AP Bio 2018 - Questions Only, Missing Answers

From the 2018 Administration m (] CollegeBoard
AP Biology
Practice Exam
NOTE: This is a modi ed version of the 2018 AP Biology Exam.

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Contents
Exam Instructions
Student Answer Sheet for the Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Section
Section I: Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Questions
Section II: Free-Response Questions
Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Answer Key
Free-Response Scoring Guidelines
Scoring Worksheet
Question Descriptors and Performance Data
---
Note: This publication shows the page numbers that appeared in
the 2017 18 AP Exam Instructions book and in the actual exam.
This publication was not repaginated to begin with page 1.
© 2018 The College Board. College Board, Advanced Placement Program, AP, SAT and the acorn logo are
registered trademarks of the College Board. All other products and services may be trademarks of their
respective owners. Permission to use copyrighted College Board materials may be requested online at:
www.collegeboard.org/request-form.
Exam Instructions
The following contains instructions taken from

the 2017 18 AP Exam Instructions book.
AP Biology Exam
Regularly Scheduled Exam Date: Monday morning, May 14, 2018
Late-Testing Exam Date: Thursday morning, May 24, 2018
Section I Total Time: 1 hour and 30 minutes

Number of Questions: 69
63 multiple-choice questions plus 6 grid-in questions; 1 hour and 30 minutes.
(The number of questions may vary slightly depending on the form of the exam.)
Percent of Total Score: 50%
Writing Instrument: Pencil required
Section II Total Time: 1 hour and 30 minutes

(10-minute reading period, 1-hour and 20-minute writing period)
Number of Questions: 8 questions
2 ten-point questions, 3 four-point questions, and 3 three-point questions
Percent of Total Score: 50%
Writing Instrument: Pen with black or dark blue ink
Note: A four-function (with square root), scienti c, or graphing calculator may be used on all sections of the
AP Biology Exam.
Before Distributing Exams: Check that the title on all exam covers is Biology. If there are any exam booklets with
a di erent title, contact the AP coordinator immediately.
New calculator policy: For the 2018 AP Biology Exam, students may use a four-function (with square root),
scienti c, or graphing calculator. See pages 49 52 of the 2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual for more information.
What Proctors Need to Bring to This Exam

Exam packets Container for students’ electronic devices (if needed)
Answer sheets Extra No. 2 pencils with erasers
AP Student Packs Extra pens with black or dark blue ink
2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual Lined paper
This book— 2017-18 AP Exam Instructions Stapler
AP Exam Seating Chart template Watch
School Code and Homeschool/Self-Study Codes Signs for the door to the testing room
Extra calculators “Exam in Progress”
Pencil sharpener “Cell phones are prohibited during the test
administration, including breaks”
35
SECTION I: Multiple Choice and Grid-In
Before starting the exam administration, make sure each student has an appropriate
calculator. If a student does not have a calculator, you may provide one from your supply.
If the student does not want to use the calculator you provide or does not want to use a
calculator at all, he or she must hand copy, date, and sign the release statement on page 51
of the 2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual. Students may have no more than two calculators
on their desks. Calculators may not be shared.
Do not begin the exam instructions below until you have completed the
appropriate General Instructions for your group.
Make sure you begin the exam at the designated time. Remember, you must complete
a seating chart for this exam. See pages 303 304 for a seating chart template and
instructions. See the 2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual for exam seating requirements
(pages 55 58).
If you are giving the regularly scheduled exam, say:

It is Monday morning, May 14, and you will be taking the AP Biology Exam.
If you are giving the alternate exam for late testing, say:
It is Thursday morning, May 24, and you will be taking the AP Biology Exam.
Look at your exam packet and con rm that the exam title is “AP Biology.
Raise your hand if your exam packet contains any title other than “AP Biology,
and I will help you.
Once you con rm that all students have the correct exams, say:
In a moment, you will open the exam packet. By opening this packet, you
agree to all of the AP Program’s policies and procedures outlined in the
2017-18 Bulletin for AP Students and Parents.
You may now remove the shrinkwrap from your exam packet and take out the
Section I booklet, but do not open the booklet or the shrinkwrapped Section II
materials. Put the white seals aside. . . .
Carefully remove the AP Exam label found near the top left of your exam
booklet cover. Place it on page 1 of your answer sheet on the light blue box near
the top right corner that reads “AP Exam Label. . . .
If students accidentally place the exam label in the space for the number label or vice
versa, advise them to leave the labels in place. They should not try to remove the label;
their exam can still be processed correctly.
Listen carefully to all my instructions. I will give you time to complete each step.
Please look up after completing each step. Raise your hand if you have any
questions.
Give students enough time to complete each step. Don’t move on until all students are ready.
Read the statements on the front cover of the Section I booklet. . . .

Sign your name and write today’s date. . . .
Now print your full legal name where indicated. . . .
Turn to the back cover of your exam booklet and read it completely. . . .
Are there any questions? . . .
36 AP Biology Exam
You will now take Section I of the exam. Section I is the multiple-choice and E
=
grid-in portion of the exam. You may never discuss the multiple-choice exam
content at any time in any form with anyone, including your teacher and other w
)'!I
students. If you disclose the multiple-choice exam content through any means, a,
your AP Exam score will be canceled. 0
0
For the multiple-choice questions, the answer sheet has circles marked A–E ·-
m
for each question. For Biology, you will use only the circles marked A–D. You D.
must complete the answer sheet using a No. 2 pencil only. Open your answer <C
sheet to page 2. Mark all of your responses beginning on page 2 of your answer
sheet, one response per question. No credit will be given for anything written
in the exam booklet. Scratch paper is not allowed, but you may use the margins
or any blank space in the exam booklet for scratch work. If you need to erase,
do so carefully and completely. Your score on the multiple-choice section will
be based solely on the number of questions answered correctly. You may use a
four-function (with square root), scienti c, or graphing calculator.
For the grid-in questions, you will solve each problem, write your nal numeric
answer in the boxes at the top of the grid, and ll in the corresponding circles.
Enter your responses for the grid-in questions on page 3 of the answer sheet
beginning with number 121. ou will receive credit only if the circles are lled in
correctly. Please pay close attention to the directions in your exam booklet for
completing the grid-in questions.
You have 1 hour and 30 minutes for this section. Open your Section I booklet
and begin.
@ Note Start Time . Note Stop Time .
Check that students are marking their answers in pencil on their answer sheets and that
they are not looking at their shrinkwrapped Section II booklets.
After 1 hour and 20 minutes, say:

There are 10 minutes remaining.
After 10 minutes, say:

Stop working. Close your booklet and put your answer sheet on your desk,
faceup. Make sure you have your AP number label and an AP Exam label on
page 1 of your answer sheet. Sit quietly while I collect your answer sheets.
Collect an answer sheet from each student. Check that each answer sheet has an
AP number label and an AP Exam label.
After all answer sheets have been collected, say:

Now you must seal your exam booklet using the white seals you set aside
earlier. Remove the white seals from the backing and press one on each area of
your exam booklet cover marked “PLACE SEAL HERE. Fold each seal over the
back cover. When you have nished, place the booklet on your desk, faceup.
I will now collect your Section I booklet. . . .
Collect a Section I booklet from each student. Check that each student has signed the front
cover of the sealed Section I booklet.
There is a 10-minute break between Sections I and II.
AP Biology Exam 37
When all Section I materials have been collected and accounted for and you are
ready for the break, say:
Please listen carefully to these instructions before we take a 10-minute break.
All items you placed under your chair at the beginning of this exam must stay
there, and you are not permitted to open or access them in any way. Leave your
shrinkwrapped Section II packet on your desk during the break. You are not
allowed to consult teachers, other students, notes, or textbooks during the
break. You may not make phone calls, send text messages, use your calculators,
check email, use a social networking site, or access any electronic or
communication device. Remember, you may never discuss the multiple-choice
exam content with anyone, and if you disclose the content through any means,
your AP Exam score will be canceled. Are there any questions? . . .
@ You may begin your break. Testing will resume at .
SECTION II: Free Response

After the break, say:
May I have everyone’s attention? Place your Student Pack on your desk. . . .
You may now remove the shrinkwrap from the Section II packet, but do not open
the exam booklet until you are told to do so. . . .
Read the bulleted statements on the front cover of the exam booklet. Look up
when you have nished. . . .
Now take an AP number label from your Student Pack and place it on the
shaded box. If you don’t have any AP number labels, write your AP number in the
box. Look up when you have nished. . . .
Read the last statement. . . .
Using your pen, print the rst, middle, and last initials of your legal name in the
boxes and print today’s date where indicated. This constitutes your signature
and your agreement to the statements on the front cover. . . .
Turn to the back cover and, using your pen, complete Item 1 under “Important
Identi cation Information. Print the rst two letters of your last name and the
rst letter of your rst name in the boxes. Look up when you have nished. . . .
In Item 2, print your date of birth in the boxes. . . .
In Item 3, write the school code you printed on the front of your Student Pack in
the boxes. . . .
Read Item 4. . . .
If this is your last AP Exam, you may keep your Student Pack. Place it under your
chair for now. Otherwise I will collect all Student Packs. . . .
Read the information on the back cover of the exam booklet. Do not open the
booklet until you are told to do so. Look up when you have nished. . . .
Collect the Student Packs.
Then say:
38 AP Biology Exam
The total Section II time is 1 hour and 30 minutes. This includes a 10-minute E
=
reading period. The reading period is designed to provide you with time to
develop thoughtful, well-organized responses. You are advised to spend the w
)'!I
10-minute period reading all the questions, and to use the unlined pages to a,
sketch graphs, make notes, and plan your answers. The focus of the reading 0
0
period should be the organization of questions 1 and 2. You may begin writing
your exam responses before the reading period is over. You may make notes on
·-
m
D.
the pages that contain the exam questions, but your responses must be written <C
on the designated lined pages using a pen with black or dark blue ink. Are there
any questions? . . .
You are responsible for pacing yourself and may proceed freely from one
question to the next. Be sure that you answer all of the questions. If you need
more paper to complete your responses, raise your hand. At the top of each
extra sheet of paper you use, write only:
your AP number, and
the question number you are working on.
You may now open the Section II booklet and begin the 10-minute reading
period.

The reading period is over. You have 1 hour and 20 minutes remaining to
complete Section II.
Check that students are using pens to write their answers in their exam booklets.
After 1 hour and 10 minutes, say:

There are 10 minutes remaining.

