‫مزاولة مختبرات‬

‫‪00‬‬
‫‪2021‬‬

‫نمارج اختبارات مزاولة مهنة‬

‫لسم المختبرات‬

‫تنسيك وإعذاد ‪:‬‬

‫د‪.‬أصيـــــــــم عـــــــهي يـــــــوس‬
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‫حموق الطبع محفوظة لذى‪:‬‬

‫مكتبة حيكان‬
‫نهمضتهزماث انقرطاصيت واإلنكترونيت وانتصوير‬
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 HEMATOLOGY
1- Vitamin K antagonist :
a- warfarin b- Heparin
c- Protein C d- Antithrombin III

2- One of the intrinsic pathway

a-factor XI b-factor XIII
c-factor I d-factor VII

3- Para hemophilia is the deficiency of

a- factor VIII b- factor IX
c- factor V d- factor VII
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

4- Eosinophilia is seen in :
a- food sensitivity b- Drug sensitivity
c- Atopic dermatitis d- all of the above

5- Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic proliferation of:

a- lymphocytes b- Granulocytes
c- Plasma cells d- Monocytes

6- Test for intrinsic pathway:

a- bleeding time b- Thrombin time
‫ـــــــ‬

c- Prothrombin time d- Partial thromboplastin time PTT

7- Paul-Bunnel test is done to diagnose:

a- multiple myeloma b- Hodgkin’s disease
c- Infectious mononucleosis d- all of the above
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

8- increased platelet count is :

a- thrombocytopenia b- thrombopoietin
c- thrombocytosis d- all of the above

9- Decreased platelet count is:

a- thrombocytopenia b- Thrombopoietin
c- Thrombocytosis d- all of the above

10- All these are causes of thrombocytopenia except:

a- cytotoxic drugs b- Aplastic anemia
c- Hemorrhage d- Radiotherapy

11- Prothrombin time is done to test:

a- Intrinsic pathway only b- Extrinsic pathway only
c- Extrinsic and common pathways d- Intrinsic and common pathways

12- Normal bleeding time by Duke’s method:

a- 2-7 minutes b- 2-7 seconds
c- 2-4 minutes d- 2-4 seconds
 13- Normal partial thromboplastin time (PPT) is :
a- 3-4 minutes b- 30-45 seconds
c- 12-15 seconds d- 12-15 minutes

14- Hemophilia A is the deficiency of :

a-factor V b- factor VIII
c-factor IX d-all of the above

15-the most common form of leukemia in children is:

a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia b- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c- Acute myeloid leukemia d- Chronic myeloid leukemia

16- Bence-Jones protein is present in cases of:

a- chronic myeloid myeloma b-acute myeloid myeloma
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma d- multiple myeloma

17- Reed-Sternberg cells are found in cases of :

a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia b- Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma d- Multiple myeloma

18- Normal platelet count is :

a- 150,000 to 450,000/min3 b- 400,000 to 800,000/min3
c- 4,000 to 11,000 /min3 d- 50,000 to 100,000/min3
‫ـــــــ‬

19- Antithrombin III inhibits:

a- factor Va b- factor VIIIa
c- factor Xa d- all of the above

20- Heparin potentiate the action of :

‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

b- protein C ّ ‫خطأ! اإلشارة انمرجعيت غير‬S

b- protein.‫معرفت‬
c- antithrombin III d- warfarin

21- Factor II of blood clotting is:

a- Christmas factor b- Fibrinogen
c- Prothrombin d- Thromboplastin

22- One of fibrinogen group is : I V VIII XIII

a- II b- V
c- VII d- IX

23- Fibrinogen is converted to soluble fibrin by:

a- prothrombin b- Thromboplastin
c- Thrombin d- all of the above

24- Thrombopoitin control the formation of:

a- red blood cells b- White blood cells
c- platelets d- non of the above
 25- Normal prothrombin time (PT) is:
a- 30-45 seconds b- 30-45 minutes
c- 12-15 seconds d- 12-15 minutes

26- Parasitic disease is associated with:

a- monocytosis -bacteria b- Lymphocytosis - virus
c- Basophilia - sensitive d- Eosinophilia

27- Philadelphia chromosome is diagnostic for:

a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia d- chronic myeloid leukemia

28- Normal fibrinogen level:

a-150-400 gm% b-150-400 mg %
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

c-15-40 mg % d-15-40 gm %

29-infectious mononucleosis is caused by:

a- echo virus b- coxsaki virus
c- Epstein Barr virus EBV d- Cytomegalo virus

30- Atypical lymphocytosis is seen in cases of:

a- Hodgkin’s lymphoma b- Multiple myeloma
c- Infectious mononucleosis d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
‫ـــــــ‬

31-monospot test is done to diagnose:

a- Acute myeloid leukemia b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Infectious mononucleosis d- Infectious lymphocytosis

32- The test which depend on blood platelets & capillary fragility is:
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

a- prothrombin time b- Thrombin time

c- Bleeding time d- Clotting time

33- Fibrin is broken to fibrin degradation products by the action of:

a- Prothrombin b- Thrombin
c- Plasminogen d- Plasmin

34- Acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by:

a- low neutrophil alkaline phosphatase b- Myeloblast with Auer rods
c- Neutrophil with Pleger-Huet anomaly c- all of the above

35- Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by :

a- Heparin b-Histamine
c- Urokinase d- Serotonin

36- Increase D-dimers and fibrin degradation products are seen in cases of:
a- Hemophilia A b- Vitamin K deficiency
c- Diffuse intravascular coagulation d- Von Willebrand disease
 37- Activated protein C degrades:
a- factor IXa b- Factor VIIIa
c- Factor Xa d- Factor Xia

38- Heparin is found in

a- Neutrophil b- Basophil
c- Acidophil d- all of the above

39- In hemophilia A the test which will be prolonged is

a- PT b- PTT
c- Bleeding time d- all of the above

40- Bleeding due to overdose of heparin is managed by giving:

a- Vit K b- Vit C
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

c- Vit A d- Protamin sulphate

41- Streptokinase and staphylokinase convert:

a- Prothrombin to thrombin b- Fibrinogen to fibrin
c- Soluble fibrin to insoluble fibrin d- Plasminogen to plasmin

42- Test for platelet function:

a- Clot retraction b- Platelet aggregation
c- Platelet adhesion d- all of the above
‫ـــــــ‬

43- Prolonged PT occurs in cases of deficiency of:

a- Factor III b- Factor IV
c- Factor V d- all of the above

44- normal thrombin time (TT):

‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

a- 30-45 sec b- 2-4 min

c- 3-9 min d- 10-20 sec

45- cause of vitamin K deficiency:

a- Obstructive jaundice b- Prolonged use of antibiotics
c- Inadequate intake d- all of the above

46- Cause of Hyper- Coagulable state:

a- Aplastic anemia b- Cytotxic drugs
c- Polcythemia d- Radiotherapy

47-Physiological cause of neutrophilia:

a- New born b- Radiotherapy
c- Cytotoxic drugs d- Prolonged use of antibiotics

48- Leucocytosis characterized by the presence of immature cells and high

neutrophil alkaline phosphatase:
a- chronic myeloid leukemia b- Acute myeloid leukemia
c- Leukaemid reaction d- non of the above
 49- Normal coagulation time (CT):
a- 3-9 min b- 3-9 sec
c- 30-40 sec d- 30-40 min

50- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma accelerated by the
addition of a clotting factor activator (kaolin) , phospholipids and calcium:
a- coagulation time b- Prothrombin time
c- Partial thromboplastin time d- Thrombin time

51- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma to which
thromboplastin and calcium has been added:
a- thrombin time b- Prothrombin time
c- Coagulation time d- Partial thromboplastin time
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

