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SLLE 2022
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Blood Bank

Patient with anti-E need blood = Same Rh phenotype (blood with no E

antigen

Heterozygous of lutherna (Lu)? = Lu (a+b+(

Homozygous for lutheran Lu (a)? = Lu (a+b-)

Patient with null kidd he has what Ab = Anti-Jk3

Acquired B found in = A group

Blood group system destroyed by routine Blood bank enzymes =Duffy

(Fya, Fyb)

Ficin and papain enzymes inhibited which antibody = Duffy, M. N, S

Prevent malaria = Fy (a-, b-)

cause PCH = auto anti P

antigen receptor for malaria p. vivax = fy (a+, b+)

What is the Fisher-Race genotype for a person with anti-c? DCE/dCe

reduced numbers of ag D = weak .

yellow fever deferral from blood donation how many weeks?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4
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SLLE 2022
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Sugar for H antigens = L-fucose

What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual? = Anti-A, B, and H

Mother O blood group, father A blood group, the child expression =

dominant

Genotype of A blood group = A0 or AA

Chromosome of ABO genes location = Chromosome 9.

If both parents are A blood group, what is the possible offspring blood
group =
Blood group A or O.

Father O ,mather AB , baby = 50% A,50%B

which blood group has the least amount of H antigen

a. A1B
b. A2
c. B
d. A1

N-acetyl-D-galactosamine is the immunodominant carbohydrate that

reacts with
a. arachis hypogaea
b. salvia sclarea
c. dolichos biflorus
d. ulex europeaus

Father genotype of AB and mother genotype B give genotype in

Possible = A,B,AB

Which blood group is universal acceptor = AB positive

Nigerian nurse live in Saudi Arabia for 2 years his healthy ? Can donate
after one year
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SLLE 2022
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what the GVHD Graft versus host disease ? If the patient is

,immunocompromised
then the donor's lymphocytes(T cell) will attack the recipient's healthy
cells leading GVHD result

enhaczed by enzyme ? JK

indirect antigloubolin ? In vitro sensitization

direct detection sensitize RBCs in vivo

patient with hemophilia A which blood component need ?

Cryptopreceptate

recipient blood then after 30 minutes the temperature increase 3 C

without hemolysis
what’s the next test ? Culture !! or maybe DAT ,

mother with hepatitis after delivered her born what’s the marker of
infecting new bornHbsAg +ve

patient with allergy in place of insulin injected ? Generalized insulin

allergy, Remove the needle from the site

define adsorption ?is the process of removal of antibody from the serum

An elution? is the process of removal of antibody from red blood cells.

.The product of the elution method is an eluate

Intrauterine transfusion what’s the tests use with it ? KB – Rossete test

autologous donation period ? 1 week

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SLLE 2022
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patient come to emergency, what type of blood group transfusion in this

case ? O -ve

Heterozygous JK ? Jka+Jkb+

Homozygous Jka? Jk(a+b-)

Homozygous Jkb? Jk(a-b+)
Jk null? Jk(a-b-)

we will transplant Bone marrow what we do ? Irradiation RBCs

patient need PLT , after we transfusion PLT the PLT breakdown in every
time , what we do?

a-Transfusion Random PLT

b- Transfusion pooled PLT
c-Transfusion aphresis

after transfusion platelet drops in count what is cause?

a-transfused plts
B-pool plasma
C-platletapherisis
D-wbc pool plasma

PLT store temperature? 22-24 C

what we need from blood components in liver disease ? FFP

function of AHG?
detect IgG and/or C3b

man from jazan have ring stage of ( P.vivax ) with no symptoms, what’s
the reason to his not has symptoms ?Duffy blood group Fy (a- b-)

blood group type transfusion to aquaired B phenomenon? Group A

gene in Rh ? RHD & RHCE

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technique use to AB screening?

IAT

what Type of I Ag found in new born

i Ag

lewis antigen immunoglobulin type and relationship between it and HDN

? Lewis Ab are IgM in nature , not cause HDN

null Ag Lu ? Lu (a- b-)

substance use to store blood for 35 days ? CPD-A

Ag immunogenicity in arrangement after ABO and RH , which Ag ? Kell

which of the following is anti Lu ( a ) ? Lu (a- / b+)

a women came to donate she was in London between 1993 to 1994 , and
Italian between 1999 -2000 , and Australia from 2009 to 2015 , why we
should deferral ? Because it was in London between 1993 to 1994

someone come to donate PLT , and rejected , in diagnosis we find the

following: AbsHB -ve ,AbcHB +ve, AGsHB +ve Why rejected ? Active
HBV

older man with ABO grouping without any reaction all is ( -ve ) , what /
should do in
this case ? Check age , incubation time30 mints ,lower the temperature 4c
.for 15 mintes

how much RBCs storing with SAGMA?

42days

PLT separate done by?

a. Light spin , next heavy spin☑️
b. Heavy spin , next light spine
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SLLE 2022
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.Frozen RBC = 10 years -65'C

Temperature / length of days or times Platelet = 5 days 20-24 'C

Sugar for H antigens = L-fucose

H antigens by phenotype (highest to lowest concentration ‫؟‬

O>A2>B>A2B>A1>A1B

Which genotype is heterozygous for C? DCe/dce

What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual? = Anti-A, B, and H

A complete Rh typing for antigens C, c, D, E, and e revealed negative

results for C, Dand E.
How is the individual designated
A. Rh positive
B. Rh negative
C. Positive for c and e
D. Impossible to determine

Rh positive refers to the presence of D antigen; Rh negative refers to the

absence of the D antigen

Deferral period of donor visiting = 1 year

Which blood product is the most appropriate for preventing GVHD

Irradiated blood (RBCs)

Minimum HCT for autologous donation = 33%

.
If both parents are A blood group, what is the possible offspring blood
group=
Blood group A or O

Double dose (homozygous) expression of JK (a+) antigen =

( JK (a+b-
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SLLE 2022
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Most immunogenic blood group antigen after ABO antigens = D antigen

Chromosome of ABO genes location = Chromosome 9

.Chromosome of Rh genes location = Chromosome 1

.Define the directed donation = Donation for a specific recipient

Antibodies cause HDFN = Anti-D, anti-C, anti-E, anti-c, anti-e and

anti-K

One of applications of indirect antiglobulin test (IAT), indirect comb test

= Antibody screening, crossmatching

Type of antibodies causes transfusion reactions, significant or

insignificant = Clinically significant antibodies

Which antibodies are IgG = Anti-e, anti-P, anti-S, anti-s, anti-U, anti-K,
anti-JK(a,b

Suitable blood product for treat the von Willebrand disease =

Cryoprecipitate

Prolonged PT and APTT, and fibrinogen is 40 mg/dL, what is

the suitable blood product = FFP

Type of lewis Abs = Cold antibodies

HDN caused by = Anti-D, anti-K

Autosomal recessive = Two Copies of defected gene from both parents

should inherited

Patient with car accident need 4 units of blood but his blood group is
unknown?
Use O negative blood group (emergency)
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SLLE 2022
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Heterozygous Jk reaction?JK(a+b+)

Phenotypes = The morphology, properties of an organism

Genotype = Genetic makeup of organism (DNA) and hereditary

information

Patient have vWF deficiency, the suitable blood component is =

Cryoprecipitate

Missing epitopes of D antigen? = Partial D antigen

Polyspecific antihuman globulin (AHG) detect = IgG and C3 coated

RBCs

Monospecific AHG detect = Either IgG or C3

Patient blood group A2 with an anti-A1, the suitable unit (group) for him
= A2 or O

Patient with anti-E need blood = Same Rh phenotype (blood with no E

antigen

Heterozygous of lutherna (Lu)? = Lu (a+b+)

Homozygous for lutheran Lu (a)? = Lu (a+b-)

Duffy group antigens = Fy (a), Fy (b)

Ag of low incidence = Negative antibody screen, incompatible

.antiglobulin crossmatch

.years old with ABO discrepancy? = 88Weak antibody reaction

Patient have coagulation factors deficiency, suitable blood component =

FFP

Kell Antigen = K, k antigens

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SLLE 2022
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.Ag show dosage = C, c, E, e, Fya, Fyb, M, N, S, s, JKa, Jkb

.Patient cell + donor plasma = Minor cross matching

.Patient plasma + donor cells = Major cross matching

AB negative need FFP = AB negative

Null duffy = Fy(a-,b-)

Genotype of A blood group = A0 or AA

Patient with null kidd he has what Ab = Anti-Jk3

Blood group system destroyed by routine Blood bank enzymes

= Duffy (Fya, Fyb)

In the room temperature there is 2+ reaction but in 37C and AHG

phases there is no reaction what anti-body is suspected to present? = Cold
Ab

Acquired B found in = A

Ficin and papain enzymes inhibited which antibody = Duffy, M. N, S

Natural occurring Ab = anti-A, anti-B, anti-Cw, anti-M, and antibodies in

the Lewis and P system

group A genotype = A/A , A/o

Prevent malaria = Fy (a-, b-)

HDF may causes by = Anti K and anti D

null Kidd = Jk(a-b-)

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Jka = shows dosage

cause PCH = auto anti P

Liver disease, what do we give him = FFP

Fibrinogen deficiency, what do we give him = Cryoprecipitate

Mother and father have AB blood type and what is the baby’s blood type
= 25%A , 25%B , 50%AB

Father O, Mather AB, baby = 50% A,50%B

man from Jizan have ring stage of (P. vivax) with no symptoms, what’s
the reason to his not has symptoms
Duffy blood group (a- / b-)

yellow fever deferral from blood donation how many weeks = 2

anti Lu(a) = Lu (a-b+)

antigen receptor for malaria p. vivax = fy (a+, b+)

lack the Duffy Fya and Fyb antigens(fya-,fyb-) = are resistant to

invasion. p. vivax

What is the lowest percentage of values of hemoglobin for men who want
to donate=
13 g/dl

Antigen destroy by enzyme = Duffy fya,fyb

Intrauterine transfusion (IUT) = O negative RBCs

Used to determine the amount of a fetomaternal hemorrhage= Kleihauer-

Betke (KB)
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R2r = DcE/dce

Delivered AB+ baby needs exchange which blood is suitable = O-

AB- patient needed 4 units of blood and the technologist found only 3
AB- what other blood unit can be given to him? =A-, O- or B-

Which HLA antibody is the marker for Behçet's disease? =

HLA-B51

A donor came with pulse: 140bpm, blood pressure: 100/70mmhg, 37 C,

51 kg Whywas he deferred? = 140 bpm

which is a Kell ag = K,k, Kpa, Kpb

antibodies formed by bombay individuals = Anti-A, B and H

Which typing results are most likely to occur when a patient has an
acquired B antigen?
Anti-A 4+, anti-B 1+, A1 cells neg, B cells 4

What is the Fisher-Race genotype for a person with anti-c? DCE/dCe

Father O ,mather AB , baby = 50% A,50%B

November 17
Jk Null phenotype = anti Jk3 antibody.

AB- patient need platelet but there is no AB- negative donor, he should
Take = AB+ platelet

which of the following is anti Lu (a) = Lu a- / b+.

baby with HDNF, which blood transfusion to him = irradiated blood.

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R1r ? DCe / dce

Child with unknown ABO type needs FFB transfusion which of these
type of the choice = AB+.

R1r = DCe/dce

Kleihauer Betke =HNF Quantitative

heterozygous of lua = (Lua+lub+).

Kleihauer Betke test = pink cell baby, mother colorless

Null duffy: Fy(a-,b-)

Null kidd: Jk(a-,b-).

Differentiate between vWD and hemophilia A = Bleeding time (BT)

The color of anti A which is =blue.

The color of anti B which is = Yellow.

A positive direct Coomb's test may be caused by which of the following

= An autoantibody on red cells surface.

Commonly termed 'Universal Donor' and 'Universal Receiver' = O- : AB+

Before blood transfusion, should be done = Cross matching test.

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SLLE 2022
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A group B Rh-ve person can receive blood for the second time from =
Group O Rh-ve.

The most immunogenic blood group antigen after ABO antigens = D

Antigen.

Which of the following antibodies is responsible for HDFN = Anti-c

Which of the following is an application to the Indirect antiglobulin

(Coombs) Test Antibody Screening.

A 50-year-old woman admitted to hospital with severe haemorrhage

due to von Willebrand disease. The doctor requested a blood product to
be transfused to manage bleeding. Which of the following blood
products is the most appropriate for the treatment of this patient?
Cryoprecipitate

Which of the following is the correct sequence to be followed when

preparing a donors arm for blood collection = Select vein, apply
tourniquet, clean with PVP-iodine. Venipuncture

father wit BB blood group genotype , and mother with OO blood group
genotype , what is the must blood group for, son of them ? B

which of the following cause HDN ?

a-Duffy
b- Lewis
c-P
d- I

which of the following cause HDN ?

a-Duffy
b- Lewis
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SLLE 2022
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c-P
d- I

which test associated with HDN ?

a.DAT

b. IAT
cause of HDN ? Mother Rh -ve , baby Rh +veedited 14:55

we want to use blood bag , we take it from refrigerator, how much time
need to leave it in room temperature?
a-30 minutes
b- 40 minutes
c-1hour

patient with history has multiple Ab , which kind of blood bag use in this
case ? Blood bag with few Ab

which type of discrepancy affecting in forward ?

Type 2

aquaired B phenomenon associated with what ? Colon canceredited

The trait in Rh blood grouping is ? Codominant

lewis antibody is ? IgM , clinical not significant

why graft reject ? HLA incompatible

cross matching divided in how much type ? 2 ( major & minor )

the Hct when donation must be equal ?

At least 38%
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HDV + HBV infection called ? Superinfection

treat HDN by ?
.Rh-negative RBCs should be selected for the intrauterine transfusion.
.Less than 7 days old, To reduce the risk of hyperkalemia
.Irradiated to prevent GVHD.
.Leukoreduced unit.
.Negative for CMV (seronegative)
.Negative for Hb-S.

