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Kcse Trial 2025 Post Mock Exams

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577 views251 pages

Kcse Trial 2025 Post Mock Exams

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KCSE TRIAL 2025 POST MOCK EXAMINATION

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

N/B In Response to the Huge Costs Associated in Coming Up with Such/Similar

Resources Regularly, We inform us All, MARKING SCHEMES ARE NOT FREE OF
CHARGE. However Similar QUESTIONS, Inform of soft Copies, are Absolutely
FREE to Anybody/Everybody. Hence NOT FOR SALE
by Amobi Group of Examiners.
Page 1
Prefer Calling Amobi Group of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
Page 2
Prefer Calling Amobi Group of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
ORDER OF THE 14 SUBJECTS
TESTED (ALPHABETICALLY ARRANGED)
1. AGRICULTURE
2. BIOLOGY
3. BUSINESS STUDIES
4. CHEMISTRY
5. COMPUTER
6. C.R.E
7. ENGLISH
8. GEOGRAPHY
9. HISTORY
10. HOME SCIENCE
11. IRE
12. KISWAHILI
13. MATHS
14. PHYSCIS

Page 3
Prefer Calling Amobi Group of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 for Marking Schemes
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

443/ 1 - AGRICULTURE - Paper 1

(Theory)
2025 – Time 2 hours

Name …………………………………………….Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……Date ………………………………….

Instructions To Candidates

EXAM
• Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
• The paper consists of three sections A , B and C.
• Answer all questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
• Answer any two questions from section C in the spaces provided

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Maximum Candidate’s
Section Question score score

2025
1−16 30
A

17
18
B 19
20
20

C
21-23 40

TOTAL 90

TAGRI2025 TURN OVER

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION A (30 marks)
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

1. State four reasons for practicing grafting in citrus production (2mks)

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2. Mention four types of soil erosion by water (2mks)
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3. Differentiate between coppicing and pinching out (2mks)
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4. Give four benefits of possessing certificate of land ownership (2mks)

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5. Give one reason why each of the following nursery management practices are carried
out. (2mks)
(i) Hardening off
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(ii) Watering before transporting seedlings from the nursery bed
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6. Name four effects of excessive nitrogenous fertilizer application on tomatoes (2mks)
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7. State four early maturing varieties of cabbages (2mks)
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8. State four ways by which Agriculture contributes to national development (2mks)
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9. List four methods of land acquisition (2mks)
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10. State four roles of trees in soil and water conservation (2mks)
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11. State any four types of livestock farming (2mks)
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12. a) State two ways by which a soil of pH 3 can be raised to pH 5 (1 mk)
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b) Name any two types of soil structures (1mk)

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13. State four factors that determine the number of secondary cultivation to be done on a
seedbed (2mks)
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14. Mention any four factors that should be considered when selecting site for making
compost manure (2mks)
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15. a) Define the following terms:
i) Opportunity cost (1/2 mk)
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ii) Agricultural economics (1/2mk)

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b) Give two types of farm records that a large scale farmer should keep (1mk)
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Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION B (20 marks)
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
16. The diagram below shows a method of irrigation

a) Identify the method (1 mark)

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b) State two advantages of the irrigation system named in (a) above. (2mks)
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c) State any two factors to be considered when choosing the method of irrigation
to use in an area (2mks)
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17. The diagram below is a tool used to harvest crops in the farm. Use it to answer the
questions that follow

a) Identify the tool represented above (1 mark)

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b) Name the crop harvested by use of the tool above. (1 mark)
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c) Name the part labeled A on the tool (1 mark)
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d) Give one reason why the crop named in (b) above should be cut at ground
level (1 mark)
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e) Give a reason why the leaves of the crop should be removed after cutting
(1 mark)
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18. An agronomist recommends application of 130kg N, 55kg P2O5 and 65kg K2O after
testing a soil sample. Calculate the amount of urea (46%N), Single super phosphate
(20% P2O5) and Potassium chloride (50% K2O) that should be applied on the land.
(5mks)

19. The diagram below illustrates a weed

a) Identify the weed (1 mark)

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b) State one competitive ability of the weed illustrated above. (1 mark)
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c) State two mechanical control measures for the weed above (2mks)
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d) Classify the weed above according to plant morphology (1 mark)
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SECTION C (40 MARKS)

ATTEMPT ANY TWO QUESTIONS IN THE SPACE PROVIDED

20. a) Describe five qualities of mother plant that should be considered when
selecting vegetative materials for planting (5 marks)
b) List seven benefits of using organic matter for mulching (7 marks)
c) Describe the field production of nappier grass under the following
sub-headings
i) Planting (3 marks)
ii) Fertilizer and manure application (3 marks)
iii) Utilization (2marks)
21. a) Describe the procedure of silage making (8 marks)
b) State and explain four factors that determine the depth of planting (8 marks)
c) Outline four roles of Agriculture in Kenya’s economy (4 marks)
22. a) Outline seven effects of land fragmentation and subdivision (7 marks)
b) State and explain three methods of pruning (6 marks)
c) Describe the establishment of vegetative propagation nurseries (7 marks)
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Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
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THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE!

KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education 2025

443/ 2 - AGRICULTURE - Paper 2

(Theory)
2025 – Time 2 hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number……………………………

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...………... Date …………………………………….

•
•
•
•
EXAM
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
The paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
Answer all questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
Answer any two questions from section C in the spaces provided
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION
A
B
C
2025
QUESTION
1 – 15
16 – 19
20
21
MAXIMUM SCORE
30
20
20
20
CANDIDATES SCORE

22 20
TOTAL 90

1
Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION A (30 Marks)
Answer ALL the questions in this section.
1. Name four breeds of rabbits. (2marks)
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2. List four functions of the rumen in the digestion of feed in
Ruminant animal (2marks)
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3. State two reasons why drenching is not an effective method of internal parasite
control. (IMC) (1mark)
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4. Give the functional difference between a cross-cut saw and a rip saw. (1mark)
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5. State two functions of a queen in a colony (1mark)
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6. Give two reasons why rabbit hutches should be raised above the ground level.
(1mark)
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7. State four disadvantages of natural mating as a method of breeding in dairy

cattle. (2marks)
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8. Name four disorders in livestock caused by the lack of mineral nutrients.
(2marks)
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9. Name the type of hammer that one would require for the following operations.
(i) Striking cold chisel. ( ½ mark)
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(ii) Driving and removing nails in wood. ( ½ mark)
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(iii) Striking wooden chisels. ( ½ mark)
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(iv) Breaking stones for masonry work. ( ½ marks)
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10. State four ways in which animal utilizes a production ration. (2marks)
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11. State four observable features of an indigenous cattle (2marks)
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12. (a) Name two forms in which tapeworms are found in livestock (1mark)
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(b) State four non-chemical control measures of ticks on the farm (2marks)
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13. State two reasons why young rams should be docked (1mark)
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14. State four ways of restraining cattle during routine management (2marks)
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15. Give four features of housing that help to control livestock diseases. (2marks)
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16. State two functions of crop in the digestive system of chicken (1mark)
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17. Give four characteristics of a good site for fish pond (2marks)
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18. Give the meaning of the following terms used in livestock as used in livestock
Production.
(1 ½ marks)
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4
Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION B (20 Marks)
Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided.

19. Below is a diagram of a farm structure for storing grains. Study it carefully and
answer questions that follow

(a) Identify the farm structure above (1mark)

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(b) State the function of the part marked M (1mark)
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(c) Give two maintenance practical that should be carried out on the farm
structure illustrated in readings for grain storage. (2marks)
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(d) A part from the structure illustrated above, name two other structures
used to store grains by NCBP. (1mark)
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20. Study the illustration below and answer the questions that follow.

5
Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
C
B

(a) Which diagram represent the normal presentation of calf at birth?

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(b) What term is used to refer to position shown in diagram B?
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(c) State three signs of parturition in cattle (3marks)
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21. The illustration below represents a sheep with parts marked E, and G. study it
and answer the questions that follow.

(a) (i) State the operation carried out on the parts labeled F and G.
F……………………………………………………………………… ( 1mark)
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G………………………………………………………………………(1mark)
(ii) Name the tool used to carry out the operation on the part G. (1 mark)
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(iii) Give two reasons for each operation carried out on the part labeled.
F…………………………………………………………………………… (1mark)

G…………………………………………………………………………. (1mark)
22. (a) A 300kg pig ration containing 20% crude protein was to be made from wheat
bran (3% crude protein) and cotton seed cake ( 24% crude protein). Using the
peasons square method, calculate the amount of each feed stuff that is needed to
prepare the ration. (5marks)

SECTION C (40 Marks)

Answer any two questions in this section.
23. (a) Discuss eight general methods of disease control. (8marks)
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(b) Describe the procedure of processing honey using heat method. (7marks)
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(c) Give six factors considered when selecting an helfer for breeding.
(5marks)
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24. (a) Describe the life cycle of a two-host tick. (5marks)
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(b) State six functions of water in an animal body. (6marks)
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(c) Outline five importance of farm building. (5marks)
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(d) Give four signs of heat in a doe. (4marks)
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25. (a) State four reasons for dehorning in cattle. (4marks)

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(b) Describe the procedure of egg formation in poultry. (10marks)

(c) Outline six advantages of live fences. (6marks)

10
Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

231/ 1 - BIOLOGY - Paper 1

(Theory)
2025 – Time 2 hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ……………………………………

Instructions to candidates

EXAM
a) Write your name and class in the spaces provided above.
b) Append your signature and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Spelling errors especially of biological terms shall be penalized
d) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided.
e) Candidates should answer the questions in English
f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed and no questions are

2025
missing

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score

1 – 29 80

TBIO2025 TURN OVER

Answer all questions in this section

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1(a) The diagram shows an enzyme. (1mks)

(a)Name the part of the enzyme labelled X. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………..
(b) Draw the substrates that this enzyme would this break down? (1 mark)

(c) Name this model of enzyme action (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Name the taxonomic unit that comes immediately after Family in classification. (1mk)

2 (a) Name the basic functional unit of the skeletal muscle. (1mk)

(b) Distinguish between a tendon and a ligament. (1mk)

2
4. Explain the significance of the following in the feeding of a mammal
(a) Long tongue in herbivores. (1mk)
..............................................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................................
(b) Canine in carnivores. (1mk)
..............................................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................................

5. Name the part of maize seed that elongates to bring about hypogeal germination. (1mk)
..............................................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................................
6. (a) State two characteristics of living organisms that are specific to plants. (2mks)
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................................................

(b) State the name given to the study of;

i) The cell (1mk)

ii) Microorganisms (1mk)

7.What is the function of the following structures in the human reproductive organs;
(a) Fallopian tubes (1mk)

(c) Scrotal sac (1mk)

3
..............................................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................................

(b) Fats (1mk)

(c) Tissue proteins (1mk)

11. (a) State the functions of the following parts of a light microscope
i) Objective lens (1mk)

ii) Fine adjustment knob (1mk)

13. Other than the visceral organs in the body name two other parts of the body where smooth
muscles are found. (2mks)
4

b) Sebum (1mk)

c) Adipose tissue. (1mk)

15 How does a sunken stomata help a plant avoid excessive water during gaseous exchange?
(3mks)
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................................

16. Name the substances produced as a result of anaerobic respiration in

i) Yeast (1mk)

ii) Human muscles (1mk)

17. Why is Lamarck’s theory of evolution not accepted by biologist today? (2mks)

18. Give two reasons why animals have specialised organs for excretion as compared to plants.
(2mks)
5
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................................

19. The diagram below illustrate a response by a certain plant

(a) Name the type of response (1mk)

(b) Explain how the response illustrated above occurs (3mks)

6
(a) State the meaning of the term enucleated. (1 mark)
..............................................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................................
(b) Explain how the single cell develops into an embryo. (2 marks)
..............................................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................................

21. Explain four adaptive characteristics features of respiratory surfaces. (4mks)

22. (a) State two advantages of complete metamorphosis to the life cycle of an insect. (2mks)

(b) Distinguish between primary and secondary growth in plants (2mks)

Blood entering lungs Blood leaving lungs

X 10.6 19.0

Y 58.0 50.0

(a) Name gases X and Y. (2mks)

X.........................................................................................................................................................
Y........................................................................................................................................................
(b) How much gas X enters 100cm3 of blood, before the blood leaves the lungs. (2mks)
..............................................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................................................................

24. In a flower name the parts that make up;

i) Gynoecium (1mk)
..................................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................................
ii) Androecium (1mk)

25. State two sites for gaseous exchange in submerged aquatic plants. (2mks)

8
..................................................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................................

27. Name two disorders in human caused by chromosomal mutation. (2mks)

29. A man and his wife are able to roll their tongues but their children cannot. Rolling tongue
is controlled by a dominate gene. What are the genotypes of the parents. (Use letter T to
represent the gene for tongue rolling) (2mks)

(b) State two advantages of homiotherms over poikilotherms. (2mks)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

9
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

443/ 2 - Biology - Paper 2

(Theory)
2025 – Time 2 hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ……………………………………

EXAM
Instructions to candidate

a) Write your name and class in the spaces provided above.

b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
d) Answer ALL the questions in section A in the spaces provided.
e) In section B answer question 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or question 8 in
the spaces provided after question 8Candidates should answer the questions in English.
f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and
no questions are missing.
For Examiner’s Use Only

2025
SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
1 8
2 8
A 3 8
4 8
5 8
6 20
B 7 or 20
8 20

TOTAL SCORE 80 MARKS

TURN OVER

TBIO2025

Page 1 of 10 BIOLOGY PAPER 2

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. The diagram below represents part of the human circulatory system.

a) Name the blood vessels labeled X and Y (2mks)

X_________________________________________

Y_________________________________________
b) How are blood vessels labeled Z adapted to their function (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) The above diagram is part of the closed circulatory system in mammals. Explain the
advantages of this type of circulatory system in mammals (3 marks)

Page 2 of 10 BIOLOGY PAPER 2

2. a) A pure breeding horned cow was crossed with a heterozygous horned bull. The gene
controlling presence of horns is dominant over the one for hornless condition. Using
R to represent the dormant gene, work out the F1 genotypic ration. (5mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) i) Differentiate between codominance and partial dominance (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Give one example of codominance in human being (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The diagram below represents human foetus in a uterus

Yolk
Q R
S

Amnion

Mucus plug

a) Name the part labeled S (1mk)

…………………………………………………………..

b) i) Name the type of blood vessels found in the structure labeled Q. (2mks)

Page 3 of 10 BIOLOGY PAPER 2

ii) State the different in composition of blood found in the vessels named in (b) (i) above
(2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Name two features that enable the structure labeled P carry out its function. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) State the role of the part labeled R (1mk)

4. In an investigation, young plant shoots were exposed to 48 hours of light from above or from one side
only.Their growth responses are shown in the diagrams below.