52- The test which is widely used as a control and follow up test to control
anticoagulant treatment:
a- APTT b- PTT
c- PT d- TT

53- A disease characterized by progressive neoplastic proliferation of immature

white cell precursor:
a- acute leukemia b- Chronic leukemia
c- Lymphoma d- Multiple myeloma
‫ـــــــ‬

54- The absolute lymphocyte count may be up to 300,000 or more between 70 and
90 % of white cells in the blood film appear as small lymphocytes . THE CASE IS:
a- Acute myeloid leukemia b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c- Chronic myeloid leukemia d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

55- Variation in red cells size:

a- Poikilcytosis b- Anisocytosis
c- Reticulocytosis d- Leukocytosis

56- Dark red cells with no area of central pallor:

a- Stomatocyte b- Spherocyte
c- Acathocyte d- Schistocyte

57- Microcytic hypochromic anemia

a- hereditary spherocytosis b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Iron deficiency anemia d- Vit B12 deficiency anemia

58- Target cells are seen in cases of:

a- folic acid deficiency b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Vit B12 deficiency anemia d- Thalassemia

59- Red cells with elongated area of central pallor:

a- spherocyte b- Schistocyte
c- Stomatocyte d- Elliptocutes
 60- ……………….. Symmetric, short , sharp projection from the red cells and seen
in iron deficiency anemia:
a- echinocyte b- Acanthocyte
c- Elliptocyte d- Ovalocyte

61- ……………… is a condition in which the absorption of vit B 12 is greatly

impaired due to failure or marked reduction of intrinsic factor secretion:
a- fauvism b- fanconi’s anemia
c-sickle cell anemia d- thalassemia e- pernicious anemia

62- Hyperchromic cells are seen in:

a- iron deficiency anemia b- Thalassemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis d- Sickle cell anemia
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

63- A prolonged low rate of bleeding results in:

a- normochromic anemia b- Hypochromic anemia
c- Hyperchromic anemia d- non of the above

64- Schilling test is done in diagnosis of:

a- iron deficiency anemia b- Pernicious anemia
c- Aplastic anemia d- folic acid deficiency

65- Defective synthesis of either alpha or beta chains of normal hemoglobin cause:
a- sickle cell anemia b- Aplastic anemia
‫ـــــــ‬

c- Pernicious anemia d- Thalassemia

66- Neutrophils represent…………… of circulating leukocyte:

a- 2-8 % b- 0-1 %
c- 50-70 % c- 2-4 %
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

67- …………. are non nucleated, biconcave shaped cells:

a- platelet b- Leukocyte
c- Erythrocyte d- Macrophages

68- …………….. represent 50-70 % of total leukocytes

a- lymphocytes b- Neutrophils
c- Monocytes d- Eosinophilis

69- …………… have a characteristic biffed nucleus and their cytoplasm is filled
with large refractile granules that stain red in blood smear
a- neutrophils b- Eosinophilis
c- Basophiles d- Lymphocytes

70- The cell which is responsible for antibody production is:

a- moncytes b- T-lymphocytes
c- B-lymphocytes = plasma cell d- Neutrophils
 71- …… is a curved cell with sharp ends seen in haemoglobinopathies (HB S)
a- sickle cell b- Spherocyte
c- Ovalocyte d- Stomatocyte

72- All of the following is correct about sickle cell anemia except:
a- leg ulcers b- Gall stones
c- Enlargement of spleen d- Attacks of pain
73- ……….. is a single, large, rounded , dark , purple remnant of nucleus
a- Heinz body b- Howeel-Jolly body
c- Pappenheimer body d- Cabot ring

74- Agranulocyte:
a- neutrophil b- Lymphocyte
c- Basophile d- Eosinophil
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

75- Pica ( craving to eat unusual substance such as clay or ice) is one of the
symptoms of:
a- G6PD deficiency b- Thalassemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia d- Iron deficiency anemia

76- In …………….. there’s a decreased or absent hemosiderin in bone marrow

a- sideroblastic anemia b- Iron deficiency anemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia d- Hemolytic anemia
‫ـــــــ‬

77- Chloramphenicol may cause …………. anemia in long term therapy

a- iron deficiency b- Vit B12 deficiency
c- folic acid deficiency d- Aplastic anemia

78- ………. is the fluid (with anticoagulant) component of blood , it contains salt &
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

organic compounds:
a- plasma b- Serum
c- Hemoglobin d- Billirubin

79- Poikilocytosis is:

a- variation in red cell size b- Variation in red cell color
c- Variation in red cell shape d- non of the above

80- Red cell fragments:

a- echinocyte b- Elliptocyte
c- Schistocyte d- Stomatocyte

81- It is a defect of red cell member

a- Thalassemia b- Sickle cell anemia
c- Hereditary spherocytosis d- Megaloblastic anemia

82- All of the following is correct regarding spherocytosis except:

a- normocytic normochromic anemia b- Decreased reticulocyte count
c- Raised plasma bilirubin d- Increased osmotic fragility
 83- Heinz bodies are seen in cases of a- hereditary spherocytosis b- Hereditary
elliplocytosis c- G6PD deficiency d- sickle cell anemia

84- ……………… is caused by substitution of amino acid (valine) instead of

glutamic acid at position No.#6 in the beta chain of hemoglobin
a- Hb-A b- Hb-A2
c- Hb –F d- Hb –S sickle cell

85- Atrophy of the spleen is seen in cases of:

a- Thalassemia b- Sickle cell anemia
c- G6PD deficiency d- Hereditary elliplocytosis

86- iron deficiency lead to :

a- normocytic normochromic anemia b- microcytic hypochromic anemia
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

c- macrocytic anemia d- hemolytic anemia

87- Neurological symptoms are seen in cases of:

a- iron deficiency anemia b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency d- all of the above

88- Megaloplastic hematopoiesis is seen in cases of:

a- iron deficiency anemia b- folic acid deficiency
c- Vit B12 deficiency d- Vit C deficiency
‫ـــــــ‬

89- Fanconi’s anemia is a type of :

a - vit B12 deficiency b- aplastic anemia
c- Thalassemia d- folic acid deficiency anemia

90- the most abundant leukocyte in a normal blood smear of adult is :

‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

a- lymphocyte b- Monocyte
c- Eosinophil d- Neutrophil

91- The first line of defense against parasites:

a- neutrophils b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil d- Lymphocyte

92- …………….. play a role in immediate and delayed hypersensitivity:

a- monocyte b- Lymphocyte
c- Eosinophil d- Basophile

93- The largest leukocyte is :

a- neutrophils b- Lymphocyte
c- Monocyte d- Basophile

94- Cell which participate in cell mediated immunity:

a- monocyte b- B- lymphocyte
c- T- lymphocyte d- neutrophils
 95- ……… promotes blood clotting and help to prevent blood loss from damaged
blood vessels:
a- platelets b- WBCs
c- RBCs d- all of the above

96-antibody induced hemolytic disease in new born that is caused by bloo d group
incompatibility between mother and fetus:
a- hemolytic uremic syndrome
b- Erythroblastosis fetalis
c- Hereditary spherocytosis
d- Thromboloc thrombocytopenic purpurea

97- Young red blood cell with cytoplasmic RNA:

a- spherocyte b- Reticulocyte
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

c- Stomatocyte d- elliptocyte

98- Normal adult hemoglobin tetramer is:

a- 2 alpha : 2 gama b- 2 alpha : 2 beta
c- 2 alpha : 2 delta d- 2 beta : 2 gama

99- …………… represent 2-4 % of total leukocyte:

a- neutrophils b- Basophile
c- Eosinophil d- Monocyte
‫ـــــــ‬

100- ………… are small cytoplasmic fragment derived from megakaryocytic:

a- RBCs b- WBCs
c- Platelet d- non of the above

101 - ………….. is the reduction in the amount of circulating hemoglobin , red

‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

blood cells or both:

a- polycythemia b- Anemia
c- Hemophilia d- Leucopenia

102- Thalassemia is :
a- microcytic anemia b- Macrocytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia d- non of the above

