MCQ lab med

1)Select the statement about red blood cells that is incorrect

a. Mature red blood cells lack nuclei

b. Deoxyhemoglobin carries oxygen
c. Red blood cells lack mitochondria
d. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin

2) Urinalysis gives qualitative and quantitative information

a. True
b. False

3) Plasma is about 45 % of the total blood volume

a. True
b. False

4) Cessation of urine flow is defined as

a. Dysuria
b. Anura
c. Diuresis
d. Azotemia

5) What parameters indicate anemia:

a. RBC.Hb, Hct
b. RBC
c. WBC
d. RBC Hb, Hct, PLT

6) Patient with diabetes mellitus have urine with

a. Increased volume and decreased specific gravity

b. Increased volume and increased specific gravity
c. Decreased volume and decreased specific gravity
d. Decreased volume and increased specific gravity

7) Full Blood Count (FBC) - test evaluates:

a. The general condition of the body, with pathological changes in the blood, requires
additional studies
b. Anemia
c. Specific test
d. Kidney function
e. Liver function

8) Normal urine primarily consists of

a. Water, urea, and protein

b. Water, protein, and sodium
c. Water, urea, and sodium chloride
d. Water, urea, and bilirubin
 9) Normal urine should have absence of

a. Glucose
b. Blood
c. Proteins
d. All of the above

10) A deficiency of the oxygen carrying capacity in the blood will cause the production of
more red blood cells

a. False
b. True

11) The volume of urine excreted in a 24-hour period by an adult patient was 500 mL. This
condition would be termed

a. Polyuria
b. Anuria
c. Oliguria
d. Dysuria

12) The type of white blood cell that often arrives at the site of infection first, is a
granulocyte, and contains granules that stain light purple is a

a. basophil
b. neutrophil
c. eosinophil
d. monocyte

13) Reference intervals or "normal range" are defined as the range of values into which

a. 75% of nondiseased (“normal”) individuals will fall

b. 95% of nondiseased (“normal”) individuals will fall
c. 50% of nondiseased (“normal”) individuals will fall
d. 100% of nondiseased (“normal”) individuals will fall

14) Which of the following can give a false negative urine protein reading?

a. Very dilute urine

b. Contamination with vaginal discharge
c. Presence of blood
d. Heavy mucus

15) The specific gravity of a specimen indicates

a. both answers are correct

b. the number of particles of solute per unit of solution
c. both answers are wrong
d. the relative proportions of dissolved solid components to total volume of the
specimen

16) Microbes in BSL3

 a. are not known to consistently cause disease in healthy adults and present minimal
potential hazard to personnel and the environment
b. can cause serious or potentially fatal disease through inhalation
c. care very easily transmitted and cause serious or fatal diseases for which there are
no vaccines or treatments
d. pose a moderate hazard to personnel and the environment

17) Microbes in BSL 4

a. are very easily transmitted and cause serious or fatal diseases for which there are no
vaccines or treatments
b. are not known to consistently cause disease in healthy adults and present minimal
potential hazard to personnel and the environment
c. can cause serious or potentially fatal disease through inhalation
d. pose a moderate hazard to personnel and the environment

18) Nocturnia is

a. excretion of more than 1500 ml of urine at night with specific gravity <1 018
b. excretion of more than 1000 ml of urine at night with specific gravity <1018
c. excretion of more than 500 mL of urine at night with specific gravity <1.018
d. excretion of more than 400 mL of urine at night with specific gravity <1010

19) Shortened aPTT tests may be due to

a. Von Willebrand disease

b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
c. Lack of vitamin K
d. Hemophilia A and B

20) The mean and normal range of Hemoglobin for an adult male is

a. 15.7 (14.0-17.5) g/dL

b. 13.0 (12.0-14.0) g/dL
c. 13.0 (11.0-15.0) g/dL.
d. 17.0 (16.0-18.0) g/dl.