Shoot A Shoot B

Light from above Light from one side

only
At start

Young shoot

After 48
hours

Page 4 of 10 BIOLOGY PAPER 2

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
a) Name the response shown by shoot B after 48 hours. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Account for the observations made on shoots after 48 hours
i) Shoot A (2mks)

ii) Shoot B (3mks)

c) Give two differences between tropic and tactic responses in plants (2mks)

5. In a certain experiment, a plastic bottle full of water was stoppered using a piece of stem obtained
from a young maize plant whose epidermis had been peeled off. Initially, the stopper was loose but
after 24 hours, it was observed that the stopper closed the bottle tightly.
a) i) Name the physiological process that was being demonstrated in the above experiment
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Account for the observation made after 24 hours (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
Page 5 of 10 BIOLOGY PAPER 2
b) The above exercise was repeated using a plastic bottle full of honey. Suggest the likely
observation that was made after 24 hour. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Explain what would happen to red blood cells if they were placed in distilled water
(3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 6 of 10 BIOLOGY PAPER 2

SECTION B (40MARKS)
Answer question 6 (compulsory) in the spaces provided and either question 7 or 8 in the
spaces provided after question 8

6. In an investigation, two species of parasitic wasps X and Y were introduced in an orchard in order to
control
the population of aphids. The number of each species of wasps were counted a two month interval
and recorded. The table below shows the population of the 2 species of wasps over a period of 18
months.

Time (months) 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18
Population X 400 1000 2800 4400 5400 6000 6400 6400 6200 6400
of species Y 400 1800 2400 2200 1800 1400 800 600 400 600
a) Using same axes plot a graph of population of wasps against time (7mks)

Page 7 of 10 BIOLOGY PAPER 2

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
b) Name the type of competition between species X and Y (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Account for the difference in population of the two wasp populations between:-

(i) 0-3 month (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) 4-10 month (3mks)

d) From the graph:-

i) Estimate the population of wasp Y on the 19th day (1mk)

ii) Calculate the rate of population increase of wasp X between 4th and 7th months of
investigation

e) Was population was determined using capture – recapture method. Explain how this was done.

Page 8 of 10 BIOLOGY PAPER 2

7. How would the scientists below explain why ducks have webbed feet.
(a) Lamarck (6marks)
(b) Darwin (14marks)

8. a) Give two enzymes present in:

i) Gastric juice (2marks)
ii) Pancreatic juice (2marks)
b) Explain how the small intestines of a man are adapted to their function (16marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 9 of 10 BIOLOGY PAPER 2

Page 10 of 10 BIOLOGY PAPER 2

KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

443/ 3 Biology - Paper 3

(Practical)
2025 – Time 2 hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ……………………………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided.
3. Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
4. You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1 ¾ hours allowed for this paper reading the
whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
5. Additional pages must not be inserted.
6. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Section Maximum Marks Candidate Score

1 13

2 16

3 11

TOTAL SCORE 40

1 TURN OVER
TBIO2025

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. You are provided with Solution Z, 15 cm3solution labeled Q, test tubes, dilute
Hydrochloric, and dilute sodium hydroxide solution W, Water bath, Bunsen burner,
Iodine solution, Benedict’s solution, Stop watch and labels. Follow the procedure below
and record your observations and conclusions in the table below.
Procedure
Place 5cm3 each of solution Q into 3 test tubes and label them 1A, 2A and 3A.
I. To test tube 1A add 1cm3 of dilute Hydrochloric acid and shake. Add 1cm3 of the
solution Z and shake.
II. To test tube 2A add 1cm3 of dilute sodium hydroxide and shake. Add 1cm3 of the
solution Z and shake
III. To test tube 3A add 1cm3 of solution W and shake. Add 1cm3 of the solution Z and
shake
IV. Place the three labeled test tubes into a water bath and maintained at 37oC for 20
minutes then divide the portions into another separate test tube as 1A and 1B, 2A and
2B, 3A and 3B respectively.
V. Using the reagents provided carry out food test and fill in the table below (12marks)

Test tube Test with iodine using the A Test with Benedict’s using the B portion
portion

Observation Conclusion Observation Conclusion

Dilute Hydrochloric
acid +solution Q+
solution Z

Dilute sodium
hydroxide+ solution
Q+ solution Z

Solution W +
solution Q+
solution Z

b) What is the identity of solution Z ? (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) What is the significance of maintaining them at a temperature of 37oc? (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………

2
2. The photograph P is a pumpkin fruits with seeds .The seeds were germinated under
different conditions as shown in photograph Q1 andQ2
a. Study the photograph Q1and Q2 carefully;
i. Identify the conditions under which seedling in photograph Q1and Q2 were grown
( 2marks)
Q1:
…………………………………………………………………………
Q2:
………………………………………………………………………….
ii. Give a reason for your response of set up in photograph Q2? ( 1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………
iii. State the differences between seedling in photograph Q1andQ2? ( 2marks)
photograph Q1 photograph Q2

iv. A farmer transplanted one of the seedling as shown in photograph Q1 and it

transformed specimen into photograph R.The specimen in photograph R has
developed a certain response to aid in its support:
a) Name the response shown in the shoot of specimen in photograph R
( 1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………
b) Explain how the response occurs? ( 3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
c) What is the significance of this response ( 1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………

3
b. An ecologist observed one of the leaves from the plant in in photograph R and noted it to
have aphids as shown in photograph S .Count the number of the aphids and sketch a
pyramid of numbers ( 2marks)

c. Comment on the adaptive advantage that confer the aphids to their habitat
( 1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………

d. A farmer has tried using a certain aphicide for a long time but it was not able to eliminate
the aphids .Explain the reason for this? ( 1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
.

Photograph Q

Photograph P
Photograph S

Photograph R

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
3. The photographs below represent structures of certain animal species. Study them and
answer the questions that follow.

PHOTOGRAPH A PHOTOGRAPH B
a) Identify the type of structure represented by photographs A and B (2marks)
A …………………………………………..………………………………………
B …………………………..………………………………………………………
b) What is the specific function of the three structures shown in the photograph A?
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
c) Differentiate between the structures you’ve name 3(a) above (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Name the type of evolution exhibited by photographs A and B. (2marks)
A
…………………………………………..………………………………………
B
…………………………..………………………………………………………

e) Using Darwin’s theory of evolution, explain how the whale’s flipper E would have
evolved. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

5
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
565/ 1 - Business Studies - Paper 1
2025 – 2 hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number……………………………….

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...………. Date ………………………………………...

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
• All questions carry equal marks
•
•
EXAMS
Candidate should answer the questions in English
Candidate should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing
For Examiner’s Use Only
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

Marks
2025
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

TBST2025 TURN OVER

1
Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. State the type of utility created by each of the following activities: (4mks)
(i) Delivering milk to a customer:……………………………………………………………
(ii) Keeping money in the bank:…………………………………………………………...
(iii) Selling bread to students:………………………………………………………………
(iv) Making uniform for students:…………………………………………………………….
2. List four items that are considered when measuring the national income of a country
using the expenditure approach. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Outline four roles of International Monetary Fund (I.M.F.) (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Highlight four disadvantages of using internet as a means of communication. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Outline four causes of cost-push inflation. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. State four disadvantages of a monopoly market structure. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. The central bank is a banker to the government. Outline four banking services it
offers to the government. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………

2
8. In the course of preparing his balance sheet as at 31st December 2010, Omondi
found out that he had capital amounting to Kshs. 120,000 in his business. During the
year, the investment totaled to Kshs. 50,000, while monthly drawings were Kshs.
5,000. Calculate his capital as at 1st January 2010 if the profit was Kshs. 38,000.
(4mks)

9. State four ways that the government can use to service its public debt. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Identify four limitations of after-sale service as a method of sales promotion. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. State four reasons why it is necessary for the government to carry out population
census. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. State four benefits that Kenya will reap after the completion of the Lamu Port and
Lamu South Sudan – Ethiopia Transport Corridor (LAPSSET) Project whose
construction is underway. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Highlight four reasons why employers are expected to provide their employees with
insurance cover. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………

3
14. Outline four measures to be taken by business to improve internal business
environment. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. Highlight four factors to consider when deciding on an ideal office layout. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. State four negative effects of economic development. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. The following diagram represents the demand and supply of a commodity.
D S

Price
P1

S D
O Q1 Quantity demanded & supplied
State four effects of fixing maximum price at Po. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. State four factors that inhibit entrepreneurial development. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………

4
Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
19. State the major use of each of the following documents: (4mks)
(i) Certificate of Trading:…………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Certificate of Incorporation:……………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Memorandum of Association:………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) Articles of Association:…………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………
20. Highlight four factors that a producer would consider when choosing a distribution
channel. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
21. From the following transactions, open the relevant ledger accounts. (4mks)
(i) 1/1/2010 Sold goods on credit for Kshs. 15,000/=.
(ii) 2/1/2010 Bought goods on credit for Kshs. 5,000/=.
(iii) 3/1/2010 Paid creditors Kshs. 3,000/= by cheque.
(iv) 4/1/2010 Received a cheque of Kshs. 2,000/= from a debtor.

5
22. Identify four documents used in the delivery process in home trade. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. Give four reasons for continued survival of small-scale firms in an economy despite
the dominance and direct competition from large-scale firms. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………

24. Outline four circumstances under which a producer would not require a lot of
warehousing space. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. State four factors that influence the prices of shares traded at Nairobi Stock
Exchange. (4mks)
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………………

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

6
KCSE TRAIL EXAMINATIONS 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
565/ 2 - Business Studies -Paper 2
2025 – 2 hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number……………………………….

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...………. Date ………………………………………...

EXAMS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
• All questions carry equal marks

• Candidate should answer the questions in English

• Candidate should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing

For Examiner’s Use Only

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6

Marks
2025
TURN OVER
TBST2025

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. (a) Explain five problems that a country could face during implementation of development
plans. (10 marks)

(b) Some developed countries have a huge population made of ageing persons. Explain five
problems this situation could present to such countries. (10 marks)

2. (a) Explain five advantages of containerization to a countries transport system. (10 marks)

(b) Explain five measures that would be taken by a country in order to correct their balance
of payment deficit. (10 marks)

3. (a) Explain five importance of a business plan (10 marks)

(b) The following transactions relate to Koko Traders for the month of May 2011:

May 2: sold goods on credit to Chui shs.12,000 and Jane shs.16,000

May 8: bought goods on credit from Shah Traders shs.40,000
May 12: Chui returned goods worth shs.2,000
May 15: purchased goods on credit from Koki sh.34,000 and Peter shs.31,050
May 20: Goods worth sh.6,000 were returned to Shah traders and goods worth sh.3,000
to Koki
May 23: Goods sold on credit to Chui sh.8,000, Tom sh. 11,000 and Joseph shs.13,000
May 27: Goods returned by Boyo shs.2,000
May 30: Purchased a motor car on credit worth sh.500,000 from KVM

Prepare the relevant journals. (10 marks)

4. (a) Explain five reasons why a high per capita income is not an indicator of better living
standard in a country. (10 marks)

(b) Explain five benefits of globalization to a business. (10 marks)

5. (a) Explain five principles of public expenditure. (10 marks)

(b) The following table represents the supply of potatoes for 3 months.

Year 2010 Price Per Kg Quantity Supplied (Kgs)

January 100 100,000
February 100 90,000
March 100 80,000

Explain five reasons to account for the change in quantity supplied of potatoes in the
market. (10 marks)

2
6. (a) Outline five differences between shares and debentures. (10 marks)

(b) The following Trial Balance was extracted from the books of Kamau Trades as at 31st
December 2010.

Dr (sh) Cr (sh)
Opening stock 30,000
Purchases / sales 275,000 390,000
Debtors 47,000
Commission received 36,000
Returns 10,000 6,000
Carriage 24,000
Advertising 3,000
Salaries 19,000
Rates 12,000
Premises 450,000
Machinery 180,000
Loan 210,000
Insurance 20,000
Discounts 5,000 7,000
Drawings 25,000
Cash in hand 40,000
Cash at bank 250,000
Creditors 52,000
Capital ________ 698,000
1,390,000 1,390,000

Additional information:
1. Closing stock sh 50,000
2. Carriage outwards was 1/3 of total carriage.

Required:

(i) Prepare Kamau traders trading, profit and loss account for the period ended
31.12.2010. (6 marks)

(ii) Balance sheet as at 31.12.2010. (4 marks)

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Page 1 of 13

KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

233/ 1 - Chemistry - Paper 1

(Theory)
2025 – 2 hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number…………………………

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date …………………………………

Instructions To Candidates
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided
c) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided
d) Mathematical table and electronic calculators may be used.
e) ALL working MUST be shown clearly where necessary
f) Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as
indicated and no questions are missing
For Examiner’s Use Only
QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORES

1 – 28 80

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Page 2 of 13

27
1. The electronic configuration of two particles a X and b 32Y are 2.8 and 2.8.8 respectively.

a) Write the values of

a ………………………………. (½ mark)

b……………………………….. (½ mark)

b) Identify the period and group of the periodic table to which element Y belong.

Period…………………………………….. (½ mark)

Group……………………………………. (½ mark)

2. You are provided with the following; thermometer, boiling tube, beaker, Bunsen burner, pure

solid X, whose boiling point is about 80oC, water and any other apparatus that may be

required. Draw a labeled diagram for an experiment that would be used to determine the

melting point of X. (3marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. (a) Other than sulphur, name an element that shows allotropy. (1mark)

(b) Draw the structure of the allotrope of sulphur that is stable below 96oC. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Study the organic compounds below and answer the questions that follow.

I. C3H8O

II. CH3CHCH2

III. CH3CH2CH2COOH

IV. CH3(CH2)2CH3

V. CH2CH2

Select,
Page 3 of 13

(a) One compound which is a saturated hydrocarbon. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………..

(b) Two compounds which are members of the same homologous series. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………

compound. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………

5. Explain the following observations.

(a) When air is bubbled into distilled water, the pH of the water drops from 7.0 to 6.0.
(1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) A bee keeper stung by a bee applies baking powder onto the stung surface for relief.
(1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………

6. (a) Explain why calcium oxide is not used to dry hydrogen chloride gas. (2marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Name one suitable drying agent for hydrogen chloride. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. The table below gives the boiling points of three liquids.

Liquid Boiling point(oC)

Hexane 69.0

Butan-1-ol 99.5

water 100
Page 4 of 13

(a) Describe how the following mixtures can be separated.

(i) Hexane and Butan – 1 – ol (1½ marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Hexane and Water (1½ mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. In an experiment, 2.4g of sulphur was ontained by reacting hydrogen sulphide and chlorine as

shown in the equation below.