103- Vit B 12 deficiency lead to :

a- hemolytic anemia b- Microcytic anemia
c- Normocytic anemia d- Megaloblastic anemia

104- Lymphocyte represent ………….. of total leukocyte:

a- 20-40 % b- 50-70 %
c- 2-8 % d- 1-5 %

105- Plumer- Vinson syndrome may be seen in cases of:

a- iron deficiency anemia b- Vit B12 deficiency anemia
c- Aplastic anemia d- folic acid deficiency anemia
 106- peripheral, pale inclusions that push out the cell membrane and composed of
hemoglobin:
a- cabot ring b- Pappenheimer body
c- Howell-Jolly body d- Heinz body

107- it’s an acute hemolytic anemia occurring after the ingestion of broad bean in
individual with deficiency of G6PD :
a-thalassemia b- Favism
c- Fanconi’s anemia d- Cooley’s anemia

108-………………. is a multiple small , peripheral grape like purple clusters of

iron:
a- cabot ring b- Heinz body
c- Howell-Jolly body d- Pappenheimer body
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

108- the blood smear gives the physician information concerni ng:
a- morphology of RBCs and platelet b- Presence of abnormal inclusion
c- Presence of immature cells d- all of the above

110- hypersplenism is one of the causes of :

a- iron deficiency anemia b- Hemolytic anemia
c- Aplastic anemia d- Megaloblastic anemia

111- Increased reticulocytes count is seen in cases of:

‫ـــــــ‬

a- hereditary spherocytosis b- G6PD deficiency

c- Sickle cell anemia d- all of the above

112- The antibody which can pass the placenta:

a- Ig M b- Ig G
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

c- Ig D d- Ig E

113- ……… is an autoimmune disease in which there is an immune destruction of

the acid and pepsin secreating cells of the stomach:
a- fanconi’s anemia b- cooley’s anemia
c-pernicious anemia d- non of the above

114- All of these are laboratory features of aplastic anemia except:

a- pancytopenia b-markedly hypocellular marrow
c- Increased reticulocyte count d- Markedly increase in serum erythropoietin

115- Secondary granules of neutrophils contain:

a-elastase b-Myeloperoxidase
c-Lysozyme d-Histamine

116- Monocytes represent ………………. of total leukocyte:

a- 0-1 % b- 2-4 %
c- 2-8 % d- 20-4 %
 117- the reagent used for leukocyte count is :
a- citric acid b- Acetic acid
c- Hydrochloric acid d- Sulphoric acid
BACTERIOLOG Y
118- All are Prokaryotic cells except:
a- Fungi b- Bacteria
c - Chlamydia d- Mycoplasma

119- Viruses:
a- Contain only DNA or RNA b - They Contain ribosome
c- Did not affected by antibiotics d- a+c

120- All of these are essential structure except:

a- Nuclear body b- Spores
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

c- Cell wall d- Plasma Membrane

121- ________ is giving the shape to the bacteria

a.- Cytoplasmic Membrane b- Capsule
c- Cell Wall d- All of the above

122- One of its functions is selective permeability

a- Cell wall b- Plasma membrane
c- Capsule d- Spores
‫ـــــــ‬

123- They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon

a- Flagella b- Fimbria
c- Capsule d- Cell wall

124- Clostridium Tetani is:

‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

a- Atrichous bacteria b- Mono-trichous bacteria

c- Amphi-trichous bacteria d- Peri-trichous bacteria

125- Short curved or straight rods, motile by single polar flagellum

a- spirochaeta b- Vibrio
c- Escherichia d- Lactobacillus

126- Small gram negative cocci, occur in pairs

a- staphylococcus b- streptococcus
c- neisseria d- non of the above

127- Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another by

bacteriophages is:
a. Transformation b-Tansduction
c-Conjugation d-Mutation

128- Salmonella are:

a- Obligatory Aerobic bacteria b.- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative Anaerobic bacteria d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria
 129- According to pH, vibrio cholera is
a- Osmophilic bacteria b- Basophilic bacteria
c- Acidophilic bacteria d- Neutrophilic bacteria

130- Staphylococci are:

a- Atrichous bacteria b- Mono-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria d- Peri-trichous bacteria

131- During replication of DNA, copying errors may occur and this is called
a- Conjugation b- Transduction
c- Transformation d- Mutation

132- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria

a- grow only in presence of oxygen
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

b- grow only in absence of oxygen

c- grow either in presence or absence of oxygen
d- grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5 – 10% CO2

133- Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at

a- pH 8.5 – 9.0 b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5 d- pH 2.5 – 3.0

134- The rate of cell death increase and bacterial growth stopped, this is
a- Adaptation phase b- Exponential phase .
‫ـــــــ‬

c- Stationary phase. d- Decline Phase

135- Beta-hemolytic
a- Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’s
b- Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin in RBC’s
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

c- Do not cause hemolysis

d- None of them

146- Mesophilic bacteria grow at:

a- 37°C b- 14°C
c- 60°C d- 120°C

137- Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in blood

a- Pyaemia b-Toxemia
c.- Bacteremia - without toxins d- Septicemia

138- Disinfections that applied on living or injured tissues:

a- Sterilization b- Antiseptic
c- Sanitation d- Decontamination

139- Hot air oven is used for sterilization of

a- Glass b- Rubber Gloves
c.- Plastic Syringes d- Catheters
 140- Disinfectant for superficial fungal infection
a- Phenol b- Potassium permanganate
c- Chlorine d- Hypochlorite compounds

141- Rifampin
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit folic acid pathway d- inhibit mRNA synthesis

142- Transacetylase inactivate

a- aminoglycosides b- chloramphenicol
c- penicillin d- cephalosporins

143- The color of gram positive bacteria is

a- Yellow b- Black.
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

c- Pink d- Violet

144- Selective media for fungi

a-blood agar b- Mac Conkey agar
c- Nutrient agar d- Sabourand’s dextrose agar

145- Histoplasma is a :
a- Systemic mycosis b- Sub – Cutaneous mycosis
c- Cutaneous mycosis d- Superficial mycosis
‫ـــــــ‬

146- All are asexual spores produced by mould except

a- Conidio – spores b- Sporangio – spores
c- Endospores d- Arthro – spores

147- They reproduce only by Asexual reproduction

‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

a- Blastomycosis b- Deutromycosis
c- Ascomycetes d- Zygomycetes

148- The functions of cell wall is all of the following except:

a- Giving the shape to the bacteria
b- Carrying somatic antigen
c-Selective permeability& transport of solutes = plasma membrane
d- Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis

149- Atrichous Bacteria are:

a- Bacteria contain one flagellum b- Bacteria contain 2 flagella
c- Bacteria without flagella d- Bacteria with a tuft of flagella

150-__________ are essential for host cell attachment:

a- Flagella b- Fimbria
c- Spores d- Capsules

151- Irregular clusters of spherical cells:

a- Streptococcus a-Staphylococcus
c- Lactobacillus d-Escherichia
 152- Clostridium Botulinum is:
a- Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria b- Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria
c- Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteria d- Micro- aerophilic Bacteria

153- Basophilic Bacteria grow well at:

a- pH 8.5 – 9.0 b- pH 7.2 – 7.4
c- pH 5.0 – 5.5 d- None of the above

154- Cells are divided at high & constant rate:

a- Decline Phase b- Stationary Phase
c- Log Exponential Phase d- Adaptation Phase