21) Variation in erythrocyte shape is called

a. anisocytosis
b. anisochromia
c. spherocytosis
d. poikolocytosi

22) In which phase of laboratory testing do the most errors occur?

a. preanalysis
b. analysis
c. all are correct
d. postanalysis

23) Which is the example of organism in BSL 3?

a. Staphylococcus
 b. HIV
c. Ebola
d. TB

24) The yellow color of urine is due to

a. transferin
b. hemoglobin
c. urobilin
d. bilirubin

25) Normal pH range for urine is

a. 5.4-7
b. 4.5-9
c. 4.6-8
d. 3.5-6

26) A relative increase of leukocytes is

a. an increase in percentage and absolte concentration

b. an increase only in lymphocyte concentration
c. an increase in absolute concentration
d. an increase in percentage only

27) The mean and normal range for white blood cell count is

a. 7.8 (4.4-11.3) x1012/L

b. 7.8 (4.4-11.3) x109/L
c. 11.5 (8.5-14.5) x10/L
d. 11.5 (8.5-14.5) x10/L

28) Hematocrit (Hct) is

a. the average volume of a single red cell

b. the average concentration of Hb in a given volume of packed red cell
c. the content of haemoglobin inside a single red cell
d. the ratio of the volume of erythrocytes to that of the whole blood

29) If the platelet count is normal

a. about 10 platelets are found per 10-30 red cells

b. about one platelet is found per 10-30 red cells
c. about one platelet is found per 100 red cells
d. no single platelet is found per 10-30 red cells

30) The term primary hemostasis refers to

a. all answers are correct

b. platelet reactivity at the site of vessel injury
c. the cascade of enzymatic reactions that results in the conversion of ferinogen to
fibrin monomers
d. all answers are wrong
31) Prolonged aPTT tests may be due to

a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

b. Von Willebrand disease
c. An acute phase reaction
d. Extensive cancer

32) Osmolality of a specimen indicates

a. both answers are correct.

b. both answers are wrong
c. the relative proportions of dissolved solid components to total volume of the
specimen
d. the number of particles of solute per unit of solution
1. Lymphocytosis can be caused by:
A. Autoimmune disorders.
B. Immune deficiency.
C. Myelodysplastic syndrome.
D. Acute viral infections.
2. Which is the example of organism in BSL 4 :
A. Staphylococcus..
B. HIV.
C. TB.
D. Ebola.
3. Which test is used for diagnosis of HIV infection in children younger than 18 months ?
a. Anti - HIV
b. HIV PCR
c. HIV western blot
d. HIV Ag / Ab
4. Normal value for INR in healthy people is ?
a. 2.5 or below.
b. 4.5 or below.
c. 1.1 or below.
d. 1.5 or higher.
5. which test is used to screen for neural defects such as spina bifida ?
a. Hcg.
b. AFP.
c. progesterone.
d. estradiol.
6. Which pattern is characteristic for hyperthyroidism ?
a. T3-normal, T4-normal, TSH-low.
b. T3-high or normal, T4-high or normal, TSH-low.
c. T3-high, T4-high, TSH-high.
d. only T4-high.
7. Positive results for both CCP antibody and RF, means ?
a. most likely a patient has lupus.
b. a patient has osteoarthritis.
c. it is very likely that a patient has RA.
d. a patient does not have RA.
8. In MTB testing culture Negative is reported after ?
a. six weeks.
b. four weeks.
c. two weeks.
d. one week.
9. Normal range of hematocrit (Hct) for an adult male is ?
a. 41-51%
b. 61-71%
c. 51-61%
d. 71-81%
10. Polyuria is ?
a. production of more than 2000 ml of urine in 24 hrs.
b. production of more than 1000 ml of urine in 24 hrs.
 c. production of more than 800 ml of urine in 24 hrs.
d. production of more than 1500 ml of urine in 24 hrs.
11. Lymphopenia can be caused by ?
a. acute viral infections.
b. lymphocytic leukemia.
c. HIV.
d. lymphoma.
12. the blood urea nitrogen or BUN test is primarily used ?
a. to evaluate heart injury.
b. to evaluate liver function.
c. to evaluate kidney function.
D. to rule out diabetes.
13. Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) test evaluates ?
A. haemoglobin concentration over the past 6 monthes.
b. haemoglobin concentration over the past 1 month.
c. the average amount of glucose in the blood over the past 2 to 4 months.
d. the average amount of glucose in the blood over the past 1 month.
14. Which test is the new gold standard for diagnosis of viral infections ?
a. viral culture.
b. nucleic acid testing (PCR).
c. viral antigen detection.
d. ELISA.
15. Concentration of antibiotic that inhibits the visible growth of an organisim in an in
vitro system is ?
a. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC).
b. a breakpoint.
c. cut off value
d. sensitivity.
16. The most commonly orderd and most specific marker of heart damage which is
positive within a few hours of damage and remains elevated for up to two weeks is ?
a. creatinine kinase.
b. cardiac troponin.
C. myoglobine.
D. AST.
17. Mean cell haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is ?
a. the average volume of a single red cell.
b. the average concentration of Hb in a given volume of packed red cells.
c. the ratio of the volume of erythrocytes to that of the whole blood.
d. the content (weight) of Hb inside a single red cell.
18. Mean cell volume (MCV) is ?
a. the average volume of a single red cell.
b. the ratio of the volume of erythrocytes to that of the whole blood.
c. the average concentration of Hb in a given volume of packed red cells.
d. the content (weight) of Hb inside a single red cell.
19. The term secondary hemostasis refers to ?
a. all answers are wrong.
b. all answers are correct.
c. platelet reactivity at the site of vessel injury.
 d. the cascade of enzymatic reactions that results in the conversion of fibrinogen
to fibrin monomers.
20. Initial screening for coronary risk panel may involve ?
A. only a LDL test and not a full lipid profile.
b. only a single test for total cholesterol and not a full lipid profile.
c. only a HDL test and not a full lipid profile.
d. full lipid panel should be used.
21. A chosen concentration (mg/L) of an antibiotic which defines whether a species of a
bacteria is susceptible or resistant to the antibiotic ?
a. a breakpoint.
b. cut off value.
c. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC).
d. sensitivity.
22. Refractory periodontitis ?
a. develops due to a complete remission after therapy, followed by recurrence of
the disease as a result of reformation of plague, and calculus.
b. periodontitis unresponsive to any treatment provided.

