.
observed pattern of inheritance? (B) UV radiation disrupts the double helix
structure by breaking the hydrogen bonds
(A) The condition is passed randomly because between the nitrogenous base pairs.
of the independent assortment of
chromosomes. (C) UV radiation is able to break DNA strands
in two by breaking covalent bonds
(B) The condition is passed from fathers to between the sugar-phosphate backbone
sons via a Y-linked gene. molecules.
(C) The condition is passed from mothers to (D) UV radiation is able to break DNA strands
sons via an X-linked gene. in two by breaking hydrogen bonds
(D) The condition is passed from mothers to between the sugar-phosphate backbone
offspring via a mitochondrial gene. molecules.
21. Scientists are interested in determining the evolution of seven lizard species found on different islands of the
Canary Island group. They isolated DNA from individuals of each species and sequenced the mitochondrial
gene that encodes cytochrome b. The numbers of genetic differences between species are shown in the table
below.

Based on the data in the table, which of the following lizard species are most closely related?

(A) Species C and species B

(B) Species E and species D
(C) Species F and species B
(D) Species G and species A

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17
Figure 1. A model of an endocrine signaling pathway
showing involved body parts and hormones. GnRH
= gonadotropin-releasing hormone, LH = luteinizing
hormone, and FSH = follicle-stimulating hormone.

22. Figure 1 shows a model of the endocrine

signaling pathway that regulates ovulation.
Which of the following observations would
provide evidence of a positive feedback
mechanism in this system?

(A) Estrogen from the ovaries inhibits the

release of GnRH from the hypothalamus.
(B) Progesterone from the ovaries stimulates
the thickening of the uterine lining.
(C) Progesterone from the ovaries inhibits the
release of LH and FSH from the anterior
pituitary.
(D) Estrogen from the ovaries stimulates the
hypothalamus and anterior pituitary to
secrete more GnRH, LH, and FSH.
Questions 25 - 28

Dichlorophenolindophenol (DCPIP) is a chemical dye. When DCPIP is chemically reduced, it changes color from
blue to clear. DCPIP can be used as an electron acceptor in experiments that measure the rate of electron transport
through the electron transport chain. A student performed an experiment to study the effects of a chemical, DCMU,
on photosynthesis.

The student prepared four tubes with a liquid buffer and chloroplasts that had been extracted from spinach leaves.
The student then added DCPIP to three of the tubes and added DCMU to one of them. Additionally, tube 3 was
wrapped in tin foil. The contents of each tube are shown in the table. The student then incubated each tube for 60
minutes and measured the absorbance (A600) of each solution at five-minute intervals. The absorbance readings of
each solution are shown in Figure 1.

Tube 1: Buffer and water

Tube 2: DCPIP, buffer, and water

Tube 3: DCPIP, buffer, and water

(wrapped in foil)
DCPIP, buffer, and
Tube 4:
1.0 mM DCMU

Figure 1. Absorbance readings of four prepared tubes with various solutions over a 60-minute period.

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19
23. In which of the following tubes did the greatest 26. Which of the following best justifies the use of
reduction of DCPIP occur after 60 minutes? tube 2 as a control treatment?

(A) Tube 1 (A) It was a negative control for the accuracy

of the spectrophotometer, ensuring that an
(B) Tube 2
accurate reading for treatment cuvette 2
(C) Tube 3 would be made.
(D) Tube 4 (B) It was a negative control for the chemical
stability of the chlorophyll suspension,
ensuring that changes in absorbance
24. Which of the following claims is best supported could only be attributed to changes in
by the experimental results? chlorophyll content.
(C) It was a positive control for the change in
(A) Light is required for the electron transport DCPIP color associated with changes in
chain to transfer electrons. light intensity.
(B) Water, not carbon dioxide, is the source of (D) It was a positive control for measuring the
electrons used in the light-dependent
effect of DCMU on the reaction.
reaction of photosynthesis.
(C) Carbon dioxide is the source of carbon
used by green plants to build
carbohydrates.
(D) DCPIP provides a significant source of
electrons to the electron transport chain of
the light reaction in the absence of light.

25. Which of the following best explains how

DCMU affected the reaction?