Stop working and close your exam booklet. Place it on your desk, faceup.
If any students used extra paper for a question in the free-response section, have those
students staple the extra sheet(s) to the rst page corresponding to that question in
their exam booklets. Complete an Incident Report after the exam (see page 67 of the
2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual for complete details).
Then say:
Remain in your seat, without talking, while the exam materials are collected. . . .
Collect a Section II exam booklet from each student. Check for the following:
Exam booklet front cover: The student placed an AP number label on the shaded box and
printed their initials and today’s date.
Exam booklet back cover: The student completed the Important Identi cation
Information” area.
When all exam materials have been collected and accounted for, return to students any
electronic devices you may have collected before the start of the exam.
AP Biology Exam 39
If you are giving the regularly scheduled exam, say:
You may not discuss or share the free-response exam content with anyone
unless it is released on the College Board website in about two days. Your
AP Exam score results will be available online in July.
If you are giving the alternate exam for late testing, say:
None of the content in this exam may ever be discussed or shared in any way at
any time. Your AP Exam score results will be available online in July.
If any students completed the AP number card at the beginning of this exam, say:
Please remember to take your AP number card with you. You will need the
information on this card to view your scores and order AP score reporting
services online.
Then say:
You are now dismissed.
After-Exam Tasks
Be sure to give the completed seating chart to the AP coordinator. Schools must retain
seating charts for at least six months (unless the state or district requires that they be
retained for a longer period of time). Schools should not return any seating charts in their
exam shipments unless they are required as part of an Incident Report.
NOTE: If you administered exams to students with accommodations, review the 2017-18 AP
Coordinator’s Manual and the 2017-18 AP SSD Guidelines for information about completing
the NAR form, and returning these exams.
The exam proctor should complete the following tasks if asked to do so by the
AP coordinator. Otherwise, the AP coordinator must complete these tasks:
Complete an Incident Report for any students who used extra paper for the free-response
section. (Incident Report forms are provided in the coordinator packets sent with
the exam shipments.) These forms must be completed with a No. 2 pencil. It is
best to complete a single Incident Report for multiple students per exam subject, per
administration (regular or late testing), as long as all required information is provided.
Include all exam booklets with extra sheets of paper in an Incident Report return
envelope (see page 67 of the 2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual for complete details).
Return all exam materials to secure storage until they are shipped back to the
AP Program. (See page 26 of the 2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual for more information
about secure storage.) Before storing materials, check the School Use Only section on
page 1 of the answer sheet and:
Fill in the appropriate section number circle in order to access a separate
AP Instructional Planning Report (for regularly scheduled exams only) or subject
score roster at the class section or teacher level. See Post-Exam Activities in the
2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual.
Check your list of students who are eligible for fee reductions and ll in the
appropriate circle on their registration answer sheets.
40 AP Biology Exam
Student Answer Sheet for
the Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Section
Use this section to capture student responses. (Note that the following
answer sheet is a sample, and may differ from one used in an actual exam.)
Section I:
Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Questions
This is the multiple-choice and grid-in section of the 2018 AP Exam.

It includes cover material and other administrative instructions
to help familiarize students with the mechanics of the exam.
(Note that future exams may differ in look from the following content.)
For purposes of test security and/or statistical analysis, some questions

have been removed from the version of the exam that was administered
in 2018. Therefore, the timing indicated here may not be appropriate
for a practice exam.
AP®Biology Exam
SECTION I: Multiple Choice and Grid-In 2018
DONOTOPENTHISBOOKLET
UNTILYOUARETOLDTODOSO.
At a Glance Instructions
Section I of this exam contains 53 multiple- choice questions and 5 grid- in questions
TotalTime Indicate all of your answers to the Section I questions on the answer sheet No credit will
1 hour and 30 minutes be given for anything written in this exam booklet, but you may use the booklet for notes
Numberof Questions or scratch work
58
Percentof TotalScore For questions 1 through 53, after you have decided which of the suggested answers is
50% best, completely fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet Fill in only the circles
WritingInstrument for questions 1 through 53 Because this section offers only four answer options for each
Pencil required question , do not mark the (E answer circle for any question
ElectronicDevice
Calculator allowed Give only one answer to each question If you change an answer, be sure that the previous
mark is erased completely Here is a sample question and answer
Sample Question Sample Answer
Chicago is a @ e © @®
(A) state
(B) city
(C) country
(D) continent
For questions 121 through 125, follow the instructions after question 53 to enter your
numeric answers Write your numeric answer in the boxes at the top of the grid and fill in
the corresponding circles for questions 121 through 125
Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy Do not
spend too much time on any one question Go on to other questions and come back to
the ones you have not answered if you have time It is not expected that everyone will
know the answers to all of the multiple- choice questions
Your total score on Section I is based only on the number of questions answered correctly
Points are not deducted for incorrect answers or unanswered questions
Form I
Form Code 40BP4-S
20
AP® BIOLOGY EQUATIONS AND FORMULAS
Statistical Analysis and Probability

x = sample mean
Standard Deviation
n = size of the sample
l n
x - xi s
n i 1 1 s = sample standard deviation (i.e., the sample-based
estimate of the standard deviation of the
Standard Error of the Mean Chi-Square population)
s (o e)2
c2 o = observed results
✓
n e
e = expected results
Chi-Square Table
p Degrees of Freedom Degrees of freedom are equal to the number of
value 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 distinct possible outcomes minus one.
0.05 3.84 5.99 7.82 9.49 11.07 12.59 14.07 15.51
0.01 6.64 9.21 11.34 13.28 15.09 16.81 18.48 20.09
Laws of Probability Metric Prefixes

If A and B are mutually exclusive, then:
Factor Prefix Symbol
P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B)
109 giga G
If A and B are independent, then: 106 mega M
P(A and B) = P(A) P(B) 103 kilo k
10-2 centi C
Hardy-Weinberg Equations
lQ-3 milli m
p = frequency of the dominant allele
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 10- 6 micro µ
in a population
10-9 nano n
p+q=I q = frequency of the recessive allele
10-12 pico p
in a population
Mode = value that occurs most frequently in a data set
Median = middle value that separates the greater and lesser halves of a data set
Mean = sum of all data points divided by number of data points
Range= value obtained by subtracting the smallest observation (sample minimum) from the greatest (sample maximum)
-3-
Rate and Growth Water Potential ( Y )
dY = amount of change
Rate
dY dt = change in time Y Yp Ys
dt
B = birth rate YP = pressure potential
Population Growth
D = death rate
dN B D Ys = solute potential
dt N = population size
Exponential Growth The water potential will be equal to
K = carrying capacity
dN the solute potential of a solution in an
rmax = maximum per capita open container because the pressure
dt
potential of the solution in an open
growth rate of population
Logistic Growth container is zero.
~ = rmaxN(K
KN) The Solute Potential of a Solution
T2 = higher temperature
Temperature Coefficient 010 Ys iCRT
10 T1 = lower temperature
k T2 - T1 i = ionization constant (this is 1.0 for
Q10 = 2
k1 sucrose because sucrose does not
k2 = reaction rate at T2 ionize in water)
Primary Productivity Calculation
mg 0 2 0.698 mL mL 0 2 k 1 = reaction rate at T1 C = molar concentration
X =
L mg L R = pressure constant
Q 10 = the factor by which the (R = 0.0831 liter bars/mole K)
mL 0 2 0.536 mg C fixed mg C fixed
X = reaction rate increases when
L mLO 2 L T = temperature in Kelvin (°C + 273)
the temperature is raised by
(at standard temperature and pressure)
ten degrees
Surface Area and Volume Dilution (used to create a dilute solution from a
r = radius concentrated stock solution)
Volume of a Sphere
4 CiVi= CNf
V
3 l = length
3 pr
i = initial (starting) C = concentration of solute
Volume of a Rectangular Solid h = height
f = final (desired) V = volume of solution
V l wh
w = width
Volume of a Right Cylinder Gibbs Free Energy
V pr2h s = length of one !).G= Ml - T!).S
side of a cube
Surface Area of a Sphere !).G= change in Gibbs free energy
A 4p r 2 A = surface area !).S = change in entropy
Surface Area of a Cube
V= volume !).H= change in enthalpy
A 6s2
T = absolute temperature (in Kelvin)
Surface Area of a Rectangular Solid S = sum of all
pH= - log 10 [H+]
A = S surface area of each side
-4-
BIOLOGY
Section I
Time-1 hour and 30 minutes
53 Multiple-Choice Questions
5 Grid-In Questions
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by four suggested
answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding circle
on the answer sheet.
1. Which of the following observations best supports 2. Which of the following observations best
the hypothesis that a large object collided with represents a mutualistic relationship?
Earth in a period of time associated with a mass
(A) Some bacteria and fungi obtain their nutrients
extinction?
by enzymatically digesting larger
(A) A species found only in Australia resembles organisms.
a species found only in North America. (B) Chloroplasts in green algae provide sugars
(B) An analysis of radiation reaching Earth from for use in cellular metabolism.
outer space suggests that water might have (C) Hermit crabs utilize empty sea snail shells to
existed on distant planets. protect themselves from predators.
(C) A fossil of an extinct species of mammal is (D) Flowers produce nectar that bees gather to
found to have morphological characteristics make honey, and in the process the bees
that are similar to those of a living nocturnal pollinate the flowers.
mammal.
(D) Iridium, which is common in meteorites but
rare on Earth, is found in sedimentary rock
that contains the last appearance of many
species in the fossil record.
Unauthorized copying or reuse of

any part of this page is illegal.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
-5-
3. A blue-flowered African violet of unknown 4. While there is only one species of Galapagos
ancestry self-pollinated and produced 50 seeds. Island tortoise, there are several subspecies.
These seeds germinate and grow into flowering Larger islands with more wet highlands have lush
plants. Of these plants, 36 produce blue flowers vegetation near the ground. Tortoises there tend to
and 14 produce pink flowers. What is the best have high-domed shells and shorter necks, which
explanation for the pink-flowered offspring? restrict upward head movement. They also have
shorter limbs. They are the heaviest and largest
(A) Blue flowers are incompletely dominant to
of the subspecies.
pink flowers.
(B) Pink flower color is a trait recessive to blue Smaller, drier islands are inhabited by tortoises
flower color. with longer necks and limbs and with shells that
(C) Pink flower color is the result of somatic are elevated above the neck, which allow them
mutations in the flower color gene. to browse taller vegetation.
(D) A previous generation of the blue-flowered
Based on the information given, which of the
parent must have included 50 percent pink-
following is a plausible explanation for the
flowered plants.
ancestry of the tortoise subspecies?
(A) The subspecies share a recent common
ancestor whose neck length, shell shape,
and leg length were intermediate between
the two subspecies.
(B) The tortoises with shorter legs and necks
were most easily preyed on as young
animals by the rats that were introduced,
so they survived only on a few islands.
(C) Random mutations coupled with the
inheritance of acquired characteristics
resulted in distinct subspecies.
(D) Individuals with different adaptations in shell
shape and leg length best exploited the food
resources and left more surviving offspring
on each island.