Someone expose to accident and came to emergency , crossmatch was

+ve , why ?Incompatibility

with weak – D , what we should use ? IAT

patient with DM , when he can donate? Permanent

how much you can donate in years ( PLT donate ) ? 24 times

autologous donate need Hct equal at least ? 33%
PLT storing temperature ? 20-24 C
TRALI attack what ? The donor's anti-leukocyte antibodies attack the
recipient's white blood cells

patient suffer from low immunity and we need to transfusion blood to

him , what we should do in this case and why Irradiation blood
because T – lymphocytes
null duffy

- Fy a- / fy b
anti body lead to HDNF ? Anti D
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kleihauer betke use to ? HFN Quantitative (Fetus pink – mother

colorless)

rossette appear ? Maternal RBCs is incubated with anti-D. Anti-D binds

to Rh-positive fetal RBCs, if present in the maternal circulation. D -
positive indicator cells are added that bind to the anti -D, forming a
rosette around the sensitized Rh-positive fetal RBCs.
DAT + Elution ? Neutralization
all forward and reverse was positive what we can do in this case ?Wash
with normal saline
the kind of PLT problem in bernard solier is ? Adhesion problem
R1R2 = ? DCe/ DcE
what’s the most important test for blood donor ? HIV – syphilis –
hepatitis- HTL

when transfusion blood to patient that take how much time

1 hour – 4 hours

donate start donation and after 5 minutes nurse know donate have
hemolytic anemia what should do in this case ? Stop donation

lowest H gene ? A1B

What most be reason to HDN ? Baby Rh + , mother Rh –

patient with superaspects when change bag of urine , and put 3rd bag ,
the patient have short breath and headache why ? Overload
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sample did it give as cold agglutination what’s the next ? Warm 37C ˑ

pregnancy women with Ab , how we can measure Ab that’s made it

against first baby To not attack second baby in this pregnan cy? Ab
titration

the most suitable way to give patient insulin ? Subcutaneous

baby with HDNF , which blood transfusion to him ? O

patient came to hospital need 4 units blood the blood group AB- , we
has 3 unit ABremain one unit , which blood group can complete the
remain ? A- , B –,O-

incompatibility definition? Incompatible blood grouping between the

patient and donor

Sudan donation with no problems , it was in saudi arabia last 2 years ,

what should to do ? Diagnosis and accept if not he hasn’t problem

R2R2 ? DcE / DcE

graft between different species? Xenograft
liver disease need to ? FFP
problem in fibrinogen , what’s need ? Cryptoprecepitate

definition of auto control ? patient rbc +patient serum (it should be

negative any positive result indicate the presence of an autoantibody )

minor cross match is ? Cells patient with donor serum

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baby O- , mother A- what’s the reason to baby suffer from HDN K

HDNF may cause because ? Anti K
ABO gruping detect by ? ABO grouping & study genotype

patient in emergency department with bleeding , he lost large amount

of blood and need to blood what we should give him ?
a-O- whole blood
b- O- packed RBCs

insulin donation ? Permanent deferral

time for separate PLT ? 6 hours

patient with multiple Ab need blood which will give him ? With few Ab

patient need FFP the group of patient not available, which will give him
? AB FFP

the temperature for cryptoprecipitate after thawing ? 1-6 C

blood bag remain out of refrigerator 30 minutes, what we should do in

this case ? Reject

period to deferral HBV vaccine ? 2 weeks

period to deferral donor take aspirin ? 2 days

period to deferral donor take para influenza vaccine? 2 weeks

thawed FFP ? 6 hours , 22-24 C

auto control positive in children patient, what you should do in this

case ? Repeat test

allo antibody what’s next step ? Ab identification

check cells ( O- ) use it as ? Control

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causes intravascular hemolysis?

a-AB donor to O recipient

b-O donor to A recipient

c -B donor to AB recipient.

what is phenotype?

A)observable expression of gene

B)immunoglobulin 5 classification

Patient with sever neutropenia , what is the suitable blood product ?

A)whole blood.

B) platelets.

C) granulocyte.

minunum hb donation? females must have a minimum hemoglobin

level of 12.5g/dL and males must have a minimum level of 13.0g/dL

check cells was -ve , what you should do in this case ? Repeat
autoantibody screen

Deferral period of donor visiting malaria area? 1 year

If both parents are A blood group, what is the possible offspring blood
group? 75%group A 25% group 0

Most immunogenic blood group antigen after ABO antigens? D antigen

Antibodies cause HDFN?

Anti-D, anti-C, anti-E, anti-c, anti-e and anti-K, check the table in blood
bank lecture
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One of applications of indirect antiglobulin test (AT), indirect comb

testp? Antibody screening, crossmatching

Type of antibodies causes transfusion reactions, significant or

Insignificant? Clinically significant antibodies

Which antibodies are IgG? Anti-e, anti-P, anti-5, anti-s, anti-U, anti-K,
anti-JK(a,b).

HIV, BBV, sickle cell anemia and sickle cell trait, for donation ? Sickle
trait

Cause false positive DAT? Clotted sample

Coomb control ? Coomb cells (RBCs coated wit IgG)

Kleihauer-betke test? Pink RBCs of fetus, colorless RBCs of mother

Exchange transfusion?

Patient with ABO antibodies, HDFN, remove bilirubin and maternal

Abs, (O negative blood group or AB plasma, negative for CMV, HbS
negative, leukocyte reduced, irradiated, less than 7-10 days)

Intrauterine transfusion (UT(‫؟‬

HDFN Rh-incompatibility (fetal anemia), using the umbilical vein by

high resolution sonography, to maintain Hb above 10 g/dl, performed
after 36 week, O Rh-negative.....same as exchange transfusion criteria

Type of Lewis Abs? Cold antibodies

CPD storage blood for? 14-21 days

CPDA for?35days

Patient with car accident need 4 units of blood but his unknown? Use a
negative blood group (emergency).
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Heterozygous Jk reaction? JK(a+b+.

Genotype? Genetic makeup of organism (DNA) and hereditary

information.

Missing epitopes of D antigen? Partial D antigen.

Patient blood group A2 with an anti-A1, the suitable unit (group) for
him?A2 or 0.

Heterozygous of lutherna (Lu)? Lu (a+b+).

Homozygous for lutheran Lu (a)? Lu (a+b-).

Duffy group antigens? Fy (a), Fy (b).

Mother O blood group, father A blood group, the child expression?

Codominant

Ag of low incidence? Negative antibody screen, incompatible

antiglobulin crossmatch.

88 years old with ABO discrepancy? Weak antibody reaction.

Kell Antigens? K, k antigens.

Ag show dosage? C, C, E, e, Fya, Fyb, M, N, S, s, JKa, jkb.

Sample show cold agglutination? Warm at 37 C and rerun.

How to solve rouleaux formation problem? Saline replacement

technique.

Ficin and papain enzymes inhibited which antibody? Duffy, M. N, S.

Neutrophil (granulocyte) stored at? RT (20-24) without agitation.

Mother O-ve, baby A-ve? Anti-A from mother, HDN due to ABO
incompatibility.
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Father is A, mother is O and baby blood group is O, the father is?

Heterozygous.

Nigerian nurse live in Saudi Arabia for 2 years, can she donate blood?
Can donate after 1 year. Note: deferral for 3 years after departure from
malaria-endemic countries.

How often can Autologous transfused blood be drawn? One week

apart.

Bone marrow transplantation? Irradiated RBCS

Which of the following considered as indirect antigen? A

Positive crossmatch mean? Incompatibility.

One came for donation, and he want a money for that? Reject.

Weak D antigen needs? IAT.

One came for donation all examination was normal except high blood
pressure? Reject.

Hematology
hemophilia C is deficiency in which factor ? Factor XI
spleen function is ?
fights invading germs in the blood (the spleen contains infection -
fighting white blood cells) it controls the level of blood cells (white
blood cells, red blood cells and platelets) it filters the blood and
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removes any old or damaged red blood cells

Philadelphia chromosome + ve , patient had which disease ? CML
patient with high HbA2 ? B thalassemia Minor
patient with high HbF ? B thalassemia Major

multiple myeloma indicator ? Bence jones protein

what’s the WBCs react in allergy case ? Eosinophils
Reticlucyte stain ? by supra-vital staining (such as new methylene blue,
Brilliant Cresyl Blue)

in IDA what we see ?

Low IRON , high RDW % , low MCV , low HB , low ferritin , highTIBC
target cells seen in ?
Thalassemia
hypersigmentied seen in ? Megaloblastic anemia or vit B12 deficiency
marocytic example ? In vit B12 deficiency
CD marker stem cells ? CD34
how we can differentiate between hemophilia A and B ? factor assay
blast cells percentage in AML ? Blasts > 30% in FAB , >20 % in WHO

pencil cells seen in ? IDA

JAK 2 mutation , during in ? Polycythaemia vera

why we should do mixing after take blood ?

To avoid clot
type of Hb in new born ? HbF
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arrangements of tube in laboratory ? Culture tube - Blue – red – green –

Lavender -gray
CD marker for CLL ? CD : 5 – 19 – 23
protien defictive in hereditary eliptotocytosis is ? Spectrin

decrease PLT – RBC – WBCs description as ? Pancytopenia

increase MCHC found in ? Rouleax and spherocytosis
heinze body consist of ? Hb denatured
patient with normal MCV , MCH , and decrease in MCHC Normocytic
hypochromic
APTT prolonged and with mixing study FX corrected by FX plasma but
FVIII not corrected , what’s the factor is deficiency here ? Factor 8 VIII

Vit K antagonist? Warfarin

called extrinsic pathway ? PT
rod like crystals shape in blood picture? HB C
how we can differentiate between Hb SS and Hb AS ? By
electrophoresis
HB S patient , normal indices with no in hereditary HB diseases in
family , what to do next ? Blood film , soulbility test , HB
electrophoresis

definition od MCV ? Mean corpuscular volume measure the size and

volume of RBCs
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APTT and PT prolonged which factor responds about that ? Factor 1

(common pathway
what’s the predominant WBC ? Neutrophile
MCV not affected by what ? Hb
heniz body seen in ? G6PD
pappeinheimer body seen in ? Pappenheimer bodies are seen in
certain types of anemia that are characterized by an increase in the
storage of iron, such as sideroblastic anemia and thalassemia. These
inclusions are also seen in the peripheral blood following a
splenectomy.

immunopheotyping flow cytometry detection for what ? presence or

absence of white blood cell (WBC) markers called antigens.

what’s the reason to wrong result decrease in ESR test?

a-Delayed sample

b- Wrong tube position (like Tube tilted (not vertical position)

c-Hemolysis sample

clotted sample lead to what in test ?

a-False increase
b- False decrease

in sickle cell anemia patient what’s the type of hemoglobin will see ?
HB S
which factor activated by thrombin ? Factor I

APTT , TT , PT ,prolonged , which factor response about that ?

a-8
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b- 7
c-2
d- 12

patient with prolonged PT , APTT . TT , LOW PLT , LOW HB , what we

will see in this case ? DIC

CML associated with what ? Hypersegmented neutrophils

normal MCV , MCH , HB ? Normocytic normochromic

bite cells found in ? G6PD

baby with sickle cell anemia, the sign and symptoms not appear early ,
why? Because HB S not appear in baby less than 6 month age (HB F is
most appendant)

which of the following is intravascular hemolysis? Acute hemolytic

transfusion

basophils stippling is ? RNA

patient with leukemia , lab finding tdt +ve , Philadelphia chromosome ?

CML

Cd marker of plasma is ? CD+45,CD +38

LAP test high in ? Lukomid reaction

owel eye seen in ? H odgkin lymphoma

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how differentiate between leukemia types ? Flow cytometry

low PLT called ? Thrombocytopenia

when we see increase in retyclocytes ? Acute blood loss
autosomal dominant inherited disorders ? X – XI – XII –XIII
factor with shorter shift life ? VII

which factor initiate coagulation pathway ? TF ( tissue factor )

alplastic anemia morphology ? Normocytic normochromic

sideroblastic anemia morphology ? Microcytic hypochromic

convert prothrombin to thrombin by Factor ? X

stain for iron in RBCs ? Prussian blue stain

leukemia come from ? Bone marrow
which thalassemia in Hb A2 high ? Minor

thrombocytopenia?
a-Heparin assay
b-PLT assay

low Hb low PLT and picture with ruptured cells ? HUS

hairy cells is marker to ? Leukemia

Holly Joly body is ? DNA

which of the following is contact factor ?

a-X
b- VII
c-VIII
d- XII
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normal HB and normal MCV in CBC ? Normocytic normochromic

how we can monitoring heparin ? BY APTT

ectopy for stomach lead to ? Decrease vit B12

INI use with ? PT ( extrinsic pathway )
deficiency in XIII factor affects in ? Wound healing
psudothromboctopenia because what ? Use EDTA tube
vWF function is ? it acts as a bridging molecule at sites of vascular
injury for normal platelet adhesion, and under high shear conditions, it
promotes platelet aggregation
vit K dependent factors ? 1972 ( I , IX , VII , II )
test to detect cell mediate immunity? Flowcytometry
T cell marker ? CD 2 , CD 3 , CD4 , CD 7 , CD 8
B cell marker? CD 19,21,22
which of the following is stain use for amyloid ? Congo red
thrombosis is ? Increase PLt
which method or device can use it to differentiate between factor 8
and 9 , another Factor assay ? Flow cytometry

howly jolly body form in ? Splenomegaly

bleeding with normal PT and APTT , because what ? XIII Factor

factor affected by thrombin ? X – V – Ca – Pa

stem cells CD marker is ? CD 34

stain use for blood smear ? Romanwsky stain

source of B lymphocyte is ? Bone marrow

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howly jolly body form in Hemolytic anemia, splenectomy,

megaloblastic anemia.

platelet Satelitism occur when ? Collect blood on EDTA tube > pseudo
thrombocytopenia

haptoglobin normal and increase rate of reticulocytosis?

a-Aplastic anemia.

b- pernicious anemia.

c- extravascularhemolysis

d- sickle cell anemia

tear drop cells seen in?

a-multiple myeloma

b-primary myelofibrosis

all of the following are HCL marker except ?

A)11

B) 25

C) 5

D) 103

Pseudo Thrombocytopenia leard to?