(A) DCMU acts as a second buffer in the

reaction.
(B) DCMU acts as an additional carrier of
electrons from photosystem II to DCPIP.
(C) DCMU acts as an additional source of
electrons to the light reaction of
photosynthesis.
(D) DCMU acts as an inhibitor to the
movement of electrons within the light
reaction of photosynthesis.
27. A scientist designed an experiment to test an 32. Which of the following best explains how the
artificial membrane that mimics the phospholipid bilayer of a transport vesicle
phospholipid bilayer of a cell. contributes to cellular functions?
The scientist built a tube that was divided by an (A) The phospholipid bilayer allows the vesicle
artificial membrane and filled with distilled to fuse with the Golgi apparatus and the
water. The scientist put a known amount of a plasma membrane, allowing the
protein into the water on one side of the exocytosis of proteins.
membrane. After some time, the scientist
measured the concentration of the protein on (B) The phospholipid bilayer physically
either side of the membrane but found that there connects the nuclear envelope to the
had been no change. rough endoplasmic reticulum, thus
increasing the rate of transcription and
Which of the following experimental changes translation.
would allow the scientist to observe transport of (C) The phospholipid bilayer of a transport
a solute across the artificial membrane? vesicle contains chemicals that digest the
proteins made in the rough endoplasmic
(A) Increase the solute concentration in the reticulum.
solution
(D) The phospholipid bilayer contains enzymes
(B) Use a small, nonpolar solute instead of a that catalyze the conversion of hydrogen
protein peroxide to water and oxygen.
(C) Increase the temperature of the solution
(D) Add artificial aquaporins to the membrane
33. The diploid number of chromosomes in the cell
of a domesticated dog is 78. Which of the
28. Which of the following best illustrates the flow following options includes the correct number of
of information required for the synthesis of chromosomes in a cell after each cellular process
proteins encoded in the genome of a retrovirus?
(G2 checkpoint, meiosis, and fertilization,
(A) respectively)?

After G2 After After

(B)
Checkpoint Meiosis Fertilization

(C) (A) 156 78 39

(B) 78 39 78
(D)
(C) 156 39 78

29. Which of the following best describes the (D) 78 78 39

process by which gas from the atmosphere is
obtained by plants and used to build lipids?

(A) Gas is fixed by plants as part of the sulfur

cycle.
(B) Gas is fixed by plants as part of the
nitrogen cycle.
(C) Gas is directly obtained by plants as part of
the carbon cycle.
(D) Gas is directly obtained by plants as part of
the magnesium cycle.

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21
34. Scientists were interested in testing the effects of rotenone, a broad-spectrum pesticide, on a cell culture. Cell
culture A was used as a control, while culture B was treated with rotenone. After a period of time, the scientists
measured the concentration of several metabolites in the mitochondria of cells in both cultures. Their results are
shown in the table below.

Metabolites Concentration in Culture A (μM) Concentration in Culture B (μM)

Pyruvate 25 25

NADH 55 550

NAD+ 55 5

ATP 85 5

ADP+Pi 55 100

FADH2 25 26

FAD 25 25

Based on the data in the table, which of the following best explains the effects of rotenone on cellular
respiration?

(A) Rotenone acts as an inhibitor of the enzymes in the Krebs cycle.

(B) NADH, produced during glycolysis, is not able to enter the mitochondria because transport proteins are
blocked from entering.
(C) Treated cells are not able to break down NADH because certain enzymes of the electron transport chain
are inhibited.
(D) Rotenone acts as an allosteric inhibitor of glycolytic enzymes, thus inhibiting cellular respiration.
35. Which of the following best explains why 37. A researcher is studying two different species.
triploid bananas do not produce seeds? Which of the following sets of observations
would best support the claim that the two
(A) The cells of the banana plant are unable to species have structural similarities as a result of
replicate DNA, thus preventing cell convergent evolution?
division and limiting growth.
(B) The banana plants lack enough genetic Genetic Function of Form of
diversity to properly hybridize. Similarity Structure Structure
(C) The production of gametes is disrupted (A) Low Same Different
because of unequal pairing of (B) Low Different Same
homologous chromosomes during (C) High Same Different
meiosis. (D) High Different Same
(D) The production of seeds is not required
because triploid plants produce gametes
without fertilization. 38. The cladogram shows shared traits among four
plant taxa.

36. PCR is a technique used to copy a target DNA

sequence. Researchers often use DNA
polymerase from Thermus aquaticus, a bacteria
species that lives around hydrothermal vents.

Based on the cladogram, which of the following

are the traits shared between ferns and pines?

(A) Xylem only

(B) Seeds and wood only
(C) Embryo and xylem only
(D) Embryo, xylem, wood, and seeds only

Which of the following best explains why the

polymerase from the species T. aquaticus is
often used for PCR ?

(A) T. aquaticus polymerase has an optimal

temperature of 68C.
(B) T. aquaticus polymerase does not denature
at high temperatures.
(C) T. aquaticus polymerase can be used more
than once without degrading.
(D) T. aquaticus polymerase adds nucleotides
to both the 3¢ and 5¢ ends of DNA.

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23
39. Snapdragons are a type of flowering plant. The flower color of the plants is determined by a single gene with
two alleles: an incompletely dominant R allele and a recessive r allele. Researchers established a new
population of snapdragon plants that they hypothesize will be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. At the start of
the study, the researchers randomly picked 100 individuals from a large population and recorded their flower
color. They planted the snapdragons in an isolated area and returned after seven generations had passed. They
randomly sampled 100 plants from the population and recorded their flower color. The results are shown in the
table.