155- The dominant bacterial species in dental plaque are:

a- Coagulase Negative Staphylococci b- Lactobacillus
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c- Bacteroides d- Streptococcus Sanguis

156- The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in blood stream to different organs &
produce multiple abscess is:
a- Septicemia b- Bacteremia
c-Toxemia d- Pyaemia

157- Inhibit the growth of micro organisms

a- Bacteriostatic b- Bactericidal
c- Fungicidal d- Germicidal
‫ـــــــ‬

158- To sterilize fluid damaged by heat:

a-Gaseous Sterilization b-Heat Sterilization
c-Filtration d-Ionizing Radiation
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

159- For water disinfection we use:

a- Hydrogen peroxide b- Formaldehyde
c- Chlorine d- Hypochlorite compounds

160- Mechanism of action of penicillin:

a- Block peptidoglycan synthesis b- Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking
c- inhibit folic acid pathway d- inhibit protein synthesis

161- Sulfonamides:
a- inhibit cell wall synthesis b- inhibit protein synthesis
c- inhibit DNA synthesis d- inhibit folic acid pathway

162- Acetylase inactivates:

a- B – Lactam antibiotics b- Aminoglycosides
c- Cloramphenicol d- All of the above

163- Ringworm disease is caused by

a- Zygomycetes b- Ascomycetes
c- Blastomycosis d- None of the above
 164- For wet – mount technique we add:
a- NaoH b- K oH
c- H2 O2 d- All of the above

165- They are transmitted by arthropods

a- Chlamydia b- Spirochetes
b- Mycoplasma d- All of the above

166- In the past they were listed as large viruses

a- Richettsia b- Mycoplasma
c- Chlamydia d- None of the above

167- Bacteria multiply by:

a- Replication cycle b- Simple binary fission
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c- Sexual reproduction d- All of the above

168- It protects bacteria from antibiotics

a- Capsule b- Cell membrane
c- Flagella d- Fimbria

169- Vibro cholera is:

a- Mono –trichous bacteria b- Atrichous bacteria
c- Lopho-trichous bacteria d- Peri-trichous bacteria
‫ـــــــ‬

170- Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella

a- Spirochaeta b- Lactobacillus
c- Escherichia coli d- Vibrio

171- To take up soluble DNA fragments deri ved from other, closely related
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

species is
a. Mutation b- Transformation
c- Transduction d- Conjugation

172- Tuberculosis are

a- micro-airophilic b- Facultative anaerobic
c- Obligatory anaerobic d- Obligatory aerobic

173- According to pH, Lactobacillus is

a- Neutrophlic bacteria b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria d- None of the above

174- Bacteria without cell Wall

a- Chlamydia b- Rickettsia
c- Mycoplasma d.- Spirochetes

175- Brucella Melitensis is

a- Obligatory aerobic bacteria b- Obligatory anaerobic bacteria
c- Facultative anaerobic bacteria d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria
 176- Pseudomonas aeroginosa is
a- Peri-trichous bacteria b- Lopho-trichous bacteria
c- Amphi-trichous bacteria d- Monotrichous bacteria

177- Genetic information of bacteria is carried on

a- Messenger RNA b- Transfer RN|A
c- Transcript RNA d- Double – Stranded DNA

178- Thermophilic bacteria grow at

a- 60 – 80 °C b- 0 - 20°C
c-. 37°C d- 100 - 120°C

179- Acidophilic bacteria grow at

a- pH 7.2 – 7.4 b- pH 5.0 – 5.5
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c- pH 8.5 – 9.0 d- None of the above

180- Mycoplasma is
a- Neutrophilic bacteria b- Acidophilic bacteria
c- Basophilic bacteria d- All of the above

181- It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh medium

a- Lag phase b- Decline phase
c- Logarithmic Phase d- Stationary phase
‫ـــــــ‬

182- Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is

a- Beta-Hemolytic b- Alpha-Hemolytic
c- Gama Hemolytic d- None of the above

183- Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of the following except:
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

a- Staphylococci b- Diphtheroids
c- Shigella d- Lactobacillus

184- Opportunistic pathogens are al l of the following except:

a- Cause a disease when the host defense are suppressed.
b- Are normal flora of healthy body
c- Are greatly harmful
d- Do not invade the body or tissue.

185- For disinfection of mattresses :

a- Hot air oven b- Autoclave
c- Ethylene Oxide d- Hydrogen Peroxide

186- Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:

a- 100°C b- 60°C
c- 14°C d- 37°C

187- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll

a- Heterotrophic bacteria b- Autotrophic bacteria
c- Photosynthetic bacteria d- All of the above
 188- Tricophyton is one of
a- Yeast b- Moulds
c- Dermatophyte d- Dimorphic Fungi

189- Plastomyces is one of

a- Dermatophytes b- Dimorphic Fungi
c- Yeast d- Moulds

190- Color of gram negative bacteria is

a- Violet b- Green
c- Red d- Black

191- Acid Fast Bacteria

a- Salmonella b- Shigella
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c- M. Tuberculosis d- E – Coli

192- Spherical or avoid cells occurring in chains

a- Staphylococci b- Streptococci
c- Lactobacillus d- Spiro chaeta

193- ……………… carries the genetic information

a- the envelope b- the capsid
c- the nucleic acid d- the prion
‫ـــــــ‬

194- …………………… may be seen under light microscope

a- rota virus b- influenza virus
c- herps virus d- pox virus

195- viruses may be:

‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

a- monomorphic b- pleomorphic
c- dimorphic d- all of the above

196- viral capside is formed of:

a- protein b- glycogen
c- lipoprotein bilayer d- glycoprotein

197- class III in Baltimor classification is:

a- double stranded DNA viruses b- single stranded DNA viruses
c- double stranded RNA viruses d- single stranded RNA viruses

198- Hierarchial virus classification system use the following characters except :
a- nature of nucleic acid b- capside symmetry
c- diameter of viron & capside d- virus molecular weight

199- in viral replication which is true:

a- penetration is the 1 st step b- assembly is the last step
c- relaease is the last step d- all of the above
 200- viron:
a- may be extracellular phase of virus b- may be intracellular phase of virus
c- can grow and replicate d- means “ virus – like “

201- pleomorphic viruses means :

a- virus which have constant shape b- virus that may appear in 2 forms c-
virus that have not a constant morphology d- virus that have spherical shape

202- vapor of gold is used in :

a- shadow casting technique b- negative staining technique
c- positive staining technique d- non of the above

203- direct diagnosis of virus :

a- ELISA Antibody b- CFT
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c- IFT d- PCR virus

204- all of the following are required in cell culture except:

a- neutral PH b- presence of buffer salts
c- presence of antibiotics d- incubation at 20 C (( 30-37 C))

205- all of the following are diagnostic molecular biological technique except:
a- PCR b- ELISA
c- nucleic acid hyperdization d- DNA finger printing
‫ـــــــ‬

206- PCR require all of the following except:

a- extracted DNA template b- 2 specific primers
c- reation buffer d- RNA polymerase

207- bacteriophage is :
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

a- virus that can be killed by antibiotic b- virus that act like a bacteria
c- bacteria that act like a virus d-virus that infect bacteria

208- all of the following viruses are transmitted by blood except:

a- HIV b- HBV
c- HCV d- herps virus

209-all of the following are RNA viruses except:

a- corona viridase b- reoviridase
c- picorona viridase d- pox viridase

210- penetration of naked virus is by :

a- fusion b- endocytosis
c- translocation d- all of the above

211- amniotic cavity inoculation is one type of virus culture in:

a- tissue wall b- lab animals
c- embryonated egg d- non of the above
 212- …………….. is an invitro method amplification of a short sequence of target DNA
a- PCR b- hyberdization
c- finger printing d- all of the above