A)low platelets count and increase WBCs count

B) low platelets count and increase HB

C) low platelets count and high RBCs count

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Case: patient who is a vegetarian had fatigue. Blood smear showed

ovalocytes and target cells. What should be seen in blood smear?
hypersegmented neutrophil

Anisocytosis variation ?in size

patient with low folic acid and high MCV , what you guess will see ?
HyperSegmented neutrophils

which factor that’s convert fibrinogen to fibrin ? Thrombin ( 2 )

A patient came after a week of her appendicitis surgery and the wound
hasn’t healed and it’s still bleeding. What is the causative factor ? XIII

Baby hemoglobin type on 7th month? Hb A

PLT aggregat ? use sodium citrate tube

-PT and PTT prolonged why ? Deficiency of common pathway factors

fibrinogen, prothrombin, factors V or X, or multiple factor deficiencies

Increase ESR? Leukemia

in normal bone marrow blast ?1-5%

Auer rods found in which type of leukemia? Acute

myeloid leukemia (AML).

Test used for differentiation between factor deficiency

and factor inhibitor? Mixing studies.
Test used to differentiate von Willebrand disease from
hemophilia? Bleeding time
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Peripheral smear shows rouleaux formation, caused by?

Multiple myeloma (MM).
Type of G6PD anemia? Hemolytic anemia.
The part in reticulocyte that stained with new
methylene blue is? - RNA.
Mutation in CML? t(9:22).
Lab finding of TTP? Low PLTS count.
Neurological findings may be commonly associated with
which of the following disorders?TTP.

Hb-electrophoresis shows normal HbA and high HbA2?

Thalassemia minor.

Stain for reticulocytes count? Supravital stain (new

methylene blue).
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Best test for IDA? Ferritin.

Cause low ESR?Low fibrinogen.
Result in factor X deficiency?Prolonged PT & APTT.
Factor not measured by PT & APTT? Factor XIII.
Prolonged PT, given IV vitamin K, the PT corrects to
normal after 24 hrs?Obstructive jaundice.
A prolonged APTT is corrected with factor VIII deficient
plasma but not with factor IX deficient plasma, the
deficiency factor is?Factor IX.
PT: prolonged, APTT: prolonged, low PLTS count? DIC.
Factor XII deficiency associated with? Increased risk of
thrombosis.
Protein of primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system
(plasmin)? Alpha 2-antiplasmin.
Plasminogen deficiency associated with? Thrombosis.

After birth baby develops petechiae and pupura and

hemorrhagic, PLTS count was 18 x 109/L
diagnosis?Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia.
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Normal PT and prolonged APTT, increased bleeding time

and normal platelet count, with abnormal platelet
aggregation to ristocetin?Von Willebrand disease.
Which ration of anticoagulant to blood is correct for
coagulation procedures?1:9.
Function of vitamin K in coagulation?
Required for carboxylation of glutamate residues of
some coagulation factors.
The APTT is sensitive to deficiency of: VII, X, PF3 or
calcium? Factor X.
Test for heparin monitoring? APTT.
Anticoagulant in PT?Warfarin.
INR for? PT.
Define MCV?Measure of average volume of RBC.
Heinz bodies seen in? G6PD anemia, and it is a
denatured Hb.

Hemophilia A caused by? Deficiency of factor VIII.

Life span of RBCs? 120 days.
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Reed Sternberg cell found in?Hodgkin lymphoma.

Bence jonse protein found in? Multiple myeloma.
Concentration of Na citrate for coagulation studies?
3.2%.
Device used to obtain sediments?Centrifuge.
Nucleated RBCs found in?
Hemolytic anemia ad megaloblastic anemia.
Anemia with thrombocytopenia?
Megaloblastic anemia and aplastic anemia.
Maturation of B lymphocyte? In bone marrow.
Maturation of T lymphocyte? in thymus gland.
How to differentiate HbSS from HbAS? By Hb-
electrophoresis.
Autosomal recessive? Two Copies of defected gene from
both parents should inherited.

Normal Hb and normal MCV? Normocytic

normochromic RBCs
Protein S is cofactor for?Protein C.
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Differentiate fibrinogenolysis from DIC?D-dimer

positive.
Method for leukemia diagnosis?
Flow cytometry, bone marrow aspiration and biopsy,
cytogenetics (FISH, PCR), immunohistochemistry, CBC,
blood films, MRI.
Unfractionated heparin controlled by? APTT.
Iron deficiency anemia features?
Microcytosis (microcytic hypochromic anemia).
.X-linked diseases?
Hemophilia A (factor VIll deficiency). Hemophilia B
(factor IX deficiency
Note!! Hemophilia C is autosomal recessive (factor XI
deficiency).
Predominant WBCs? Neutrophil

VB12 deficiency anemia? Megaloblastic anemia.

Hypersegmented neutrophil seen in? Megaloblastic
anemia.
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Test for differentiate between alpha and beta

thalassemia? Hb-electrophoresis
Coagulation studies tube? Sodium citrate (Na citrate).
Value of MCV in macrocytic anemia?High.
Beta thalassemia major which elevated Hb? HbF.
Abnormal hemoglobin in alpha thalassemia? Hb Bart, Hb
H.
Sickle solubility test depend on?HbS.
Reticulocytosis seen in?
Hemolytic anemia, hemorrhage, blood loss, leukemia,
sickle cell anemia, autimmunehemolytic anemia,
treatment of vit. B12, IDA, folate deficiency.
Anisocytosis?High RDW.
tdt marker?Marker of immaturity (B & T cells).
Type of leukemia associated with basophilia? CML
Contact coagulation factor? XII, PK, HMWK
Glanzmann disease?Defect in platelets aggregation.
CLL marker? CD5, CD19, CD23.
Bernard souller syndrome? Presence of giant platelets.
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Parameter use for measuring the erythropoiesis?

Reticulocyte
Lupus anticoagulant associated with?Prolonged APTT.
3 alpha gene are missing?Hb-H disease.
Sickle cell anemia substitution?A to T.
Correct about PT? Stable for 24 h if capped.
Which of the following initiates in vivo coagulation by
activation of factor VII? Tissue factor.
Which of the following clotting factors plays a role in
clot formation in vitro, but not in vivo(in vitro clot
formation and not in vivo coagulation)? XIla.
What reagents are used in the PT test?Thromboplastin
and calcium.
A modification of which procedure can be used to
measure fibrinogen?Thrombin time.
Which of the following clotting factors are measured by
the APTT test?XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I
Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a
vitamin K-deficient patient?
A. PT only
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b. PT and APTT
c. fibrinogen level
d. thrombin time
Which of the following is correct regarding the
international normalized ratio (INR)?it standardizes PT
results
Which of the following is referred to as an endogenous
activator of plasminogen?Tissue plasminogen activator.
A protein that plays a role in both coagulation and
platelet aggregation is?Factor 1.
Which of the following clotting factors are activated by
thrombin that is generated by tissue pathway (TF-
Vila)?V. VIII.
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is
characterized by?
a. prolonged PT
b. increased plt aggregation
c. thrombocytosis
d. prolonged APTT
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Normal platelet adhesion depends upon? Glycoprotein

lb.
Which of the following test results is normal in a patient
with classic von Willebrand's disease?
a. bleeding time
b. activated partial thromboplastin time
c. platelet count
d. factor VIII:C and von Willebrand's factor (VWF) levels
Bernard-Soulier syndrome is associated with?
Thrombocytopenia and giant platelets.
Which set of platelet responses would be most likely
associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia?
Normal platelet aggregation to ristocetin; decreased
aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine.
TTP differs from DIC in that?
APTT is normal in TTP but prolonged in DIC.
Refer to the following results: PT = prolonged APTT =
prolonged, Platelet count = decreased. Which disorder
may be indicated?
DIC
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The following results were obtained on a patient:

normal platelet count and function, normal PT, and
prolonged APTT. Which of the following disorders is
most consistent with these results? Hemophilia A.
The following laboratory results were obtained from a
40-year-old woman: PT = 20 sec; APTT = 50 sec;
thrombin time = 18 sec. What is the most probable
diagnosis?Hypofibrinogenemia.
The most suitable product for treatment of factor VIII
deficiency is?Factor VIII concentrate.
Which of the following is associated with an abnormal
platelet aggregation test? Afibrinogenemia.

Refer to the following results: PT = normal APTT =

prolonged, Bleeding time= increased, Platelet count =
normal Platelet aggregation to ristocetin abnormal
Which of the following disorders may be indicated? von
Willebrand's disease.
Which results are associated with hemophilia A?
Prolonged APTT, normal PT.
Patient History A 3-year-old male was admitted to a
hospital with scattered petechiae and epistaxis. The
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patient had normal growth and had no other medical

problems except for chickenpox 3 weeks earlier. His
family history was unremarkable. PT: 11 sec, PTT: 32 sec,
platelets count: 18x10/Ml
These clinical manifestations and laboratory results are
consistent with which condition?
A. TTP
B. DIC
C. ITP
D. HUS.
567. A 62-year-old female presents with jaundice and
the following laboratory data: Peripheral blood smear:
macrocytosis, target cells, Platelet count: 355 x 109/L
PT: 25 sec (reference range =10-14) APTT: 65 sec
(reference range = 28 36) Transaminases: elevated
(AST:ALT>1) Total and direct bilirubin: elevated. These
clinical presentations and laboratory results are
consistent with?
A. Inherited factor VII deficiency
B. DIC
C. Cirrhosis of the liver
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D. von Willebrand's disease

Which of the following clotting factors are measured by
the APTT test?
I, VII, IX, X
XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II,I
XII, VII, X, V, II, I
Normal platelets count and function, normal PT,
prolonged APTT, which of the following disorders is the
correct answer?Hemophilia A.
Overfilled Citrate tube for coagulation? Request a new
sample.
Aplastic anemia?Normocytic/normochromic anemia.
Vitamin K antagonist?
Warfarin/coumadin.
Rod like crystal in RBC?
HbC crystal,
Differentiation between HbSS (diseased) and HbAS
(trait)?
By Hb-electrophoresis.
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Gastrectomy leads to?

Vitamin B12 deficiency.
Thrombosis?
Blood clot.
Acquired coagulation disorder?
VIII deficiency
IX deficiency
VWF deficiency
Vitamin K deficiency
Organ produce erythropoietin? Kidney
increase osmatic fragility in ?hereditary spherocytosis
cell
RBC life span ?120 days .
Lavender tube? EDTA
Reticulocyte elevated in ? Hemolytic Anemia
Symptom of G6PD ? Favism.
Hematocrit are measures of red cell mass
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The most common form of leukemia in children ? acute

lymphoblastic leukemia
Leukocytosis characterized by the presence of immature
cells and high neutrophil alkalineb phosphatase ?
Leukemoid reaction
A disease characterized by progressive neoplastic
proliferation of immature white cell precursor ? acute
leukemia.
Some patient’s platelets clump in EDTA, or satellite,
making platelet counts falsely low. How should this be
correct?
A. Mix the sample
B. Warm the sample
C. Do manual count

D. Use sodium citrate tub

Save period of blood film in lab ?7 days.
The morphological classification of anemias is based on
which of the following?RBC indices
type of leukemia in more 40 years ?CML
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Forward light scatter in flow cytometry? Size and

volume.
qualitative test for sickle cell ? Solubility test.
type of Anemia (Shift to left) ? Iron deficiency anemia
Christmas disease ?factor lX
Icetric sample affect which result? MCH
Case study: a person with a bacterial infection, how is it
diagnosed ? increased WBC
evaluate the internal structures ?side scatter of the laser
beam.

Clinical Chemistry
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ammonia high in ? Liver disease

patient with history of alcoholism high liver enzyme diagnosis of this case is Liver
cirrhosis

what’s the source of insulin ?

Pancreas

what’s the source of cholesterol ? Steroid

what will give us false increase after heavy meal in triglycerides?

a-LDL
b-HDL
c-chylomicon
d- VLDL

patient have shortness of breath , fatigue , swallow in arms , which test must be
use ?

a-troponin
b-myoglobin
c-BNP

production of nucleic acid break down ? Uric acid

protein synthesis in ? Ribosome

Acetyl co A react with ? oxaloacetate

patient with 7.3 Ph – normal PCO2 – high HCO3 ? Metabolic alkalosis

ACTH function ? stimulate the the release of cortisoL

NA+ Low , what you can write in the result ? Hyponatremia

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random diabetes test was high with ketoacidosis what’s the disease in this case ?
DM type 1

what type of tube use with HbA1C test ? EDTA

gamma high - and albumin is low in electrophoresis what’s the result ?

Monolonal gammopathy seen in multiple myeloma

lactate is metabolized by liver via ? Gluconeogenesis (lactate transported to the

liver which then converted to glucose)

high ALT , high AST , what must seen with this result ? Liver disease

what we use to diagnose hepatic disease ? AST – ALT

BUN equal 2.14

TSH high , what we will seen ? T3 – T4 decrease

hypothyroidism (T3 and T4 low , TSH high) Symptoms include fatigue,weight gain
,cold intolerance) The most common cause is Hashiomto thyroiditis)

TSH low , what we will seen ? T3 – T4 increase

hyperthyroidism(TSH low, T3 and T4 high) Symptoms include weight loss, heat
intolerance , hair loss ,tachycardia and tumor) The most common cause is Graves
disease)

mainly electrolytes ? Cl- , HCO3 , NA+ , K+

electrolyte cation mainly extra cellular ? NA +

electrolyte cation mainly inside cellular ? K+

what’s biomarker is useful use to breast cancer ? CA15-3,HER2,ER,PR

congestive heart failure ? Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) test

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patient result in electrophoresis was decrease in albumin – Alpha 1 – gamma , and

Alpha 2 was increased , what’s the case here ? Nephrotic syndrome

patient with Beta and gamma bridge , in electrophoresis, what’s the case here ?
Liver chirosis

women has moon face and increase in cortisol , what’s we will see also ? Cushing
syndrome

what’s the test use to GFR ? Creatinine clearance

increase lipase & amylase and CRP +ve , what’s the case ? Acute or chronic
pancreatitis

hepatocellular carcinoma marker is ? AFP

hepatic coma can cause because what ? Ammonia

regulate acid-base by ? kidneys and lungs.

hereditary fructose intolerance (HFI) is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by

the deficiency in aldolase

patient come to hospital , after diagnosis we found high level of cortisol what
descriptions of this case ? Hypercortolism

which urine sample suitable with multiple myeloma disease to detect bence jones
protein ? First morning

patient come to hospital and after diagnosed him we found elevated in uric acid
and glucose , what’s the diseases may found in this case ? DM and gout

in long fast what process will be act ? Gluconeogensisedited

why use soudium flouride tube with glucose ? Because it inhibit glycolysis
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in phenylketonuria ( PKU ) case what we will see in urine? phenylalanine

accumulates and is converted into phenylp yruvate (also known as phenylketone),
which can be detected in the urine .edited

man drink alcohol a lot which test use in chemistry lab to this case ? GGT

patient came to hospital without symptoms, just he has hard to breath , the doctor
guess he may has AMI , what’s the enzyme use in this case to find the problem? Ck-
MB
the percentage in soudium citrate ?