23. Which is the lipid profile test ?

a. creatinine.
b. cholesterol total, HDL-cholesterol, LDL-cholesterol, VLDL-cholesterol,
triglycerides.
c. HbA1c.
d. total bilirubin.
24. fasting plasma glucose level more than 126 mg/dL (more than 7mmol/L) indicates ?
a. indicates diabetes mellitus.
b. is a normal value.
c. indicates prediabetes.
d. indicates gestational diabetes in pregnant women.
25. the ability of a test to discriminate disease from no disease is described by ?
a. positive predictive value.
b. sensitivity and specificity of the test.
c. specificity of the test.
d. sensitivity of the test.
26. Negative results for both CCP antibody and RF, means ?
a. most likely a patient has lupus.
b. a patient has osteoarthritis.
c. it is less likely that the person has RA.
d. it is very likely that a patient has RA.
27. excretion of more than 4 g/day protein in urine is ?
a. minimal proteinuria.
b. heavy proteinuria.
c. normal value.
d. moderate proteinuria.
28. "Schuffner's granules" are characteristics of ?
a. malaria.
b. megaloblastic anemia.
c. iron deficiency anemia.
 d. pernicious anemia.
29. a normal eGFR for adults is ?
a. greater than 90 mL/min/1.73m2
b. greater than 70 mL/min/1.73m2
c. greater than 50 mL/min/1.73m2
d. greater than 35 mL/min/1.73m2
30. creatinine is a waste product produced by ?
a. liver.
b. kidneys.
c. muscles.
d. heart.
31. Fasting plasma glucose level < 100 mg/dl (< 5.6 mmol/L) ?
a. is a normal value.
b. indicates diabetes mellitus.
c. indicates prediabetes.
d. indicates gestational diabetes in pregnant women.
32. healthy adults with no other risk factors for heart disease should be tested with a
fasting lipid panel :
a. there is no need for lipid testing in this population.
b. once every four to six years.
c. once every two years.
d. once a year.
33. In hypochromia :
a. MCH and MCHC are usually decreased.
b. MCH and MCHC do not change.
c. MCH decreases but MCHC does not change.
d. MCH and MCHC are usually increased.
Microbes in BSL1
a. pose a moderate hazard to personnel and the environment
b. can cause serious or potentially fatal disease through inhalation
c. are not known to consistently cause disease in healthy adults and present minimal
potential hazard to personnel and the environment
d. are very easily transmitted and cause serious or fatal diseases for which there are no
vaccines or treatments

Circle the wrong statement

a. The Hct reflects the concentration of red cells - not the total red cell mass
b. The Hct is low in hydremia of pregnancy
c. The Hct may be normal or high in shock accompanied by hemoconcentration
d. The Htc is reliable estimate of anemia after blood loss