-6-
PREDROUGHT DISTRIBUTION
OF BEAK DEPTH
300
250
a:l
.D
200
E 150
Z 100
50
o........
---
6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Beak Depth (mm)
5. The graph above shows the distribution of beak depth in a finch population that had been living
on an island under conditions of normal rainfall. During a subsequent drought, the small seeds normally eaten by
the finches were less available. Most of the available seeds were large seeds that could be eaten most easily by
finches with deep beaks.
Which of the following graphs best predicts the distribution of beak depth in the finch population after several
years of drought?
(A) 300
250
a:l200
.D
E 150
Z 100
50
0 ..............
.........
6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Beak Depth (mm)
(B) 300
250
a:l200
.D
E 150
Z 100
50
0
6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Beak Depth (mm)
(C) 300
250
a:l200
.D
E 150
Z 100
50
0
6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Beak Depth (mm)
(D) 300
250
a:l200
.D
E 150
Z 100
50
0
6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Beak Depth (mm)
~-------~
-7-
Questions 6-10
Researchers investigated the habitat preferences of two species of garter snakes, Thamnophis sirtalis and
Thamnophis atratus. To create a choice chamber, the researchers built a meshed enclosure and positioned one end
of the enclosure at the edge of a small pond. Zone I of the enclosure was located in the water, whereas zone IV of
the enclosure was located 2-3 meters away from the water, as represented in the figure below. Snakes inside the
enclosure were able to move freely between zones.
IV III II I
l------1m-------l
Pond
In a series of experiments, the researchers introduced a single snake into zone IV of the enclosure at 7 :00 A.M.
The researchers recorded the location of the snake at six time points throughout the day. In a related experiment, the
researchers introduced two snakes, one of each species, into the enclosure at the same time and observed the location
of each of the two snakes at the same six time points as before. The researchers repeated both the one-snake and
two-snake experiments using different individual snakes of each species. The results are presented in the table.
ZONES MOST FREQUENTLY OCCUPIED BY GARTER SNAKES IN A MESHED ENCLOSURE
Species Introduced Inside the Meshed Enclosure

T. atratus Only T. sirtalis Only T. atratus and T. sirtalis
Zone Most Zone Most Zone Most Zone Most

Frequently Frequently Frequently Frequently
Time of Day
Occupied by Occupied by Occupied by Occupied by
T. atratus T. sirtalis T. atratus T. sirtalis
8:00A.M. I II III II
10:00A.M. II I II II
12:00P.M. I I III I
2:00 P.M. I I IV I
4:00P.M. II I IV I
6:00P.M. II II IV I

-8-
6. Based on the data in the table, which of the 9. The researchers discovered that both species
following best describes the habitat preference of garter snakes feed almost exclusively on
of T. atratus when introduced alone inside the amphibians found in or near the pond. Based
meshed enclosure? on the results of the investigation, which of the
following is most likely to occur if the amphibians
(A) T. atratus exhibited equal preferences for
become a limited source of food?
all four zones.
(B) T. atratus exhibited a preference for the (A) Individuals of T. atratus will no longer prefer
zones in or near water. to be near the water.
(C) T. atratus exhibited a preference for the (B) T. sirtalis will shift its food preference to
zones most distant from the water. herbivory.
(D) T. atratus exhibited a preference to remain (C) The reproduction rate of T. sirtalis will
within the zone in which it was initially increase.
introduced. (D) The population size of T. atratus will
decrease.
7. Based on the data in the table, which of the
following best predicts the results of a study 10. Both species of garter snakes prey on the
in which natural populations of T. atratus and California newt, Taricha torosa, a small
T. sirtalis are observed together in an environment amphibian that produces a potent neurotoxin
that includes a freshwater pond? (TTX) in its skin. However, neither species of
garter snake is affected by TTX. The resistance to
(A) Neither T. atratus nor T. sirtalis will be
TTX is associated with mutations in the SCN4A
observed near the water.
gene. Which of the following best supports a
(B) T. atratus will be observed near the water
claim that TTX resistance arose independently in
whether or not T. sirtalis is present.
T. atratus and T. sirtalis ?
(C) T. sirtalis will be observed near the water
whether or not T. atratus is present. (A) The stomach contents in fossils of both
(D) T. atratus and T. sirtalis will be observed species include the remains of food items
together near the water. that contained TTX.
(B) Both species of snakes possess the
8. Which of the following additions to the SCN4A gene.
experimental design will best help test whether (C) The two species of snakes have different
the observed habitat preferences were the result genetic mutations in the SCN4A gene.
of competition between species? (D) T. atratus and T. sirtalis are sister species
that share many of the same morphological
(A) Placing two individuals from the same
features.
population together inside the enclosure
(B) Introducing different types of plants into the
enclosure together with the snakes
(C) Doubling the number of repetitions for the
experimental treatment with T. atratus alone
(D) Repeating the investigation with an enclosure
that is twice as long as the original

-9-
11. Which of the following statements best describes
Derived Characters
how a growth factor stimulates cell division from
outside a cell? Plant Vascular
Seeds Flowers
(A) The growth factor binds to other cells in the Species Tissue
same area and holds them together to form p
a large, multicellular structure.
+ + +
(B) The growth factor binds to receptors on the Q - - -
cell surface, initiating a signal transduction
pathway that activates specific target genes. R + + -
(C) The growth factor binds to sugar molecules in
the extracellular fluid and provides them to
s + + +
the cell as a source of energy. T - - -
(D) The growth factor binds to phospholipids in
the plasma membrane, creating a channel u + - -
through which substances enter the cell.
w + - -
12. The table above shows the presence (+) or

absence (-) of three different derived characters
(vascular tissue, seeds, and flowers) for several
selected plant species. The cladogram below was
created based on the information in the table to
represent groups of related species. The presence
of the derived characters is indicated with arrows.
Species Groups I
Group IV of the cladogram most likely includes

which of the following species?
(A) P and S only
(B) Q and T only
(C) R and W only
(D) U and W only

-10-
FOOD WEB IN A PARTICULAR
MEADOW COMMUNITY
Hawks and Owl s

Foxe s
SquITT~:cl
/ nsesct
13. Which of the following changes to the environment will most
likely lead to more energy entering the meadow community
represented above?
(A) Increasing the number of nesting sites for hawks and
owls
(B) Removing squirrels from the area
(C) Increasing the light available to the plants
(D) Applying a chemical pesticide that is specific for spiders

-11-
Questions 14-17
Stickleback fish are found in both marine and freshwater habitats. The marine fish have no scales but have
hardened, armorlike plates along their sides. The plates are thought to protect sticklebacks from certain predators.
In the late 1980s, sticklebacks from a marine population colonized Loberg Lake, a freshwater lake in Alaska.
Starting in 1990, researchers sampled fish from the lake every four years and recorded the armor-plate phenotypes of
the male sticklebacks in each sample. The armor-plate phenotypes were categorized as either complete (plates
extending from head to tail), partial (plates extending from head to abdomen), or low (a few plates near the head
only). The results are shown in the table below.
ARMOR-PLATE VARIATION IN THE STICKLEBACK
POPULATION OF LOBERG LAKE
Percent of Males in the Sample with

Each Armor-Plate Phenotype
Year Low Partial Complete
1990 1% 2% 97%
1994 45% 14% 41%
1998 58% 16% 26%
2002 76% 15% 9%
2006 90% 6% 4%
14. Which of the following is an independent variable 15. To evaluate the reliability of the results, it would
in the investigation? be best to know which of the following?
(A) Year in which the sample was collected (A) The surface area of Loberg Lake
(B) Salinity of the water in Loberg Lake (B) The number of males in each sample
(C) Size of the stickleback population (C) The average daily temperature of
(D) Percent of males with each armor-plate Loberg Lake
phenotype (D) The age of the sticklebacks in each sample

-12-
16. Which of the following graphs best represents the 17. Which of the following best explains the changes
type of selection most likely operating in the in the phenotype frequencies of the stickleback
stickleback population of Loberg Lake? population in Loberg Lake?
-- Before selection (A) Predation in the marine environment is

---- After selection different from predation in Loberg Lake.
~ Selection against (B) Marine predators and sticklebacks both
colonized Loberg Lake.
(C) Sticklebacks with the partial armor-plate
(A) phenotype have the highest rate of
reproduction and survival.
I
I
I
/-,l \
\
/ 'I
I
I
(D) The population of sticklebacks in Loberg
Lake is subject to genetic drift.
I I
I I
I I
I I
I I
I I
I I
I I
I
Armor Plating
(B)
Armor Plating
(C)
l /,--- I
/
I
I
I
I
I
I
I
I
I
Armor Plating
(D)
/- ,
I \
I \
I \
I I
I
I
I
I
I
I
I
Armor Plating
-13-
18. Intact cells of two unknown cell types were placed into solutions with different concentrations of NaCL Type I
cells swelled and burst in the solution with the lowest concentration of NaCL Type II cells swelled but did not
burst in the solution with the lowest concentration of NaCL
Which of the following descriptions of cell type I and cell type II are most consistent with the data?
Cell Type I Cell Type II

(A) Animal cell surrounded by a plasma Plant cell surrounded by a plasma
membrane only membrane and a cell wall
(B) Plant cell surrounded by a plasma Bacterial cell surrounded by a cell
membrane only wall only
(C) Plant cell surrounded by a plasma Animal cell surrounded by a plasma
membrane only membrane and a cell wall
(D) Animal cell surrounded by a cell wall only Bacterial cell surrounded by a plasma
membrane only

-14-
19. In an experiment, a scientist isolates
mitochondria from living cells and suspends
them in two different buffered solutions.
One solution is maintained at pH 4, while the
other solution is maintained at pH 9. The scientist
finds that mitochondria in the solution at pH 4
continue to produce ATP but those in the pH 9
solution do not.
The results of the experiment can be used as
evidence in support of which of the following
scientific claims about mitochondrial activity?
(A) Mitochondria in a cell-free environment are
unable to convert thermal energy into ATP.
(B) The electron transport chain pumps electrons
from the cytosol to the mitochondrial
matrix.
(C) ATP production in mitochondria requires a
hydrogen ion gradient that favors movement
of protons into the mitochondrial matrix.
(D) ATP synthase molecules change their
orientation in relation to the proton gradient
across the mitochondrial membrane.