DISTRIBUTION OF SNAPDRAGON FLOWER COLOR

PHENOTYPES
Number of Number of Number of
Time Red (RR) Pink (Rr) White (rr)
Snapdragons Snapdragons Snapdragons
At the start 34 43 23
of study
After seven 39 34 27
generations

The researchers performed a chi-square analysis to test their hypothesis. Assuming the researchers use a
significance level of 0.05, which of the following is closest to the critical value the researchers should use in
the chi-square analysis?

(A) 3.84
(B) 5.99
(C) 7.82
(D) 9.49
40. Which of the following best explains
why a cell’s plasma membrane is
composed of two layers of
phospholipids rather than just a single
layer?

(A) Having two oppositely oriented

layers of phospholipids allows
only the hydrophilic heads to
interact with water inside and
outside of the cell.
(B) Having two oppositely oriented
layers of phospholipids allows
the hydrophilic heads to repel
water both inside and outside of
the cells.
(C) Having two identically oriented
layers of phospholipids gives cells
more protection from the exterior
environment than just a single
layer would.
(D) Having two identically oriented
layers of phospholipids allows
for the production of vacuoles
while still maintaining a
protective barrier.

41. A student calculated the average surface

area-to-volume ratio of four different
types of human epithelial cells. The
results are shown in the table below.

Surface Area-to-Volume
Cell Type
Ratio
Simple squamous 9
Simple cuboidal 6
Simple columnar 4
Simple spherical 3
Based on the data, which type of cell
would be best suited for the lining the
alveoli of the lungs, where diffusion of
carbon dioxide and oxygen must occur
very rapidly?

(A) Simple squamous cells

(B) Simple cuboidal cells
(C) Simple columnar cells
(D) Simple spherical cells
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25
42. Which of the following best explains how the
extensive folding of the inner mitochondrial
membrane benefits a eukaryotic cell?

(A) It enlarges the volume of the matrix, which

allows for more enzymatic reactions.
(B) It increases the area available for proteins
involved in energy transfer.
(C) It allows for greater area for the diffusion
of water into and out of the mitochondria.
(D) It provides better insulation for reactions in Figure 1. Percentage of sea turtles that develop as
the matrix from conditions outside the females at different average nest temperatures. The
mitochondria. bars represent the temperature range observed within
the nests.
 44. Researchers have identified a molecule produced
by Ecteinascidia turbinata, a marine
invertebrate, from which the drug trabectedin is
produced. Soft-tissue tumors treated with
trabectedin rapidly decrease in size. In a
preliminary study, healthy cells and tumor cells
sampled from skin cancer patients treated with
trabectedin were collected, and several
characteristics of the cells were observed. The
observed results of the study are shown in the
table.

Characteristic Healthy Cell Tumor Cell

43. Which of the following describes a scenario that DNA (in picograms) 12 pg 6 pg
would result in the phenotypic change shown in
the graph? Nuclear envelope Thinning Present
Nucleolus Absent Present
(A) A fish that has mouth parts adapted to eat
Cyclin level High Low
moderately sized prey is introduced into a
lake in which there are only large and General appearance Round, firm Shrunken
small prey. Which of the following best explains the most
(B) A population of mice live on the ground likely method by which this antitumor drug
and in short trees. An invasive, works?
tree-dwelling snake that preys on the
mice is introduced into the area. (A) Trabectedin increases the production of
(C) Climate change-induced warming of arctic cyclin proteins that signal the cancer cells
tundra reduces average snow cover that to enter prophase.
lighter-colored arctic foxes rely on for (B) Trabectedin interferes with the plasma
camouflage. Darker-colored arctic foxes membrane, causing it to break down and
are better suited to the exposed moss and expose the DNA to damage.
grass habitat. (C) Trabectedin interferes with the duplication
(D) House sparrows that lay of DNA during interphase and thus
smaller-than-average clutches of eggs prevents cancer cells from passing the G2
produce fewer viable offspring, while checkpoint.
larger-than-average clutches of eggs result
in malnourished chicks that have a higher (D) Trabectedin interferes with the regulations
mortality rate. of cyclin proteins, causing their levels to
increase and creating errors in DNA.

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27
NO TEST MATERIAL ON THIS PAGE
Questions 52 - 56

Friedreich’s ataxia is an inherited disorder. Friedreich’s ataxia is caused by an insertion mutation in a noncoding
portion of the FXN gene where a GAA triplet is repeated hundreds of times. The FXN gene encodes the protein
frataxin. A pedigree of a family with members affected by this disorder is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. A pedigree of a family affected by Friedreich’s ataxia

A researcher collected DNA from several members of the family and used PCR to amplify the FXN genes from
each individual’s DNA. The researcher then used DNA gel electrophoresis to separate the DNA. The results are
shown in Figure 2.