H2S (g) + Cl2(g) S (s) + 2 HCl(g)

(a) State the chemical property of chlorine shown in the reaction above. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Given that the yield of sulphur in the above reaction is 75%, calculate the volume of

hydrogen sulphide gas used. ( molar gas volume = 24dm3, H=1, S= 32). (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(a) Write the equation for the reaction when a piece of graphite is completely burnt in air.

(1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Give one use of graphite and diamond and relate the use to properties of each. (2marks)

I. Graphite : Use………………………………………………………………………

Property ……………………………………………………………………………..

II. Diamond: Use……………………………………………………………………..

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Page 5 of 13

Property…………………………………………………………………………….

9. The diagram below shows a section of a dry cell. Study it and answer the questions that

follow.

(a) Name the part labeled B. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) The part labeled A is a paste. Give a reason why it is not used in dry form. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) (i) What is the purpose of zinc container. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii)Apart from the use in c(i) above, state any other use of zinc. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

10. (a) A student electroplated a spoon with copper metal. Write the equation for the reaction on

the surface of the spoon. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Page 6 of 13

(b)Calculate the amount of steady current that was passed for 30 minutes if 1.184g of copper was

deposited. (1 Faraday = 96500C,Cu = 63.5) (2marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. (a) State Gay Lussac’s Law. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) 60cm3 of methane was mixed with 200cm3 of oxygen. The mixture was sparked to

complete reaction. If the final volumes were measured at room temperature, determine the

volume of the resultant gaseous mixture. (2marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. (a) State Le Chatelier’s principle. (1mark)

(b)State and explain the observation made when drops of 2M sodium hydroxide solution were

added to the system in equilibrium shown below. (2marks)

2-
2CrO4 (aq) + 2H+ (aq) Cr2O7 2- (aq) + H2O (l)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
Page 7 of 13

13. Study the structures given in the diagrams below to answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify the structure with:

(i) Simple molecular structure. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) Giant atomic structure (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Which structure conducts electric current both in solid and molten state. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

14. The set up below was used to demonstrate the effect of heat on hard water.

(a) Name substance A. (1mark)

(b) Explain why heating of hard water produced substance A. (2marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

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Page 8 of 13

15. (a) Distinguish between deliquescent and efflorescent salts. (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)You are provided with the following; Potassium carbonate, Lead (II) sulphate, Sodium

hydroxide, nitric (V) acid and Copper (II) carbonate. Select any: (1mark)

(i) Two that would produce neutralization reaction.

……………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) One that would decompose on heating to produce carbon (IV) oxide,

……………………………………………………………………………………………

16. The scheme below was used to prepare a cleansing agent. Study it and answer the questions

that follow.

Name;

(a) The cleansing agent. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Process in step I. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

(c) Chemical substance added in step II. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………..
Page 9 of 13

17. The curves below represent the change in mass when equal amounts of powdered zinc and

zinc granules were reacted with excess 2M hydrochloric acid. Use the graph to answer the

questions that follow.

(a) Identify the curve for zinc granules. Explain. (2marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Other than the factor demonstrated above, state one factor that may be varied to affect

the rate of the above reaction. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

18. A white solid Q was heated. It produced a brown gas Y and a colourless gas Z that relights a

glowing splint. The residue left was yellow after cooling.

(a) Identify: (1mark)

(i) Gas Y……………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) The residue…………………………………………………………………………..

(b) Write the equation for the decomposition of solid Q. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………..
Page 10 of 13

19. A crystalline sample of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3. XH2O was heated until there was no

further change. The mass of the residue reduced by 14.5%. Determine the value of X in the

formula. (3marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. In an experiment to identify the compound in an aqueous solution, three properties of the

solution in test tubes were tested and the results obtained were recorded in the table below.

Study it to answer the questions that follow.

Portion Test Observation

1 Add a few drops of dilute nitric (V) acid. Effervescence. Forms a

white precipitate with lime

water.

2 Add aqueous sodium hydroxide drop wise until A white precipitate soluble

excess. in excess.

3 Add aqueous ammonia drop wise until excess. A white precipitate soluble

in excess.

(a) Identify the:

(i) Cation in the compound. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………..

(ii) Anion in the compound. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Write the formula of the colorless solution formed in portion 3. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

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Page 11 of 13

21. Excess zinc powder was added to 50cm3 of 2M copper (II) sulphate solution and the reaction

allowed to complete. The highest temperature change was 15oC.

(a) State the observations made in the above reaction. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) If the molar enthalpy of displacement is -63kJmol-. Calculate the concentration in moles

per liter of the copper (II) sulphate solution. (3marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

22. Draw a well labeled diagram of a set up that can be used to prepare and collect dry sample of

chlorine gas using manganese (IV) oxide and concentrated hydrochloric acid. (3marks)

23. An oxide of K has the formula K2O5.

(a) Determine the oxidation number of element K. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Which group of the periodic table does element K belong. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………
Page 12 of 13

24. An experiment was set up as shown in the diagram below.

(a) Suggest the aim of the experiment. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Identify substance D. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………..

into the environment. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

25. Calculate the values x and y in the following nuclear equation.

239
92 U x
y Th +2α + 2β (2marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

26. Given the following substances; soap, potassium chloride and aluminium chloride, classify the

substances as acidic, basic or neutral. (2marks)

Acidic Basic Neutral

Page 13 of 13

27. The diagram below represents the set up used for electrolysis of acidified water.

(a) Name the electrode B. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

(b) Why is water acidified. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

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KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

233/ 2 - Chemistry - Paper 2

(Theory)
Time 2 hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ……………………………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

EXAMS
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided
c) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided
d) Mathematical table and electronic calculators may be used.
e) ALL working MUST be shown clearly where necessary
f) Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as

2025
indicated and no questions are missing
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Questions Maximum Candidate's

Score Score
1 11
2 14
3 12
4 11
5 12
6 10
7 10
TOTAL 80

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. The diagram below shows an experiment to demonstrate the properties of hydrogen as a
reducing agent. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
Lead(II )Oxide

Dry Flame
hydrogen
gas Jet
Heat
Combustion
tube

a) Before lighting hydrogen gas at the jet, it is important to drive off all the air in the
combustion tube. Explain. (1 mark)

.......................................................................................................................................................

b) State what would be observed in the boat containing lead (II) oxide at the end of the
experiment. (1 mark)

.......................................................................................................................................................

c) Write chemical equations for the reaction taking place;

i) In the combustion tube. (1 mark)

ii) At the jet as the flame burns. (1 mark)

.......................................................................................................................................................

d) Why should the supply of hydrogen continue until the apparatus are cool? (1 mark)

.......................................................................................................................................................

e) Why is it important to clamp the glass tube or combustion tube in a slanting position?
(1 mark)

.......................................................................................................................................................

f) i) Cars in Mombasa rust faster than in Kisumu. Explain. (1 mark)

....................................................................................................................................................

ii) Give the factors that are necessary for rusting. (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

2
iii) Name two methods used to prevent rusting. (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

iv) Explain why a nail paced in a sealed tube containing tap water rusts while a nail placed in a
sealed tube containing boiled water fails to rust. (1 mark)

.................................................................................................................................................

...............................................................................................................................................

v) State two industrial uses of oxygen gas. (1 mark)

.........................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................................

2. The grid shown below represents part of the periodic table. Study it and answer the question that
follow. The letters do not represent the actual symbol of the elements.

A
Y B C
D E F G

a) What type of bonds would be formed between C and G. Explain. (2 marks)

3
c) State and explain how the compounds formed in (b) above compare in their melting points in
terms of structure and bonding. (2 marks)
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
d) Give the formulae of the oxides of the elements D and F and state the nature of each oxide.
i) D oxide (2 marks)
Formulae ...........................................................
Nature ...............................................................
ii) F oxide (2 marks)
Formulae ...........................................................
Nature ..............................................................
e) Which of the elements shown does not form an oxide? Explain. (1 mark)
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
f) Which two elements shown on the grid are good conductors of electricity? Explain. (2 marks)
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
g) What name if given to the group of elements represented by letter Y in the periodic table?
(1 mark)
....................................................................................................................................................

3. (a) Brine usually contains soluble calcium and magnesium salts. Explain how sodium carbonate is
used to purify brine. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
The diagram below represents a diaphragm cell used to electrolysed pure brine

(a) Write the equations for the reactions that take place at :-
I Cathode (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

II Anode (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name: I Product at U. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

II Another material that can be used instead of titanium (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

III The impurity present in the product at U (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………

IV State two functions of the diaphragm (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

5
c) Give one industrial use of the product at U. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………….

d) State two environmental hazards associated with extraction of sodium metal (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. The diagram below illustrates the contact process for the manufacture of sulphuric (VI) acid.
Study it and answer the questions that follow.
Air

SO2 SO2
Slid A Burner Purifier Drier
Air Air
SO2
Air

Absorption SO3 SO3 Heat

Conc. Cooler
tower Exchanger
Sulphuric
(VI )acid SO2
Oleum SO3
Air

Catalytic
Conc Dilutes
converter
H2SO4

a) Name three possible identities of solid A. (1½ marks)

.......................................................................................................................................................

b) i) Name two impurities removed by the purifier. (1 mark)

..............................................................................................................................................

................................................................................................................................................

6
ii) Why is it necessary to remove the impurities? (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

c) Write down the equation for the reaction that takes place in the catalytic converter.
(1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

d) i) Name two catalysts that can be used in the converter. (2 marks)

................................................................................................................................................

ii) Which of the two catalysts is most commonly used and why? (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

e) Why is sulphur (VI) oxide not absorbed directly into water? (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

f) Give the equation for the reaction that takes place in the absorption chamber. (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

g) Name the main pollutant in the contact process. (½ mark)

...................................................................................................................................................

h) Name one method by which the pollution is controlled in the contact process. (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

5. Study the table below and answer the questions that follow;
Reduction Half-reaction Eq(Volts)

Ag+(aq) + e- ® Ag(s) + 0.80

Cu2+(aq) + 2e- ® Cu(s) + 0.34

2H+(aq) + 2e- ® H2(g) 0.00

Zn2+(aq) + 2e- ® Zn(s) -0.76

Na+(aq) + e- ® Na(s) -2.71

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
a) Which is the strongest reducing agent in the above half equations? Explain. (2 marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

b) Calculate the electromotive force of a cell consisting of Zinc and silver electrodes immersed in
solutions of their respective ions. (2 marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

c) Give the cell representation of the cell in (b) above. (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

d) The diagram below represents an experiment set up used for the electrolysis of aqueous copper (II)
sulphate solution. Study it and answer the questions that follow;

Gas W

Aqueous Y
Copper( II)sulphate
solution
Platinum Platinum
electrode electrode

Battery

i) Name electrodes X and Y. (2 marks)

................................................................................................................................................

ii) Name gas W. .................................................................................................... (1 mark)

iii) Write the overall equation of the reactions taking place at electrodes X and Y. (1 mark)

...................................................................................................................................................................

8
iv) If a current of 0.4A was passed through the cell for 15 minutes, calculate the mass of copper that
would be liberated. (Relative atomic mass of copper = 64, 1F = 96,500C) (3 marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

6. The scheme below shows a series of reactions starting with ethanol. Study it and answer the
questions that follow.
Products

Step L Mg(s)
Ethanol KMnO 4 NaoH(aq)
CH3CH2 OH CH3 COOH CH3COONa
H+
Step I Butanol , conc Step W
H2SO4, heat

CH2=CH2 Product V+H 2 O CH4

Excess UV
Cl 2 light
Compound K Compound X
[CH2- CH2 ] n

a) Give the type of reaction, the reagent(s) and the condition(s) necessary for step 1 to take place.
(1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

b) Write the equation for the reaction that takes place in step L. (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

c) Name product V and give the equation responsible for its formation. (2 marks)
............................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................................

d) Give the reagent(s) and condition(s) necessary for step W to take place. (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

9
e) Give the IUPAC name and structural formula of compound X. (1 mark)

...................................................................................................................................................................

f) Name compound K and state the type of reaction involved in its formation. (2 marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

g) If the relative molecular mass of K is 44800, determine the value of n. (C = 12, H = 1) (2 marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

7. The set up below is used to measure the change in mass during the course of the reaction
between dilute hydrochloric acid (excess) and marble chips at 22°C.

Cotton wool plug

Hydrochloric acid

Mable chips

Balance

Changes in mass were noted at one minute intervals and were as follows.

a) Give an equation for the reaction taking place in the flask. (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

b) Why did the mass of the flask change with time? (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

c) What is the role of cotton wool at the mouth of the flask? (1 mark)

................................................................................................................................................

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
d) Plot a graph of loss in mass (Y-axis) against time (X-axis). Label the curve 22°C. (3 marks)

Time (min) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Loss in mass(g) 0.26 0.46 0.60 0.69 0.73 0.73 0.73

e) On the graph same axis as in (d) above, sketch the graph you would expect to obtain if the
experiment was repeated at 35°C. Label the curve 35°C. (2 marks)

f) State what would happen if the marble chips were replaced with the same mass of marble powder.
Explain (2 marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

g) Why is it not advisable to use sulphuric (VI) acid in place of hydrochloric acid in this experiment?
(1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

11
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

233/ 3 - Chemistry - Paper 3

(Theory)
2025 – 2 hours

Name ……………………………………………………..……… Adm Number…………………………

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...................……….. Date …………/…………/……………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

EXAMS
1.
Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.
2.Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided.
3.Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper
4. You are NOT allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 2 ¼
hours allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you to read the question paper and make sure
you have all the chemicals and apparatus required.
5.ALL working MUST be clearly shown where necessary

2025
6.Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.

QUESTION

2
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Max Score

11
Candidate Score

3 07

TOTAL 40

TCHEM2025 TURN OVER

1
Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1.You are provided with:

• Acidified aqueous potassium manganate(VII), KMnO4, solution A,.

• Solution B containing 11.75g of ammoniumiron(II)sulphate,
(NH4)2Fe(SO4)2.6H2O dissolved in 500 cm3of solution.
• Solution C containing 1.25g of a dibasic acid, H2X. 2H2O dissolved in 250cm3
of solution.

You are required to:

• Standardize solution A using solution B.
• Use the standardized solution A to determine the concentration of solution C.
• Determine the molecular mass of X.

Procedure I:
Fill the burette with solution A.Using a pipette and pipette filler, place 25 cm3of
solution B into a 250 ml conical flask. Titrate solution A with B until a
permanent pink colour just appears.Record your results in table 1 below. Repeat
this procedure two more times and complete table 1.
TABLE 1
Titration I II III

Final burette reading, cm3

Initial burette reading, cm3

Volume of solution A used, cm3

(4 marks)
(a) Calculate the average volume of solution A used. (1 mark)

(b) Calculate the concentration of B in moles per litre. (RFM of B is 392)

(1 mark)

2
(c) Calculate the number of moles of iron (II)ions in the 25 cm3 of solution B.