213- nucleic acid hyberdization means:

a- probe anneling or binding with it’s complementary segment of NA
b- fragmentation of nucleic acid
c- amplification of nucleic acid
d- non of the above

214- DNA hyberdization is performed by:

a- primers b- DNA labeled probe
c- restriction endonuclease d- non of the above
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215- PCR starts with :

a- annealing b- denaturation of DNA
c-extension of primers d- non of the above

216- PCR starts with :

a- annealing b- denaturation of DNA
c-extension of primers d- non of the above

217- ……………….. is a piece of DNA fragment of a particular gene that can

bind specially with it’s complementary piece of DNA:
‫ـــــــ‬

a- codon b- probe
c- LCR d- code

218- how many primers are used in PCR :

a- non b- one
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

c- two d- three

219- Lowenstein-Jensen media is used for the isolation for:

a- neisseria gonorrhea b- mycobacterium tuberculosis
c- haemophilus influenza d- staphylococcus aureus

220- Hekton-Enteric agar is the selective media for:

a- salmonella b- streptococcus
c- staphylococcus d- all of the above

221- the selective media for isolation of fungi is:

a- S-S agar b- XLD agar
c- sabouraud glucose agar d- Hekton-Enteric agar

222- gram positive rods with Chinese letter appearance:

a- mycobacterium tuberculosis b- corynebacteria diphtheria
c- clostridium tetani d- staphylococcus pneumonia
 223- E lek test is done to diagnose :
a- streptococcus b- staphylococcus aureus
c- clostridium tetani d- corynebacteria diphtheria

224- all are lactose fermenter except:

a- E-COLI b- proteus
c- klebsiella d- enterobacter

225- produce pale colonies on MacConkey’s agar and have tendency to swarm on
blood agar:
a- salmonella b- shigella
c- klebsiella d- proteus
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226- lactose frementer gram negative bacilli with mucoid growth:

a- salmonella b- shigella
c- klebsiella d- proteus

227- non lactose fermenter gram negative bacilli produce H 2S :

a- salmonella b- shigella
c- klebsiella d- proteus

228- Widal test is done for diagnosis of :

a- salmonella b- shigella
‫ـــــــ‬

c- E-coli d- klebsiella

229- the causative agent of enteric fever:

a- salmonella b- shigella
c- klebsiella d- proteus
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

230- the most common cause of urinary tract infection :

a- E-coli b- salmonella
c- shigella d- streptococcus

231- an important cause of diarrhea in infant:

a- staphylococcus b- E-coli
c- salmonella d- shigella

232- the most common causative agent for peptic ulcer :

a- campylobacter b- H-pylori
c- V-cholera d- all of the above

233- TCBS is the selective media for isolation of:

a- H-pylori b- V-cholera
c- E-coli d- H influenza
 234- gram negative bacilli strict aerobes grows on simple media producing a
characteristic greenish pigment:
a- campylobacter b- pseudomonas
c- pasterulla d- bordetella

235- the bacteria which cause scarlet fever:

a- staphylococcus b- streptococcus
c- salmonella d- shigella

236- antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for the diagnosis of:

a- group A streptococcus b- group B streptococcus
c- staphylococcus aureus d- staphylococcus albus

237- Loffler’s serum is used for isolation of:

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a- anthrax b- clostridium
c- diphtheria d- T.B

238- gas gangrene is caused by:

a- clostridium tetani b- clostridium botulinum
c- clostridium welchii d- non of the above (( clostridium perfinges ))

239- Bacillary dysentery is caused by:

a- salmonella b- shigella
c- cholera d- all of the above
‫ـــــــ‬

240- the cause of plague:

a- Y-enterocolitica b- Y-pestis
c- Y pseudotuberculsois d- non of the above
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

241- treponema palladium is the cause of :

a- T.B b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis d- AIDS

242- the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) is done for diagnosis
of:
a- T.B b- gonorrhea
c- syphilis d- AIDS

243- Trachoma is caused by:

a- mycoplasma b- chlamydiae
c-richettsia d- mycobacteria

244- M-tuberculsis bacilli stain with :

a- gram stain b- Zheil Nelson stain
c- Gimesa stain d- all of the above

245- AIDS is transmitted through :

a- food b- blood
c- semen d- (b) & (c)
 246- bacteria which cause syphilis:
a- Neisseria gonorrhea b- Viencent angina
c- Treponema palladium d- Yersinia pestis

247- to diagnose syphilis:

c- RPR b- VDRL
c-Wasserman d- all of the above

248- streptococci secret:

a- streptolysin O b- streptolysin S
c- streptokinase d- all of the above

249- disease caused by streptococci:

a- scarlet fever b- purperal sepsis
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c- rheumatic fever d- all of the above

250- staphylococci secrets:

a- coagulase enzyme b- fibrinolysin
c- hyaluronidase d- all of the above

251- gram positive bacilli:

a- Klebsilla b- Salmonella
c- Proteus d- C-diphtheria
‫ـــــــ‬

252- meningeococcal meningitis is transmitted by :

a- food b- droplet
c- touch d- all of the above

253- dark field microscopy is used to diagnose :

‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

a- T.B. b- syphilis
c- gonorrhea d- AIDS

254- it cause food poisining with flacid paralysis:

a- clostridium tetani b- clostridium welchii
c- clostridium botulinium d- all of the above

255- the infective stage of plasmodium vivax :

a-merozoites b- sporozoites
c- schizont d- trophozoite

256- Pirenella conica snail is the intermediate host of:

a- schistosoma haematobium b- fasciola hiptica
c- heterphyes heterophyes d- diphyllobothrium latum

257- Bulinus truncates snail is the intermediate host of :

a- fasciola hepatica b- fasciola gigantica
c- schistosoma haematobium d- schistosoma mansonii
 258- to isolate meningiococci we have to culture the sample on:
a- Bordet Gengou b- modified Thayer martin media
c- Lowenstein Jensen media d- all of the above

259- to isolate fungi :

a- Brain-Heart infusion media b- tissue culture
c- Lowenstein –Jensen media d- chocolate agar

260- to isolate H- influenza:

a- blood agar b- chocolate agar
c- mac Conkey media d- all of the above

261- the bacteria which cause pseudomembrainous conjunctivitis :

a- N.gonorrhea b- C. diphtheria
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c- staphylococcus d- Chlamydia

262- the best sample to diagnose meningitis :

a- blood b- sputum
c- CSF d- urine

263- used to stain Chlamydia

a- gram stain b- giemsa stain
c- wright stain d- all of the above
‫ـــــــ‬

264- -……….. is used as transport medium for sample in which cholera is

suspected
a- Cary-Blair media b- Stuart media
c- Alkaline peptone water d- glycerol
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

265- the color of XLD medium:

a- green b- red
c- yellow d- blue

266- CIN medium is used to isolate:

a- E.coli b- Vibrio cholera
c- yersinia d- salmonella

267- to make wet mount preparation:

a- 10 % KOH b- 10 % Na OH
c- 10 % Na CO3 d- 10% Na Cl

268- we do wet mount preparation for vaginal smear To diagnose:

a- T.vaginalis b- N.gonorrhea
c- streptococci d- staphylococci

269- to isolate viruses:

a- Loeffler media b- tissue culture
c- Bordet –Gengou media d- Brain- Heart infusion
 270- to diagnose whooping cough :
a- Bordet –Gengou media b- Lowenstein –Jensen media
c- modified Thayer martin media d- New York city agar

271- to diagnose systemic infection we do :

a- urine culture b- CSF culture
c- blood culture d- sputum culture

272- we give no growth for blood culture after:

a- 1 week b- 8 weeks
c- 6 weeks d- 3 weeks

273- to dissolve mucous in sputum sample :

a- 10% NaOH b- 30 % NaOH
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c- 10 % KOH d- 10% NaCl