Figure 2. FXN gene fragment sizes for several family members. A sample of DNA with fragments of known
lengths was used for comparison.

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29
The researcher also used a computer to model the structure of the mutant FXN allele. The model suggests that the
repeated GAA triplets in the mutant FXN gene may lead to the formation of an unusual triple-stranded
configuration of DNA (Figure 3).

Figure 3. The modeled DNA triple-helix structure that can form in areas with multiple GAA triplets

45. Based on the data in Figure 1, which of the 47. Which of the following statements best describes
following best describes the inheritance pattern the results seen in Figure 2 ?
of Friedreich’s ataxia?
(A) Individuals III-2 and III-3 carry two
(A) Autosomal recessive different alleles of the FXN gene, a
(B) Autosomal dominant mutant allele and a wild-type allele.
(C) Sex-linked recessive Individual IV-1 inherited two copies of
(D) Sex-linked dominant the mutant allele.
(B) Individuals III-2 and III-3 carry two
different alleles of the FXN gene, a
46. The probability that individual III-5 will mutant allele and a wild-type allele.
develop Friedreich’s ataxia is closest to which of Individual IV-1 inherited two copies of
the following? the wild-type allele.
(C) Individuals III-2 and III-3 both carry two
(A) 0% wild-type alleles. Individual IV-1
(B) 25% inherited two copies of the wild-type
allele.
(C) 50%
(D) 75% (D) Individuals III-2 and III-3 both carry two
wild-type alleles, but individual IV-1
inherited one copy of the wild-type allele
and one copy of the mutant allele.
48. Which of the following best describes the most 50. A scientist is studying a population of lizards
likely effect of the formation of a triplex DNA with three different color phenotypes. The color
structure (Figure 3) on the synthesis of the phenotype is controlled by a single gene with
frataxin protein? two alleles: an incompletely dominant allele A
and a recessive allele a. The scientist collected
(A) The binding of the ribosome to the mRNA data on the color of 100 lizards. The data are
is prevented, resulting in a decrease in shown in the table.
frataxin translation.
(B) The DNA will not degrade in the Phenotype Genotype Number Observed
cytoplasm, leading to an increase in
frataxin translation. Red AA 75
(C) RNA polymerase is prevented from Purple Aa 15
binding to the DNA, resulting in a
decrease in frataxin mRNA transcription. Blue aa 10
(D) The protein will include extra amino acids,
resulting in a protein with an altered To test the hypothesis that the population is at
secondary structure. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the scientist
performed a chi-square test.
Which of the following values is closest to the
49. Which of the following types of bonds is most
chi-square value the scientist calculated?
likely responsible for the unusual base pairing
shown in Figure 3 that results in the formation of (A) 0.1
a triplex DNA structure?
(B) 1.9
(A) Hydrogen (C) 18.3
(B) Polar covalent (D) 23.1
(C) Ionic
(D) Nonpolar covalent

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31
51. Scientists compared the chemical structure of several molecules that various bacterial species use for quorum
sensing. Quorum sensing is an ability some bacteria have to detect the number of related cells nearby. The
chemical structure of some of these molecules found in certain species of bacteria are shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. The chemical structure of several molecules used for quorum sensing in three species of bacteria
Which of the following research questions would best guide an investigation of the link between the structure
of the signaling molecules and the evolution of quorum sensing?

(A) Do these molecules require the same receptors in each bacteria species to generate a response?
(B) Did these species evolve from a common ancestor that used a similar signaling molecule?
(C) Do these species all perform the same action when the concentration of the signaling molecules is high
enough?
(D) Did these species evolve from the same common ancestor that is still living today and uses the same
receptors?

52. Carbon dioxide most likely enters a cell through

which of the following processes?

(A) Simple diffusion through the membrane

(B) Facilitated diffusion through membrane
proteins
(C) Active transport through membrane
proteins
(D) Active transport through aquaporins
53. In pea seeds, yellow color (Y ) is dominant to
green color (y), and a round shape (R) is
dominant to a wrinkled shape (r ). A dihybrid
cross between a true-breeding plant with yellow,
round seeds (YYRR) and a true-breeding plant
with green, wrinkled seeds (yyrr) results in an
F1 generation of plants with yellow, round
seeds. Crossing two F1 plants produces an F2
generation with approximately nine times as
many plants with yellow, round seeds as plants
with green, wrinkled seeds.
Which of the following best explains these
results?

(A) The allele pairs of each parent stay

together, resulting in gametes that are
identical to the parents.
(B) Gene segments on sister chromatids cross
over.
(C) Alleles that are on nonhomologous
chromosomes recombine.
(D) The genes for seed color and seed shape
assort independently.

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