(1 mk)

(d) Calculate the concentration of manganate(VII)ions in solution A in moles

per litre given:
(1 mk)

MnO4- (aq) + 5Fe2+ (aq) + 8H+ (aq) Mn2+ (aq) + 5Fe3+ (aq) + 4H2O (l)

Procedure II:
Pipette 25 cm3 of solution C into a conical flask. Heat this solution to about 70
0
C and titrate the hot solution C with solution A in the burette until a permanent
pink colour just appears. Shake thoroughly during titration. Record your results
in table II. Repeat this procedure to complete table II.

TABLE 1I

Titration I II III

Final burette reading, cm3

Initial burette reading, cm3

Volume of solution A used, cm3

(4 mks)
(e) Calculate the average volume of solution A used in table II.. (1 mark)

3
(f) Calculate the number of moles of manganate (VII) ions in table II above.
(1 mk)

(g) Given that 2 moles of of manganate (VII) ions react with 5 moles of the
dibasic acid C, calculate the number of moles of the dibasic acid used in
moles per litre. (1 mk)

(h) Calculate the:

(I) Formula mass of the dibasic acid, solution C.(H = 1.0, O = 16.0)
(1 mk)

(II) Formula mass of X in the dibasic acid C. (1 mk)

1. You are provided with solid M. Carry out the tests and write your observations and
inferences in the spaces provided.
(a) Describe the appearance of solid P. (1 mark)
Appearance

(b) Place the solid M in a boiling tube. Add about 12cm3of distilled water and Shake
well.Divide the solution into five portions and carry out the tests below.

(I) To the first portion, dip both red and blue litmus paper.
Observations Inferences

4
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(1 mark) (1 mark)

(II) To the second portion, add sodium hydroxide solution dropwise until in
excess.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)
(III) To the third portion, add aqueous ammonia dropwise until in excess.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)
(IV) To the fourth portion, add three drops of sodium chloride solution.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)
(V) To the fifth portion, add two drops of barium nitrate followed by five drops
of nitric(V) acid.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

2. You are provided with solid P. Carry out the following tests and record your
observations and inferences in the spaces provided.
(a) Place about one third of the solid P on a clean metallic spatula and ignite using a
Bunsen burner.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)
(b) Place the remaining solid P in a boiling tube. Add about 10cm3of distilled water and
Shake well.
Observations Inferences

5
( 1/2mark) (1/2 mark)
(c) Divide the mixture into three portions.
i. To the first portion add two drops of acidified potassiummanganate(VII).
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)
ii. To the second portion, add two drops of bromine water.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)
iii. To the third portion, describe the procedure you can use to determine the PH
using the reagents given.
Procedure:

(1 mark)

iv. Carry out your procedure in (iii) to determine the PH.

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

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6
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KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
KENYA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION (KCSE)

451/1 - COMPUTER STUDIES - PAPER 1

(THEORY)
TRIAL EXAM 2025 - 2 ½ HOURS

NAME: ............................................. ADM NO.: ........... STREAM .................................

INDEX No ………………………. Date: ……………….. SCHOOL: ……………………

Instructions to candidates
a) Write your Name, Adm No., Stream, Index No., Date and Sign in the spaces
provided above
b) The paper consists of two Sections A and B
c) Answer ALL questions in Section A.
d) Answer Question 16 (COMPULSORY) and any other three questions in Section B
e) All answers must be written in English
f) The paper consists of 14 printed pages
g) Candidates should check to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and
that no questions are missing
For examiner’s use only
Section Question Maximum Candidate’s

Score Score

A 1 – 15 40

B 16 15

17 15

18 15

19 15

20 15

TOTAL SCORE

TCOMP2025 TURN OVER

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SECTION A (40 MKS)
Answer all questions in this section.
1. State the software technological differences between the second generation and the third generation
computers [2 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

2. State two ways of ensuring proper ventilation in a computer room [2 marks]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. Convert the decimal number 20.375 to it binary number system equivalent [3 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

4. Pat has installed internet in his home computer in order to use it for browsing. State three ways in
which he would prevent viruses from infecting the computer. [3 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

2
5. State three ways of transforming a picture embedded in a Desktop Publishing programme in order to
fit in a designated space on a computer. [3 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

6. Distinguish between a line printer and a page printer as used in computers. [2 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

7. Describe virtual reality as used in computers. [2 marks]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

8. State the function of each of the following features of an email software

a) Inbox [1 mark]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Draft [1 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3
9. a) Explain the term toggle key as used in computer keyboard [2 marks]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) List two examples of toggle keys on a keyboard [2 marks]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

10. State the type of error that would occur in data processing for each of the following cases:
a) Entering the number 315 instead of 351 [1 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Entering the text “Kwys” instead of “Keys” [1 mark]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. State four factors to consider when selecting an input device for use in a computer room. [4 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
12. State three functions of Un-Interruptible Power Supply (UPS) [3 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

13. Distinguish between a page break and a column break as used in a word processor. [3 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

14. State three factors to consider when selecting an operating system to install in a computer. [3 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

15. Differentiate between analogue signal and digital signal as used in computers. [2 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

5
SECTION B (60 marks)
Answer ALL questions from this section in the spaces provided.
16. a) Explain the term dry running as used in program development. [2 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Describe three properties of an algorithm . [3 marks]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

c) Write an algorithm using both pseudocode and flow chart to print the sum and average of numbers
from 1 to n where n is provided by user and n>=1. [10 marks]

17. a) State four outcomes that may result from using incorrect requirement specifications during system
development. [4 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) A school opted to use direct change over approach when installing a new system. Explain three
challenges that the school may face as a result of this approach . [6 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

c) State three reasons that may lead an organization to install an intranet. [3 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

d) The figure below shows a coaxial cable. State the function of the part labelled A. [2 marks]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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18. Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow:

a) Give the name of the above network topology [1 mark]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State three disadvantages of the above topology [3 marks]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

c) A publisher intends to use a desktop publishing programme to create a publication which is to have
many graphics. State three ways in which the graphics may be acquired for this purpose. [3 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

d) Interpret each of the following spreadsheet formula:

i) =count if (D2:D9,”>” B4) [2 marks]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

ii) =sumif (B3:B11,”4M”, D3:D11) [2 marks]

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) i) The following are the fields of products table in a database created to store records of products
manufactured in factory:
• Product number
• Product name
• Price
• Product description
I. State the appropriate data type for each field [4 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

19. a) Explain three features of a graphical user interface as used in computers. [6 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

9
b) State the function of each of the following computer keyboard keys:
i) Caps Lock [1 mark]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Shift [1 mark]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Home [1 mark]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Using two’s complement notation, determine the value of the operation 2510 – 2910. [6 marks]
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

20. a) Distinguish between a computer drive and computer driver. [2 marks]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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b) State two peripheral devices connected to the computer via PS/2 [1 mark]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Jane encountered desktop computer with the following features

• 3.0 USB ports
• 4.0 GB primary storage
• 19” TFT VDU
• 500 SATA HDD
• Linux 7.1
• AVG antivirus
i) Give 3 reasons for wide use of USB gadgets in the society today. [3 marks ]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) What is the meaning of the following specifications:

i. 4.0 GB primary storage [1 mark]
……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. 19” TFT VDU [1 mark]

……………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. 500 SATA HDD [1 mark]

……………………………………………………………………………………………

11
iv. Linux 7.1 [1 mark]
……………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Give three factors to consider when selecting an OS to install in your computer. [3 marks]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

iv). Describe two symptoms of a computer infected by virus. [2 marks]

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

12
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

451/ 2 - Computer Studies - Paper 2

(Practical )
2025– 2 ½ hours
Name …………………………………………….…………………… Adm Number………………….

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……………………….Date ……………………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

EXAM
(a) Indicate your name and index number at the top right hand corner of each printout
(b) Write your name and index number on the CD/Removable storage medium provided.
(c) Write the name and version of the software used for each question attempted in the answer
sheet provided
(d) Answer all the questions
(e) All questions carry equal marks
(f) Passwords should NOT be used while saving in the CD/Removable storage medium

2025
(g) All answers must be saved in your CD/Removable storage medium
(h) Make a printout of the answers on the answer sheet
(i) Arrange your printouts and tie/staple them together
(j) Hand in all the printouts and the CD/Removable storage medium used
(k) This paper consist of 5 printed pages
(l) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that o questions are missing

1
Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. FutureTech Company Ltd deals with sales of three types of electronic goods namely
television sets, radio systems and DVD players. Below is a table showing details of April
2013 sales.
FutureTech Company Ltd.
Sales as per 30th April 2013
Category Type Item Description Unit Sold Sub- Tax Net
Code Price Total Amount
TV001 TV 21” LG TV 16000 8
TV003 TV 38”Samsung TV 60000 2
RD001 Radio JVC 3CD Changer 21000 12
DV001 Radio Philips DVD 5500 6
Player
TV004 TV 14” JVC TV 11000 22
DV002 Radio LG DVD Player 6200 18
TV005 TV 21” Sony TV 15800 14
DV003 DVD Sony DVD Player 4500 20
RD002 Radio Panasonic Radio 3200 30
RD003 Radio Samsung Radio 4700 8
Player
TV007 TV 14” ZEC TV 8200 4
DV001 Radio Panasonic DVD 6500 16
Player

TV 15%
Tax Rates DVD 12%
Radio 8%
Required:
(a) Enter the data in a worksheet and save it as CD-R: \FutureTec. (16 marks)
(b) Format the worksheet as follows:
(i) Center the Title across columns. (2 marks)
(ii) The text should be Arial, 18 points, bold and centered within
a box. (2 marks)
(iii) Column Headings to be wrapped within the cells and centered
horizontally and vertically. (2 marks)
(iv) The Unit Price to be in two decimals and currency prefix Ksh. (4 marks)
(c) Use appropriate cell references to calculate:
(i) The Subtotal, rounded to two decimals places. (2 marks)
(ii) The TAX is based on the type of the item. Use the rates given in
the table above to calculate tax payable on each item sold. (2 marks)
(iii) The Net Amount, which is the subtotal less tax. (2 marks)
(d) Sort the worksheet in ascending order according to category. (2 marks)
(e) Calculate the subtotals and grand total for the three types of electronic
goods. (6 marks)
(f) On a separate sheet, create a bar graph that compares sales for the three
types of electronic goods. Label it appropriately. (6 marks)
(g) Print the worksheet showing all formulae used instead of values and
the graph. (4 marks)

2
HIGH SEASONS is a holiday resort firm. It has several branches all over the
world. In order to keep track of its employees, a database to organize employee
information is required.

(a) Create a database file and save it as SEASONS in the removable storage
provided. (2 marks)

(b) (i) Create a table containing the following fields: (4 marks)

Field Name Field Type

EmployeeNo. AutoNumber
Date of Birth Date/Time
Grade Text

(ii) Make the field Employee No. the primary key and save the table as
EMPLOYEES. (3 marks)

(ii) Use the form to enter the records below: (6 marks)

EmployeeNo. Date_of_Birth Grade

1 5/15/1960 G
2 4/28/1978 H
3 10/30/1972 R
4 12/5/1975 H
5 2/28/1974 G
6 1/3/1970 G
7 11/24/1956 H
8 3/10/1984 G
9 4/4/1956 S
10 8/11/1964 R

(d) Modify the EMPLOYEES table by adding two new fields: (2 marks)

Field Name Field Type

Salary(Shs) Currency
Address Text

(e) (i) Create another table containing the following fields: (2 marks)
Field Name Field Type
HouseID AutoNumber
Number of Rooms Number
Location Text
Rent Currency
3
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(ii) Make the field HouseID the primary key and save the table as HOUSES.( 2 marks)

(f) Create a relationship that enforces referential integrity. (4 marks)

(g) (i) Create a query and save it as EMPLOYEESQUERY based on the

EMPLOYEES table that would display all the employee’s in
Grade H, R and their salaries. (4 marks)

(ii) Sort the records in the EMPLOYEESQUERY in alphabetical of

Grade field. (3 marks)

(h) (i) Create a columnar report with portrait orientation from the
EMPLOYEESQUERY. Save the report as EMPLOYEESREPORT. (4 marks)

(ii) Enter a function to compute the salaries grand total displayed in the
report. (3 marks)

(iii) Insert a header EMPLOYEES IN GRADE H AND R in the report

having font size 20pts to the left of the page. (2 marks)

(i) Print the EMPLOYEES Table, HOUSES Table, EMPLOYEESFORM,

EMPLOYEESQUERY and EMPLOYEESREPORT. (5 marks)

4
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

313/1 - C.R. E - Paper 1

(Christian Religious Education)

Time 2 ½ hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ……………………………………

instructions to Candidates
a) Write your Name and Index Number in the spaces provided above.

b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.

c) This paper consists of six questions.

d) Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.

e) Each question carries 20 marks.

f) This paper consists of 2 printed pages.

g) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed
as indicated and that no questions are missing.

h) Candidates must answer the questions in English.

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

MARKS

TCRE.2025 TURN OVER

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. (a) Explain how the teaching and learning of C.R.E helps achieve national goals of
education (6mks)
(b) Outline the positive effects of Bible translation to Africans (8mks)
(c) How is social media used to spread the gospel in Kenya today (6mks)
2. (a) Describe the covenant ceremony between God and Abraham in Gen. 15:1-19
(8mks)
(b) Explain six ways baptism qualifies to be a covenant (6mks)
(c) Give elements of Jewish worship found in Christian worship today (6mks)
3. (a) Give six conditions that made it difficult for Prophet Elijah to stop idolatry in Israel
(6mks)
(b) State four differences between Yahweh worship and Canaanite worship (8mks)
(c) Outline relevance of Prophet Elijah’s mission to Christian life today (6mks)
4. (a) State seven ways in which Old Testament prophets communicated God’s message to
People (7mks)
(b) Explain Amos’ teaching on Israel’s election (6mks)
(c) Give seven responsibilities of Christians as elected people of God today (7mks)
5 (a) Outline three stages followed in renewal of the covenant during Nehemiah’s time (6mks)
(b) State major activities that took place during dedication of the wall in Jerusalem (6mks)
(c) Give eight qualities of a leader drawn from Nehemiah (8mks)
6. a) Identify Traditional African practices that undermine the dignity of women (6mks)
b) Give seven ways in which Traditional Africans worshipped God (7mks)
c) State seven reasons why single parenthood was rare in African Traditional Societies
(7mks)

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KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
KENYA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION

313/2 - C.R.E - PAPER 2

(CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION)

TIME 2 ½ HOURS

NAME …………………………………………….……… ADM NUMBER…………………………..