In megaloblastic anemia red blood cells are hyperchromic because

a. MCH and MICHC are usually increased
b. MCH is increased , but the MCHC is normal
c. MCH is normal , but the MCHIC is increased
d. MCH decreased , but MCHC is normal

Neutropenia can be caused by

a. Chronic leukemia
b. Inflammation
c. Tissue necrosis
d. Chriotherapy

Normal pH rnge for urine is

a. 4.6 -8
b. 1.4-7
c. 3.5-6
d. 4.5 -9

leukocyte esterase and nitrite test are

a. indirect test for urinary tract infection
b. indirect tests for hermolysis
c. indirect test for measuring urine pH
d. Direct test for urinary tract infection

Microbes in BSL2
a. porse a moderate hazard to personnel and the environment
b. can cause serious or potentially fatal disease through inhalation
c. are not known to consistently cause disease in healthy adults and present minimal
potential hazard to personnel and the environment
d. are very easily transmitted and cause serious or fatal diseases for which there are no
vaccines or treatments

Reticulocytes are
a. immature red cell that contain RNA
b. immature eosinophils that contain RNA
c. immature lymphocytes that contain RNA
d. immature monocytes that contain RNA
Lymphocyte percentage is
a. 12%
b. 22%
c. 34%

Eosinophilia is characteristic for

a. pernicious anemia
b. bacterial infection
c. allergies
d. alplastic anemi

iron deficiency anemia is

a. hypochromic macrocytic
b. hypochromic microcytic
c. hyperchromic microcytic
d. hyperchromic macrocytic

schistocytes indicate
a. iron deficiency anemia
b. megaloblastic anemia
c. malaria
d. hemolysis

Oliguria
a. excretion of less than 800 ml of urine per 24 hrs
b. excretion of less than 1000 ml of urine per 24 hrs
c. excretion of less than 500 ml of urine per 24 hrs
d. excretion of less than 300 ml of urine per 24 hrs

CIRCLE A WRONG Statement

a. D-dimer is produced when a blood clot is dissolved in the body .
b. D-dimer is usually undetectable or detectable at a very low level unless the body is
forming and blood clots break down .
c. A negative D-dimer test (a D-dimer level below the preset threshold) indicates that
thrombosis is very unlikely. Dr.. A positive
d. dimer test confirms deep vein thrombosis

Measuring potassium is important

a. When there are symptoms involving the heart
b. When the patient has jaundice
c. In diabetics
d. In patients on dialysis .

EGFR should be calculated

a. With the CBC test .
b. Every time a creatinine blood test is done .
c. Only in patients with dialysis
d. Every time a basic examination of urine is done

Which one is NOT a part of liver function panel tests

a. ALT
 b. Bilirubin
c. ALP
d. CK

The preferred initial test for thyroid disorders is

a. T3 test
b. T4 test
c. TSH test
d. Free T4

Circle THE WRONG statement

a. Doubling of hCG in 2 days provides a greater than 80% probability of intrauterine
implantation of the fertilized ovum ,
b. Increases in serum hCG of less than 53% in2 days indicate abnormal pregnancy
sensitivity .
c. Multiple gestations have higher hCG levels than singletons
d. urine hCG 2 to 3 days earlier than serm methods ,

in congenital viral infection

a. maternal IgG antibodies passively transfer across the placenta into the fetal
circulation
b. maternal IgM and IgG antibodies passively transfer across the placenta into the fetal
circulation
c. maternal IgG antibodies do not passively transfer across the placenta into the fetal
circulation
d. maternal IgA and IgG antibodies passively transfer across the placenta into the fetal
circulation

Serologic diagnosis of acute infection is based on the presence of

a. anti - HBs
b. anti - HBc total
c. anti - HBe
d. anti - HBc IgM and HBsAg

Which is the most accurate “gold standard” test in diagnosing MTB

a. AF staining
b. culture
c. serology
d. molecular testing

Which of the following tests is usually seen only in those with SLE
a. Anti - Sm antibody
b. RF
c. Antiphospholipid antibodies
d. ANA

Anti - nuclear antibody (ANA)

a. is only positive in SLE
b. is positive in almost all people with RA
c. is negative in SLE
d. is positive in almost all people with SLE
A very high level of ALT is frequently seen with 55
a. people with blocked bile ducts
b. cirrhosis
c. liver cancer
d. acute hepatitis