274- mutualism means:

a- one partener benefits , other unaffected b- both partner benefit
c- one partner benefit , other damaged d- living together

275- Commensalisms means:

a- living together b. one partner benefit , other damaged
c- both partner benefit d- one partner benefits , other unaffected
‫ـــــــ‬

276- Balantidium coli moves by:

a- flagella b- cilia
d- pseudopod d- all of the above

277- Mouth inhabitant:

‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

a- Trichomonas hominis b- Trichomonas tenax

c- Trichomonas vaginalis d- giardia lamblia

278- Transmitted by sexual intercourse:

a- toxoplasma b- giardia lamblia
c- Trichomonas vaginalis d- all of the above

279- citrate utilization test is done to assist identification of:

a- gram +ve bacteria b- gram –ve bacteria
c- entrobacteria d- enterococcus

280- the Kovac's reagent used in the following biochemical tests:

a- catalase b- coagulase
c- indole d- methyl red

281- positive results for H2S production appear as …. Colour:

a- black b- yellow
c- red d- green
 282- ………. Give positive coagulase test:
a- streptococci b- staphylococcus aureus
c- staphylococcus saprophyticus d- Escherichia coli

283- methyl red test is performed with:

a- Erlich reagent b- Kovac's reagent
c- Voges proskaur d- non of the above

284- ………… give positive result with urease test:

a- salmonella b- shigella
c- Y. enterocolitica d- all of the above

285- -…………. test is used to differentiate between bacteroides & brucella:

a- indole b- methyl red
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c- H2S production d- nitrate reduction

286- - DNAase test is positive with:

a- streptococcus pneumonia b- E.coli
c- staphylococcus aureus d- staphylococcus epidermis

287- - ………… solution used in the gram stain technique acts as a mordant:
a- crystal violet b- safranine
c- iodine d- alcohol
‫ـــــــ‬

288- - the counter stain in Ziehl - Neelson stain is :

a- malachite green b- methylene blue
c- iodine d- (a) & (b)

289- bile solubility test is positive with :

‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

a- streptococcus viridans b- streptococcus pneumonia

c- streptococcus agalectiae d- streptococcus pyrogenes

290- -litmus milk decolorization test assist the identification of :

a- entrobacteria b- bacteroides
c- brucella d- enterococci

CHEMISTRY
291- ………….. are substance produced by specialized cells of the body and
carried by blood stream where it affect other specialized cells:
a- vitamins b- enzymes
c- isoenzyme d- hormones

331- …………… is a protein which catalyse one or more specific biochemical

reaction and not consumed during the reaction:
a- enzymes b- hormones
c- vitamins d- proteins
 292- - ………… is required in the hepatic synthesis of prothrombin and the blood
clotting factors and it’s deficiency is observed in newborn infants:
a- vitamin E b- vitamin A
c- vitamin K d- vitamin D

293- there are enzymes that catalyze the same reaction but differ in there physical
properties:
a- vitamins b- adjuvents
c- isoenzyme d- hormones

294- it’s functionis to maintain adequate serum level of calcium:

a- vitamin E b- vitamin A
c- vitamin K d- vitamin D
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295- -the inhibitor and substrate bind at different sites on the enzyme this type of
inhibition is called:
a- competitive inhibition b- non competitive inhibition
c- surface recognition d- product concentration

296- ……….. found in cartilage consist of a core protein to which the linear
carbohydrates chain are covalently attached:
a- glycoprotein b- proteoglycan
c- link protein d- hyaluronic acid
‫ـــــــ‬

297- …………… is synthesized only by micro-organism , it’s not present in plants

but present in liver , it’s deficiency leads to pernicious anemia:
a- vit C b- vit B12
c-vit B1 d- vit B2
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

298- the brown color of the stool is due to the presence of:
a- urobilinogen b- urobilin
c- porphyrin d- bilirubin

299- the degradation of heme takes place in the …………. particularly in the liver
and spleen :
a- reticulocytes b- erythrocytes
c- reticuloendothelial cells d- non of the above

300- 340- increased Hb destruction , the liver is unable to cup the greater load of
pigment and bilirubin level well rises this is called :
a- hepatogenous jaundice b- hemolytic jaundice
c- obstructive jaundice d- non of the above

301- ………… plays a role in visual cycle it’s deficiency leads to night blindness, β-
carotene is the major precursor of this vitamin in human:
a- vitamin E b- vitamin A
c- vitamin K d- vitamin D
 302- a large percentage of the ……….. requirement in humans is supplied by
intestinal bacteria:
a- biotin b- niacin
c- folic acid d- thiamin

303- ………….. are organic compounds required by the body in trace amount ,
can’t be synthesized by humans , but supplied by diet:
a- enzymes b- vitamins
c- hormones d- proteins

304- it facilitate the absorption of iron by reducing it to ferrus state in the stomach
and it’s deficiency result in scurvy:
a- vit C b- vit B
c- vit D d- vit A
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305- it’s function is to transport oxygen from the lung to the tissue:
a- haptoglobin b- hemoglobin
c- bilirubin d- myoglobin

306- ………….. act as an antioxidant and it’s deficiency cause liver degeneration:
a- vit E b- vit A
c- vit K d- vit D

307- it’s caused by liver parenchyma damage , the excretion of bile greatly
‫ـــــــ‬

decreased and the concentration of bilirubin in the blood rise :

a. hemolytic jaundice b. hepatogenous jaundice
c- obstructive jaundice d- non of the above
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

308- ……… play an essential role in body metabolism , a deficiency or excess may
lead to serious dearrangement of body function:
a- enzymes b- hormones
c- vitamins d- isoenzymes

309- …………. will interfere with the chemical determination of bilirubin , giving
high variable results:
a- hemolysis b- hemoglobin
c- vitamins d- hormones

310- in hemolytic jaundice there will be increase ……………. in serum:

a- direct bilirubin b- indirect bilirubin
c- total bilirubin d- all of the above

311- the inhibitor binds reversibly to the same site on the enzyme that the
substrate normally occupy , this type of inhibition is called :
a- competitive inhibition b- non competitive inhibition
c- surface recognition d- product concentration
 312- regulation of blood glucose level can be achieved by :
a- hormonal mechanism b- hepatic and renal mechanism
c- (a) & (b) d- non of the above

313- insulin is a hormone secretes by :

a- α cell of islet of langerhans in pancreas
b- β cell of islet of langerhans in pancreas
c- suprarenal cortex
d- non of the above

314- cholesterol is a component of all cell membrane and it’s the precursor of : a-
bile acid b- steroid hormones
c- vit D d- all of the above
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315- anti diuretic hormone ( ADH) secretion is controlled by:

a- rennin angiotensin b- plasma osmlality
c- (a) & (b) d- non of the above

316- the electrophoresis is based on differential migration of :

a- charged particles b- uncharged particles
c- molecular weight d- (a) & (b)

317- acid base balance is regulated by :

a- oxygen concentration b- hydrogen ion concentration
‫ـــــــ‬

c- nitrogen ion concentration d- (a) & (b)

318- it’s an increase in hydrogen ion concentration of the blood:

a- acidosis b- alkalosis
c- acid base balance d- (a) & (b)
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

319- over production of acid associated with :

a- diabetes mellitus b- lactic acidosis
c- methanol poisoning d- all of the above

320- serum bicarbonate is decreased in:

a- respiratory acidosis b- metabolic acidosis
c- renal tubular acidosis d- all of the above