CANDIDATE’S SIGNATURE ………………….…...……….. DATE ……………………………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Instructions to candidate
a) Candidates must check the paper to ascertain that all pages are printed and no question is
missing
b) Answer any five questions in the foolscaps provided.
c) All answers must be written in English.
For Examiner’s Use Only
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 Totals

Maximum 20 20 20 20 20 20 100
Score
Candidate’s
Score

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. a) Outline Isaiah’s prophecy about the messiah on the suffering servant in Isaiah 53. (8mks)
b) Describe the message of angel Gabriel to Mary according to Luke 1:26-38 (6mks)
c) Outline six lessons on family relationships drawn from the incident when Jesus accompanied
his parents to the temple at the age of twelve. (6mks)

2. a) With reference to Luke 5:17-26, describe the healing of the paralytic man. (8mks)
b) State seven teachings of Jesus on true discipleship from the sermon on the plain. (7mks)
c) Give reasons why modern Christians should accept to suffer in Christ’s name. (5mks)

3.a) Describe the incident in which Jesus forgave the sinful woman in Luke 7:36-50. (8mks)
b) Give six reasons why Jesus chose the twelve Disciples. (6mks)
c) Identify six ways in which Christians prepare themselves for the coming of God’s kingdom.
(6 mks)
4.a) Describe the New Testament teachings on unity of believers based on the image of the bride.
(8 mks)
b) How was the life of Peter transformed on the day of Pentecost? (6mks)
c) Outline Saint Paul’s teaching on how the gifts of the Holy Spirit should be used in the church
(6mks)
5.a) Explain the traditional African understanding of marriage. (7mks)
b) List six forms of abuse that children go through in child labour. (6mks)
c) Give seven criteria that Christians use to evaluate the use of leisure. (7mks)

6.a) Identify eight reasons why people engage in corrupt practices in Kenya today. (8mks)
b) In which ways are people punished in Kenya for causing social disorders? (6mks)
c) How can Christians today help to improve the Environment? (6mks)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

101/1 - English - Paper 1

(Functional Writing, Close Text and Oral Skills) -
2025 – 2 ½ hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ……………………………………

EXAM
Instructions to students
1. Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer all questions in this question paper.
3. All you answer must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.

For Examiner’s use only.

Question Max. Score Student’s Score

2025
1. 20

2. 10

3. 30

Total 60

Page 1 of 7

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 MARKS)
You are the captain of your school. You have noticed that students are coming to school in
clothing that is not part of the school uniform. You need to inform them to desist from that
behavior. Write an internal memo reminding them of the prescribed uniform and the
consequences of wearing illegal clothing

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Page 3 of 7
2. CLOZE TEST (10 MARKS)
Fill in each blank space in the following passage with the most appropriate word.

In (1)…………………………….to pass examinations well, one needs to (2)………………...a good

foundation from the beginning. Revising (3)………………. for the examinations requires you to

actually study and (4)………………your facts rather than memorizing them. (5)………………of

the main problems that (6)………..…..students face is anxiety. A little bit of anxiety before

examinations is okay but too much (7)………………detrimental. Excess anxiety may come from

(8)…………………understanding the crucial points in a topic before moving (9)……………… to

the next. When students simply gloss (10)…………………facts, they fail to understand them and

therefore they get mixed up or confused before examinations.

3. ORAL SKILLS (30 MARKS)

a) Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow.

When to the sessions of sweet silent thought

I summon up remembrance of things past,
I sigh the lack of many a thing I sought
And with the old woes new wail my dear time’s waste
Then can I drown an eye, unused to flow,
For previous friends hid in death’s dateless night,
And weep a fresh love’s long since cancelled woe,
And moan the expense of many a vanished sight.
Then can I grieve at grievances foregone,
And heavily from woe to woe tell o’er.
The sad account of foregone-bemoaned moan,
Which I now pay as if not paid before .
But if the while I think of thee, dear friend,
All losses are restored and sorrows end.

William Shakespeare

Page 4 of 7

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
Questions
(i) Describe the rhyme scheme of the poem above (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Identify the most dominant sound devices in the poem (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Read the oral literature item below and answer the questions that follow.

Slipperiness knows no king.

(i) Identify an element of musicality contained in the proverb above (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Identify two occasions in which the above proverb can be used (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Page 5 of 7
c) Identify the odd one out in each of the following sets by underlining according to the
pronunciation of bold part of the words. (4 marks)

(i) Enough staff dough graph

(ii) Deposit rapport report debutant

(iii) Hour honour heir heifer

(iv) Prison reason person season

d) For each of the following words, provide a word pronounced the same. (3 marks)

(i) What ………………………..

(ii) Quire ……………………….

(iii) Come ………………………….

e) You are having a group discussion with your colleagues on the set text “Fathers of Nations.”
One of your group mates is contributing to the discussion but you are eager to chip in with
something. State any three cues that would tell you that it is your turn to make a contribution.
(3 marks)

f) Explain how you would greet a friend you meet on the road while taking a walk (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

g) Read the following dialogue between Portia and the Principal then answer the questions
that follow.

Principal: Welcome Portia, please have a seat.

Portia: (After sitting down) Sir, why did you call me?

Principal: I would like us to have a little chat about..................

Page 6 of 7
Portia: I have not done anything wrong; you can even ask Jedidiah, the class prefect I
waswith her the whole day yesterday.

Principal: Actually, the reason I called you is because...

Portia: Speak louder. I can’t hear you.

Principal : (In a louder voice). The reason why I sent for you is because I have just received
news from...

Portia: (Shouting). Jacky! I knew that fool could not be trusted with a secret. Okay, it’s
true that Elijah and I sneaked out of school yesterday but we were hungry, really
hungry. All we did was buy a loaf of bread and then came back to school.

Principal: Portia, I wish you could listen to me. The reason why I called you here is because
I have received news that you have won an award in the creative writing contest
that you entered last year. I have a cheque here for you. However, you have
raised a matter that I would love to attend to without further delay. Please go
and call Elijah. By the time you get back I will have decided on the best
punishment for you two.

(i) How does the principal establish rapport with the student? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………… …………….

(ii) Prove that Portia is a poor listener. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………..………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………… ………………..
(iii) What evidence is there in the dialogue to suggest that Portia demonstrates lack of
etiquette in her speech?
(3marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
Page 7 of 7

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

101/2 - English – Paper 2

(Comprehensive, Literary Appreciation and Grammar)

2025– Time 2 ½ hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ……………/……………/…………

Instructions to candidates
a) Write your name, index number, admission number and school in the spaces provided
above.

EXAM
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer all the questions in this question paper.
d) All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.
e) This paper consists of 10 printed pages.
f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
g) Candidates must answer the questions in English.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

2025
Question Maximum Score Candidates
Score

1 20

2 25

3 20

4 15

Total Score

TENG2025 TURN OVER

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1. Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. (20 marks)
The core element of Artificial Intelligence (AI) and a functioning production IT system is an
interactive, lifelong process of learning from the human partner and responding to human needs.
For example, the AI system must be able to draw up highly complex plans as needed by the
customer and to produce them autonomously. A production robot, in particular, is supposed to
be designed in such a way that it has nearly human capabilities such as fine motor skills,
perception, adaptability and cognition. In order to achieve its full functionality, however, it must
be programmed dynamically and rigidly.
Modern information technologies and the advent of machines powered by artificial intelligence
have already strongly influenced the world of work in the 21st century. Computers, algorithms
and software simplify everyday tasks.
When we transfer the experience of the past to the future, disturbing questions arise: what will
the future world of work look like and how long will it take to get there? Will the future world of
work be a world where humans spend less time earning their livelihood? Alternatively, are mass
unemployment, mass poverty and social distortions also a possible scenario for the new world, a
world where robots, intelligent systems and algorithms play an increasingly central role? What is
already clear and certain is that new technical developments will have a fundamental impact on
the global labour market within the next few years, not just on industrial jobs but on the core of
human tasks in the service sector that are considered untouchable.
In addition to companies, employees and societies, education systems and legislators are also
facing the task of meeting the new challenges resulting from constantly advancing technology.
Legislators are already lagging behind and the gap between reality and laws relating to AI is
growing.
Both blue-collar and white-collar sectors will be affected. The faster the process of the division
of labour and the more process steps can be described in detail, the sooner employees can be
replaced by intelligent algorithms. One third of current jobs requiring a bachelor’s degree can be
performed by machines or intelligent software in the future. Individual jobs will disappear
completely, and new types of jobs will come into being.
Robots and intelligent machines can have not only supporting, but even lifesaving functions.
Examples are robots used in medical diagnostics, which have high accuracy, or for the
assessment of dangerous objects using remote control and integrated camera systems. These
make it possible, for example, to defuse a bomb without a human having to come close to it. The
‘Robo Gas Inspector’, an inspection robot equipped with remote gas sensing technology, can
inspect technical facilities even in hard-to-reach areas without putting humans at risk, for
example, to detect leaks in above-ground and underground gas pipelines.
Owing to the great number of emerging multidisciplinary support alternatives due to AI and
machines, the requirements for future employees will change. There will be hardly any need for
employees who do simple and/or repetitive work. Already today, the number of factory workers
is constantly decreasing, and humans are ever more becoming the control mechanism of the

2
machine. The automotive industry, where many production steps are already fully automated, is
the pioneer in this respect.
The lower the demand for workers, the higher will be the companies’ demand for highly
qualified employees. According to common belief, better education helps. Better education
helps, however, only in certain circumstances. The additional qualification of an individual
employee must be connected to the work in question. Additional qualifications as an accountant
will be of little benefit for the individual employee, because – over time – there is a 98 per cent
probability that the work of an accountant can be done by intelligent software. Creative people
who are talented in mathematics and sciences are best qualified for the new labour market.
Although not every future employee will be required to be an IT programmer, they should have a
fundamental grasp of analytical and technical matters. Employees should be able to form a unit
with supporting machines and algorithms and to navigate the internet comfortably and move
safely in social networks. To do this, it is necessary to know how the basic structurework. The
employee should also be able to examine machines and artificial intelligence software critically.
It is not necessary only to oversee machines, but also to coordinate them. The interfaces between
humans and machines and the overlaps in the area of responsibility among the more flexible
humans must also be coordinated.
a) What is the importance of humans to AI systems? (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………............

d) In your own words and according to the passage, explain why the gap between reality
and laws relating to AI is growing. (2 marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) What two characteristics, according to the passage, must an employee have to survive
in the new work environment dominated by AI? (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
f) Giving a reason, explain whether machines are superior to humans when it comes to
work. (1 mark)
....................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
g) Modern information technologies have already strongly influenced the world of work in
the 21st century. (Rewrite adding a question tag) (1 mark)

h) Make notes on the implications of AI in the workplace. (5 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………........................
i) Explain the meanings of the following words as used in the passage. (3 marks)
i. Autonomously
……………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. Untouchable
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
iii. Pioneer
……………………………………………………………………………………………

4
2. Read the excerpt below and then answer the questions that follow. (25 marks)
John Lara; The Samaritan
Read the excerpt below and then answer the questions that follow. (25 marks)

Mossi: Municipal fund? How?

Seymour: We just need to do some reallocation of budget line items.

Ted: I agree. We must set aside some money to take care of investigators, lawyers, prosecutors
and judges if things go wrong.

Seymour: You see, the waste disposal system in our town is in a terrible state. There is garbage
all over the place and the drains are broken. As we speak, it is a serious health hazard. We
can justify reallocation of funds on the need to address this problem. In reality, we will
use some of the funds to fight off cases that are without a doubt coming.

Mossi: (Surprised and in disbelief) What?

Seymour: Yes, we have to get money to fight the cases. And enough of it, I dare say!

Mossi: But that will only get us deeper into problems!

Seymour: Yes, it will; but we will be the better armed to deal with the trouble and even more of
it.

Mossi: Over my dead body! What you are suggesting is illegal? The law is very clear. A
Municipal Council cannot spend any money at any time of a financial year except as
provided in the national estimates, and as contained in an Appropriation Act approved by
Parliament.

Ted: (Looking at Mayor Mossi in disbelief) What do you mean? You would rather we are
prosecuted and imprisoned?

Seymour: In that case, we can submit a supplementary estimate of expenditure. That is allowed
under the law.

Mossi: So long as that money will be committed to other uses, I will be blamed for the
misallocation. It will get me into more trouble!

Seymour: You will be in a position to deal with the trouble. Can’t you understand? You will have
the money!

Mossi: (Pointing at Seymour and Ted) Look here, my good friends, you have in the past forced
my hand into misallocating funds by making unreasonable demands.

Seymour: Which demands?

Mossi: You cannot deny that you have forced me to concede to endless demands ranging from
regular travel with enhanced allowances for members of the Municipal Council, sitting
allowances of unnecessary committee meetings, to loans and mortgages. It is as though
all the money allocated to the Municipality is exclusively meant for Council Members!

5
Seymour: Don’t start pontificating! You will never get away with the crimes committed under
your watch if things get out hand! And you also know how much you have stolen! So you
better be wise! Let’s do a supplementary estimate.
Mossi: (Hand raised and wagging his finger pointing at Seymour in anger) I know you very
well. I know those things you deal with! If you are not careful, I will have you arrested
and prosecuted! I can make you see real smoke! And I can strike harder than thunder!
(a) Where does this conversation take place and what happens before it? (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Basing on the events that happen earlier in the play, explain the cause of the conflict in this
excerpt (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(c) Identify and illustrate one theme brought out in the excerpt. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) How is Seymour portrayed in the excerpt? Illustrate your answer. (4 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………

(e) “If you are not careful, I will have you arrested and prosecuted!” From your knowledge of the
play, state any three accusations for which Seymour can be arrested and prosecuted. (3 mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

(f) Explain the effect of any two stylistic features used in this excerpt. (4 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………

(g) What is the mood of this excerpt? (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

(h) “We just need to do some reallocation of budget line items.” Begin: What…. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………......