-15-
20. Which of the following best represents two
different signaling pathways that share a second
messenger?

-16-
21. Eye color in a particular strain of fly is influenced
by one gene with two alleles: a dominant allele
that results in red eyes and a recessive allele that
results in sepia eyes.
A red-eyed female from a true-breeding
population is mated with a sepia-eyed male. The
F 1 offspring are all red-eyed. The F 1 flies are
allowed to interbreed, producing the following in
the F2 generation.
Females: 40 red eyes; 13 sepia eyes

Males: 39 red eyes; 11 sepia eyes
Which of the following best describes the likely
mode of inheritance for the eye-color gene?
(A) The eye-color gene is likely autosomal
because males and females have similar
phenotype ratios.
(B) The eye-color gene is likely autosomal
because more females have sepia eyes than
males do.
(C) The eye-color gene is likely sex-linked
because the males and females have similar
phenotype ratios.
(D) The eye-color gene is likely sex-linked
because the males and females display both
phenotypes.

-17-
Questions 22-25
Tay-Sachs disease is a rare inherited disorder caused by an autosomal recessive allele of the HEXA gene. Affected
individuals exhibit severe neurological symptoms and do not survive to reproductive age. Individuals who inherit
one copy of the allele (Tay-Sachs carriers) typically show no symptoms of the disorder. The frequencies of
Tay-Sachs carriers in the general population of North America and in three different subpopulations are presented
in the table.
FREQUENCY OF TAY-SACHS CARRIERS
IN DIFFERENT POPULATIONS
Frequency of
Population
Tay-Sachs Carriers
General population 0.004
Subpopulation I 0.037
Subpopulation II 0.035
Subpopulation III 0.020
22. Based on the information presented, which of 23. A researcher claims that Tay-Sachs carriers are
the following best explains the difference in protected against the infectious disease
phenotype between Tay-Sachs carriers and tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following
homozygous recessive individuals? observations about the annual incidence of
tuberculosis in subpopulation II could best be
(A) Tay-Sachs carriers received a vaccination that
used to support the researcher's claim?
homozygous recessive individuals did not
receive. (A) The incidence of TB in subpopulation II is
(B) Tay-Sachs carriers inherited an extra roughly equal to the incidence of TB in the
chromosome that homozygous recessive general population.
individuals did not inherit. (B) The incidence of TB in subpopulation II is
(C) Tay-Sachs carriers have access to a critical greater than the incidence of TB in the
nutrient that homozygous recessive general population.
individuals did not inherit. (C) The incidence of TB in subpopulation II is
(D) Tay-Sachs carriers synthesize an essential lower than the incidence of TB in the
enzyme that homozygous recessive general population.
individuals cannot synthesize. (D) The incidence of TB in subpopulation II is
roughly equal to the incidence of Tay-Sachs
disease in the general population.
24. Which of the following is an ethical question

about Tay-Sachs disease that cannot be answered
using scientific methods?
(A) Would a difference in the HEXA alleles in
subpopulations I and II affect the severity of
the neurological symptoms?
(B) Should genetic testing be required before
individuals in subpopulation III are advised
to not have children?
(C) Could the frequency of Tay-Sachs carriers in
subpopulation I be a consequence of a
genetic bottleneck?
(D) Should a statistical test be used to evaluate
whether the general population is in
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
-18-
25. Which of the following pedigrees most accurately represents a family with a history of Tay-Sachs disease?
(A)
D = Unaffected male
Q = Unaffected female
■ = Affected male
- = Affected female
(B)
(C)
(D)

-19-
26. Which of the following processes is most likely to 27. In mammals, an increase in the concentration
occur as a result of an animal cell receiving a of sodium in the blood triggers the release of
signal to initiate apoptosis? antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary
gland. As the concentration of sodium in the
(A) Ribosomes will translate mRNA to produce
blood returns to previous levels, the release of
proteins.
ADH from the pituitary gland is reduced. Based
(B) Vesicles will release extracellular growth
on the information presented, which of the
factors via exocytosis.
following describes the most likely role of ADH
(C) Lysosomes will release digestive enzymes
in maintaining blood osmolarity?
into the cytosol.
(D) Vacuoles will fuse with the cellular (A) ADH promotes an increase in the movement
membrane. of sodium into the bloodstream.
(B) ADH promotes an increase in the movement
of water into the bloodstream.
(C) ADH promotes an increase in the excretion
of water from the body.
(D) ADH promotes an increase in the secretion
of additional ADH from the pituitary gland .
.••J._______.G
1 Cyclin
•fl• is Degraded
•••
Activated G 1{ ~
0
M
iolin
Cyclin/cdk c
Complex
Gz
~
V
.l Activated Mitotic
?::::} _J cyclin/ cdk Complex
-~~- Mitotic Cyclin is Degraded

• •0
28. Based on the model of eukaryotic cell cycle regulation shown in the figure, which of the following best describes
the effect of a drug that blocks the production of the mitotic cyclin?
(A) The cell cycle would proceed uncontrollably, and the cell would become cancerous.
(B) The G 1 cyclin would functionally replace mitotic cyclin, and the cell would continue dividing normally.
(C) DNA synthesis would be prevented, and the cell would stop dividing.
(D) The cell would be prevented from entering mitosis, and the cell would stop dividing.

-20-
29. The lac operon in E. coli consists of genes that code for enzymes necessary for the breakdown of lactose. When
lactose is absent, the operon is inactive because a repressor protein binds to a specific site in the lac operon.
When lactose is present, lactose molecules bind to the repressor protein, causing the repressor protein to
dissociate from the binding site. In the absence of glucose (a preferred energy source for bacteria), the protein
CAP binds to a regulatory site near the lac promoter to activate transcription of the lac operon.
The following symbols represent the macromolecules involved in regulation of the lac operon.
Repressor Q Lactose O-Q RNA polymerase 0 mRNA~
In the diagrams below, the horizontal line represents the lac operon and the bent arrow represents the
transcription start site of the lac operon. Which of the following diagrams best represents the scenario
in which lactose is available to the cell and glucose is absent?
(A)
(B)
0-0
(C)
(D)

-21-
Questions 30-34
Excess intracellular iron is toxic to cells (iron-induced toxicity). Ferritin is an intracellular iron storage protein
that binds excess iron. The presence of ferritin can protect cells from iron-induced toxicity.
In an experiment to investigate the effects of dietary iron intake on ferritin synthesis, rats were given food
containing different amounts of iron. Subsequently, the levels of ferritin protein in the liver were measured.
The results are shown in Figure 1.
0--tt---....,::..---1---+--+---+-------l
0 25 50 75 100 125
Dietary Iron (mg/kg)
Figure 1. Effects of dietary iron on ferritin levels in

rat liver
Based on these and other data, researchers have developed the following model demonstrating how ferritin
synthesis is regulated by iron. When iron levels are low, a repressor of translation, iron response protein (IRP),
binds to an iron response element (IRE), which is a stem-loop structure near the end of ferritin mRNA. When
iron levels are high, intracellular iron binds to the IRP, and the iron-IRP complex dissociates from the IRE,
permitting ribosomes to proceed with the translation of ferritin mRNA. Figure 2 represents the model of the
regulation of ferritin mRNA translation by iron.
LOW INTRACELLULAR IRON VERSUS HIGH INTRACELLULAR IRON
Iron Response
Element (IRE) --••
Iron Response
Protein (IRP) Iron Response
Element (IRE)
-_,-...
Fe
0\J Iron Response

Protein (IRP)
Ferritin Coding Region Ferritin Coding Region

AAA 3' AAA 3'
+Translation blocked +mRNA translated
No Ferritin Produced Ferritin Produced
Figure 2. Model of regulation of ferritin synthesis by iron

-22-
30. Based on the data in Figure 1, the concentration of 33. Based on the model of ferritin synthesis presented
iron in the control diet used in the investigation is in Figure 2, which of the following describes the
most likely within which of the following ranges? role of feedback on the control of intracellular
iron levels?
(A) 20-25 mg/kg
(B) 35-40 mg/kg (A) A decrease in iron levels activates the IRP.
(C) 70-75 mg/kg The IRP in tum activates iron transport
(D) 100-125 mg/kg proteins in the cell membrane, thereby
returning free iron levels to normal.
31. Which of the following conclusions about dietary (B) A decrease in iron levels activates synthesis
iron and ferritin synthesis is best supported by the of ferritin protein. Ferritin protein in tum
data in Figure 1 ? releases bound iron, thereby returning free
iron levels to normal.
(A) A dietary iron concentration of 25 mg/kg
(C) An increase in iron levels activates the
has no effect on ferritin gene expression
IRP. The IRP in tum binds iron, thereby
compared with the control diet.
decreasing both free iron levels and ferritin
(B) At a dietary iron concentration of 50 mg/kg,
synthesis.
rats make twice as much ferritin as rats fed
(D) An increase in iron levels activates synthesis
the control diet do.
of ferritin protein. Ferritin protein in tum
(C) Maximum activation of ferritin synthesis
binds iron, thereby decreasing both free iron
occurs at dietary iron concentrations of
levels and ferritin synthesis.
75 mg/kg or greater.
(D) The maximum rate of ferritin absorption from
34. After a search of nucleotide sequence databases,
the gut occurs at dietary iron concentrations
greater than 75 mg/kg. researchers identified an IRE in the
untranslated region of a gene encoding aconitase,
32. Based on the model of ferritin synthesis presented an enzyme involved in the Krebs cycle. Which
in Figure 2, which of the following best describes of the following pieces of experimental evidence
the mechanism whereby iron most likely regulates best supports the claim that the synthesis of
ferritin production? aconitase is controlled by a mechanism similar
to ferritin regulation?
(A) Translation occurs under low intracellular
iron concentration when the IRP recruits (A) IRP binds to aconitase mRNA in the presence
ribosomes to the ferritin mRNA. of iron.
(B) Translation occurs under low intracellular (B) The relative amount of aconitase protein
iron concentration when the IRP stabilizes increases in the presence of high levels
the stem-loop structure in the ferritin of iron.
mRNA. (C) Oxygen consumption by cells increases
(C) Translation occurs under high intracellular in the presence of high levels of iron.
iron concentration when the IRP-iron (D) The levels of reduced electron carriers,
complex dissociates from ferritin mRNA, NADH and FADH 2 , increase in the
permitting ribosomes access to the ferritin presence of high levels of iron.
coding region.
(D) Translation occurs under high intracellular
iron concentration when the IRP-iron
complex brings the end of the mRNA
closer to the ferritin coding region.