9/1 –% 3.2

lavender tube is ? EDTA

gluconeogensis definition? formation of glucose 6 phosphate from

noncarbohydrate sources

glycated hemoglobin? Measure Glucose attached to hemoglobin ( 12 weeks

hyponatremia associated with ? Addison disease
marker of ovarian and endometrial cancers ? CA125
women have pain in in the right side under stomach, lab finding elevated bilirubin,
high AST and ALT , what’s most probably ? Hepatocellular damage
which enzymes responsible for regulating gluconeogensis and glycolysis ?

a-Pyruvate kinase
b- pyruvate carboxylate
which organ glucose demented as fuel ? Brain
patient with ketosis what most probably see here ? a-Hypokalemia
b- Hypertension
c-Low ph
ketone bodies see in ?
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a-Metabolic acidosis
b- Respiratory acidosis
c-Metabolic alkalosis
d- Respiratory alkalosis
BNP lead to what ? Heart failure

osmolality test affected by ? sodium, chloride, bicarbonate, proteins, and sugar

(glucose)

mg decrease cause ? muscle spasms and tremors, Adisson

patient result indicate to ( hypernatremia and hypokalemia ) , what we will see in
this case ? Hyperaldosteronism
the iron move by ? Transferrin

coronary heart disease associated with ? LDL

adrenal cortex hormone associated with ? ACTH

gland in the brain ? Pituitary gland

man do exercise to 6 hours what most probably in his result ? CK

man with enlarged breast and testes , what’s the rapid test can use here ? Hcg
how we can differentiate between DM type 1 and DM type 2 ? C peptide test
man came to hospital he suffer from short breath and hand swelling, high blood
pressure , what we will use ?
a-Myoglobin
b. Troponin
c. BNP
d. Arterial blood gases
high TSH and low T4 seen in ? Hypothyroidism

the master of gland called that because it response about secret most hormones ?
Anterior pituitary
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patient with high bilirubin , crystals in urine , amber urine color , leucine , which
probably disease we will see here ? Liver disease
stain use with DNA ? Ethidium bromide

first drawing tube ? Blood culture ,Soudium citrate

lipemia sample effective in
a-Spectrophotometer
b-Chromatography
what will seen in Gilbert syndrom ? High unconiugated ( indirect ) bilirubin
Patient with high ALP , what also use to confirm the bone problems ? GGT
what’s the function of vasopressin ? Control water reabsorption
thyroid gland carcinoma marker is ? calcitonin
serology tube is ? Plain tube
ammonia go to liver as ? Glutamine
keto amino acid ? Leucine
creatinine clearance suitable sample ? 24 urine
hormone cotrol potassium, chloride, soudium ? Aldosterone
creamy layer on sample , what’s the reason ? Chylomicrons
patient with low potassium, what’s the correct interpretation? Hypokalemia

patient eat meal before Chemistry test , that will lead to false increase in what
type of lipids ?
A-Triglyceride
b- LDL
c. HDL
prolactin hormone higher than 200 marker to ? One common cause of
hyperprolactinemia is a tumor on the pituitary gland called a prolactinoma
which of the following is the faster in cross adipose tissue ?
a-Amino acid
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b- Protein
hepatic obstructive cause by ? Post hepatic
CK -MB use for ? Cardiac

ectopy for stomach lead to ? Decrease vit B12

what use to diagnosis prostatic cancer ? PSA

most electrolyte in human body is ? NA cl k HCO3

cystic fibrosis mutation gene ? CFTR

CA 125 marker for ? Oviran

patient has nothing to eat just water and he has headache why ? Dehydration

glucagon hormone secreted by ? Pancreas alpha cells

release fo nucleic acid break it ? Uric acid

thyroid gland cancer marker ? Calcitonin

phenylketonuria what seen ? Low lucine , low tyrosine

reference method of glucose is ? Hexokinase

lipemic sample effect in ? HB

type of bilirubin increase in hemolytic anemia ? un- conjugated

which of the following in chemistry lab photosensitive ? Bilirubin

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SLLE 2022
:Rose_lab

enzyme affected by hemolysis ? AST

jaffer reaction method is ? Coulometric method

employee it was in place with chemical substance , he has symptoms after few
hour , what he should does ? Go to emergency

natural lipid?

a-steroid

b- LDL

c-triglycerides

anticoagulant used in calcium analysis?

A)EDTA.

B) Citrate

C) heparin.

d) fluoride

what you will fond in urine sample with willson’s disease ? High copper

acromegaly cause is ? Growth hormone

what see with High sodium Low potassium ? Hyperaldosteronism

Control water reabsorption? ADH Or Vasopressin

Type of bilirubin increase in hemolytic anemia? Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin.

Glycated Hb (hemoglobin) test what? HbA1c (average of glucose in 2-3 months).

In Jaffe reaction the creatinine reacts with? Picric acid in alkaline media.

Tumor marker use for? Cancer monitoring.

Patient with 3 days vomiting, with a distinctive smell of breathing (like nail
polish)? Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
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SLLE 2022
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Chemical strip of urinalysis shows positive bilirubin and decreased urobilinogen,

what is the diag sis? Billary obstruction (post-hepatic jaundice).

Non pathological condition shows a high blood albumin level ? Dehydration

If the blood tube left for 5 hours what test not affected ? Uric acid.

Specific enzyme elevated in biliary obstruction ? GGT.

Patient with chest pain, suspected to have Acute myocardial infarction, the
confirmatory test? Troponin T.

Special test for evaluation the congenital hypothyroidism? TSH.

Tumor marker for colon cancer? Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).

Specific enzyme for hepatobiliary diseases? Alkaline phosphatase (ALP).

Specific enzyme for acute pancreatitis? Lipase.

A protein electrophoresis, all fractions are normal except Gamma fraction is

elevated, what is the diagnosis? Monoclonal gammopathy.

One patient with high level of ADH, what is the common finding? Hyponatremia.

Clinical condition associated with autoantibodies against thyroglobulin and

thyroid peroxidase? Hashimotos thyroiditis.

High sugar with normal insulin? Insulin Independent diabetes mellitus

Endocrine disorder, patient gain weight, cold intolerance ? Hashimoto's thyroiditis.

Endocrine disorder, in which the patient loss his weight, heat intolerance? Graves
disease.

This is the only lipoprotein synthesized and secreted in intestine ? Chylomicron.

High lipase and amylase?Pancreatitis

If creatinine is 5.9 (critical)!!! Call physician.

Normal fasting blood sugar, and high 2-hour postprandial glucose? Isolated
postprandial hyperglycemia, type 2 diabetes Mellitus, cardiovascular risk.
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Osmolality of urine depend on? Na+ specific gravity.

Phenylketonuria? Lack of phenylalanine hydroxylase.

Niacin (nicotinic acid/vitamin B3) and tryptophan deficiency cause? Pellagra.

Cushing syndrome? High cortisol, Hyperaldosteronism, high ACTH.

Hypoalbuminemia caused by? Acute or chronic inflammation, nephrotic syndrome,

liver cirrhosis, heart failure, malnutrition, allergy.

Hypercalcemia? Hyperparathyroidism.

Calculate LDL? LDL= total cholesterol - HDL-TG/S

Enzyme responsible of glycolysis? Pyruvate kinase.

Enzyme affects with alcohol? GGT.

Hormone control the adrenal gland? Астна - ACTH

Enzyme of obstructive jaundice? ALP.

Plasma vs serum? Plasma contain fibrinogen.

growth hormone in children? Gigantism.

High growth hormone in adult? Acromegaly.

High CA 19-9 and high lipase and amylase? Pancreatic cancer.

Calculate BUN? Urea/2.14

Familial hyper cholesterolemia? High LDL

Lipid affected by meal? Triglycerides

Enzyme specific for osteoporosis? Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

High urea, creatinine and ammonia, due to consuming of? High protein.

Hormone increase glucose? Cortisol, glucagon, epinephrine, 73, 74, ACTH, growth
hormone

Beta cell of pancreas secretes? insulin.

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SLLE 2022
:Rose_lab

Alpha cell of pancreas secrets? Glucagon

Organ produces erythropoietin? Kidney.

Hormone responsible of Na, K, water reabsorption and excretion of K. H?

Aldosterone.

High liver enzyme, GGT? Cholestasis.

High ALP? Seen in Paget disease.

Polyuria, weight loss, high glucose? DM.

The normal highest electrolyte? Sodium (Na 135-145).

High prolactin cause? Infertility.

Medium for electrophoresis? Agarose gel.

Corticosteroid hormone? Cortisol.

Positive CEA? Carcinomas of the colorectal (colonk pancreas, breast and stomach

High thyroid hormone? Hyperthyroidism.

The most nitrogenous product? BUN, urea.

What found in nephrotic syndrome? Proteinuria.

Catabolism and anabolism? Citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle).

Quantification of electrolytes? lon selective electrode (ISE).

Marker for alcoholic liver disease? GGT

Gray patches around the cornea? High cholesterol (familial hyperchlosterolemia).

Type of bilirubin elevated in obstructive jaundice? Direct bilirubin.

Atherosclerosis is due to? High LDL

Rickets is caused by? Vitamin D deficiency.

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SLLE 2022
:Rose_lab

Moon face or buffalo hump? Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome).

Genetic breast cancer? BRCA 1, 2 and HER2.

Calculate the CK-MB index? CK-MB/CK x 100

Unit for reporting enzymes? Activity unit.

Patient with ketone bodies and coma? Ketoacidosis

Hormone of adrenal cortex stimulated by? ACTH to produce cortisol, aldosterone,

DHEA

Hepatocellular disease confirmed by?ALT.

Which O the following not related to liver enzymes? Ck

Increase in which electrolyte will leads to cardiac arrest? Hyperkalemia (K).

An elevated AST, ALT, to exclude alcoholic cirrhosis? Test GGT

ormal range of GFR? 60-120mL/min.

Fine needle aspiration (FNA) for thyroid gland study? Follicle cells

Measure the amount of the chloride in sweat? Cystic fibrosis.

Breast cancer prognosis? ER/PR.

Breast cancer, ER? By IHC.

Male with enlarged breast? High beta-HCG.

Liver cirrhosis? Alcoholism.

Patient with given orange juice and become well? Hypoglycemic patient, orange
juice will result in high glucose.

Postprandial lipemia (increase triglyceride)? High chylomicrons give false increased

result.

Epinephrine secreted from? Adrenal gland (kidney)

Cross the adipose tissue? Fatty acid.

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SLLE 2022
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DM patient with malnutrition? Celiac antibody test.

Heavy metal measured by? Atomic absorption spectroscopy

Long shelf-life enzyme? Lipase

Microbiology

bacteria appear on the blood agar like swarming ? Protues

oxidase positive bacteria? Pseudomonas, Campylobacter, Vibrio, Helicobacter

pylori

Maconkey agar used to ? Gram negative bacilli

gram -ve diplococci in CSF ? N.meningitis

salmonella in the stool , what type of WBCs will be present in stool ? Neutrophils

salmonella and shegella on EMB agar ? Colorless

differentiate test between S.pyogens and other streptococcus ? Bactercin sensitive

antibiotics agar ? Thyer martin agar

catalase +ve , motility +ve ? Listeria monocytogenes

bacteria motile cause diharrhea ? Salmonella

caused by treponema pallidium? Shyphilis

bacteria give beta hemolysis on blood agar ? Staylococcous aures

Why MacConkey agar is called selective media?

MacConkey Agar Is Selective for Non-fastidious Gram-negative Organisms.
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SLLE 2022
:Rose_lab

why mucoid appear on agar ? Because capsules

bacteria motile by what ? Flagella

the most bacteria cause toxic ? C.penfengers

what’s the color of gram negative bacteria after stain it ? Red color

crystal violet stain gram positive bacteria and give violet color why Because stain
peptidoglycan layer (Gram-positive bacteria have thick peptidoglycan in their cell
wall)

neonatal meningitis can cause by ? bacterial infection of birth canal (The most
common causes of neonatal bacterial meningitis are group B streptococcus, E. coli,
and L. monocytogenes.)

which bacteria give alpha hemolytic on Blood agar ? S.pneumonia & S.viridance

bacteria infect human from rice ? Bacillus cereus

persistent cough found in ? Bordetella pertusis

urea breath test using with bacteria to detect it what’s this bacteria ? H.pylori

RPR test use with what as sensitive test ? Laprosy – syphilisedited

torch test ? T= Toxoplasma O= other infection like (HIV , chicken pox , chlamydia ,
HTLV , syphilis, coxsackievirus) R= rubella C= cytomegalovirus H= herpes simplex
virus
bacteria found as normal flora in the eye with coagulase +ve ? S.aureus

protues bacteria give swarming on which agar ? Blood agar

proteus bacteria not give swarming on which agar ? MAC agar, PEA and CLED
blood agar media from which type of media ? Enriched & differential media