(i) Explain the meaning of the following expressions as used in the excerpt. (3 marks)

(i) fight off …………………………………………………………………………

(ii) concede …………………………………………………………………………
(iii) pontificating ……………………………………………………………………

3. Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow. (20 marks)

Footpath
Path – let … Leaving home, leading out
Return my mother to me.
The sun is sinking and darkness coming,
Hens and cocks are already inside and babies drowsing,
Return my mother to me.
We do not have firewood and I have not seen the lantern,
There is no more food and the water has run out
Path – let me pray, you return my mother to me.
Path of the small hills, path of the small stones
Path of slipperiness, path of the mud
Return my mother to me.
Path of papyrus, path of the rivers
Path of small forests, path of reeds
Return my mother to me
Path, I implore you, return my mother to me
Path of the crossways, path that branches off,

Path of the stringing shrubs, path of the bridge

Return my mother to me
Path of the open, path of the valley
Path of the steep climb, path of the downward slope
Return my mother to me.
Children are drowsing about to sleep,
7

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Darkness is coming and there is no firewood,
And I have not found the lantern;
Return my mother to me.
Stella Ngatho.
(a) Who is the persona in this poem? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Identify and explain the effectiveness of any two stylistic devices. (6 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
(c) What is the tone of the poem? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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............................................................................................................................................................
(d) What is the mood of the poem? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) Comment on the title of the poem. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
............................................................................................................................................................
(f) With illustrations, briefly state three problems that the persona is facing. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
............................................................................................................................................................
(g) Describe the setting of this poem. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8
4. Grammar
a) Rewrite the following sentences as instructed, without changing the meaning. (2 marks)
(i) Pandya said, “I shall find it difficult to find the office without proper directions.” (Rewrite as
reported speech, using ‘unless’.)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Should Mrs. Okello see you, she would be surprised. (Rewrite, Beginning: Were …)

b) Complete the following sentences with the most appropriate prepositions. (3marks)

(i) Subsequent ……….....the heavy rains many schools were closed in some parts of the country.

(ii) The three students were sent home ……………………… their unbecoming behaviour.

(iii) The farmers continued working on their farms ………................... the unfavourable climatic
conditions.

c) (i) I went into the room with a pile of files. I tripped on the carpet which had been rolled up.
Rewrite as one sentence, using a present participle. (1 mark)

(ii) Adela is not accustomed to such behaviour. She was deeply shocked. (Use a past participle
to join the two sentences. (1 mark)

d) Complete each of the following sentences using appropriate phrasal verbs, made up of the
words given in bracket. (2 marks)

(i) Eggs don’t ……………………................... me. (agree)

(ii) Can I ………………………….............. you for help? (count)

f) In each of the sentences below a group of words is underlined. Write down the best single
word which may be used to replace it. (3 marks)

9
(ii) She is the one who filed the law suit.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) His argument is quite incapable of being understood.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) Explain the difference in meaning between the pair of sentences.

(a.i) I saw the Secretary and Treasurer.

(a.ii) I saw the Secretary and the Treasurer.

(b.i) Jane shouldn’t have seen me yesterday.

(b.ii) Jane couldn’t have seen me yesterday.

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KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

101/3 – English – Paper 3

(Creative Composition and Essays Based on Set Texts)
Time 2 ½ hours
Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ……………………………………

Instructions to candidates

EXAM
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provide above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer three questions only.
d) Question one and two are compulsory.
e) In question three choose only one of the optional texts you have prepared on.
f) Where a candidate presents work on more than one optional text, only the first one to
appear will be marked.
g) Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words.
h) All answers should be written in the answer booklet provided.

2025
i) This paper consists of 2 printed pages.
j) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are
printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
k) Candidates must answer the questions in English.
For Examiner’s use only.
Question Maximum Candidate’s Examiner’s
Score Score Initials
1 20

2 20

3 20
TOTAL 60

TENG2025 TURN OVER

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1. Imaginative composition (Compulsory) (20 marks)
Either
a). Write a composition beginning: I had not seen the object before. It was not there last
night. I carefully…

OR
b) Write a composition, supporting or opposing this statement: “Both girls and boys have equal
rights to their parents’ property.”

2. COMPULSORY ESSAY. Fathers of Nations by Paul B. VittaNovel:

Closely referring to Professor Kimani in Fathers of Nations, write an essay to show how one
problem can lead to another. (20marks)

Optional
3. Optional set texts
Either
a) Short story: A Silent Song and Other Stories by Godwin Siundu
(20 marks)
“War causes a lot of harm and thus should be avoided at any cost.” Validate this statement
basing your illustrations from Chimamanda Adichie's 'Ghosts'
Or
b) The play (20 marks)
Adipo Sidang’, Parliament of Owls
Arrogance only leads to one’s downfall. With reference to the events in Adipo Sidang’s play
Parliament of Owls, write an essay in support of this statement.

c) Novel: An Artist of the Floating World by Kazuo Ishiguro. (20 marks)

‘An Artist of the floating world is a Novel about intergenerational conflicts’ Discuss.

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

2
1

KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

312/1 - Geography - Paper 1

Time - 2 ¾ hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ……………………………………

Instructions to students
1. Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
2. This paper consists of two section A and B
3. Answer all the questions in section A
4. Answer question 6 and any other two questions from section B
5. All you answer must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.
6. Candidates should answer the questions in English.
For Examiner’s Use Only
Section Questions Candidate’s Maximum
Score Score

A 1–5 25
6 25
B 25
25
Total
100
Score

TGEO2025 TURN OVER

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2

SECTION A
Answer all questions in this section.
1. (a) What is solar eclipse? (2 marks)
(b) What is the longitude of a place whose local time is 10.30 a.m., when the local time is
2.00 p.m. at longitude 450E . (3 marks)

2. (a) Name two isothermal layers of the atmosphere. (2 marks)

(b) State three consequences of climate change. (3 marks)

3. The diagram below represents features produced by faulting. Use it to answer questions (a)
and (b).

(a) Identify the features marked M and P. (2 marks)

(b) State three characteristics of feature marked N in Kenya. (3 marks)

4. (a) Name two features associated with inland drainage basins in arid areas. (2 marks)
(b) Give three factors which contribute to the development of deserts. (3 marks)

5. (a) Distinguish between an ice cap and an iceberg. (2 marks)

(b) Describe how a glacier transports its load. (3 marks)
3
SECTION B

Answer question 6 (compulsory) any other two questions from this section.

6. Study the map of Nyeri 1:50,000 (sheet 120/4) provided and answer the following
questions.
(a) (i) What is the four figure grid reference of Mweiga mission? (2 marks)
(ii) Measure the length of the road D 435. Give your answer in kilometres. (2 marks)
(iii) Give three types of natural vegetation found in the area covered by the map.
(3 marks)
(b) (i) Give the approximate height of Nyeri forest guard post. (1 mark)
(ii) Identify two human-made features in grid square 6652. (2 marks)
(c) Using a vertical scale of 1cm to represent 50 metres;
(i) Draw a cross section from grid reference 680620 to 730660. (4 marks)
(ii) On the cross section, mark and name the following;
• Hill (1 mark)
• River (1 mark)
• Road D 449 (1 mark)

(iii) Calculate the vertical exaggeration of the cross-section. (2 marks)

(d) Citing evidence from the map, explain three factors that favour trade in area covered
by the map. (6 marks)

7. (a) (i) Define the term mineral. (2 marks)

(ii) Give two categories of metallic minerals. (2 marks)

(b) (i) Name the rocks which results from the metamorphism of the following;

• Granite (1 mark)
• Clay (1 mark)
• Sandstone (1 mark)
(ii) State three factors that influence rock metamorphism. (3 marks)
(c) Describe the formation of the following rocks.
(i) Intrusive igneous rocks (4 marks)

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4
(ii) Organically formed sedimentary rocks (5 marks)
(d) Explain three economic benefits of coral rocks. (6 marks)

8. (a) Name two volcanic depressions found on the Rift Valley of Kenya. (2 marks)

(b) State five characteristics of a composite volcano. (5 marks)

(i) Geyser. (4 marks)

(ii) Volcanic plug. (4 marks)

(d) Name three seismic zones in the world. (3 marks)

(e) Explain four negative effects of earthquakes. (8 marks)

9. (a) Differentiate between an ocean and a sea. (2 marks)

(b) Give five conditions necessary for the formation of a beach. (5 marks)

(c) The diagram below illustrates some of the features formed by wave depositions. Use it
to answer the questions that follow.

(i) Identify the features marked Q, R and S. (3 marks)

(ii) Describe the process through which the feature marked P is formed. (4 marks)

(d) (i) Give two causes of submergence of coasts. (2 marks)

(ii) Give three features formed as a result of submergence of coasts. (3 marks)

(e) You intend to carry out a field study of coastal landforms.

(i) State two objectives you would formulate for the study. (2 marks)

(ii) Why would you need to seek permission before the study? (3 marks

10. (a) (i) What is an aquifer? (2 marks)

(ii) Apart from wells state three ways in which underground water may reach the
surface of the Earth. (3 marks)

(iii) State four conditions necessary for the formation of artesian well. (4 marks)

(b) With the aid of well labeled diagrams describe how the following features are formed.

(i) Limestone pavement. (6 marks)

(ii) Stalagmites. (6 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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6
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KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

312/2 - Geography - Paper 2

Time - 2 ¾ hours

Name ……………………………………………… Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ……………………….... Date ……………………………………

Instructions to students
1. Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
2. This paper consists of two section A and B
3. Answer all the questions in section A
4. Answer question 6 and any other two questions from section B
5. All you answer must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.
6. Candidates should answer the questions in English.
For Examiner’s use only.
Section Question Maximum’s Candidate’s
Score Score
A 1-5 25

B 6 25

7 25

9 25

10 25

100
Total

TGEO2025 TURN OVER

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION A
Answer ALL questions in this section in the answer booklet provided.
1.a) Give two main maize growing areas in Kenya. (2 marks)
b) State three uses of maize. (3 marks)

2.a) Name two districts West of Rift Valley where dairy farming is practiced in Kenya.
(2 marks)
b) State three problems facing dairy farming in Denmark. (3 marks)

3.a) State three factors that influenced the establishment of Perkerra Irrigation Scheme.
(3 marks)
b) State three advantages of overhead irrigation. (3 marks)

4..a) What is fish farming? (2 marks)

b) State three problems experienced by fish farmers in Kenya. (3 marks)

5.a) State two reasons why motorcycle transport is widely used in Kenya.(2 marks)
b) Give two ways in which telecommunication promotes trade. (2 marks)

2
SECTION B

Answer question 6 and any other two questions

6. The table below shows the total number of horticultural crops exported from
Kenya in 2008 and 2009. Use it to answer question a(i) and a(ii) below.

Crop Total number of horticultural crops

2008 2009
Oranges 942,000 965,000
Tomatoes 120,000 154,000
French beans 97,000 128,000
Passion fruits 94,000 103,000
Onions 19,000 24,000
Flowers 29,000 41,000
Total 1,301,000 1,415,000

(a) (i) Identify the crop which had the highest increase in the number of
export in Kenya between 2008 and 2009 and indicate the change.(2 marks)

(ii) Calculate the percentage increase of onions between 2008 and 2009
(3 marks)

(iii) Draw a divided rectangle 15cm long and 5cm wide to represent the
horticultural export from Kenya in 2009. Show your calculations.
(10 marks)

(b) (i) Name three types of flowers grown in Kenya. (3 marks)

(ii) Explain how the following factors influence horticultural farming

in the Netherlands.
(a) Technology. (2 marks)
(b) Marketing systems. (2 marks)

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7. a.i) What is Agro-forestry? (2 marks)
b.i) State five reasons why agro-forestry is being encouraged in Kenya. (5 marks)
ii) Explain how the following factors influence distribution of forests.
iii) Altitude. (2 marks)
iv) Soils. (2 marks)
v) State four characteristics of tropical hardwood forests. (4 marks)

c.i) Give the differences between forestry in Kenya and Canada under the following
headings:-
- Tree harvesting. (2 marks)
- Transportation. (2 marks)
- Marketing. (2 marks)

ii) Give four reasons why Kenya should conserve her forests. (4 marks)

8.a.i) State three physical factors favouring cocoa growing in Ghana. (3 marks)
ii) Explain four problems experienced by cocoa farmers in Ghana. (8 marks)

b. The outline map provided shows the wheat growing areas in Canada.

i) Name provinces marked A, B and C. (3 marks)

ii) Compare wheat farming in Canada and Kenya under the following headings:-

4
- Storage (2 marks)
- Transportation. (2 marks)
- Marketing. (2 marks)
c) Your Geography class carried out a field study on wheat farming.
i) Formulate one hypothesis based/on your study. (1 mark)
ii) Give two types of information you collected from the field. (2 marks)
iii State two follow-up activities undertaken after the study. (2 marks)
9.a.i) Apart from nuclear energy name three other non-renewable sources of energy. (3 marks)
ii) State three factors that hinder the development of nuclear energy in many countries?
(3marks)

b.i) Explain three effects of overdependence on petroleum on the economy of oil importing
countries in the event of an oil crisis. (6 marks)
ii) State three methods that Kenya can use to conserve her energy. (3 marks)
c.i) Give four reasons why Kenya has not been able to fully exploit her geothermal power.
(4mks)
Use the map of Africa below to answer the questions that follow:-

ii) Name the Hydro Electric Power projects marked 1, 2, 5 and 6. (4 marks)
iii) Give two reasons why Africa has a high potential of Hydro-electric power. (2 marks)

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10.a.i) Name three Agricultural non-food processing industries in Kenya. (3 marks)
ii) Explain two ways in which raw materials influence the location of industries.
(4 marks)
b.i) Give four benefits of motor vehicle assembling in Kenya. (4 marks)
ii) State four problems caused by industries to a country. (4 marks)
c. Explain three factors that influence the location of Iron and steel industry in the Ruhr
region of Germany. (6 marks)
d. Your class carried out a field study on a processing industry in the industrial area Nairobi.
i) State two objectives for your study. (2 marks)
ii) Give two reasons why you needed to carry out a reconnaissance. (2 marks)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

6
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

311/1 - HISTORY - Paper 1

&
GOVERNMENT
Time 2 ½ hours
Name ……………………………………………..….……… Adm Number…………………………..
Candidate’s Signature ………………….……….…...……….. Date ...………..…………….