-23-
35. Retroviruses have an RNA genome. HTLV-1 36. Which of the following best describes the role of
is a lysogenic retrovirus that establishes a mitosis in the cell cycle?
latent infection in human cells. By which of
(A) Distributing replicated chromosomes to
the following mechanisms does infection by
daughter nuclei
a retrovirus such as HTL V-1 most likely cause
(B) Dividing the cytoplasm to form four gametes
long-lasting genetic changes to host cells?
(C) Producing organelles and replicating
(A) The host-cell ribosomes translate the viral chromosomes
RNA genome that enters the cell upon (D) Exchanging genetic material between
initial viral infection. homologous chromosomes
(B) The viral RNA polymerase that transcribes
host genes has a high error rate. 37. A researcher hypothesizes that RNA molecules
(C) The RNA viral genome is reverse transcribed were present in the most recent common ancestor
into DNA that integrates into the host of all living organisms. Which of the following
genome. scientific questions would best test the
(D) The RNA viral genome integrates into the hypothesis?
host genome.
(A) Is it possible to produce an RNA polymer in
a laboratory setting?
(B) How many distinct functions can a particular
RNA molecule perform in a cell?
(C) How many different monomers of RNA are
found in a eukaryotic cell?
(D) Do any known organisms function entirely
without RNA?

-24-
Moon Phase Full Moon First Quarter New Moon Third Quarter
7
Nighttime
high tides 6
...,
through one ~5
p;..
lunar period 4
3
5 10 15 20 25 30
Days
38. The California grunion (Leuresthes tenuis) is a small marine fish that lives in shallow waters near the ocean
shore. Grunions swim as far onto the beach as possible to mate and lay their eggs (spawn).
A researcher proposes that the spawning behavior takes place when the nighttime tides are highest during
the month. Which of the following pieces of evidence would best support the researcher's claim?
(A) Grunion spawning occurs every two weeks during the spawning season.
(B) Grunion spawning occurs when nighttime illumination levels are the lowest.
(C) High tide occurs one time per lunar cycle.
(D) The light intensity of the moon varies within the lunar cycle.

-25-
Cell X
'-+---+--- Bacterial
Antigen Fragme nt
'· •••
••
Cell Y I ) Cytokines
•••
••
b /s timu
latio
n
Cell Z
!
~ )- Antibodies
39. The vertebrate immune system consists of multiple types of

cells that work together to protect the body from infections
as well as from damaged cells. In the immune response
represented above, antibodies are synthesized and secreted
into the blood and the lymph. The diagram shows the
interaction of macrophages, B cells, and helper T cells.
Which of the following correctly labels the cells depicted in
the diagram?
CellX Cell Y CellZ

(A) B cells Macrophages Helper T cells
(B) Macrophages B cells Helper T cells
(C) Macrophages Helper T cells B cells
(D) Helper T cells B cells Macrophages

-26-
• Calcium Deposited
in Bones
• Increased Calcium
Excretion
Blood Calcium
Thyroid Relea ses
Levels Fall
Calcitonin
od Calcium
els Rise
Normal Blood
Calcium Levels
(: od Calcium
els Fall
Parathyroid Releases Blood Calcium

Parathyroid Hormone Levels Rise
(PTH)
\· Calcium Relea sed

from Bones
• Decreased Calcium
Excretion
40. The model shown in the figure represents the role of two hormones, calcitonin and parathyroid hormone (PTH),
in maintaining normal blood calcium levels in humans. If a dietary change results in an increase in blood
calcium concentration above normal levels, which of the following is the most likely effect on calcium
homeostasis?
(A) Calcitonin levels will decline, thus stimulating the release of PTH.
(B) Calcitonin levels will rise, thus promoting the deposit of calcium into bones.
(C) PTH levels will decline, thus stimulating the loss of calcium from bones.
(D) PTH levels will increase, thus preventing the release of calcitonin.

-27-
41. Type 1 diabetes results from the destruction 42. Which of the following best explains how small
of insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. molecules move between adjacent cells in a
Individuals with type 1 diabetes produce plant shoot?
insufficient amounts of insulin, a hormone
(A) The molecules are actively transported by
that regulates the concentration of glucose
motor proteins along the cytoskeleton.
in the blood.
(B) The molecules pass freely through
Which of the following best explains how plasmodesmata, which are cytoplasmic
treatment with a drug that stimulates the strands connecting two cells.
production of insulin receptors on target cells (C) The molecules are swept along in the
will affect the insulin signaling pathway in extracellular fluid by cilia projecting from
an individual with type 1 diabetes? cell membranes.
(D) The molecules bind reversibly to receptors
(A) The drug will have little or no effect on the
on the cell membranes of xylem.
signaling pathway because the receptors
will not be activated in the absence of
43. Which of the following is most likely to create
insulin.
genetic variation in a population?
(B) The drug will have little or no effect on the
signaling pathway because insulin receptors (A) RNA polymerase errors during transcription
will not be allowed to enter the cells. (B) Helicase failure to unwind DNA during DNA
(C) The drug will restore the function of the replication
signaling pathway because insulin levels (C) DNA polymerase errors during replication
will return to normal. (D) Misincorporation of amino acids by tRNA
(D) The drug will restore the function of the during translation
signaling pathway because nonpancreatic
cells will begin to produce insulin receptors.

-28-
Questions 44-48
To investigate the influence of predation risk on ray behavior, a student observed and counted the large marine
animals swimming in a shallow, nearshore section of a coral reef ecosystem. The time of each observation was
recorded relative to the time of high tide. The student noted that at low tide, when the water level is low, many of the
large animals are forced out of the study area and into the deeper waters of the outer reef. During high tides, when
the water level is high, the large animals are able to reenter the study area.
Over a three-day period, the student observed a total of 604 individual rays belonging to three species: cowtail
rays, giant shovelnose rays, and black stingrays. For each ray that was sighted, its body length was estimated and its
status as either alone (ungrouped) or found with other rays (grouped) was noted. Occasionally, rays were observed
sifting through the sandy substrate of the study area to capture food items such as molluscs and crustaceans. In one
instance, an injured ray with bite marks that were likely sustained in a shark attack was sighted. In addition to the
rays, the student observed lemon sharks (n =46) and blacktip reef sharks (n = 39). The results of the study are
presented in the figures below.
Cowtail Rays
□ U ngrouped
Giant Shovelno e Rays ■ Grouped
Black Stingray
0 0.5 1.5
Mean Body Length (meters)
Figure 1. Comparison of mean body lengths of the grouped and ungrouped rays
that were observed in a nearshore section of a coral reef ecosystem. Error
bars represent 2SE X
6
<I,) 5
Cll
0.. 4
:::;
0
.... 3
0
§ 2
<I,)
'.:;E
l
0
-3 -2 -I O +1
Time Relative to High Tide (hours)
Figure 2. Mean numbers of rays per group in the study area at different stages of
the tide cycle. High tide occurs at T = 0 hours.

-29-
I
I ' ,'
I ' ,
/ ',
I ---- Giant shovelnose rays
I
- Black stingrays
;
;
/l
.... •··· ·····~· ·· ······· ··• ········· ····I
•••·• ·•· Cowtail rays
-3 -2 -1 0 +l
Figure 3. Relative proportions of rays in groups at different stages of the tide cycle
for each of the three different populations. High tide occurs at T = 0 hours.
,JI.
I \
I \
.
I \
I \
I \
I \
I \
I \ -◄- · Lemon sharks
\
\ - Blacktip reef sharks
-3 -2 -1 0 +l
Figure 4. Mean numbers of lemon sharks and blacktip reef sharks in the study area
at different stages of the tide cycle. High tide occurs at T = 0 hours.
44. Which of the following scientific claims about the 45. Based on the data presented in Figure 2, which
survival strategies used by organisms in a coral of the following behavioral patterns do rays in a
reef ecosystem is best supported by the data coral reef ecosystem typically exhibit three hours
presented in Figure 1 ? before high tide?
(A) Smaller members of a vulnerable population (A) Group learning
are more likely to act collectively. (B) Mate selection
(B) Smaller members of a vulnerable population (C) Solitary foraging
are more likely to rely on defensive (D) Social interaction
coloration.
(C) Larger members of a vulnerable population
are more likely to exhibit aggression.
(D) Larger members of a vulnerable population
are more likely to behave altruistically.

-30-
46. Which of the following scientific claims about 48. Based on the results of the study, which of the
interacting populations of giant shovelnose rays following is the most likely connection between
and blacktip reef sharks is best supported by the behavior and evolutionary fitness in a nearshore
results shown in Figures 3 and 4 ? coral reef environment?
(A) Some parasitic species cause significant (A) Rays that search for food alone at low tide
changes in the behavior of their hosts. typically grow to larger sizes than do rays
(B) Some invasive species outcompete native that search for food in groups.
species for limited resources. (B) Rays that join groups during rising tides are
(C) Some migratory species transmit infectious reproductively more successful than are
diseases to resident populations. rays that do not join groups.
(D) Some prey species form protective groups (C) Rays that swim far from shore at high tide
in the presence of predators. often encounter a greater variety of species
than do rays that remain near the shore.
47. Which of the following best justifies the use (D) Rays that roam across large distances during
of the study area to investigate how one species falling tides become stronger swimmers
influences the behavior of another? than do rays that spend more time at rest.
(A) Black stingrays were present in the study area
in the presence and absence of blacktip reef
sharks.
(B) Giant shovelnose rays and cowtail rays spent
long periods of time at rest while inside the
study area.
(C) Natural barriers in the study area prevented
lemon sharks from competing with blacktip
reef sharks for limited resources.
(D) Cowtail rays in the study area formed groups
at some stages of the tide cycle but
remained alone at other stages.