TB agar is ? L J agar
 ‫اسئلة وتجميعات اختبار الهيئة‬
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SLLE 2022
:Rose_lab

confirmatory test of shyphilis? ( FTA-ABS ) + ( MHA – TP)

bacteria appear red pigment on agar ? Serratia
bacteria result green or blue color on agar?Pseudomonas
urease + ve ? Proteus
man have sheep’s he drink from the milk of this sheep’s , after short period he
suffer from headache and fever and weakness, what must probably see here ?
Brucella
patient suffering from watery diarrhea, after diagnosed him we found bacteria
motile by flagella, what the bacteria name?V.Cholera
baby with meningitis, and appear in blood agar with staphylococcus aureus do
statilism ,gram negative bacteria with rods shaoe ,whats the bacteria here
?H.infulnza B
bacteria lead to apportion in pregnancy women ? Lesteria
bacteria cause chronic pulmonary disease ? mycobacterium
bacteria in stool , urease +ve ? H.pylori

homophiles ( H.infulnza ) gram stain shape ? GN-Coccobacili(filamentous)

which of the following is true about shigella features ? Non motile , non lactose
fermenter
patient with diarrhea, we do selenite broth and we find H2S , what’s the bacteria
cause that ? Salmonella
albert stain use to ? C.diphtheria
diagnostic test for suggestion bacteria ?
a-Gimza stain
b- Culture
C-Nucleic acid
H.infulnza agar is ? Chocolate agar
kill microorganisms on living tissue ? Antimicrobial
 ‫اسئلة وتجميعات اختبار الهيئة‬
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SLLE 2022
:Rose_lab

the most media use to sputum ? Blood & chocolate agar

which of the following is selective media ? MaConkey agar

a highly selective media containing cyclohexmide & chloramphenicol ? Mycosel

agar
which type of sample we need to diagnosis TB ? Sputum of early morning for 3
consecutive days
agar use for vibrio cholera? TCBS & alkaline peptone water
bacteria grow at >43 °c ? campylobacter jejuni
bacteria grow at 4°c temperature? LestieriaHistopathology
kill all organisms by ? Autoclave
patient eat food from refrigerator food was in refrigerator more than 3 days , and
he suffering from poisoning food , what’s the reason ? L.monostogen
bacteria has smile like fish smile ? Proteus
sample grow anaerobic? Sputum
which of the following is example on counter stain ? Methylen blue(in AFS)
patient have contamination after draw why ? S.epidermis
vibiro cholera in oxidase give us ? Positive
bacteria resistance Vancomycin? E.feaclies
baby 4 years patient with meningitis, which bacteria lead to that ?
a-Listeria monocytogenes
b- H.influnza B
c-Nesseria meningitis
elek test use with ? C.diphtheria
whooping cough see in ? Bordetella pertoesis
sample for culture came to lab after your finish time of your work , what you
should do ? Put it in refrigerator

bacteria appear as green metallic On EMB agar ? E.colli

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SLLE 2022
:Rose_lab

Bacteria lysis DNA ( DNAse +ve ) ? Staphylococcus aureus

streptomycin and rifampine use agent?

a.DNA

b. RNA

c. DNA – RNA

bacteria untreated cause cancer in stomach ? H.pylori

gas gangrene seen in ? C.penfingers

trypanoma pallidium result in ? Syphilis

bacteria mutations ? DNA erorr

stain uses with C. Diphtheria? Albert stain

cold acid fast stain ? Kinyoun

Klepsella bacteria resistance to ? Ampicillin

catalase test formula ? H2O2 -> O2 + H2O

coagulase read result by ? Clot by convert fibrinogen to fibrin

bacteria not has cell wall ? Mycoplasma bacteria

antibiotic use with brucella ? Rifampin , streptomycin

IMVC ++ - - ? E.coli

media use in motility test ? Sulphide indole motility media

urease test for brucella spp what color of medium ? Red

shyphilis positive with RPR what we can use to confirm it ? FTA – ABS

which organisms can growth on maconkey agar ?

a-Streptococcus

b- Niessieria
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c-Bacillus

d- Corynebacterium

Simple test used for differentiation between S. aureus and micrococcus?

Oxidative/fermentative media (O/F): micrococci (oxidative) staphylococci
(fermentative)

Lancefield group classify based on ? Polysaccharide

In triple sugar iron agar k /A ( Alkaline/acid ) +ve ? salmonella & shigella , proteus

Counter stain in gram stain ? Safranin

Most common cause of UTI in young female ? staphylococcus saprophyticus

patient with severe borns and inflammation that result from infection , what will
see in microbiology tests ? P. Aeroginousa

-A technologist didn’t apply antiseptic before drawing blood from a boy and the
boy developed a bacterial infection. What is the most probable cause ? Epidermidis

Sensitive to optochin? S.pneumoniae

Sore throat caused by ? Str. Pyogenes

Capsulated highly mucoid bacteria? Klebsiella spp.

Confirmatory test for VDRL? Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA -

ABS).

Special technique for treponema and spirochetes? Dark field microscope

Infant with meningitis, caused by gram positive rods with tumbling like motility?
Listeria monocytogenes.

Test differentiate M. tuberculosis from other mycobacteria ? Production of niacin

(nicotinic acid)

Gram positive rods, infect fetus and pregnant women, ab le to grow in 4C? Listeria
monocytogenes

Influenza virus attached to epithelial cells by? Heamagglutinin

How differentiate Staphylococci from streptococci ? By catalase test.

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SLLE 2022
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Cause hemolytic uremic syndrome? Enterohemorrhagic-E. coli O157:H7, Shigella

dysenteriae.

In gram stain, 5. aureus arranged in ? Clusters

Media contain vancomycin-colistin-nystatin? Thayer martin media, modified

Thayer martin media.

Bile solubility test? Special test for S. pneumoniae, lysed by bile salts.

Neurotoxin produced by? C. tetani, C. botulinum, S. aureus, B. cerus.

Double zone of beta hemolysis? C. perfringens.

Antibiotic associated diarrhea? C difficle.

Bacteria transmitted by cat bite? Pasteurella multocida

Media inhibit & prevent the swarming of proteus s pp? CLED (salt deficient).

Bacteria grow at 42-43 C? Campylobacter, Helicobacter, Pseudomonas aeruginosa,

Barkholderia.

Bacteria grow at 4-43°C? Listeria monocytogenes & Yersinia.

This test differentiates group B from group A streptococci? CAMP test.

Cause peptic ulcer, urease positive? H. pylori.

Anticoagulant for blood culture? Sodium polyanethol sulphate.

Cell in bacterial infection? Neutrophil.

Shigella on XLD give? Red color.

Patient with UTI, bacteria indole positive, lactose fermenter and mo tile? E. coll.

Shigella on macConky agar? Colorless.

Salmonella on XLD? Pink color with black center.

Salmonella on macConky? Colorless or pale yellow.

The suitable time and temperature for autoclave that use 15 lbs? 121 C for 15
mins.
 ‫اسئلة وتجميعات اختبار الهيئة‬
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SLLE 2022
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Bacteria give a blue-green colony, positive fried egg appearance? Pseudomonas

aeruginosa.

Food poisoning and bacteria was a gram-positive bacilli? C. perfringens.

Role of crystal violet in MacCkonkey agar? Inhibit the growth of gram-positive

bacteria.

Gram positive, alpha hemolytic optochin sensitive ? S. pneumoniae

Drumstick like bacteria? C. tetani.

Bacteria cause pharyngitis? S. pyogenes.

Urea breath test for? H. pylori

Catalase positive, coagulase positive? S. aureus.

Enriched media? Medium containing natural proteins like blood, hemoglobin,

serum, growth factor like blood agar and chocolate agar. Required for fastidious
organism like Neisseria and streptococci

Bacillary dysentery caused by? Shigella.

Bacteria cause abortion? C. perfringens, bacteroid fragilis, brucella, G. vaginalism

N. gonorrhea, L. monocytogenes

Differentiation between S. aureus and other staphylococci? Coagulase.

Reagent of indole test? (Kovacs reagent), p-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde

(DMACA).

Patient with lockjaw? Tetanus (tetansopasmin), neurotoxin.

Aeration of Enterobacteriaceae? Aerobic and anaerobic.

Most common type of H. influenzae? B.

Catalase test? Positive in staph, and negative in streptococci.

PYR test used for? Group A and D streptococci (enterococcus aecalis)

Bacterial ID and sensitivity? Micro scan walk way.

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Most common bacteria with food poisoning?

S. saprophyticus

S. epidermdis

S. aureus

Micrococcus

Bordetella pertussis cause? Whooping cough.

Bacteria cause endocarditis? Viridans (vancomycin sensitive), enterococci

(vancomycin resistance).

Microaerophilic organism? Campylobacter jejuni, Helicobacter pylori.

Sterilization? Autoclave.

Bacteria causes food poisoning? Salmonella C. perfringens Campylobacter > S.

aureus.

Wrist joint? M. tuberculosis.

Normal flora of the eye? S. epidermis.

Solidifying agent of culture media? Agar.

Antibiotic for mycobacterium? First line: Isoniazid, ethambutol, rifampin,

pyrazinamide Second line: para-aminosalicylic acid, ethionamide,
fluoroquinolones.

Salmonella in stool, type of WBCs? Neutrophil (PMN).

Motile, catalase-positive? Listeria

Increase in temperature 3 C without hemolysis, within 30 minutes after blood

transfusion? Gram stain or culture of blood bag (suggest bacteria sepsis).

Why MacConkey agar is selective and differential? Contains bile salt and crystal
violet to inhibit gram positive bacteria (selective for gram negative bacteria).
Differential: contain lactose (LF pink and NLF colorless)

Why crystal violet stains the gram-positive bacteria? Thick peptidoglycan layer.
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SLLE 2022
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Which media inhibit the swarming of proteus spp? CLED, PEA, MAC.

Brucella antibiotics? Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines+doxycycline,

doxycycline+rifampin, streptomycin.

Quality of sputum for testing? On gram stain, acceptable sputum shows <10
squamous cells and >25 PMNs/LPF.

Media for motility test? MMT, SIM, IMO, MIU.

Give positive with ladine? Starch, glycogen,

Special medium for Mycobacterium ? Löwenstein–Jensen medium (LJ)

Reagent of indole test? ? (Kovacs reagent), p dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde

(DMACA)

bacteria used in biological warfare ? Bacillus anthracis

Phaarygitis cases by ? Group A

Lyme disease caused by ? Borrelia burgdorferi

Widal test for ? salmonella

salmonella caused ?Typhoid fever

Media for Neisseria? Thyer martin

chines letter ?Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Enrichment media ?Selenite F broth media

Rheumatic fever caused by ? S.pyogenes

Nosocomial infections oxidase negative ? Acinetobacter baumanni.

VP test positive ?Enterobacter

primary stain for acid fast bacteria ? Carbol fusion

Distinguish between Neisseria gonorrhea and m eningitides ? Maltose.

Xld ? selective media

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SLLE 2022
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Stool sample with urease positive and H2s positive ? proteus

Which of the following are Gram-negative motile rods that are characterized

by gray, sprading film of growth on agar plates ? Proteus vulgaris

is giving the shape to the bacteria ? Cell wall.

M. tuberculosis bacilli stain with? Zheil Nelson stain.

TB specimen ? sputum.

proteus best growth in media? Blood agar.

Which agar use for MRSA ? Mannitol salt agar

Loop full in urin culture? 0.001

Blood culture for 2 bottle ?10-20

Relapsing fever ? borrelia recurrentis.

Bacteria transmitted by Tick bite ? Borella Burgdorferi.

Streptomycin antibiotic how its work ? protein synthesis

Tracoma cause by ?chlamydia.

mycobacterium growth about 25 days ?- M kanasi.

Bacteria that cause blindness ? chlamydia and N. gonorrhoeae in children.

Histopathology
what’s the paraffin wax temperature? 56 °C ± 2

less period to store cytology sample is ? A month

what is the function of primer in PCR?

defines the region that will be amplified, resulting in millions and millions of copies
in a very short timeframe

formalin percentage for routine use1/10

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lab moving to another building what block should they take in histology lab ? Less
than10years

cytology sample come without name and number what should we do ?Reject

RNA chains and direction? Adenine- -uracil - guanine- cytosine ( 5 to 3)

DNA chains and direction ? Adenine- Thymine- cytosine - guanine ( 3 to 5(

,A with T and C with G ,

technologist when work on embedding phase in lab someone hit his hand what we
will see in tissue

a-thick tissue

b- contamination in stain

c-air bubble

gastric core sample how we put it in mold in hitology lab?

a-6 pieces in one mold

b- 3 – 3 pieces in 2 mold

c-Take 3 pieces and leave 3

d- Every pieces in special mold

frozen section sample has spaces what is the reason ? Slow freezing

what’s the fixation of FNA ? Immediately immerse in alcohol 95% after leave it dry
in air

what’s the type of fixative in Pap stain ? 95% ethanol

embedding temperature is ? 40-70 C

saliva store temperature is

20-

molting point of paraffin wax is ? 56 °C ± 2

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device use to cutting block in histology lab ? Microtome

define fixation ? alter tissue by stabilizing the protein so that it resistant to further
change

most stain use in histology ? Hematoxylin and eosin

the commonly used fixative for preparation of frozen section is ? Alchool 95%

size cutting in renal biopsy? 4-5 um

what is the stain use with fat ? Oil red O

what’s the bag use to tissue ? Red bag

which mainly stain use in histopatholo gy lab ? Hematoxylin & eosin

pathologist request re-embedding what’s the reason ? Over dehydration

why pathologist ask assistant clean the place of cutting sample always

a-For quality

b- To avoid contaminatio

when see spores in sample , and repeat it and see spore again the problem in
histology lab it was in which phase ? Fixation

in histology lab if the information of patient different about container what we

should do in this case ? Reject

electronic microtome need to ? Calibration

pleural fluid sent to central lab in which temperature

2-8 ,20-22

frozen sample in histopathology lab , when cut it the sample be come break down
what we should do in this case ? Change size of sample to small With change
temperature also

pathologist was late , and we have patient what you should in this case?

a-Act on samples
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b- Inform doctor

c-Act on samples and after you finish doctor come to see your work

after finish use xylene where put xylene ?

a-Plastic

b- Glass

pap staining nucleus and give color what’s the color ? Blue to black

someone want to open oncology lab , what’s important system in this case should
be available?

a.DNA

b.Purification

c-Cell culture

d- Microbliting

tissue under microscope was pale , what’s the reason ? Less time staining

what use in infiltration stage in histopathology lab ? Paraffin wax

2samples in histology lab in 10% formalin , but second sample it was in microwave
in 65 C , which more suitable sample for PCR test ? First sample because not
exposed to heat

skin biopsy remain more than 3 hours in normal saline , what we should do in this
case ? Reject

muscles section store in temperature?37°c

cytology sample fixation by ? 95% ethanol

in histology lab , tissue appear with pigment under microscope why?

a-Stain expire

b- Process was fast

c-Process need reagent

 ‫اسئلة وتجميعات اختبار الهيئة‬
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SLLE 2022
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in histology lab the tissue appear with pale color why?