Instructions to students
1. Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
2. This paper consists of three section A, B and C
3. Answer all the questions in section A, three questions from section B and two questions
from section C
4. All you answer must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.
5. Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s

score score
A 1-17 25
B 18 -21 45
C 22-24 30

Total score

Page 1of 3

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SECTION A-25 MARKS

Answer all questions from this section

1. Name two communities in Kenya who belong to the same linguistic group as the
Turkana. (2mks)
2. Name the original homeland of the Eastern Cushites. (1mk)
3. Give two reasons why Kenyan communities fought against each other during the
Pre-colonial period. (2mks)
4. Mention the two main trade items from the interior of Kenya during the
long-distance trade. (2mks)
5. Give two reasons why the missionaries promoted legitimate trade in Kenya in
the 19thc. (2mks)

6. Define the term ‘’National Integration”. (1mk)

7. Mention two limitations to the right to assembly, demonstration, picketing and petition.
(2mks)
8. Give two contributions of Independent Schools in Kenya during the colonial
period. (2mks)

9. Give the main reason why the Lancaster house conference was held in 1962. (1mk)
10. Give two roles played by Kenya African Democratic Union in the struggle for
Independence. (2mks)
11. Give the main reason why the colonial government created African reserves
in Kenya. (1mk)
12. Identify one operational base established by the Imperial British East Africa
Company in Central Kenya during the colonial period. (1mk)
13. Mention one group of people entitled to Kenyan citizenship by the Independence
constitution of Kenya. (1mk)
14. Mention one way in which the colonial government attracted more settlers
to Kenya. (1mk)
15. Give two sources of Nyayo Philosophy in Kenya. (2mks)
16. Identify one type of land holding in Kenya. (1mk)
17. Name the chief executive in Kenya. (1mk)

SECTION B-45MARKS

Answer any three questions from this section

18. (a) Name five communities in Kenya that are part of the Eastern Cushites. (5mks)

Page 2of 3
(b) Explain five effects of the Somali migration into Kenya. (10mks)

19. (a) Identify five factors that led to the growth of towns along the Kenyan Coast before

the 19thc. (5mks)

(b)Explain five consequences of the construction of the Kenya –Uganda railway. (10mks)

20. (a) State three methods used by the British to establish colonial rule in Kenya. (3mks)

(b)Explain six results of the Maasai collaboration with the British in the early 20th
century. (12mks)

21. (a)Mention three trade unions which merged to form the Kenya federation of labour during

the struggle for independence (3mks)

(b) Explain six roles played by trade unions in improving the lives of the Kenyan people

during the colonial period. (12mks)

SECTION C-30 MARKS

Answer any two questions from this section

22. (a) State three qualifications for registration as a voter in Kenya. (3mks)

(b) Explain six rights of an accused person during trial in a court of law in Kenya. (12mks)

23. (a)Identify five characteristics of a good constitution. (5mks)

(b)Explain five reasons why parliament is supreme in Kenya. (10mks)

24. (a)Identify three categories of members in the county assembly. (3mks)

(b)Explain six challenges facing county government in Kenya. (12mks)

Page 3of 3

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KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

311/2 - HISTORY - Paper 2

&
GOVERNMENT
Time 2 ½ hours
Name …………………………………………………… Adm Number…………………………..
Candidate’s Signature ………………….……….…...….. Date ……………………………………

Instructions to students
1. Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
2. This paper consists of three section A, B and C
3. Answer all the questions in section A, three questions from section B and two questions from
section C
4. All you answer must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.
5. Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

Section Questions Maximum Candidate’s

score score
A 1-17 25
B 18 -21 45
C 22-24 30

Total score

THIST2025 TURN OVER

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
311/2 History & Government
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section.
1. Name one distinct stage in which evolution of man took place. (1 mark)
2. Mention one chemical dating method used by the archeologists. (1 mark)
3. Identify two hunting methods used by early man. (2 marks)
4. State two theories that explain the origin and spread of agriculture. (2 marks)
5. What was the main reason behind the spread of agriculture in USA? (1 mark)
6. Give two characteristic of currency as a method of trade. (2 marks)
7. Apart from Ghana and Mali, name any other empire that developed as a result of
Trans-Saharan Trade. (1 mark)
8. Define “space age”. (1 mark)
9. Name the people accredited to the invention of stone tablets as a means of communication. (1 mark)
10. Highlight two major factors that contributed to the decline of Meroe as an urban centre. (2 marks)
11. Mention one activity that took place during the Odwira festival. (1 mark)
12. Name two leaders who prepared African forces in majimaji rebellion. (2 marks)
13. State two types of nationalism expressed in South Africa. (2 marks)
14. Identify the rival movement formed in Mozambique to counter FRELIMO in 1965. (1 mark)
15. Name two weapons that were introduced in a bid to end the stalemate during the
First World War. (2 marks)
16. Name two wars that occurred because of Cold War. (2 marks)
17. Identify the organ that keeps annual register of voter in Britain. (1 mark)

SECTION B (45 MARKS)

Answer any three questions from this section.
18. a) State five factors that favoured the beginning of early agriculture during the
New Stone Age. (5 marks)
b) Explain five effects of early agriculture in Egypt. (10 marks)

19. a) Identify three sub-groups of the Shona. (3 marks)

b) Discuss the political organization of the Shona. (12 marks)

20. a) Identify three factors that led to the industrial recovery of West Germany after
World War II. (3 marks)
b) Explain six challenges facing industrialization in India. (12 marks)

21. a) Outline three economic factors that led to the scramble and partition of Africa. (3 marks)
b) Explain six reasons why the Mandika resistance took long to suppress. (12 marks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section
22. a) Identify three main bodies of the League of Nations. (3 marks)
b) Explain six problems faced by the League of Nations. (12 marks)

23. a) State five causes of Second World War. (5 marks)

b) Explain five reasons why the Axis were defeated during the Second World War. (10 marks)

24. a) State five symbolic and ceremonial significance of the British Monarch. (5 marks)
b) Explain five ways in which powers of an American president are checked. (10 marks)

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KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

441/1 HOMESCIENCE - Paper 1

(Theory)
Time 2 ½ hours
Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number………………………………

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ………………………………………

Instructions to students
- Write your name and index number in the spaces above.

- This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.

- Answer all the questions in section A, Question 25 (Compulsory) in section B and any two
questions from section C.

- Answers to ALL questions must be written in this booklet.

- Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions are missing.

For Examiner’s use only.

Section Questions Maximum score Candidates score

A 1 -18 40

B 19 20

C 20-23

TOTAL SCORE 100

THSC2024
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1

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION A

1. Identify two ways in which the skin protects the body. (2 marks)

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4. Give two limitations of using a pressure lamp for lighting. (2 marks)
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5. State three good qualities of a kitchen plan. (3 marks)
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6. Give two advantages of using commercial paper patterns. (2 marks)

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7. Define the following terms. (3 marks)
(i) Colostrums
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(ii) Hue
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2
(iii) Pressing
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8. What are effects of putting hot food in a refrigerator? (2 marks)

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13. Mention two safety measures you should consider when arranging furniture in the sitting room.
(2 marks)
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14. Give two reasons for keeping potatoes in cold water as soon as they are peeled. (2 marks)
................................................................................................................................................................
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................................................................................................................................................................
3

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15. State three disadvantages of using left over foods. (3 marks)

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16. Give two roles of a shank in garment construction. (2 marks)
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17. Draw and name two different symbols likely to be found on care labels of a woolen garment.
(2 marks)
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18. Name two types of tacking stitches. (2 marks)

SECTION B (20 Marks) COMPULSORY

19. You have visited your cousin and she requires you to help her with house chores.

a) Describe the procedure you would follow to thoroughly clean a hurricane Lamp. (7 marks)
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4
b) Explain how to launder her fast coloured nylon petticoat. (8 marks)
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c) Thorough cleaning an enamel plate . (5 marks)

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................................................................................................................................................................

SECTION C
Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided.

20. a) Explain four reasons for using a time plan while performing household tasks. (8 marks)
................................................................................................................................................................
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................................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................................
5

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................................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................................
b) Identify six disadvantages of using convenience foods. (6 marks)
................................................................................................................................................................
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c) Give six precautions to observe when using candles for lighting. (6 marks)
................................................................................................................................................................
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21. a) Describe using well labeled diagrams how to work out a plain seam on the side of a blouse.
(8 marks)
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6
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b) Describe how to prepare a front and back facing using one well labeled diagram. (6 marks)
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c) Suggest four problems experiment during pregnancy and give a possible cause and remedy.
(6 marks)

Problem ½ mark Cause ½ each Remedy ½ each

22. a) Explain four reasons why polythene bags are popular for storage of food in the refrigerator.
(8 marks)
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................................................................................................................................................................
7

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
................................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................................
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b) List four functions of beverages in a meal. (4 marks)
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c) Explain four qualities of a well constructed furniture. (8 marks)
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................................................................................................................................................................
8
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

441/2 - HOMESCIENCE - Paper 2

(Clothing Construction)
Time 2 ½ hours
Name …………………………………………….…Adm Number………………………………………

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...…… Date ……………………………………………..

Instructions to Candidates:

a) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that

al the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are
missing.

THSC2025

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Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
A pattern of a pair shorts is provided. You are a divided to study the sketches,
instructions and the layout carefully before you begin the test.

Material provided
1. Pattern pieces
A. Short Front
B. Short Back
C. Pocket
D. Waistband
E. Front Short facing
F. Back short facing
2. Plain light weight cotton fabric 50cm long by 90 cm wide.
3. Cotton sewing thread to match the fabric.
4. One large envelope
THE TEST
Using the material provided, cut out and make the LEFT LEG of the short to
show the following processes:
a) Making of the back dart
b) Preparing and attaching the pocket.
c) Working of the inner leg seam using machine fell seam.
d) Working of the side seam using an open seam
e) Preparing the facing using machine stitching.
f) Fixing the facing using machine stitching.
g) Preparing and attaching the waistband
h) Finishing the waistband using hemming stitches
At the end of the examination, firmly sew on your work, on a single fabric, a label
bearing your name and index number. Remove the needle and pins from your
work, then fold your work neatly and place it in the envelope provided. Do not put
scrap of fabric in the envelope.

2
3

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KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

441/3 HOMESCIENCE - Paper 3

(Practical)
𝟑
Time 1 hours
𝟒

Name ……………………………………………………………..…Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….….........................…… Date ……………/……………/…………

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS

a) Read the test carefully.

b) Write your name and index number on every sheet of paper used.

c) Textbooks and recipes may be used during the planning session as reference materials.

d) You will be expected to keep to your order of work during the practical session.

e) You are only allowed to take away your reference materials at the end of the planning session.

f) You are not allowed to bring additional notes to the practical session.

TURN OVER
THSC2025

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
441/3 Home science Paper 3

THE TEST
Your two cousins spent the night at your house. Using all the ingredients listed below prepare, cook and
present two suitable items for breakfast for the three of you. Include a beverage.

INGREDIENTS
• Oil
• Salt
• Eggs
• Sugar
• Tea leaves
• Self-raising wheat flour / plain wheat flour
• Milk
• Sweet potatoes / Arrow roots

PLANNING SESSION: 30 MINUTES

For each task listed below, use separate sheets of paper and make duplicate copies using carbon paper.

Then proceed as follows:

1. Identify the dishes and write the recipes
2. Write your order of work.
3. Make list of the foodstuff and equipment you will require.

2
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KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

314/1 - ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION - Paper 1

2025 Time 2 ½ hours

Name …………………………………………….… Adm Number…………………………………

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ……………………………………..

Instructions to students
- Write your name and index number in the spaces above.

- Answer any five questions in the foolscaps provided

- Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions are missing.

For Examiner’s use only.

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6

Maximum 20 20 20 20 20 20
score
Candidates
score

GRAND SCORE

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1. (a) Give reasons for relating the event of the Elephant in Sura Al Fi 'il (8 marks)
(b) Highlight the results of standardization of the Qur an (6 marks)
(c) State any six characteristics of the language of the Qur an (6 marks)
2. (a) Give an English translation of Sura An Nasr (6 marks)
(b) Discuss the relevance of the Qur an in the world today (14 marks)
3. (a) Explain the main categories of Hadith according to the teachings of Islam (8 marks)
(b) One learned man is harder on the devil than a thousand worshippers". Outline the teachings of the
Hadith (6 marks)
(c) Give reasons why Hadith is considered as a primary source of Shariah (6 marks)
4. (a) Describe the steps taken by Muslims in the observance of Saum Kafara (10 marks)
(b) Give any six conditions of evidence according to Islam (6 marks)
(c) State ways in which Muslims attain ritual purity (4 marks)
5. (a) Outline the rights of the following:
(i) Self (4 marks)
(ii) Allah (4 marks)
b) Explain why Tawbah is an act of worship (12 marks)
6. (a) State ways in which Muslims demonstrate faith in divine destiny in their daily lives
(7 marks)
(b) Give any seven functions of the Prophets of Allah (7 marks)
(c) What are the teachings of Islam on life during Barzakh? (6 marks)

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KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

314/2 ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION Paper 2

Time 2 ½ hours
Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ……………………………………

Instructions to students

- Write your name and index number in the spaces above.

- Answer any five questions in the foolscaps provided
- Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions are
missing.
For Examiner’s use only.

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6

Maximum 20 20 20 20 20 20
score
Candidates
score

GRAND SCORE

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IRE P2

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1. (a) Discuss the teachings of Islam on conduct of commercial activities (12 mks)
(b) Give ways in which Muslims could help prevent children from being exploited in
the society (8 mks)
2. (a) Describe the Islamic marriage ceremony (14 mks)
(b) Identify any six causes of conflicts between Muslim nations and others in the
world today (6 mks)
3. (a) Give reasons for the coming of the Muslims in to the E.Africa (5 mks)
(b) Discuss ways in which prophet Muhhamad (S.A.W) improved the social status of
women (10 mks)
(c) State any five circumstances that led to the conquest of Mecca in 630 C.E
(5 mks)
4. (a) explain ways in which caliph Ali attempted to solve the issues that emerged
during his reign (12 mks)
(b) Give any eight reasons for the emergence of the Abbasids in the Muslim empire
(8 mks)
5. (a) Give ways in which Muslims express truthfulness (7 mks)
(b) Give reasons why the pillars of Islam are integral aspects of morality (7 mks)
(c) Explain the main classes of Ma’arufat according to Islam (6 mks)
6. (a) Outline the Islamic reforms advocated by Uthman dan Fodio in the society
(7 mks)
(b) What problems did Sayyid Qutb face in his lifetime? (6 mks)
(c) State the views of Ibn Khaldun on the study of history (7 mks)

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CHETI CHA ELIMU YA SEKONDARI YA KENYA 2025

102/1 - KISWAHILI - Karatasi Ya 1

(Insha)
JARIBIO LA 2025 – MUDA 1 ¾

Jina …………………………………………….……… Nambari ya mtahiniwa………………

Sahihi ………………….…...…………………..............Tarehe……………………………………....

Maagizo Kwa Mtahiniwa:

MITIHANI YA
1) Andika jina lako, nambari ya usajili na tarehe katika karatasi ya majibu.
2) Karatasi hii ina maswali manne.
3) Jibu maswali mawili pekee. Kila swali lina alama ishirini.
4) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
5) Chagua swali lingine lolote moja kutoka yale matatu yaliyosalia.

2025
6) Majibu yote yaandikwe katika karatasi ya majibu uliyopewa
Sehemu hii imehifadhiwa kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee.

SWALI 1 2 3 4

UPEO 20 20 20 20

ALAMA

UPEO 40

ALAMA ZA MTAHINIWA

J4KISW2025 FUNGUA UKURASA

Fungua ukurasa

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102/1 Kiswahili karatasi ya kwanza
1. SWALI LA KWANZA

Unataka kuanzisha shule ya kibinafsi (kiwango cha sekondari) mwakani.Andika tangazo litakalovutia

wazazi na wanafunzi watakaoleta watoto wao au watakaojiunga na shule yako.