-31-
49. Phenotype is determined, in part, by which genes
are expressed. The diagram below illustrates how
the product of gene X regulates the expression of
other genes.
GeneX
!
----.
5'! 3'
~ ProteinX
/l~
Gene I Gene II
I .....
I ....___
..........
Gene III
I llil
Gene IV
!
--.! ----. -4
5' 3' 5' 3' 5' 3'
Which of the following statements best explains

how protein X regulates gene expression?
(A) Protein X is responsible for processing
pre-mRNA.
(B) Protein Xis responsible for activating
transcription of some genes but not others.
(C) Protein X is a member of some cytoplasmic
protein complexes but not others.
(D) Protein X causes specific base-pair changes
to produce new alleles.

-32-
50. Two types of cholesterol transport proteins,
low-density lipoproteins (LDL) and high-density
lipoproteins (HDL), bind to cholesterol and
carry it through the bloodstream. Familial
hypercholesterolernia (FH) is characterized by
high cholesterol levels in the blood, which can
lead to cardiovascular disease.
FH is associated with a loss-of-function mutation
of a gene that encodes LDL receptors in liver
cells. Individuals who are heterozygous produce
lower-than-normal amounts of the LDL receptors,
and individuals who are homozygous for the
mutant allele have no LDL receptor function.
Individuals with FH can be treated with drugs that
result in increased production of LDL receptors in
liver cells. Which of the following best explains
the observation that the drugs can effectively
control blood cholesterol levels in individuals
who are heterozygous but are not effective in
individuals homozygous for the mutant allele?
(A) The drugs repair the mutant allele by copying
the wild-type allele.
(B) The drugs prevent cholesterol from entering
the liver cells in individuals who are
heterozygous but not in individuals who are
homozygous for the mutant allele.
(C) Cholesterol molecules primarily bind to HDL
receptors in individuals with FH.
(D) There must be at least one copy of the
wild-type LDL receptor allele to produce
functional LDL receptors.

-33-
51. Which of the following groups of cellular 52. If an individual with diabetes consumes food
components are found in eukaryotic cells that is high in simple carbohydrates, blood-sugar
but not prokaryotic cells? levels can rise above normal levels. Which of
the following questions would provide the best
(A) Ribosomes, a nucleus, and chloroplasts
direction for a researcher who wanted to study the
(B) Circular chromosomes, mitochondria, and
impact of abnormally high blood-sugar levels on
an endoplasmic reticulum
cellular homeostasis in diabetics?
(C) A nucleus, ribosomes, and cell walls
(D) An endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria, (A) Are cells in diabetics larger in size than those
and a nucleus in nondiabetics?
(B) Do the cells in diabetics have more potassium
ion channels in the cell membrane than the
cells in nondiabetics do?
(C) Does water move from cells into blood
vessels more rapidly in diabetics than in
nondiabetics when blood-sugar levels are
higher than normal?
(D) Do the cells of diabetics use simple sugars
as an energy source?

-34-
~ _,,,o_
, (OH ATP ADP ~,,,,o,~
HoH \J
OH
PFK
. HoH
OH
Fructose Fructose
6-phosphate 1,6-bisphosphate
Figure 1. Reaction catalyzed by phosphofructokinase

(PFK) during glycolysis
53. Phosphofructokinase (PFK) is an enzyme that catalyzes

the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose
1,6-bisphosphate during glycolysis, as represented in
Figure 1.
PFK can be allosterically inhibited by ATP at high
concentrations. Which of the following is the benefit
ofregulating glycolysis by the concentration of ATP?
(A) Glycolysis proceeds when the intracellular concentration
of ATP is low, which provides ATP to drive cellular
reactions.
(B) Glycolysis proceeds when the intracellular concentration
of ATP is high and the cell stores ATP for future use.
(C) Glycolysis is inhibited when the intracellular
concentration of ATP is low because PFK requires ATP
as a substrate for the reaction it catalyzes.
(D) Glycolysis is inhibited when the intracellular
concentration of ATP is high because ATP will
compete with fructose 1,6-bisphosphate for binding to
the active site on the enzyme.

-35-
Directions: The next five questions, numbered 121-125, require numeric answers.
Determine the correct answer for each question and enter it in the grid on page 3 of the answer sheet.
Use the following guidelines for entering your answers.
• Start your answer in any column, space permitting. Unused columns should be left blank.
• Write your answer in the boxes at the top of the grid and fill in the corresponding circles. Mark only one
circle in any column. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in completely.
• Provide your answer in the format specified by the question. The requested answer may be an integer, a
decimal, or a fraction, and it may have a negative value.
• To enter a fraction, use one of the division slashes to separate the numerator from the denominator, as shown
in the example below. Fractions only need to be reduced enough to fit in the grid.
• Do not enter a mixed number, as this will be scored as a fraction. For example, 2 1/2 (two and one-half) will
be scored as 21/2 (twenty-one halves).
Fractio n answer: - 2/10

Integer answer : 5024 Decimal answer: (does not have
(either position is correc t) -4 .13 to be reduced)
s 0 2 4 s 0 2 4 - 4. 1.. 3 - 2 I 1.. 0
0 0 0 0 0
0 0 0 0
0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 0 • 0 0• 0 • 0 • 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
® ®®®
•
CDCDCDCDCD
®® ®®
CDCDCDCDCD • • • • ®®®®
CDCDCD
®
CD
®®®®
CDCDCD CD
® ® ® ®
• ® ® ®
G) G) G) G) G)
®
•
G) G) G) G) G)
• • ® ® ® ®
G) G) G) G)
® ® ® ® ®
G) G) G) G) G)
• • • • •
© © © © © © © © © © © © © © © © ©
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®
(j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j) (j)
®®®®® ®®®®® ®®®®® ®®®®®
® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ® ®

-36-
121. In a particular variety of corn, kernel color is 122. In a certain plant species, a single gene controls
controlled by a single gene with two alleles. The the expression of flower color. The gene has
dominant allele results in purple kernels, and the two alleles: a dominant allele (B) associated with
recessive allele results in yellow kernels. A single dark-blue flowers and a recessive allele (b)
corncob may contain hundreds of individual associated with light-blue flowers. A researcher
kernels, each of which is the result of a separate is investigating flower-color allele frequencies in
fertilization event. Predict the frequency of a population of the plants. Of the 910 plants in the
yellow kernels that result from a cross between population, the researcher observes that 347 have
two heterozygous plants. Enter your response as light-blue flowers.
a fraction or a decimal to the nearest hundredth. Predict the number of plants in the population that
would be expected to have the Bb genotype if the
population were in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Give your answer to the nearest whole number.

-37-
Protein W Protein X
200
er,
180
er, "O
(1.) . .....
oJ)(.)
160
c::<t'. 140
c,:j 0
..s::c::
U·,..., 120
"O s
·u <r: 100
--::i::o
00
c::C:- 80
·as.... 60
<t'.(1.)
0.. 40
20
100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900 1,000
Millions of Years Since Divergence
of Species from a Common Ancestor
Figure 1. The rate of amino acid sequence divergence of

proteins
123. Based on the data in Figure 1, calculate the rate of change

in the amino acid sequence of the most highly conserved
protein among the four proteins shown. Record your answer
as the number of amino acid changes per 10,000 amino acids
per 1 million years. Give your answer to the nearest
hundredth.

-38-
124. Cultured hamster cells were incubated in the presence of different concentrations of extracellular L-DOPA, an
organic compound that plays a role in regulating cellular functions. After 6 minutes, the amounts of L-DOPA
that had accumulated inside the cells were determined. The rate of accumulation of intracellular L-DOPA was
measured at two different temperatures, and the results are provided in the graph below.
5.0
.....37°c
..--
..... --
-
__..,.........
i.--
II'
,)
-- .......
/
/
I
I
I
I
I '
------ ,...-- - - ---- - ---
4°c .
0.0
0
- ~-_100
....--
200 300 400 500
Extracellular Concentration of L-DOPA (µM)
According to the information in the graph, when the extracellular concentration of L-DOPA was 300 µM, how
many times faster was the rate of L-DOPA accumulation at 37°C compared to the rate at 4°C? Give your answer
to one decimal place.

-39-
I
JO mm
I
I
I
I mm
1
I
/
/
)----------
/
/
/
125. The diagram above represents the outline of a potato cube that has been completely submerged in a purple dye
overnight. The purple dye has penetrated 1 mm on each side, as indicated by the shading in the diagram.
Calculate the volume of the unpenetrated portion of the cube. Give your answer in cubic millimeters to the
nearest whole number.

-40-
END OF SECTION I
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION.
DO NOT GO ON TO SECTION II UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
MAKE SURE YOU HAVE DONE THE FOLLOWING.
• PLACED YOUR AP NUMBER LABEL ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET
• WRITTEN AND GRIDDED YOUR AP NUMBER CORRECTLY ON YOUR ANSWER

SHEET
• TAKEN THE AP EXAM LABEL FROM THE FRONT OF THIS BOOKLET

AND PLACED IT ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET
-41-
Section II: Free-Response Questions
This is the free-response section of the 2018 AP Exam.