A-Less time with stain

B- Problem from embedding

tissue come with epithelial tissue , what should do in this case?

Gloves

B- Re embedding

the stage give us the enable to section and cutting ? Embedding

histology sample temperature is‫؟‬

a-50 C

b- 70

C c-37 C

electrophoresis with DNA test what will use ? Ethidum bromide

In Pathology cases, the slides, blocks, reports are retained for at least 10 years.

a. Histology sample: 30 days.

b. Cytological sample: 30 days.

c. Cytological slides: 5 years.

d. FNA: 10 years.

Lab moving (less than 10 years samples).

Explosive solution: picric acid.

Amoeba stained by iodine eosin blue.

IHC positity on edge and negativity on the middle? Under fixation.

In H&E stain: haematoxylin stain the nucleus, and eosin stain the
cytoplasm,routine stain.

Fixative used for testicular tissue: Bouin solution.

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If xylene mixed with water!! Eosin, counter stain problem. Dip in alcohol.

Formalin ratio: 10 10 20 times.

Slide with brown/black color? Acid hematin pigment (formalin), at low pH

Cryostat used for? Frozen section

Time for fixation? 24 h. (optimal is 8-12 h).

Saliva store at?2-30°c

Cytological samples: 4 C

Tissue processing steps.

1. Fixation.

2. Dehydration.

3. Clearing .

4. Impregnation with molten paraffin wax.

5. Blocking.

6. Cutting.

7. Staining.

8. Microscope Examination

10% neutral buffered formalin (NPF) 6.8-7.2, routine Fixative.

Specimen in formalin should not be placed into the fridge.

The grossing area is cleaned with phenol or glutaraldehyde.

The specimens are stored 1-3 months.

The pencil is used for labeling.

The ethanol (95%) fixative is best for glycogen studies and used for cytology
specimens.

Glutaraldehyde is a good fixative for EM studies, give good morphology.

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Osmium tetroxide is a good fixative for lipids. Avoid 100% ethanol.

Lipid/phospholipids fixative: formal calcium.

Chromosomal study: FISH

The recommended methods for the disposal of xylene are incineration and
evaporation Only certified professionals should complete these processes.
Chemical waste disposal services through waste hauler (EPA environmental
protection agency hazardous waste).

Electron microscope embedding media: Epoxy resin, provide ultrastructure

preservation (cross-link with the specimen)

Charged slide: for tissue adhesion.

95% alcohol used as a fixative for fine needle aspiration (FNA) smears.

Skin biopsy in Normal saline; in no way should normal saline be used, even for a
short time, to store and transport excised tissue; it is imperative that such tissues
be placed immediately in a proper fixative like 10% formalin.

Xylene in histopathology: deparaffinization (clearing).

For incomplete dehydration; out in the xylene to remove the wax, ascending
alcohol to remove the xylene,

best temperature for histology tissue? 37 c

we should store saliva sample in ? -20 C

Restriction enzyme work on ? 10 bp

most commonly substance fixation using to frozen section ? 95%alcohol

FNA what to do to fixative ?95% alcohol

DNA helical ? Double helical

fixation in fresh sample is ? NBF 10 %

which nuclear in pyrimides ? Uracil

cytotechnologist went to FNA for two different patient?

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a-label the two slide and place it in the same fixative jar

b- label the slide and place it into two different fixative jars

cytology cell block fixative contains?

a-alcohol- formaldehyde- phosphate buffer

b- alcohol- formaldehyde- normal saline

What is the function of microtome ? cutting (produce section of 3-5 micron )

In which step does pathologist explain and cuts the tissue ? grossing

Histological sample with slightly erased label, what is the most important thing to
be visible ? Patient name and site of origin

Cell blocks? Micro biopsies embedded in paraffin wax for cytology specimens,
small tissue fragments from fine needle aspiration (FNA).

Special stain for stomach? PAS

Tissue processing machine depend on? Solution viscosity, agitation, heat, vacume
& pressure.

The proper thickness of tissue? 2-4 mm, 3-5 microns.

Tissue infiltration/embedding is done by? Paraffin wax, resin, agar, gelatin,

celloidin

Frozen section with holes, clefts and vacuoles? It's an ice artifact (water), due to
the slow freezing of tissue, the solution is: freeze fast (flash/snap).

Embedding done by? Filling of tissue with paraffin wax, using a suitable size of
mould or tissue cassettes.

Tissue cassette not closed? Cut the tissue into a proper size.

Air bubbles tissue artifact? Due to poor floatation technique which lead to
Inadequate adherence of tissue to the slide, solved by using of distilled water in
the bath, also using of alcohol or detergent to reduce the surface tension. Placing
of cover slip (mounting).
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Temperature of water bath in the bath? 10 C below the melting point of paraffin
wax.

Methods for detecting the chromosomal translocation? • FISH, cytogenetic

analysis, karyotyping, DNA microarray, PCR and Immunohistochemistry (IHC).

Special stain for connective tissue? Gomori trichrome, Reticular stain, Masson stain
and Mallory analine blue collagen stain.

Histology sample should be retained for how many days after final report? 14 days

Cryostat sectioning temperature? -15 to -30C

FNA fixative? 95% ethanol alcohol

Which type of tissue take short time in tissue processing? Core biopsy (small size).

Cytology sample received without name and number? Reject.

During tissue embedding, hand is moved? Air bubbles.

6 gastric core sample in mold? 6 pieces in one mold.

Fixation used in Pap smear? 95% ethanol alcohol.

Tissue fixation? Stabilizing protein so that it is resistant to further change,

putrefaction, decaying and autolysis.

Hematoxylin is extracted from? Heartwood/log wood tree.

When the pathologists request the re-embedding of tissue? Over-dehydrated

tissue, too hard paraffin wax for sectioning, tissue incorrectly embedded/oriented.

Delay in tissue disposal/waste (company)? Inform the supervisor.

Why pathologist ask for cleaning the surface of grossing area? To avoid the
contaminatio

The patient details between the container and request form is not matched?
Reject.
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papanicolaou stain results? Nucleus: blue to black, cytoplasm: pink, yellow green,
grey.

Technologist see scratches on the slides under microscope? Put the slide properly.

Pale staining of tissue? Less time of staining

sample in histology, one in formalin and the other in microwave (65C), which can
be used for PCR? The one in microwave (DNA thermal stability is 140 C).

Muscle tissue storage temp? -20 to -80C Step makes tissue capable for cutting?
Embedding.

Mycology

germ tube test use with ? Candida albicans

fungi with cotton shape ? Aspiregillus

KOH 10 % use to ? To separate fungi and skin (dissolve the keratin In the skin ,hair
and nail)

most common stain to fungus? PAS other stain( Grocott methamine silver (GMS)&
lacto phenol cotton blue)

fungi branching in 90 degree? Mucor

fungi branching in 45 degree ? Aspergillus fumigatus

patient with AIDS , which fungi can infect him ? Cryptococcous neoformans

which fungi cause thrush ? C.albicans

fungi with white cottony shape grow in 25C or 8C ? Fusarium spp

CSF sample stained by giemza stain we find spherical shape like cells with
purplecolor , now which stain use to more identify ?

a. Indian ink
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b. Acid fast

which of the following is endogenous fungi ? Candida

fungi shape like cottage cheese? Candida

dimorphic fungi is ? Fungi can grow as yeast or mold

fungi has capsule ? C.neoforrmance

stain use for fungi ? PAS

germ tube use to diagnosis? Candida albicans

media for fungi not SDA ? PDA ( potato dextrose agar )

Chicago disease infected by ? Blastomycosis

oral trash is ? Candida albicans

blastomycosis staining by ? Chicago stain

method used for diagnosis of skin mycosis ?

a. Culture

b.Molecular

c- Microscope

shows spaghetti and meatballs shape ? malassezia furfur

which of the following is monomorphic fungi ? C.neoformance

Culture media used for fungi? Sabouraud dextrose agar (SDA).

Detection of fungi in a skin sample by?10% KOH.

Ringworm caused by?Trichophyton.

Fungal stain?

Grocott methamine silver, periodic acid Schiff, lactophenol cotton blue.

Wood lamp test? For hair skin infected by dermatophytes, M. furfur, tinea
versicolor, pityriasis.
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Indian ink used for?Detect of capsule and cryptococcus neoformans

Fungus seen by dark field microscope and Indian ink?

C. neoformans.

Wood lamp? Fungal examination.

White Piedra?Trichosporon spp

Note that black Piedra caused by Piedraia hortae

Fungal spores in tissue section?

Floatation bath.

Virology

girl had eye infection after swimming? Adenovirus

lesion on penis seen in ? Shyphilis or HSV

store virus sample in ? -20 _ -70 C

what’s the marker of HBV ? HBeAG + HbcAB + HBsAG

fecal oral route virus is ? Coxsackie virus

patient with acute infection of HCV , what we will see in the result?

antiHCV– IgM

what’s the confirmatory test use with HCV ? RIBA

what’s the confirmatory test use with HIV ? Western blot

atypical lymphocyte seen with ? EBV

baby case with diarrhea what’s the reason ? Rota virus

which type of vaccine not given to baby before 6 months age ?

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and HA vaccine MMR and Varicalle

mother has IgG ab because infected when her pregnancy , after delivery the baby
has heart murmur , which of the following is right about this case ?Mother rubella
IgG , baby rubella IgM

patient have immunity against HBV , what we will see in the result of him AbsHB
AbeHB and AbcHB,

women do test for HIV , and her husband come to hospital angry, how we can
solve this problem? relax him and tell him you can’t given him the result

women do test for HIV , and her husband come to hospital angry, how we can
solve this problem? relax him and tell him you can’t given him the result

CD4 : CD 8 ratio low , seen in ? Immunosuppressive

monospot +ve ? EBV

saliva is the common sample transmission of virus , which virus ? EBV

patient with fever and tourniquet +ve , what’s the reason ? Dengue virus

antiretroviral define as ? Can lowering capacity of HIV to transmission

how monitoring effectiveness of treatment?

A.PCR

b. RT – PCR

c-Antiretroviral Ab test

negri body seen in ? Rabies virus

cervical cancer may cause by which virus ? HPV

HIV detect by ? RT – PCR

HIV problem in ? P24

virus transmission fecal oral ? HAV

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baby has chest inflammation , and enlarged cells , which virus response here ?
CMV

less dangerous sample in HIV ? Urine

ovarian cancer because which virus ? Papillomavirus

transmission by gender?

a-HAV

b. HPV

c. EBV

mother has hepatitis B , and she transferred to baby , what’s the first will be see in
hepatitis test ?

a.AGsHB

b.AbsHB

c.HBsAG

virus in stool is ? Polo virus

HIV test monitoring is ? CD4:CD8 ratio

which virus you can see by electron microscope? Chicken pox virus

which hepatitis lead to hepatic cancer ? HCV

barking cough seen in ? Para influenza

adeno virus is ? DNA virus

which virus with sandy appearance ? Arena virus

Patient present with splenomegaly and positive mono-spot test, which virus is
suspected? EBV (Epstein Barr virus).

Patient with swelling of salivary and parotid glands, and anorexia what is the
suspected virus? Mumps virus.

A virus causes eye irritation & conjunctivitis after swimmin g? Adenovirus

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. infant with diarrhea caused by a virus that can prevented by national

immunization program? Rota virus.

. Electron microscope shows virus with crown like projections?

Corona virus

Virus cause intranuclear giant cytopathic effect as owl eyes?

Cytomegalovirus.

Viral meningitis?Normal glucose with high protein.

Giant intranuclear inclusion like owl eyes cytopathic effect?

CMV (cytomegalovirus).

Test for monitoring of HIV? CD4 count.

Croup disease or barking cough caused by? Parainfluenza virus.

HDV associated with which virus?HBV

Atypical lymphocytes, heterophil tests, monospot test, lymphadenopathy,

nasopharyngeal carcinoma?EBV

Cases of traveler related hepatitis?HAV

HPV-18, risk?High risk of cervical cancer.

Herpes simplex virus cause?Painful lesions.

PCR for HIV?

RNA amplification.

Which of the following conditions associated with a high level of S-type amylase?

Mumps

Intestinal obstruction

Alcoholic liver disease.

Peptic ulcer,
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Screening test for HIV?ELISA (anti-HIV).

Viral life cycle?

Attachment (adsorption)> penetration (entry)> uncoating> replication> assembly

(maturation)> release.

Covid-19 patient, acute phase reactant protein?CRP high.

Mother with hepatitis, what is the marker of congenital infection

(newborn)?Positive HBsAg

Virus transmitted by fecal-oral route?

Adenovirus, norovirus, HEV, HAV, Enteroviruses, Poliovirus, Coxsackie virus, A & B,

Echovirus, Rotavirus.

Acute HCV infection?Anti-HCV/IgM.

Baby with diarrhea and runny nose? Rota virus.

Vaccine not given to baby before age of 6 months?

MMRV, Varicella, HA vaccine.

Congenital infection of baby with rubella?Mother (IgG), baby (IgM).

Positive HIV patient? Notify the infection control.

Less dangerous sampler for HIV transmission?

Saliva, sweat, urine.