321- chronic deficiency in dietry calcium can lead to :

a- anemia b- bronchial asthma
c- osteoporosis d- non of the above

322- ………… is due to decrease blood CO2:

a- metabolic acidosis b- respiratory acidosis
c- respiratory alkalosis d- metabolic acidosis

323- …………. is the most important factor affecting body sodium content:
a- aldosteron secretion b- antidiuretic hormone
c- testosterone d- all of the above
 324- haemosiderosis is :
a- increase iron store b- decrease iron store
c- increase hemoglobin d- decrease hemoglobin

325- if there’s a mixture of protein ( colloids) and salt ( crystalloid) they can be
separated by :
a. precipitation b. dialysis
c- chromatography d- electrophoresis

326- the predominant cation in intracellular fluid is :

a- sodium b- potassium
c- calcium d- phosphorus
327- metabolic acidosis is due to :
a- failure to secret acid b- bronchial asthma
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

c- loss of bicarbonate d- (a) &(c)

328- high level of plasma ferritin may occur due to :

a- inflammatory condition b- malignant disease
c- liver disease d- all of the above

329- gonadal hormones estimation is important in :

a- detection of ovulation b- assessment of amenorrhea
c- evaluation of delayed puberty d- all of the above
‫ـــــــ‬

330- the secretion of gonadal hormone is controlled by :

a- LH b- FSH
c- TSH d- (a) & (b)

331- the intensity of the color is directly proportional to the

‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

………. of the analyte in the solution:

a- dilution b- contamination
c- concentration d- observation

332- the ………… contain information of any health or safety rich associated with
use or exposure to hazardous chemicals:
a- MSDS b- NFPA
c- POLT d- OSHA

333- instraument used to measure color changes in the labs:

a- microscope b- centrifuge
c- photometer d- all of the above

334- the color coded signs used to identify flammable chemicals:

a- blue b- yellow
c- white d- red

335- quality assurance includes :

a- personal orientation b- laboratory documentation
c- knowledge of laboratory istraumentation d- all of the above
 336- the laboratory procedure manual include:
a- patient preparation b- specimen collection & processing
c- specimen preservation , storage & transport d- all of the above

337- the principal of reflectance photometer

a- measure the amount of light that pass through the solution
b- measure the amount of light that the solution absorbs
c- (a) & (b)
d- non of the above

338- the blood cell counter include :

a- aperture impedence cell counter b- Geiger counter
c- microscopes d- all of the above
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

339- it is mession is to save lives , prevent injuries , and protect health of all
workers in the lab. :
a- MSDS b- NFPA
c- POLT d- OSHA

340- ……………. requires 3 hours at 140 C ْ or 1 hour at 160 C ْ for complete

sterilization
a- hot air oven b- autoclave
c- filteration d- all of the above
‫ـــــــ‬

341- arterial blood samples are essential to do :

a- CBC b- urea
c-blood glucose d- blood gas analysis

342- vaccum tubes with green stopper contain:

‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

a. EDTA b. sodium citrate

c- heparin c- no anticoagulant

343- serum separator tube is all of the following except:

a- contain gel that separate serum from cells during centrifugation
b- contain clot activator to speed clot formation
c- has red & black mottled top stopper
d- used for coagulation tests

344- for phlepotomy we use all of the following except:

a- the hypodermic needle & syringe b- the vaccum tube system
c- the monolet lancets d- the winged infusion set

345- lab. equipment should be cleaned and disinfected with :

a- hypochlorite b- formaldehyde
c- glutaraldehyde d- (b) & (c)

346- any blood split in the lab should be immediately swabbed with :
a- hypochlorite b- alcohol
c- soap d- water
 347- CBC is performed using:
a- serum b- well mixed EDTA whole blood
c- plasma d- non of the above

348- which tube should be filled first in blood collection:

a- tubes with anticoagulant b- tube without anticoagulant
c- tubes for blood culture d- non of the above

349- the monojector is designed to be used with :

a- the monolet lancet b- tenderlett
c- tenderfoot d- non of the above

350- the site of choice for capillary puncture in newborns is :

a- the earlobe b- middle finger
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

c- the big toe d- the lateral medial planter heel surface

PARASITOLOGY
351- Intermediate host of Trypansom:
a- triatoma megista b- sand fly
c- tse tse fly d- anopheles

352- The cause of chaga's disease:

a- trypanosoma gambiense b- trypansoma rhodesiense
‫ـــــــ‬

c- trypansoma cruzi d- leishmania braziliense

353- The cause of sleeping sickness:

a- trypanosoma gambiense b- trypanosoma cruzi
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

c- trypanosoma rhodesiense d- (a) & (c)

354- Cause Kala- azar:

a- leishmania tropica b- leishmania braziliense
c- leishmania donovani d- leishmania mexicana

355- cause oriental sore:

a- plasmodium ovale b- leishmania tropica
c- leishmania donovani d- trypanosoma rhodesiense

356- Its trophozite is shaped like a pear , has the 2 nuclei that resembles eyes and 4
pairs of flagella that look like hair:
a- Trichomonas vaginalis b- entameoba histolytica
c- giardia lamblia d- endolimax nana

357- Pear shaped trophozite with 4 anterior flagella and a 5 th forming the outer
edge of a short undulating membrane:
a- Trichomonas hominis b- entameoba histolytica
c- entameoba coli d- endolimax nana
 358- sometimes it cause metastatic infection which involve liver, lung, brain or
other viscera:
a- giardia lamblia b- Trichomonas vaginalis
c- entameoba histolytica d- balantidium coli

359- Intestinal ciliate:

a- entameoba histolytica b- entameoba coli
c- giardia lamblia d- balantidium coli

360- Asexual multiplication of plasmodium vivax takes place in:

a- anopheles b- sand fly
c- human d- tse tse fly

361- Plasmodium falciparam is transmitted by :

‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

a- triatoma megista b- tse tse fly

c- anopheles d- sand fly

362- Moves by pseudopods:

a- giardia lamblia b- balantidium coli
c- entameoba histolytica d- Trichomonas vaginalis

363- it's one of the round worms:

a- schistosoma mansoni b- schistosoma haematobium
c- ascaris lumbricoides d- fasciola hepatica
‫ـــــــ‬

364- it's one of the tape worms:

a- ascaris lumbricoides b- ancylostoma duodenal
c- trichuris tricura d- taenia saginata
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

365- barrel shapped egg, yellow brown in color with a colorless protruding mucoid
plug in each end:
a- egg of ascaris lumbricoides b-egg of ancylostoma duodenal
c- egg of trichuris tricura d- egg of taenia saginata

366- large oval egg ,pale yellow brown in color has a characteristic side spine &
contain a fully developed miracidium , the worm is:
a- S.mansoni b- S. hematobium
c- A. duodenal d- T. solium

367- large oval egg , pale yellow brown in color has an indistinct operculum and
contains unsegmented ovum:
a- S. hematobium b- fasciola hepatica
c- heterophyes heterophyes d- taenia solium

368- round egg , embryo is surrounded by a thick brown radially striated wall ,
hooklets are present in the embryo:
a- S. hematobium b- fasciola hepatica
c- A. duodenal d- T. solium
 369- oval colorless egg,flattened on one side & contains a larvae:
a- hymenelopis diminuta b- dipylidium caninum
c- entrobius vermicularis d- taenia saginata

370- the cause of malignant malaria:

a- plasmodium vivax b- plasmodium ovale
c- plasmodium malaria d- plasmodium falciparum

371- infection occur when infective filariform larvae penetrate the skin:
a- ascaris lumbricoides b- ancylostoma duodenal
c- fasciola hepatica d- heterophyes heterophyes