It includes cover material and other administrative instructions
to help familiarize students with the mechanics of the exam.
(Note that future exams may differ in look from the following content.)
AP®Biology Exam
(__
s_E_C_T_I_O_N_I_I:_F_r_e_e_R_e_s_p_o_n_s_e
____ __,) 2018
DONOTOPENTHISBOOKLET
UNTILYOUARETOLDTODOSO.
r
At a Glance IMPORTANT Identification Information
TotalTime PLEASE PRINTWITH PEN:
1 hour and 30 minutes
Numberof Questions
1. First two letters of your last name [I] 4. Unless I check the box below, I grant the
8
Percentof TotalScore
First letter of your first name D College Board the unlimited right to use,
reproduce, and publish my free-response
materials, both written and oral, for
50% 2. Date of birth educational research and instructional
WritingInstrument
Pen with black or dark
[IJ[IJI
Month Day
1111
Year
purposes. My name and the name of my
school will not be used in any way in
connection with my free-response
blue ink
3. Six-digit school code materials. I understand that I am free to
ElectronicDevice mark "No" with no effect on my score or
Calculator allowed
Reading Period
IIIIIII its reporting.
No, I do not grant the College Board □
these rights.
Time
10 minutes. Use this
time to read the Instructions
questions and plan your
answers.You may begin The questions for Section II are printed in this booklet You may use the unlined pages to
writing your responses organize your answers and for scratch work, but you must write your answers on the
before the reading
period is over. labeled pages provided for each question
Writing Period _ The proctor will announce the beginning and end of the reading period You are advised
to spend the 10-minute period reading all the questions, and to use the unlined pages to
Time sketch graphs, make notes, and plan your answers The focus of the reading period should
1 hour and 20 minutes
be the organization of questions 1 and 2 You may begin writing your responses before
Suggested
Time
Approximately
the reading period is over
22 minutes per long Each answer should be written in paragraph form; an outline or bulleted list alone is not
question, and 6 minutes
per short question. acceptable Do not spend time restating the questions or providing more than the number
Weight of examples called for For instance, if a question calls for two examples, you can earn
Approximate weights credit only for the first two examples that you provide Labeled diagrams may be used to
Questions 1 and 2: supplement discussion, but unless specificallycalled for by the question, a diagram alone
25% each
Questions 3 - 5: will not receive credit Write clearly and legibly Begin each answer on a new page Do not
10% each skip lines Cross out any errors you make; crossed-out work will not be scored
Questions 6- 8:
7% each Manage your time carefully You may proceed freely from one question to the next You
'- may review your responses if you finish before the end of the exam is announced
Form I
Form Code 40BP4-S
20
AP® BIOLOGY EQUATIONS AND FORMULAS
Statistical Analysis and Probability

x = sample mean
Standard Deviation
n = size of the sample
l n
x - xi s
n i 1 1 s = sample standard deviation (i.e., the sample-based
estimate of the standard deviation of the
Standard Error of the Mean Chi-Square population)
s (o e)2
c2 o = observed results
✓
n e
e = expected results
Chi-Square Table
p Degrees of Freedom Degrees of freedom are equal to the number of
value 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 distinct possible outcomes minus one.
0.05 3.84 5.99 7.82 9.49 11.07 12.59 14.07 15.51
0.01 6.64 9.21 11.34 13.28 15.09 16.81 18.48 20.09
Laws of Probability Metric Prefixes

If A and B are mutually exclusive, then:
Factor Prefix Symbol
P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B)
109 giga G
If A and B are independent, then: 106 mega M
P(A and B) = P(A) P(B) 103 kilo k
10-2 centi C
Hardy-Weinberg Equations
lQ-3 milli m
p = frequency of the dominant allele
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 10- 6
in a population micro µ
10-9 nano n
p+q=I q = frequency of the recessive allele
10-12 pico p
in a population
Mode = value that occurs most frequently in a data set
Median = middle value that separates the greater and lesser halves of a data set
Mean = sum of all data points divided by number of data points
Range= value obtained by subtracting the smallest observation (sample minimum) from the greatest (sample maximum)
-3-
Rate and Growth Water Potential ( Y )
dY = amount of change
Rate
dY dt = change in time Y Yp Ys
dt
B = birth rate YP = pressure potential
Population Growth
D = death rate
dN B D Ys = solute potential
dt N = population size
Exponential Growth The water potential will be equal to
K = carrying capacity
dN the solute potential of a solution in an
rmax = maximum per capita open container because the pressure
dt
potential of the solution in an open
growth rate of population
Logistic Growth container is zero.
~ = rmaxN(K
KN) The Solute Potential of a Solution
T2 = higher temperature
Temperature Coefficient 010 Ys iCRT
10 T1 = lower temperature
k T2 - T1 i = ionization constant (this is 1.0 for
Q10 = 2
k1 sucrose because sucrose does not
k2 = reaction rate at T2 ionize in water)
Primary Productivity Calculation
mg 0 2 0.698 mL mL 0 2 k 1 = reaction rate at T1 C = molar concentration
X =
L mg L R = pressure constant
Q 10 = the factor by which the (R = 0.0831 liter bars/mole K)
mL 0 2 0.536 mg C fixed mg C fixed
X = reaction rate increases when
L mLO 2 L T = temperature in Kelvin (°C + 273)
the temperature is raised by
(at standard temperature and pressure)
ten degrees
Surface Area and Volume Dilution (used to create a dilute solution from a
r = radius concentrated stock solution)
Volume of a Sphere
4 CiVi= CNf
V
3 l = length
3 pr
i = initial (starting) C = concentration of solute
Volume of a Rectangular Solid h = height
f = final (desired) V = volume of solution
V l wh
w = width
Volume of a Right Cylinder Gibbs Free Energy
V pr2h s = length of one !).G= Ml - T!).S
side of a cube
Surface Area of a Sphere !).G= change in Gibbs free energy
A 4p r 2 A = surface area !).S = change in entropy
Surface Area of a Cube
V= volume !).H= change in enthalpy
A 6s2
T = absolute temperature (in Kelvin)
Surface Area of a Rectangular Solid S = sum of all
pH= - log 10 [H+]
A = S surface area of each side
-4-
BIOLOGY
Section II
Total Time-1 hour and 30 minutes
Reading Period-10 minutes
Writing Period-1 hour and 20 minutes
8 Questions
Directions: Questions 1 and 2 are long free-response questions that require about 22 minutes each to answer and are
worth 10 points each. Questions 3-8 are short free-response questions that require about 6 minutes each to answer.
Questions 3-5 are worth 4 points each and questions 6-8 are worth 3 points each.
Read each question carefully and completely. You are advised to spend the IO-minute reading period planning your
answers. You may begin writing your responses before the reading period is over. Write your response in the space
provided for each question. Only material written in the space provided will be scored. Answers must be written out
in paragraph form. Outlines, bulleted lists, or diagrams alone are not acceptable.
Question 1 is on the following page.

-5-
TABLE 1. SURVIVAL OF GENETICALLY MODIFIED B. THAILANDENSIS STRAINS
B. thailandensis Strain Density of Live Cells

(log CFU/mL)
Protein S Protein R
Culture T=0 Hours T=4 Hours
Produced Produced
1 Sl none 7.3 4.5
2 Sl Rl 7.9 7.9
3 Sl R2 6.5 3.8
1. In bacterial communities, where resources are often limited, survival requires the ability to sense, respond to,
and cooperate or compete with neighboring organisms. In communities containing Burkholderia thailandensis
bacteria, these abilities rely in part on contact-dependent communication with neighboring cells. This
communication involves a signaling protein, protein S, that gets transported to the surface of the cell. When in
direct physical contact with another bacterial cell, protein S is cleaved and internalized by the recipient cell,
where it can act as a nuclease. There are different forms of protein S (e.g., Sl, S2, S3) and different forms of an
internal protein, protein R (e.g., Rl, R2, R3). Recipient cells are protected from the nuclease activity of protein S
if they produce the appropriate form of protein R.
In an investigation, B. thailandensis strains were genetically engineered to produce different combinations of
proteins Sand R. The cells were placed in a nutrient-deficient medium (T=0 hours) and cultured for 4 hours
(T=4 hours). The density of live cells in the culture was recorded at the two time points, T=0 hours and
T=4 hours. The data are shown in Table 1.
(a) Construct an appropriately labeled graph that represents the density of live cells in each culture of the three
genetically altered B. thailandensis strains at both time points.
(b) Explain the effect of expressing only S 1 on the cells in culture 1. Describe the effect of expressing
combinations of protein S and protein Ron the survival of the cells in culture 2 AND culture 3.
(c) In naturally occurring solid surface environments, such as soil, bacteria use this same signaling pathway to
initiate formation of biofilms, which are densely populated aggregates of bacteria. In the center of the
biofilm, cells are more likely to interact only with cells of the same bacterial strain. At the edges of the
biofilm, cells are more likely to encounter cells of a different bacterial strain or species. Identify the most
likely type of ecological relationships among cells in the center of the biofilm AND cells at the edges of the
biofilm. Provide reasoning to support a researcher's claim that the bacteria cannot form biofilms at a low
population density.

-6-
THIS PAGE MAY BE USED FOR TAKING NOTES AND PLANNING YOUR ANSWERS.
NOTES WRITTEN ON THIS PAGE WILL NOT BE SCORED.
WRITE ALL YOUR RESPONSES ON THE LINED PAGES.

-7-
PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 1

-8-
ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 1

-9-

-10-

-11-
Treatment group I II ill IV V
Appearance M M SA SA GW
of model
Type of song M SA M SA GW
M Similar to males living on Makira Island

SA Similar to males living on Santa Ana Island
GW Similar to male golden whistlers
Figure 1. Behavioral responses of male flycatchers on

Makira Island to different combinations of bird
models and songs. The conditions of each
treatment group are indicated below the graph.
Error bars represent ± SE X
2. In an investigation about the roles of visual and auditory cues in mate competition, researchers studied
two distinct populations of flycatchers (Monarcha castaneiventris), a species of bird that lives in the
Solomon Islands. The flycatchers on Makira Island have light brown bellies, whereas those on
Santa Ana Island are uniformly black. The songs produced by flycatchers of each population are also
different from each other. To investigate male flycatcher competition, researchers exposed male flycatchers
from Makira Island to different combinations of ( 1) bird models that resembled the males from each of the
two populations, (2) recordings of the distinct songs produced by the members of each population, and
(3) models and song recordings of a different bird species, golden whistlers (Pachycephala pectoralis).
On Makira Island, the researchers located territories defended by single mating pairs of flycatchers and
assigned each territory to one of five treatment groups as indicated in Figure 1.
For each trial, the researchers observed the behavioral response of the male flycatcher and assigned an
aggression score from Oto 10. A higher aggression score indicated a more aggressive behavioral response.
The results of the study are represented in Figure 1.
(a) Based on the information in Figure 1, identify ONE independent variable, ONE dependent variable, and
ONE negative control treatment in the experimental design.
(b) Based on the data in Figure 1, make a claim about the behavioral responses of the male Makira flycatchers
to a model of a Makira flycatcher. Use the data to justify your claim. Make a claim about the behavioral
responses of the male Makira flycatchers to the song recordings of a Makira flycatcher. Use the data to
justify your claim.
(c) A researcher claims that the Makira Island and the Santa Ana Island flycatchers are diverging into different
species. Identify TWO potential prezygotic barriers that may be contributing to the divergence and
speciation of these two populations of birds. Identify ONE piece of evidence that would indicate that
speciation has already occurred within the flycatcher populations.
-12-
THIS PAGE MAY BE USED FOR TAKING NOTES AND PLANNING YOUR ANSWERS.
NOTES WRITTEN ON THIS PAGE WILL NOT BE SCORED.
WRITE ALL YOUR RESPONSES ON THE LINED PAGES.