Urinalysis and Body fluids.

what’s the cause of turbidity sample ? Urine : highWBC, bacteria / Blood : lipemic

brown black urine , in increase what ? Alkaptonuria

increase urobilinogen lead to ? Increase yellow color in urine

oliguria mean ? Decrease output urine

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amorphus phoshpate color is ? White

nitrite indicate to ? UTI

man come with semen sample and tolld staff he misses the first , how that will
affect in result ? Portion of the semen

urine sample delayed for 2 hour and came to microbiology culture ? Reject

how we can differentiate between yeast and RBCs? 2% acetic acid

the normal range of Ph in the Urine

4.5-8

pus in urine called ? Pyuria

hematuria define? Heme or blood with urine (hematuria(intact RBCs)

hemoglobinuria(Hb from lysed RBCs)

more common crystals and mainly crystals ?Tamm–Horsfall protein

normal range of volume semen ? 2-5 ml

sample CSF diagnosis, and after diagnosed we found low glucose , and WBCs
lymphocytes , what we seen in this case

the temperature degree use in bence jones protein case ? 40- 60C

when patient infected by bacteria meningitis which WBCs can see more than other
WBCs ? Neutrophils
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when we use low power in microscopic, to detect what ? Casts

epinephrine hormone secreted from which organ ? Kidney

which sample use with pheochromocytoma?24hour urine

the different between hyaline cast and waxy cast ?Refractive index

RBC in CSF should be how ? 0

sample need work quickly? CSF

which of the following cause renal failure? Waxy , Broad

what’s more suitable test to detect drug in toxicology lab ? Urine

cloted CSF sample , what should do with this sample ? Count manually RBCs and
WBCs

what should see in semen ? Above 75% viability

DM urine sample use ? Fasting

normal cast seen in urine ? Hyaline 0-4

normal found in urine ? Urobilinogen

CSF should have ? Zero RBC

normal sperm concentration? 20 – 250 million

how diagnosis viability in semen sample ? More than 20 million motile sperm

what we seen in alkalosis urine ? Amorphas phosphate

to semen analysis patient should stop for how much ? 2- 5 days

glucosuria cause is ? renal tubular dysfunction

CSF normal volume is ? 10–20 mL of CSF is collected

vit . C crystals ? Calcium oxalate

ketone in urine indicate to ? Metabolic keto acidosis

normal Ph is ? 6 urine
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we can detect viability in semen by ? Eosin – nigrosine

crystals in alkaline urine ? Triple phosphate

crystals seen in acidic urine ? Calcium oxalate

how to know good sputum sample ? Epithelial tissue less than squamous epithelial

CSF sample should ? Work immediately

urine formed by ? Filtration- Reabsorption – secretion

synovial fluid in infection case ? Cloudy and cell more than 1000

sample for γ-hydroxybutyrate (GHB)?

a-urine

b- blood

c-hair

d- saliv

fine silky needle crystal?

a-Tyrosine

b- Hemosiderin

c- Cholesterol

ammonia like smell in urine ?

Dehydration, kidney disease,UTI

presence of WBCs casts in urine indicate damage of which organ?

A) kidney.

B) bladder.

C) urethra

Amber color of urine presence of ? Bilirubin

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Maple syrup - Maple syrup disease ? (branched chain aminoaciduria)

Synovial fluid sample use with ? joint disease

-Acidic urine crystals ? amorphous urates, uric acid, ca oxalate, bilirubin, tyrosine,
leucine, cysteine

Normal sperm count?

20 million to 250 million.

Time of fresh semen sample?

2 Hours

Case: gram stain of CSF shows kidney shape gram negative bacteria, with low
glucose and elevated protein? Which bacteria is suspected?

N. meningitidis (meningococcal infection)

The dark yellow color of amniotic fluid is due to presence of?

.Bilirubin

Acids for urine preservation?

Hydrochloric acid, boric acid

Detection of ketones in urine?

Sodium nitroprusside, Acetest is a nitroprusside and glycine tablet used to detect

ketones, enzymatic method uses beta-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase to detect
the presence of beta-hydroxybutyric acid.

Differences between hyaline and waxy cast?

1.Hyaline cast: seen in normal individual & in renal disease (increased), congestive
heart failure, consists of tamm-horsfall protein, colorless,

2.translucent, low refractive index. Waxy cast: renal diseases, tubular

inflammation and chronic renal failure, nephrotic syndrome, consists of
degenerated granular cast and cells, yellow, high refractive index, contain cracks.

Urine cast in case of Sickle cell anemia?

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Hemosiderin (hemoglobin) cast.

Urine with high WBCs?

UTI & pyelonephritis.

Urine crystal in renal tubular acidosis (RTA)? Calcium salts (Calcium phosphate,
calcium carbonat

Normal urine pH?

Acidic (4 to 8) average (5-6).

Low CSF glucose, high lactate and high protein?

Bacterial, fungal meningitis.

Ghost cell?

RBCS in hypotonic urine.

Pleural fluid sample exudate characterized by? High protein

Most common type of urine casts?

.Hyaline cast

Bence jones protein?

Heat test 40-60 C.

Differentiation between hyaline and waxy cast?

.Refractivity

Most common type of urine sample?

Random.

Turbid semen due to?

WBCS,

Color of amorphous phosphate?

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White,

Fruity odor urine?

.Acetone

Urine type for culture?

Mid clean catch MSU.

if patent has respiratory acidosis what is the urine pH? Below 5.5, acidic.

Confirmatory test for pheochromocytoma?

Catecholamine in urine (24h).

What is the most likely cause of the following CSF results? Glucose: 20 mg/dl,
protein: 200 mg/dL, lactate: 50 mg/dL (normal 5-25 mg/dl

A Viral meningitis)

B. Viral encephalitis

C. Cryptococcal meningitis

D. Nate bacterial meningitis

Checking pH and Specific gravity of urine by?

Dipstick.

Source of transitional epithelia cell?

.Renal pelvis, ureters, bladder, and male urethra

Calcium oxalate crystal in urine?

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid/oxalic acid) supplementation.

Urine specific gravity 1.035?

Hypersthenuric urine

Note: 1.010 is isosthenuric, less than 1.010 is hyposthenuric.

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Primary found in normal urine?

Chloride.

Pinkish foam urine?

Pathologic: blood. Hb.

Non-pathologic beet, medication (senna).

The optimal sample volume of Ascitic fluid?

>100ml

CSF sample volume for cell count?

1 ML

Amniotic fluid processing?

10-20 mL is collected maximum 30 mL, centrifugation, or filtration.

Brown-black urine?

Alkaptonuria (homogentisic acid), melanoma, melanin, melanogen

Dark yellow color?

Urobilinogen, bilirubin.

Positive nitrite urine strip?

UTI, bacterial infection mainly gram-negative bacteria. Culture is recommended.

Urine delayed for 2 hours for culture and sensitivity?

Should be rejected unless, the sample were in refrigerator (maximum for 24 hours

Shift is finished, one urine sample came to the lab?

Refrigerate the sample. Or according to the options.

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Suitable sample for drug test?

Urine.

Clotted CSF sample?

If the specimen is clotted, the cell count cannot be performed. Notify the physician
immediately.

Protein could be raised because the cerebrospinal fluid may be contaminated with
peripheral blood in a traumatic tap.

Review only the malignant cell.

WBCs cast?

.Kidney damage

Immunology and serology.

patient with pain in joint what’s the test should be order ? RF test

what the best example of APC ? dendritic cells, phagocytes,B cells

heterophilia test + ? EPV

classical complement pathway start by what

Ab-Ag complex activate c1

IgG percentage in infants equal 0%

what is the secondary immunity ? IgG

antibody dimer ( number of arm ) ? IgA

antibody elevated in parasite an allergy cas ? IgE

patient sensitive with pencilin ant the allergy react appear after 30 minutes what’s
the type of hypersensitiveHypersensitive type 1

test use for rehumatic fever ? ASO

which type of immunoglobulin that’s has capacity to cross placenta ? IgG

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define affinity

strength of the interaction between single epitope and single paratope

define avidity?

overall strength of antigen-antibody complex

which enzyme use in ELISA ? horseradish peroxidase (HRP) and alkaline

phosphatase (AP

solid phase in sandwich ELISA ? Spesific ab

antigen antibody reaction in complement, which pathway? Classical pathway

immunoglobulin has 4 subgroup? IgG

immunoglobulin has more avidity ? IgM

patient with SLE + , RA - ? SLE

patient with SLE reaction ? Lupus

which of the following is example on HLA class 2 ? WBC

which immune cells response about activating T helper cells ? Antigen presenting
cells(APCs) include: DCs, macrophages and B-cells which capture, processing and
presentation of Ags to T-cell by MHC molecules (MHC II binds and activate T
helper,CD4)

in adaptive immune response what type of cells activated ? T-cells from thymus

in chemotaxis which cells will come to support complement system Neutrophils

which cells response about cell mediated immunity ? T- cells

the most complement in the blood ? C3

IG : pentameter ( number of arm ) IgM

sample diluted 1 on 4 saline 5

what are the anatomical features of lymph nodes ? Gut asessution lymph tiusse
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lymph node makes from ?mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) &Gut -

associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)

immunoglobulin in electrophoresis indicate to which band ? Gamma

Ab function ? Protect the body from antigen, opsonization, neutralization

immunoassay negative , what’s the next ? Report the results

what’s the test should be +ve in Rheumatoid arthritis?

a.AST

b. ALT

c-Rheumatoid factor

T cells found in ? Thymus

alternative pathway start by ? B factor

to insure if patient have immunity agent virus use ? IgG

doctor guess patient suffer from anti phospholipid syndrome , how confirm that ?
Anti cardio leptin

the reason of T lymphocytes maturation is ? Thymus

Ab excess is ? Prozone

high basophils seen in ? Allergic case

cells attack cell mediated seen in ? Hypersensitive type 4

last step in ELISA is ? Add substrate

use to labile in ELISA ? Enzyme

autograft is ? Transplant from same person

Isograft is ? Genital identification ( twins )

ANA , AMA , ASMA are marker for ? Autoimmune disease

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amount of T cells in immunity ? 70%

immunoassay for drug abuse the result was negative what should you do ?

a-release report

b- repeat the test with the second sample that we have

c-use another confirmatory instrument

immune tolerance? Expose T cell to host Ag during maturation in thymus

CD marker for T helper cell ? CD4

Immunoglobulin in recent infections ? IgM 1

Lymphocyte section with ? viral infection

Principle of ELISA?

Antigen-Antibody complex.

Type 4 hypersensitivity?

Delayed hypersensitivity take 24-72 hours (days).

Define autoimmune disease?

An autoimmune disease occurs when an individual produces antibody or a T cell

response to own antigens.

What is the labeled material in ELISA?

Antibody labeled with an enzyme.

Type 1 hypersensitivity?

.IgE

Positive ANA and positive RF?

SLE

Innate immunity cell?

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Neutrophil, monocyte, basophil, eosinophil, macrophage, dendritic cell.

?Organ produces T lymphocyte

Bone marrow.

.C3 cleaved by? C3 convertase.

Fc receptor?Fragment crystallizable receptor, found on many ce ll .

surfaces like (phagocytic cells(, bind the Fc portion (C -terminal domain(
of antibody heavy chain (complement and opsonization, phagocytosis,
.(ADCC

Cytotoxic lymphocyte critical in innate immunity?

Natural killer cell (NK cell).

Name of IgM structure?

Pentameric

Ig with highest concentration?

IgG.

Ag binding site of Ab is called?

Fab (paratop).

Transplantation of cartilage from one to another?

.Allograft transplantation

Catalyze the proteolytic cleavage of C3 into C3a and C3b?

C3 convertase.

g is component of which type of globulin?

Gamma.

Ab of secondary response?

IgG.

Ab of the primary and first response?

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IgM.

Last step in ELISA?

Stop solution or add substrate.

HIV confirmatory test?

WB (most common), IFA, NAAT.

Neutrophil?

Phagocytosis (opsonization), chemotaxis.

T-helper cell marker?

CD4.

IHC for adenocarcinoma taken from breast tissue

Carcinemeryonic Ag.

Case: a woman came with joint pain and deformity when she stood up what

test should be done?

Rheumatoid Factor (RF).

TPHA principle?

Sheep RBCs or gel particles sensitized with T pallidum sonicate.

CD marker during the first stage of T cell

.CD2

Which of the following is correct regarding acquired thrombotic

thrombocytopenic purpura

Autoimmune disease.

Immunoglobulin with shortest half-life?

IgE (1 to 5 days).

Immunity to varicella zoster virus?

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IgG.

Low CD4:CD8 ratio

Immunocompromised/immunosuppression.

Patient have immunity against certain virus?

.IgG (protection(

Enzymes used in ELISA?

Horseradish peroxidase (HRP), alkaline phosphatase (AP).

Serology test tube?

Plan tube (red top).

The optimum temperature of complement fixation test (CFT( is .

56 C

CD markers for T lymphocytes?

CD3, CD4.

Chemical movement of neutrophil called?

Chemotaxis.

Liver macrophage is called?

Kupffer cell.

Macrophage of which organ responsible of elimination of bacteria?

Liver and spleen.

Protein produced by activated macrophages?

Interleukins.

Administration of intravenous penicillin, then rashes and fever, caused by?

IGE
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Patient with dry mouth and gritty feeling eyes, high ANA, anti SS Abs, caused by?

Sjogren syndrome.

Laboratory operation.
conflict of interest?

exists when professional judgment concerning a primary interest (such as patients'

welfare or the validity of research) may be influenced by a second ary interest
(such as financial gain).

