Review questions

Hematology

1. Which of the followings test is used to assess the capillary fragility by inducing
hypoxia and hydrostatic pressure?
a. Ivy method
b. Tourniquet test
c. ST
d. TT
2. What is responsible in clot retraction?
a. Thrombin
b. Thrombasthenin
c. Thrombosthenin
d. Thromboplastin
3. What is other name of Burkitt-type lymphoblastic leukemia?
a. ALL FAB type 1
b. ALL FAB type 2
c. ALL FAB type 3
d. Hodkin’s disease
4. What is the anticoagulant used in routine coagulation?
a. Heparin
b. Sodium citrate
c. EDTA
d. Sodium fluoride
5. What coagulation factors are not present in aged serum?
a. I, II, V, VIII, and XIII
b. II, VII, IX, X, and XIII
c. I, V, VIII, XIII, PK
d. II, VII, HMWK
6. Which of the following is not a manner of reporting prothrombin time results?
a. % activity
b. Ratio
c. Seconds
d. g/dL
7. What serologic test/s is/are highly specific for the detection of infectious
mononucleosis?
a. differential absorption test
b. Paul-bunnell-Davidsohn test
c. All of the above
d. Noe of the above
8. What FAB classification of ALL is seen mostly in infants or neonates?
a. L1
b. L2
c. L3
d. L4
9. A patient with polycythemia has a follow-up check-up for coagulation studies. A blood
sample is needed to be collected in a light blue stopper tube. What should the
medical technologist do prior to blood collection?
a. Increase the amount of anticoagulant (?)
b. Decrease the amount of anticoagulant
c. Continue with blood collection
d. Change the vacutainer tube
10. Which are the components of the intrinsic tenase complex?
a. VIIa, tissue factor, phospholipid, and calcium
b. IXa, VIIIa, phospholipid and calcium
c. Xa, Va, phospholipid and calcium
d. Xa, XIIa, phospholipid and calcium
11. What condition is characterized by a mucocutaneous bleeding secondary to
decrease platelet count caused by presence of antibodies, in which the acute type
occurs more often in children whereas the chronic type occurs in middle-aged
adults?
a. TTP
b. ITP
c. DIC
d. HUS
12. Which condition presents prolonged bleeding tune and giant platelets in the PBS?
a. Glanzmann’s thrombasthemia
b. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
c. Von willbrands disease
d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
13. What substance stabilizes fibrin clot?
a. A2-antiplasmin
b. FXIIIa
c. TPA
d. Thrombin
14. What enzyme is responsible for the degradation of fibrin to form fibrinogen
degradation products in the fibrinoltic process?
a. Thrombin
b. Fibrinogen
c. Plasmin
d. Plasminogen
15. Which of the following is true about the functions of Protein C and protein S in the
coagulation cascade?
a. These proteins are both Vitamin K-independent
b. These proteins inhibit coagulation by inactivating factors Va and VIIIa
c. Protein C enables Protein S to cease the activity of the coagulation pathway
d. Protein S is a serine protease activated by thrombin-thrombomodulin and is a
cofactor of Protein C
16. What endothelial substance is responsible for the localization of platelet aggregation
in an injured site?
a. Thromboxane
b. Ristocetin
c. Prostaglandin
 d. Prostacyclin
17. What hematologic neoplasm is characterized by a dry tap BM aspiration and
presence of fried egg lymphoblasts?
a. B-cell prolymphocytic leukemia
b. Follicular-lymphoma
c. Hairy cell leukemia
d. Mantle cell lymphoma
18. Which of the following dugs interferes with platelet function by inhibiting the
cyclooxygenase enzyme thereby blocking conversion of arachidonic acid to various
prostagladins and TXA2?
a. Vitamin K antagonist
b. Warfarin
c. Aspirin
d. Comadin
19. The patient’s WBC count is at 28x10^9/L with 90% blasts, 6% segmenters, and 4%
monocytes. The blasts are relatively large and has abundant cytoplasm. More than
85% of them are positive with NSE and an occasional blast is positive with Sudan
black B. what is the possible diagnosis?
a. AML M1 designation
b. AML M3 designation
c. AML M4 designation d ko sure
d. AML M5 designation
20. What test is the most useful to order when one is suspecting qualitative platelet
defect? BT ni? Or count?
a. Platelet count
b. Bleeding time ?
c. aPTT
d. PT
21. The patient was diagnose with symptoms of ALL. the cells seen were described as:
Cell size- large and homogenous
Nucleus- Round and prominent
Cytoplasm- Moderately abundant with intense basophilia and vacuolation
Nucleoli- one and vesiculated

What is the most probable condition of this patient?