-13-

-14-

-15-

-16-

-17-
3.0
2.5
Relative 2.0
Advantage I .5
of 10
Short-Tongued ·
Bees 0.5
Bee -
Tongue
-+-+----t
0 .6 Proportion
0.8 of Deep
4
Flower Density 1.0 Flower s
Base of 0
} Flower (per m 2)
Nectar
Figure 1. Bees access nectar from the base of a Figure 2. Relative advantage of short-tongued bees (y-axis) in
flower with their tongues and can relation to flower density (x-axis) and proportion of
transfer pollen from one flower to deep flowers (z-axis) is shown. White shading
another. indicates conditions under which having a short
tongue is an advantage. Gray shading indicates
conditions under which having a short tongue is a
disadvantage.
3. Bees use their tongues to access nectar as a food source from the base of flowers (Figure 1). Flowers vary in
depth from shallow to deep, and bees vary in tongue length from short to long. Many species of plants depend on
bees to transfer pollen from one flower to another for fertilization. Researchers constructed a graph to illustrate
the conditions under which having a short tongue provides bees with an advantage in an environment where both
short-tongued and long-tongued species of bees are present (Figure 2).
(a) Based on the graph in Figure 2, identify the environmental conditions (flower density AND proportion
of deep flowers) where a short-tongued bee has the greatest relative advantage over a long-tongued bee.
Based on the graph in Figure 2, identify the range of proportion of deep flowers at which a long-tongued
bee always has an advantage over a short-tongued bee.
(b) Bees with short tongues are able to obtain nectar from deep flowers by drilling holes in the base of
the flower without visiting the top of the flower. This behavior does not kill the flower. In a particular
environment, bees with short tongues replace bees with long tongues. Predict the effect on the proportion of
plants with deep flowers in future generations. Justify your prediction.

-18-

-19-
1 2 3 4 5
DNA
C:J Exon
-- Intron
mRNA OR VZlZ
1 2 4 5 1 3 4 5
Protein
Protein B
\ Membrane I Membrane
\ I
\ I
2nd Me ssenger
Figure 1. Receptor proteins produced as a result of alternative splicing followed by activation of a

second messenger
4. Cell signaling in eukaryotes is often dependent on receptor proteins located in the plasma membrane. During
the production of the mature mRNA molecules coding for these receptors, pre-mRNA molecules are processed
to remove introns and to connect exons together. The exons contain the sequences that code for proteins. In
certain instances, different mature mRNA molecules can be formed from the same pre-mRNA by alternative
splicing, which results in different protein sequences in the resulting polypeptides. Figure 1 represents the
expression of a gene with 5 exons that can be alternatively spliced to produce receptor protein A and receptor
protein B.
(a) Explain how ligand A and ligand B can cause identical cellular responses in a cell.
(b) Predict the most likely effect of a two-nucleotide deletion in the middle of the intron located between exons
4 and 5 on the structure of protein A. Justify your prediction.

-20-

-21-
5. Leptin is a hormone that signals an organism to suppress appetite. Leptin is released from fat cells in white
adipose tissue and binds to receptors on cells in the hypothalamus, a region of the brain that controls appetite.
(a) Identify the way that leptin produced by fat cells of adipose tissue in the abdomen can send a signal to the
neuroendocrine cells in the hypothalamus.
(b) Researchers are investigating the effectiveness of various treatments on three individuals with a history of
increased appetite.
• Individual I does not produce leptin but does have functional leptin receptors.
• Individual II does produce leptin but does not have functional leptin receptors.
• Individual III does not produce leptin and does not have functional leptin receptors.
The first treatment involves injection of leptin into the blood. The second treatment involves gene therapy
that results in the production of functional leptin receptors in cells of the hypothalamus. The third treatment
combines both the injection of leptin and the leptin-receptor gene therapy. In the template provided, draw
check marks in the appropriate boxes to indicate the individuals in which the treatment most likely results in
appetite suppression. Columns and rows may have more than one check mark.
TREATMENT
Leptin Injection Only Leptin Receptor Gene Leptin Receptor Gene
Therapy Only Therapy in Combination
with Leptin Injection
Individual I
Individual II
Individual III

-22-

-23-
TABLE 1. NUCLEOTIDE PRESENT AT 6 DIFFERENT SNP POSITIONS
IN INDIVIDUALS FROM 5 DIFFERENT HUMAN POPULATIONS
SNP Position
Population
1 2 3 4 5 6
Han G A A G G A
Yoruban C A A G G A
Luhya G A A A G A
Tibetan C T T A C A
Denisovan C T T A C T
6. The EPASI gene in human populations encodes a transcription factor activated in low-oxygen conditions, such
as those found in high altitude (mountainous) regions. Researchers collected DNA from several populations of
modem humans, including Han, Y oruban, Luhya, and Tibetan. They also collected DNA from the fossils of
Denisovans, a prehistoric population. The researchers sequenced the most common EPASI allele in each
population and determined the specific pattern of variations, called single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), at
six positions in each population (Table 1).
(a) Use the template provided to construct a cladogram based on the EPASI gene SNP sequences reported for
each population. Circle the location on the cladogram that represents the most recent common ancestor of
the populations shown in the table.
(b) The EPASI gene shows strong indications of positive selection in Tibetans, a population located in a
mountainous region in Asia. Describe how the specific EPASI gene SNP pattern shown above became
common in the Tibetan population.

-24-

-25-
100
"
75
□
~
\1p
-5 50
~
c,:,
25 \
~ □ ~ -- ~
--
0 "
0 10-s 10- 4 10-3 10-2 10- 1 100 101
Atovaquo ne (µM)
Figure 1. Effect of increasing concentrations of atovaquone on the growth of

P. falciparum
7. Malaria is a human disease caused by the eukaryotic parasite Plasmodiumfalciparum. The enzyme
dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (DHODH) is essential for the synthesis of pyrimidine bases, including thymine
(T), cytosine (C), and uracil (U), in P. falciparum. To synthesize these bases, DHODH requires electrons that
are donated by the electron transport chain protein cytochrome b. Atovaquone is a drug that irreversibly binds to
cytochrome band inhibits the growth of P.falciparum (Figure 1).
(a) Based on an analysis of the data, estimate the effective dose of atovaquone that causes a fifty percent
reduction in growth of P. falciparum.
(b) Based on the information, describe how atovaquone most likely suppresses growth of P. falciparum.
(c) Identify the cellular location where cytochrome bis most likely found.

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-27-
Q~ Phosphate Group
/MjLipid
A D
~~ ~~
Nonaqueou s ~~ Nonaqueou s Aqueou s ~~ Nonaqueou s
Cyto sol ~~ Environm ent Cyto sol ~~ Environm ent
~~ ~~
B E
~ ~
Nonaqueo us ~ Nonaqueous Aqueo us ~ Nonaqueou s
Cyto sol ~ Environment Cyto sol ~ Environment
~ ~
C F
~~ ~~
Nonaqueou s ~~ Nonaqueou s Aqueou s ~~ Non aqueou s
Cyto sol ~~ Environment Cyto sol ~~ Environment
~~ ~~
Figure 1. Proposed models of hypothetical plasma membranes. Each model represents
a small portion of the hypothetical plasma membrane and illustrates the
orientation of the phospholipids.
8. A student proposes six models of a hypothetical plasma membrane (Figure 1). Identify the model that best
represents the plasma membrane of a hypothetical cell that exists in a nonaqueous environment and whose
cytosol is similar to that of an animal cell. Provide TWO pieces of reasoning to support your identification.

-28-

-29-
STOP
END OF EXAM
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION.
THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS APPLY TO THE COVERS OF THE

SECTION II BOOKLET.
• MAKE SURE YOU HAVE COMPLETED THE IDENTIFICATION

INFORMATION AS REQUESTED ON THE FRONT AND BACK
COVERS OF THE SECTION II BOOKLET.
• CHECK TO SEE THAT YOUR AP NUMBER LABEL APPEARS

IN THE BOX ON THE FRONT COVER.
• MAKE SURE YOU HAVE USED THE SAME SET OF AP

NUMBER LABELS ON ALL AP EXAMS YOU HAVE TAKEN
THIS YEAR.
-30-

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From the 2018 Administration m (] CollegeBoard

NOTE: This is a modi ed version of the 2018 AP Biology Exam.

Student Answer Sheet for the Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Section

Section I: Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Questions

Section II: Free-Response Questions

Multiple-Choice and Grid-In Answer Key

Free-Response Scoring Guidelines

Question Descriptors and Performance Data

The following contains instructions taken from

Section I Total Time: 1 hour and 30 minutes

Section II Total Time: 1 hour and 30 minutes

What Proctors Need to Bring to This Exam

If you are giving the regularly scheduled exam, say:

Read the statements on the front cover of the Section I booklet. . . .

@ Note Start Time . Note Stop Time .

After 1 hour and 20 minutes, say:

After 10 minutes, say:

After all answer sheets have been collected, say:

There is a 10-minute break between Sections I and II.

@ You may begin your break. Testing will resume at .

SECTION II: Free Response

Collect the Student Packs.

@ Note Start Time . Note Stop Time .

After 10 minutes, say:

@ Note Start Time . Note Stop Time .

After 1 hour and 10 minutes, say:

After 10 minutes, say:

This is the multiple-choice and grid-in section of the 2018 AP Exam.

For purposes of test security and/or statistical analysis, some questions

Sample Question Sample Answer

Statistical Analysis and Probability

Laws of Probability Metric Prefixes

Mode = value that occurs most frequently in a data set

Mean = sum of all data points divided by number of data points

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ZONES MOST FREQUENTLY OCCUPIED BY GARTER SNAKES IN A MESHED ENCLOSURE

Species Introduced Inside the Meshed Enclosure

Zone Most Zone Most Zone Most Zone Most

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12. The table above shows the presence (+) or

Group IV of the cladogram most likely includes

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Hawks and Owl s

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Percent of Males in the Sample with

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-- Before selection (A) Predation in the marine environment is

Cell Type I Cell Type II

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Females: 40 red eyes; 13 sepia eyes

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24. Which of the following is an ethical question

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