.Authors must complete their conflict of interest form when submit ting their
manuscripts for peer review

what will affect the workload in the lab ? Short Stuff

PPE for biosafty cabinet which level ? Level 3

chemical spill with fumes , what is the first response in this case ? Contain

how diluted 5 times ? 1:5 dilution , 1/5 dilution = 1 part sample and 4 parts diluent
in a total of 5 parts

husband want to see lab results of his wife? Reject

physician want to see results of patient he is not responsible about patient ?Reject

women come to donation , she is pregnant and she want do that to apportion baby
what we do?

a-Let her donate like any donate

b- Send her to patient relationship

c-Send her to doctor

fire developing and reach to the roof , what we do after switch on alarm?

close the door and escape

when you work in phlebotomy and take blood from donation he ask you about
your name what you should do in this case ? I tell him my name and continue to
take blood from him
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when he play without reason , then do test all result was normal , what
must probably in this case ? Malnutrition

lab work to 24 hours ? Blood bank

the first procedure to be followed if the blood gas instrument is out of control for
all parameters ? Calibration

when you take sample from patient the needle penetrated your finger , what you
should do in this case

a-Put alcohol on your finger

b- Continue your work and without care to that

c-Ask the help from staff

d- Wash it and cover it

when you come to lab to start work you found sample of soudium fluride without
ice what you should do in this case ? Reject

how you can protect you self in lab ? Gloves – gowns-mask

when you work in lab the reagent fly and entering in you eye exam hat you should
do in this case ? Eye washes

the open file in hospital? For free

define the privacy in lab ? No one see the result exception the doctor responsible
about patient and patient

slide appear under microscope normal , but when add oil we can’t see anything
, what’s the reason?

a-Slide position not good

b- Excess oil

definition of patient right ? Save patient from any medical injury that’s injury result
from errors work

analytical error like what ? Invalid calibration

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SLLE 2022
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man come to donate to his relative and his blood compatible with another patient
with low HB , what you should do in this case ? Ask him if accept take his blood to
another patient need it or no

when you take off gloves in the lab ? When answer the phone

worker was work on tuberculosis sample and when he work the sample fall on the
floor , after that he alarm all staff and get out them from the lab , why
Tuberculosis can be transmission by inhalation

important in policy of medical insurance?

a-detailed treatment expense

b-post treatment expense

c-present before treatment plan started

specialist in lab have many samples and that’s lead to inform wrong result , what
should he do in this case?

a-Request flaunter

b- Inform supervisor

c-Collect information and upload file

d- Go to nurse and inform by the wrong

what’s the most important phase when we inform about critical sample?

a-Read back

b- Inform in 30 minutes

the device in the lab smoke comes out , what we should do in this case

a-Protect the patient

b- Contain the fire

define accuracy ? is a measure of a laboratory test result's closeness to the true

.value
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define patient responsibility ? As a patient receiving care, it is your responsibility

to: Provide accurate information about your health, including your present
condition, past illnesses, hospitalizations, medications, allergies to or use of any
natural products and vitamins as well as any other matters that pertain to your
health

patient 16 old years, want to diagnosis HIV , and ask you if the test +ve put the
sample in wast and delete information of the test , what you should do in this
case?

a.Inform police

b. Do like he want

c. Inform his father or mother

d. Print report and act like with samples as all samples

spill 3 liter of formalin what we should do in this case ? We ask infection control

patient came to hospital and after test you detect the patient have HIV , what yous
hould in this case?

a-Inform the administrate of hospital

b- Inform the security

c-Brother of patient

d- The administrate of infection control in hospital

after you finish work , nurse came with urine sample what you should do in this
case?

a-Put the sample in refrigerator

b- Put the sample in freezer

if the company response about take organ from histology lab not come to take
waste what should do in this case?

a.Inform supervisor

b. Put organ in normal waste

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:Rose_lab

doctor need approve about lab result , how we can prove to him the results is
right? By report about device reading

someone call you to donate but he want take the many to do that , what you
should do in this case ? Reject

toxicology definition? Substance can lead to death with few amount ( poising

toxicology use to ? Detection the reason of death

someone want to do clinical trail what should not do it ? Didn’t do it without

Patient approval

factor lead to increase stress in lab ? Few staff work

substance with +3 red color where you should store it ? Cabinet for flammable
substance ( yellow

doctor request lipid test , the specialist do error by add glucose test with lipid test ,
what should specialist do in this case ? give the doctor the lipid result and inform
him about glucose If results show he is have a DM,If it isn’t

don’t do anything system computer error , and you have samples , what you
should in this case ? Act on sample manual until system work good

donation with normal all physical exam , but the pressure of blood is high , what
we should do in this case ? Reject

what use in the floor of the lab ? Ceramic

why use automation in lab ?

a-Large sample

b- Reduce cost

c-More accurate

d- Improve quality in the laboratory

patient 12 years old , have mild anemia and 12 HB , the blood group of patient is O-
the doctor request one unit, the match was good for patient is poor quality , what
we should DO?
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a-Not give patient unit

b- Give patient unit

c-Ask the doctor if give him or no

the doctor request 6 unit blood to emergency case with bleeding , but the request
not has ABO grouping , with no sample to test , the Request chose O- blood group ,
what we should do in this case ?

a. Give him the unit

b. Doctor signature paper to response that

how can’t see the files of patient

a-Intern

b- Doctor

c-Patient

If father and his son come to phlebotomy , the father was not trust of you , and
askbyou about your ID , what you should do in this case ? Show him ID and ask him
gently to complete your work

patient when transfusion blood be came angry and start use bad language with
workers , what you should do in this case

a-Stop transfusion

b- Leave the room

C- ignoring him

hospital has many patient and stress inpatient department , and ask help from lab
staff what we should do in this case

a-Decrease lab staff

b- Transfer sample to reference lab

c-Re evaluate reagent quality

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SLLE 2022
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patient safety definition ? Save patient from any medical injury

evaluate worker in lab every?

a-Month

b- Week

c-Years

doctor request expensive and not available, what should do in this case ? Send
sample to another lab

HIV level hazard ? Level 2

old device in lab as backup, when your new device has problem and you will work
on ˑ this old device what you need to do before work ? Maintenance

which of the following is respect to patient raits?

a-Take photo to surgery without premission

b- Talk about case with friends

c-Take premission from him to treat

brother come as visitor to take brother results?

a-Send him to physician response☑️

b- Give him the result without anything

c-Look to his ID to insure if the patient true his brother and after insure give him
the result

solution use to clean bench ? Bleach soultion ( chlorxide

spill chemical substance we try to contain , after contain what we should do ?

Leave

where you should put the new reagent ‫؟‬

A-Leave it on bench

B-Ask supervisor
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C-Put it in suitable place

what should do as medical practice? Developing my self

microbiology lab is dangerous lab because you may work on HIV sample or another
dangerous sample , what you should if you work in microbiology lab

a-Save intern

b- Save patient

c-Assessment risk

what’s the aim of safety ‫؟‬

A- Save workers

B- Save patient

C- Save environment from risk

sample urine came to lab after your finish time of your work , what you should do
? Put it in refrigerator

after transfusion , donor temperature increase 3 C , and he not has hemolysis sign ,
what should do in this case ? Culture

some one die in fire because Oxygen low , which test use to confirm that ? Oxygen
to carbon test

heroin convert to morphine in picture , and ask you what’s the reaction type ?
Hydrolysis

plastic equipment use in lab because?

a-Role

b- Resistance sterilization heat

most error occurred in ? Pre analytical

error in the result of lab last period , after investigations, the cause of error was
new nurse , and , this is example for which error ? Pre analytical
 ‫اسئلة وتجميعات اختبار الهيئة‬
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SLLE 2022
:Rose_lab

analytical error is the personal error , which person reason ?

a-Emotional

b- Physical

the first procedure to be followed if blood gas instrument is out of control for all
parameters? Re calibration

children age equal ? To 12years

explosive reagent in lab ? Picric acid

doctor request expensive test , what we should do ?

a-Reject

b- Send to another lab

chemistry lab BLS is ? 3

why most error occurs in pre analytical stage ? Misidentified information

nitro cellulose use in ? Southern blot

definition of delta check ? History of the result to same patient ( for more insure )

LIS definition ? Systemic laboratory program

person work without license? Prison for 6 month or pay money

how you can protect your self in lab ? G loves – gowns – mask

QC1 out and QC2 & QC3 within the range what should you do?

a-do calibration

b- load new reagents and do calibration

c-repeat QC1 which new vail

d- do the analysis any way

If there is a leak in the autoclave ? reduce effectiveness of the steril

Latex gloves used to protect ?

 ‫اسئلة وتجميعات اختبار الهيئة‬
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SLLE 2022
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A)protect against blood and body fluids.

B) needle prick

C) chemicals and burns

used for acid spills? Sodium bicarbonate

where should you put the MSDS ? in a place where all staff can see

What is the correct ppe for use in SARSV2? Gown gloves n93 mask

doctor gets finger pricked with HBV patient ? go to infection control

When test is truly negative this is? Specificity.

Suitable mask for MERS-CoV?N95

Access to patient information, results, diagnosis, this state best described

by?Patient confidentiality.

Treatment of patient regardless of age, sex, or religion is called? Access to care.

Disinfectant that kills the microorgani sms and spores? Glutaraldehyde.

Spill emergency code? Orange color.

Person who directly contact with patients and provide care? Primary health care
provider.

Define proficiency tests? External quality control, evaluates a laboratory testing

results by: comparing them to those of similar laboratories.

Abduction code color? Pink color nfant)

While taking blood sample from a patient the lab technician sustained in a
needlestick what the proper action is? Wash the wound

Steps of PCR? Denaturation, annealing and extension.

Child abduction code? Purple.

Glove for chemical bottles? Nitrile gloves (chemical resistance).

Meaning of CBAHI? Saudi central board for accreditation of healthcare institutions.

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SLLE 2022
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Children age? 2 to 12 years, Neonate birth to 1 months, Infants 1 month to 2 years

(WHO).

Normal range? Characteristic of 95 9%of values from a normal population.

Medical privacy? The practice of maintaining the security and confidentiality of

patient records.

Filter used in lab? HEPA..

Smallest amount that cause death? Poison.

Neutralizing acidic spill? Backing soda.

Handling blood samples? Use PPE (gloves, gown, mask).

Disposal of microscopic slides? Sharp waste container.

Spill? Read the MSDS instructions.

Confirmatory test with other method? High specificity.

lab tech. in break, and child refuse blood drawing by anyone? Respect his request.

Husband rights about his wife reports? Reject, except for HIV and infectious
diseases.

Physician (not responsible about the patient) want to see the results and report of
the patient? Reject, need patient consent

Patient ask about your name? Tell him (one of patient rights).

Needle stick? Wash your hand with soap and running water.

How you protect yourself in the lab from infection? PPE.

Reagent splash to the eye? Flush your eye with water (eyewash stations).

Important information of policy in medical insurance? Present before treatment

plan is started.

Specialist in the lab have many samples, which leads to wrong result typing?
Correct the report/inform the supervisor.
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SLLE 2022
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Smoke came out from one machine in lab? Protect/rescue the patient, follow
PASS/RACE

Positive HIV patient, want you to delete his result from the system? Print the
report and handle the sample like the other samples

Doctor need approve for one result? Print the reading from the machine.

Increased pressure and stress in lab? Few staff.

NFPA 3 score red? Flammable cabinets.

Flooring of laboratory? Ceramic, epoxy, vinyl, linoleum.

Laboratory benches made of? Epoxy resin, phenolic resin, ceramic.

Health system? Organization of hospital, physicians, providing comprehensive

care.

Bench cleaning solution? Chlorine bleach.

Latex gloves? Protection from blood and body fluids, aqueous solutions,
detergents, alcohols.

Heat resistant/tolerant gloves (kevlar, aluminum, zetex gloves? Against very high
or very low temperatures.

Neoprene gloves? Against organic solvents, oil, organic acids.

Nitrile gloves? Against chlorinated compounds, chemical, puncture resistant.

Vinyl gloves? Low risk, nonhazardous materials.

Butyl rubber gloves? Protect against chemicals, corrosive acids (nitric acid, sulfuric
acid).

Parasitolog.

ova with terminal spine ? S.haematobium

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SLLE 2022
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ova with lateral spine ? S.mansoni

parasite leaf shape , and motility by flagella?

giardia lamblia

patient come to hospital and lab result was cells like banana shape and RBCs ,
what is the disease ? Malaria

active trophozoite attached to lining of the small intestine , what is the parasite?

Giardia lambelia

women patient from jazan , found ring shape in thick blood film , what’s the
diagnosis result ? Malari

patient come to hospital and when do blood film to him we found banana shape
and ring stage what’s the reason to see that in blood film ? Bite by anopheles (
(malaria

how can diagnosis hydiated cystic ? Ab in the serum

schistosoma with hematouria ? S.hematoupium

parasite cause rash on thigh ? HOOK WORM

parasite whip warm ? Trichuris tricheria

parasite infect muscles? T.spiralies

fat in the stool called ? Steatorrhea

parasite transmission by egg ? most of parasites are transmission by egg for ex:
ascaris lumbricoides

parasite has 3-5 nuclear ? Giardia ,E.histolytica

in usually we not found parasite in urine , but there’s a type of parasite can found
it in urine , which of the following is a parasite we can found it in urine ?
S.hematoubim

how we can see parasite in lab ? By thick and thin blood film
 ‫اسئلة وتجميعات اختبار الهيئة‬
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SLLE 2022
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patient with AIDS , infected by parasite , which of the following parasite

opportunistic to AIDS ? Cryptosporidium parvum

women has cat in her home , which parasite can infect her ? Toxoplasma gondii

which parasite has larvea without egg ? Strongyloids stercoralis

hydatid disease ? E.granulosus

women with vaginitis , in lab we finding organisms motile ( jerky motile ) , she
infected by what ? T.vaginalies

parasite with pear shape ? Giardia lambelia

parasite seen in urine ? Trichmounes vaginalis

patient come from Africa, he has sleep sick , what’s probably seen in lab ? T.Bruci

infective stage of trypanosoma ? metacyclic trypomastigotes

women came to hospital and with discharge green vagina ? T.vaginalies

patient has parasite infection and itching in acinus , we use scotch to diagnose,
what’s the parasite ? E. Vermicoularies

which stain use with malaria ? Geimsa stain

parasite leaf shape and motile by flagella ? Giardia lamblia

whip worm parasite? Trichurs tricheria

patient with rectal prolapse ? Trichumos tricheria

Which type of plasmodium cause malignant malaria? Plasmodium falciparum.

case: Female with yellowish-green frothy vaginal discharges what is the second
sample

A) urine.

C) stool

Parasite has 4 nuclei and causes diarrhea, what's this parasite ? Giardia lamblia

Wet preparation of stool show egg with bipolar plugs (barrel shape)?
 ‫اسئلة وتجميعات اختبار الهيئة‬
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Egg of Trichuris trichura.

Type of WBCs elevated in E. vermicularis infection? Eosinophils.

Hematuria caused by?

S. hematobium

Parasite cause acute diarrhea?

Giardia

Special stain for parasites?

Giemsa stain, H&E.

Special sin for amoeba?

Best carmine, PAS.

Cylindrical larvae?

Nematodes (ascaris, hook worm).

Cell in parasitic infection?

Eosinophil.

Visceral leishmaniasis caused by?

Leishmania donovani.

concentration technique we are looking for parasite in? Sediment.

Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by?

Naegleria fowleri.

Sign of pin worm infection?

Preanal itching

Case (trophozoite with ingested RBCS and the cyst with quadrant nuclei)?
 ‫اسئلة وتجميعات اختبار الهيئة‬
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E. histolytica.

Abdominal pain and diarrhea no cyst or trophozoite, positive string test?

Giardia.

Nocturnal parasite?

W. bancrofti, B. malayi,

Note loa loa with diurnal periodicity

Stain for trypanosoma?

Giemsa stain,

Parasite in urine?

S. haematobium, S. stercoralis, T. vaginalis, E. vermicularis