372- ……..lives in the liver and bil e ducts of sheep and cattle:
a- stronyloides stercoralis b- schistosoma mansoni
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

c- fasciola hepatica d- ancylostoma duodenal

373- segment found in stool which is white & opaque & measures 20 mm long by
6mm wide with uterus that has a central stem and more than 13 side branches on
each side…the worm is :
a- fasciola hepatica b- trichuris trichuris
c- heterophyes heterophyes d- taenia saginata

374- infection is by eating raw or under cooked fish:

a- fasciola hepatica b- trichuris trichuris
‫ـــــــ‬

c- heterophyes heterophyes d- taenia solium

375- …… is transmitted by eating raw or under cooked beef:

a- heterophyes heterophyes b- taenia saginata
c- schistosoma mansoni d- ancylostoma duodenal
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

BODY FLUID
376- urine output < 400 ml/24 hours is :
a- polyuria b- anuria
c- oligouria d- non of the above

377- precipitation of urates takes place in:

a- acidic urine b- alkaline urine
c- neutral urine d- all of the above

378- it's one of the causes of persistently acidic urine:

a- urinary tract infection b- phenylketonurea
c- excessive bicarbonate ingestion d- excessive ingestion of soda

379- common cause of proteinuria:

a- alcoholism b- fasting > 18 hours
c- diabetes mellitus d- Bence- Jones proteins
 380- dipstick detect acetoacetic acid & acetone which react w ith:
a- peroxides b- nitroprusside
c- diazo compounds d- indoxyl esters

381- in dipstick bilirubin reacts with :

a- nitroprusside b- peroxides
c- indoxyl esters d- diazo compounds

382- among the common cause of hematouria:

a- urogenital carcinoma b- diabetes mellitus
c- heavy exercise d- metabolic disorder

383- large number of hyaline cast indicated:

a- acute pyelonephritis b- proliferative glomerulonephritis
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

c- heart failure d- all of the above

384- red cell casts indicates:

a- acute pyelonephritis b- proliferative glomerulonephritis
c- heart failure d- all of the above

385- crystals which look like envelope :

a- triple phosphate b- cystine
c- uric acid d- calcium oxalate
‫ـــــــ‬

386- Biuret test is done to determine:

a- glucose b- pentose
c- protein d- galactose

387- the 1 st tube of synovial fluid is for:

‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

a- hematology b- chemistry
c- microbiology d- microscopy

388- square plate like crystals with notched corners in synovial fluid indicate:
a- uric acid b- calcium pyrophosphate
c- cholesterol d- monosodium urate

389- abnormal forms in semen should not exceed:

a- 10 % b- 5 %
c- 25 % d- 50 %
Lab.Management
390- The process of getting things done through and with people operating in
organized group toward a common goal is the
a- management b- Organization
c- Planning d- None of the above
 391- Primary objectives in the planning are directed to
a- the laboratory as a whole
b- Increase the efficiency in the performance of the lab. test
c- Decrease the costs in the performance of the lab. test
d- All of the above

392- Forecasting needs for staff personnel means

a-Prediction in relation to the kind of technician and technologist who will be working
in the lab.
b- Plan for the full utilization of efficient use of instrument
c- Plan for the full use of space in the lab.
d- None of the above

393- An organization
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

a- Is formed when 2 or more persons are brought together to achieve a common goal
b- Is closely related to planning
c- Involves structuring activities and functions within institutions to achieve the goals
and objects
d- all of the above

394- The real behavior and relationships of organization members usually differ
from their planned behavior and relationships. It is
a- Formal organization b- Informal organization
c- Space utilization d- None of the above
‫ـــــــ‬

395- The intra lab. System includes the following except

a- Calendar format b- Histogram format
c- out of limits report sheet d- Proficiency testing and computer program
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

396- The out of limits report form provides

a- Space for recording reagents changes b- Control lot number changes
c- Serve as a general "dairy" of the test methodology d- All of the above

397- Patient preparation, specimen collection and technical performance of lab.

test are general categories of…………..
a- Planning b- Utilization of space
c- Work flow d- Quality control

398- -floor book manual includes the following except

a- Test name b- Sample fluid
c- Minimum volume d- Proper procedures for collecting routine and special tests

399- Collection procedure manual involve

a- Blood collection from pediatric patients b- Intensive care blood collection
c- Isolation techniques for lab. Personnel d- All of the above

400- On the container and \or lab requisition

a- Patient's full name should be put b- Hospital number should be put
c- Date of collection should be put d- All of the above
 401- Accuracy referred to the following except
a- Correctness and exactness of the test
b- Closeness of the test to the true value
c- True value determined by comparison to a standard
d- reproducibility

402- Regarding precision the following is true except

a- Reproducibility
b- Closeness of the test results to one another when using the same specimen
c- In the clinical lab it is expressed as (SD) and coefficient of variation
d- The capability of the method to detect a small amount of substance with some
assurance

403- Reliability is
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

a- The ability of a method to measure only that substance being tested

b- The ability of the test method to maintain its accuracy despite of extraneous
circumstances
c- The ability of the method to maintain accuracy, precision and ruggedness
d- d- None of the above

404- …………….. This symbol in the flow chart means

a- Beginning process
b- Decision
c- Manual operation
‫ـــــــ‬

d- Decision mod

405- This symbol in the flow chart means ( )

a-Beginning process
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

b- Decision
c- Direction flow
d- Document

406- Work load on which personnel requirements are usually based is influenced by
a- changes in volume
b- Test mix
c- Patient population
d- All of the above

407- The physical features of the lab. one of the measures of

a- forecasting of personnel needs
b- Assessment of space utilization
c- Time management
d- None of the above

408- If P (E) is the probability of E we may express this definition as

a- P (E) = m\N b- P (E) = N\m
c- P (E) = m X N d- None of the above
 409- When a test indicates a positive status when the true status is negative it is called
a- positive test b- False positive test
c- Negative test d- False negative test

410- The specificity of a test

a- The probability of a positive test results or (presence of the symptoms) given the
presence of the disease
b- The probability of a negative test results or (absence of the symptoms) given the
absence of the disease
c- a and b
d-None of the above

411- The largest collection of entities for which we have an interest at a particular
time is called
‫ مكتبة حيكان‬:‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‬

a- Population b- Sample
c- Data d-All of the above

412- A sample is
a- A part of a population b- The whole population
c- Endless population d- None of the above

413- If we have 100 students and they are ranked by age beginning with the 4 th
student, every tenth student is chosen (the student no. 4 then 14 and 24 and so on)
this type of sample is called
‫ـــــــ‬

a- Systemically selected sample b- A stratified selected sample

c- Simple random sample d- Cluster selected sample

414- -A point estimate is

a- A single numerical value used to estimate the corresponding population parameter
‫ أصيل يوس‬/‫من إعداد وتنسيق د‬

b- Tow numerical values defining a range of values include the parameter being
estimated
c- a and b
d- None of the above

415- Estimator is
a-the rule that tells us how to compute the single value which is called estimate
b- Two numerical values defining the range of values
c- a, b
d- None of the above

416- The table which shows the way in which values of the variables are
distributed among the specified class interval is called
a- Relative frequency b- Ordered array
c- Frequency table d- None of the above

417- The following are the ages of 5 patients seen in the emergency room in certain
day 35, 30, 55, 40, 25 years the mean of their ages is
a- 37 years b- 30 years
c- 39 years d- 40 years
 ‫‪418- A mathematical tool designed to facilitate complex clinical decision in which‬‬
‫‪many variables must be considered spontaneously is called‬‬
‫‪a- Reference value‬‬ ‫‪b- Decision analysis‬‬
‫‪c- Quality assurance‬‬ ‫‪d- None of the above‬‬
‫حقــوق الطبع محـفوظة لدى‪ :‬مكتبة حيكان‬
‫ـــــــ‬

‫التنضونا من خانص انذعاء‬

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