a. L1
b. L2
c. L3
d. Lymphoma
22. Which of the following types of leukemia will not manifest the presence of Phi and
sultan bodies?
a. APL
b. M5
c. L3
d. Lymphoma
23. What is the concentration of the calcium chloride used in APTT?
a. 0.25 M
b. 0.025 M
 c. 0.0025 M
d. 0.025 M
24. What is the irreversible step in primary hemostasis?
a. Adhesion
b. Activation
c. Secretion
d. Aggregation
25. What laboratory test is not affceted by the presence of therapeutic heparin?
a. Phrothrombin time
b. Stypven time
c. Reptilase time
d. DRVVT
26. Which of the following does not belong to the group in terms of cytogenetic analysis?
a. Polycythemia vera
b. Essential thrombocythemia
c. Primary myelofibrosis
d. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
27. What cytochemical stain is used to differentiate AML from ALL by staining the lipid
content of the cells and is more sensitive for early myeloid cells?
a. Myeloperoxidase
b. Specific esterase
c. ANBE and ANAE
d. Sudan Black B
28. Which of the following platelet ultrastructure is the site of alpha and dense granules?
a. Sol-gel zone
b. Peripheral zone
c. Open canalicular system
d. Organelle zone
29. What cytochemical stain is used to differentiate AML from ALL and is a marker for
immature lymphocytes?
(Acute Myeloid Leukemia-stains negative, Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia- stains
positive)
a. Sudan Black B
b. Myeloperoxidase
c. TdT
d. Periodic Acid Schiff
30. What is the correct sequence of events during primary hemostasis?
a. Vasoconstriction, activation, secretion, adhesion, aggregation, platelet plug
b. Vasoconstriction, adhesion, activation, secretion, aggregation
c. Adhesion, aggregation, vasoconstriction, activation, secretion, platelet plug
d. Vasoconstriction, activation, adhesion, aggregation, secretion, platelet
plug
31. What type of myeloproliferative disorder is characterized by a decreased to normal
erythropoietin levels?
a. Polycythemia vera
b. Chronic granulocytic leukemia
c. Essential thrombocythemia
d. Primary myelofibrosis
32. What FAB classification is described if the blasts are myeloperoxidase and specific
esterase negative but shows a strong positivity for non-specific esterase inhibited by
sodium fluoride?
a. M1
b. M4
c. M5
d. M6
33. Which of the following is not a direct method of platelet count?
a. Guy and leake’s
b. Damshek
c. Reese-Ecker
d. Brecher and Conkrite
34. Which of the following are Vitamin K-dependent factors?
a. I, II, VII, IX, X
b. II, VII, IX, X
c. I, V, VIII. C, XIII
d. II, VII, XII, HMWK
35. What plasma protein is necessary for the adhesion of platelets to subendothelial
fibers? (VWF)
a. Platelet factor 3
b. Von Willebrand factor
c. Glycoprotein (Ib/IIa)
d. Collagen
36. What is the transit time for a megakaryoblast to reach its platelet-producing stage?
a. 7 days
b. 3 days
c. 8 to 11 days
d. 9 days
37. Patient A, a 20-year-old student was rushed in the ER with prolonged bleeding
following snake bite. The laboratory results ате
Blood smear- presence of schistocytes
Platelet count- 50,000/ cu.mm.
PT- 25 seconds
aPTT- 50 seconds
D-dimer- positive
What is most likely the diagnosis
a. TTP
b. DIC
c. HUS
d. HELLP
38. The coagulation parameters (PT and APTT) of two patients were done twice, the
following values were obtained.

PT in seconds APTT in seconds

Patient 1 11 12 25 40
 Patient 2 10 11 32 45

Normal control 14 13 30 42

Abnormal control 45 46 60 50
What might be the cause of the discrepancies?
a. Excess calcium chloride was added
b. There is problem in the activator
c. There is an error with the thromboplastin reagent
d. The control was expired
39. Refer to the following results
PPT- Prolonged
PT- Normal
TT- Normal
Mixing studies shows
Aged plasma- corrected
Normal serum- not corrected
Normal serum- not corrected
What is the possible factor deficiency?
a. Factor X
b. Factor VII
c. Factor VIII
d. Factor IX
40. What is the primary product of fibrinogen degradation by plasmin?
a. Fragments YY and DXD complex
b. Fragment Y
c. Fragment D and E
d. Fragment X
41. What are autoantibodies associated with SLE?
1- anti-ss-DNA
2- anti-RNA
3- anti-ds-DNA
4- amti-C1q antibodies
a. 1,3
b. 2,4
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
42. What bleeding disorders are associated with abnormalities of the vascular system?
1- anti-ss-DNA
2. anti-RNA
3. anti-ds-DNA
4. Anti-C1q antibodies
a. 1,3
b. 2,4
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
43. What are hemorrhagic spots with a diameter greater than 1cm found the skin or
mucous membranes forming an irregular blue or purplish patch? (ecchymosis?)
 a. Petechiae
b. Purpura
c. Echymoses
d. Hematoma
44. Which of the following parameters is decreased when a plasma is diluted in
fibrinogen activity determination?
a. Amount of thrombin required
b. Influence inhibitors
c. Amount of calcium needed
d. Effect of deficiencies in other coagulation factors
45. How is fibringen affected in a patient with severe DIC has an FDP result of >200
ug/dL and a clottable fibrinogen value of 50 mg/dL?
a. The usage of fibrinogen in DIC
b. The interference caused by elevated FDPs
c. The presence of excess thrombin in the test system
d. The semi-quantitative procedure of the test
46. Which of the following does not cause an increased platelet count?
a. Kasabach-merrit syndrome
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Myelosuppressive therapy
d. Essential Thombasthemia
47. A patient has a mild history of hemorrhagic episodes. Laboratory results include: both
PT and APTT are both prolonged. The prolonged PT was corrected by normal and
adsorbed plasma, but not with aged serum. Which of the following factors are
deficient?
a. Factor X
b. Factor VII
c. Factor XIII
d. Factor IX
48. What disease is formed when there is a defect in GpIIb/Illa?
a. WAS
b. BSS
c. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
d. Fibrinogen deficiency
49. A 14-year-old girl suffers from easy bruising with epistaxis and hemarthroses for
several years Bleeding occurs from mild to moderate episodes. Her laboratory results
are as follows: PT-normal, aPTT-prolonged. TT-normal. Mixing studies showed a
coagulation factor deficiency. A correction study was made and the findings are as
follows aged plasma and normal serum are both corrected; and the adsorbed plasma
is not corrected. What is the factor deficiency?
A. Factor X
B. Factor VII
C. Factor XIII
D. Factor IX
50. Which of the following factors can contribute to hypercoagulation?
a. Vascular endothelial damage
b. Increased blood flow ?
c. Increased platelet consumption
d. Decreased titers of coagulation factors