2. Teknolojia ya kisasa ni kama sarafa yenye sura mbili.faida na madhara. Jadili.

3. Usipoziba ufa utajenga ukuta.

4. Andika insha itakayomalizika kwa maneno haya……..ilinichukua muda mrefu kuyaamini niliyoyasikia.

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CHETI CHA ELIMU YA SEKONDARI YA KENYA
102/2 - KISWAHILI - Karatasi Ya 2
(Lugha)
𝟏
2025 – MUDA 2
𝟐

Jina …………………………………………….……… Nambari ya mtahiniwa……………………

Sahihi ………………….…...…………………..............Tarehe……………………………………......

Maagizo Kwa Mtahiniwa:

a) Andika jina lako, jina la shule yako, nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.

2025
b)Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.

c)Jibu maswali yote.

d)Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.

e)Majibu yote yaandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali

f)Usitoe ukurasa wowote kutoka kwenye kijitabu hiki.

g)Karatasi hii ina kurasa 11 zilizopigwa chapa.

h)Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa sawasawa na
kuwa maswali yote yamo.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

SWALI ALAMA UPEO

1 15

2 15

3 40

4 10

JUMLA 80 Examinations
Brain Waves

P.O Box 065 00626 Nairobi

Tel 0711583620/0202647500

FUNGUA UKURASA
Page 1 of 11

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1. UFAHAMU (Alama 15)

Soma makala yafuatayo kisha ujibu maswali.

Kama kawaida walevi wenzao walikuwa wameshatangulia. Ilikuwa marufuku kuuza vileo
vyovyote vya kienyeji. Na ikiwa viliruhusiwa kuuzwa, basi ililazimu vitengenezwe viwandani,
na viwanda vyenyewe mali ya wageni-unaona? Ama sivyo, basi mzalendo hakuwa na budi ila
kunywa pombe ya chang’aa za kigeni- unaelewa? Hii ilitokana na hekima za watawala – na
hekima za watawala hazina haya! Mama yangu ndivyo alivyoniambia siku moja alipokuwa
amepagawa na pepo wake wa kifalsafa.

Haya basi, kina yahe kama wao hawakupinga kunywa aina nyingi za pombe hizi ghali za kigeni,
kilichowazuia kufanya hivyo hakikuwa kitu kingine bali ubaguzi tu- ambao ulitokana na sheria
za kiuchumi. Hii ndiyo sababu iliyowafanya watu kama kina Mzee Matingasi kuwa wagema ili
waweze kula vya walevi waliobaguliwa. Mangwe ya Mzee Matingasi kwa hivyo hayakuwa ya
halali. Hakuwa na leseni ingawaje walevi hawakuacha kumiminika hapo. Kwa yeyote yule
askari mpekuzi mja-wa-njaa , mlungula ulimkomesha. Mzee huyu aliweza kuhepa vikwazo vya
sheria kwa ukarimu wake wa kumpa chupa mbili au tatu – au hata pesa taslimu, kwa askari kama
huyu. Ni mbinu hii iliyomwezesha kila jioni kuwasha taa yake ya kibatali, kuitundika kiguzoni –
kitendo ambacho kilipageuza hapo kwake kitaluni. Hii haikuwa taa ya kuangalia, bali ya kuvutia
nondo. Wawili kati ya nondo hawa wakawa Dzombo na rafiki yake Jeuri.

Walipofika walikuwa wameshatanguliwa na wenzao ambao walikuwa wameshawaka tayari.

waliwakuta wamekaa kama mtu na nafasi yake ilivyomtuma. Lakini, kwa ujumla, walionekana
wamekaa vikundi vikundi. Kwenye kila kikundi, yaonekana kulikuweko na wale walionong’ona
ungedhani walikuwa hata wakiogopa kujisikia wenyewe wakizungumza na wapo wale
waliopayuka ili waweze kusikizwa na yeyote mpita njia. Baada ya kuamkuana na walevi
wenzao, waliagiza chupa zao nne za pombe ya mnazi na kujipachika gogoni. Huku wakikonga
pombe taratibu, walisikia kwa kikundi kimoja mtu akisema kwa sauti ya juu:

“Mwanamke! Hee, mimi siwezi kumnunulia mwanamke pombe”

“Kwa nini?” Mwenzake akamuuliza.

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Kabla ya kujibu, kwanza akateuka, na huku akiwatupia macho ya dharau wateja wenzake wa
kike, akasema, “Wote ni malaya tu.” Kisha akateuka“geee”huku akiyumbayumba kutoka
shingoni.

“Bila simile, ikasikika sauti ya kike ikimwambia, “Malaya ni mamako”

“Mimi sijali,” akajibu hata bila kuangalia hiyo sauti ilitokea wapi.

“Mimi si mtoto wa mwanamke…mimi ni mwana wa mwanamume!” Alisema haya kwa madaha

na midomo kuipindua juu, huku akiongezea, “Mimi si mtoto haramu nina baba – hachi ya
mungu!”

“Wajuaje?” Mwana-mama akawa bado anaye. Naye kwa sauti ya kutosadiki, akauliza, “Najuaje?
Si baba alimwoa mamangu?” Alijichekelea huku akiwaangalia wenzake wa kiume na macho ya
dharau yaliyokuwa kama yakiuliza: “Na huyu mwanamke ana kichaa nini?”

“Basi tu, huko kumwoa?”

“Aa! Si tena ali…aka…mmgh!” Alikohoa huku akionyesha tabasamu lililomng’arisha macho

yake ya uchu. “Ulikuwako?” Huyu mwana-mama akauliza na kila mtu akaangua kicheko. Lakini
naye mwana-mama hakutishika kwani aliendelea kumwambia: “Usiruke ama kumtolea macho
mtu hapa. Wewe umetutusi kwa sababu unadhani wewe u mtoto wa babako, hu wa haramu. Na
ni nani aliyekwambia hivyo? Mamako-ambaye ni mwanamke kama mimi, ama malaya kama
ulivyotuita…”

“ Ndiyo! Kwani utafanya nini?” Akamkatiza kwa ufidhuli huku akili yake sasa ikiwa na nia ya
kumzaba makofi. “Sitakufanya kitu,” Mwana-mama akamwambia. Hata hivyo, akaongezea,
“Kilicho wazi ni hiki: Kuwa una hakika kuwa mamako ni nani siku zote, lakini sivyo kuhusu
baba zetu. Kikubwa ni kuheshimiana na kupendana tukijua kwamba hakuna asiye mzawa wa
mwanamke.” Kumaliza kusema haya, mwana-mama alienda haja huku nyuma akiacha kimya
kikiwazonga wateja wenzake. Naye yule cholemanga wa haya yote akawa hana lingine ila
kukimbilia mboko yake… njia panda akawa amebwagwa na mboko ikawa kipengele cha
kujinasulia.

a) Ni kwa nini mzalendo hakuwa na budi ila kunywa pombe na chang’aa za kigeni?
(alama 2)

Page 3 of 11
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b) Jamii ya msimulizi imezongwa na ukata. Thibitisha kwa mifano miwili. (alama 2)
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c) Huku ukitoa mifano, onyesha jinsi usaliti unavyojitokeza kwenye kisa hiki. (alama2)
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d) Fafanua maana inayojitokeza kwenye kauli hii. (alama 2)
“ Hii haikuwa taa ya kuangalia, bali ya kuvutia nondo”
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e) Kwa kutoa mifano mitatu kutoka kwenye kifungu, onyesha jinsi ulevi ulivyochangia
unyanyasaji wa kijinsia. (alama 3)
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f) Eleza maana ya msamiati huu kama ulivyotumiwa kwenye kifungu. (alama 2)
i) wakikonga…………………………………………………………………………
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ii) mboko……………………………………………………………………………
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2. MUHTASARI (Alama 15)

Ni dhamira ya mwanafunzi yeyote kupata matokeo mazuri katika mtihani wa kitaifa punde tu
anapojiunga na shule iwe ni ya sekondari au msingi.
Matokeo hayo hutokea baada ya miaka minane katika shule za msingi na miaka minne katika
shule za sekondari. Hata hivyo, punde tu matokeo yanapotangazwa, wengine hujipata wanyonge
kwa kugundua kuwa wamefeli au wameambulia nunge kwa mtihani wao wa mwisho.

Miongoni mwa mambo yanayosababisha hali kama hii ni mwelekeo mbaya wa wanafunzi katika
baadhi ya masomo. Tunajua kweli kuwa palipo na ushindani lazima kuwe na mshindi na
mshindwa. Iwapo ungemwuliza mtahiniwa akueleze jinsi anavyohisi baada ya kushindwa
kwenye mtihani wa kitaifa, hatakuwa na la ziada ila kukueleza kuwa hajaridhishwa na matokeo.
Wengine wao hata huvuka mipaka na kuyataja matokeo yao mabaya kusababishwa na vizingiti
fulani au kuwakashifu walimu kwa kudai kuwa kulikuwa na hali ya kuonewa darasani.
Unapochunguza zaidi, utakuta ya kuwa wanaodaiwa kuwa werevu ni walio stadi katika masomo
ya sayansi yanayofikiriwa kuwa magumu.
Wakati wanaofikiriwa kuwa werevu wanapofanya vyema katika mitihani yao, wale wanaokisiwa
kuwa wajinga ambao wamefeli hujipata wakiomboleza kwa huzuni kwa muda mrefu.
Swali la miaka mingi kuhusu elimu limekuwa ni kwa nini wanafunzi wote hawawezi wakafanya
vyema na kufaulu katika mitihani ya kitaifa. Utafiti uliofanywa umebainisha wazi kwamba
kunazo sababu kadhaa zinazochangia matokeo mabaya.
Mojawapo ya sababu hizo, na ambayo ni muhimu sana ni ukosefu wa nidhamu shuleni.
Mwanafunzi wa aina hii hajali anachoambiwa na walimu na aghalabu muda wake mwingi
unapotelea katika adhabu.
Wakati mwanafunzi anapokosa nidhamu iwe kwa wazazi au walimu wake, masomo yake
huathirika. Matokeo yake katika mitihani hayatakuwa mazuri. Ni Lazima tabia ya mwanafunzi
iambatane na matokeo yake. Sababu nyingine ni mshituko unaowapata punde tu wanapoketi
kwenye viti vyao kufanya mitihani ya kitaifa. Mtahiniwa anapojikuta katika hali hii, kuna
uwezekano asifaulu katika masomo yake.

Page 5 of 11

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Kuna uwezekano wa wanafunzi aliyefeli katika mtihani wa darasa la nane kufanya vyema katika
shule ya upili na kupita mtihani wake wa kidato cha nne. Ilibainika pia kuwa wale waliofaulu
katika mtihani wa darasa la nane hulegeza juhudi zao masomoni na huwa hawapati alama
zinazoambatana na zile walizopata katika shule za msingi.
Sababu nyingine ya kuwafanya wanafunzi kutofanya vyema katika mtihani ni kubaguliwa kwa
wanafunzi hafifu na walimu na kukosa kushughulikiwa ipasavyo. Baadhi ya walimu
wanapogundua kuwa wanafunzi fulani hawafanyi vyema katika masomo fulani, hawatumii muda
wao mwingi kuwasukuma ili kuyaboresha matokeo. Badala yake huwashughulikia wanaoelewa
haraka darasani.
Kuna wanafunzi wengine wanaochukua muda mrefu kuelewa, si ya kwamba ni wajinga, la, ni
katika somo moja tu. Ni wajibu wa mwalimu kuhakikisha mwanafunzi kama huyu anapata
nafasi ya kuelewa anachofunzwa.
Wanafunzi wengine hawafanyi vyema kwa sababu wazazi wao hawamudu kuwalipia karo kwa
sababu ya umaskini, hawawezi hata kulipia masomo ya ziada kwa shule zinazosomesha
wanafunzi wakati wa likizo.
Kulingana na takwimu za elimu, muda wa kawaida hautoshi kukamilisha mtaala wa masomo ya
mfumo wa 8-4-4, kwani ni mpana sana. Walimu wanaombwa kushughulikia mafunzo ya ziada.

Maswali
a) Bila kubadilisha maana, fupisha aya tatu za mwanzo. Maneno (55 – 60) (Al. 7 Utiririko 1)
Matayarisho
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b) Fafanua sababu zinazowafanya wanafunzi kutofaulu masomoni. Maneno ( 50 – 55)

(Al. 6 Utiririko 1)
Matayarisho
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Matumizi ya lugha (Alama 40)

(a) Andika kinyume cha sentensi hii. (alama 2)
Mama atazianika nguo jioni baada ya saa chache.
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(b) Taja konsonanti ya kipua na midomo. (alama 1)
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(c) Eleza maana ya mofimu. (alama 1)

(d) Fafanua miundo yoyote miwili ya nomino katika ngeli ya U-ZI. (alama 2)
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(e) Taja misingi inayotumiwa katika upangaji wa irabu. (alama 3)
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(f) Tumia neno mighairi kutungia sentensi sahihi. (alama 2)
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(g) Fafanua utata uliopo katika sentensi hii. (alama 2)
Mwaliko huo ulinishtua

Page 8 of 11

(m) Andika sentensi hii katika usemi wa taarifa. (alama 3)

" Maisha ya sasa ni magumu na sijui wakati kama huu mwaka ujao utakuwaje." Farida
akasema.
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(n) Tambulisha aina za vitenzi katika sentensi hii. (alama 3)
Panya yu mtegoni lakini anajaribu kujinasua.
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(o) Itumie nomino ya kawaida na ile ya kitenzi jina katika sentensi moja sahihi. (alama 2)

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(p) Ainisha virai (alama 2)
Yule mvuvi mwenye masharubu amewasili ufuoni sasa.

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(b) Fafanua nadharia zozote mbili zinazoeleza kuhusu chimbuko la lugha ya Kiswahili.
(alama 4)
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HUU NDIO UKURASA WA MWISHO

ULIOPIGWA CHAPA

Page 11 of 11

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KENYA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION 2025
102/3 - KISWAHILI - Karatasi Ya 3
(Fasihi)
JARIBIO LA 4 2025 – MUDA 1 ¾

Jina …………………………………………….……… Nambari………………………………………

Sahihi ………………….…...…………………..............Tarehe……………………………………......

Maagizo
a) Andika Jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu
b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu
c) Jibu maswali manne pekee
d) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima
e) Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwa kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki, yaani: Riwaya, Tamthilia,
Fasihi simulizi na Hadithi Fupi
f) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja
g) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa sawasawa na kuwa
maswali yote yamo.

FUNGUA UKURASA
JLK32025

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SEHEMU A:
FASIHI SIMULIZI
SWALI LA LAZIMA
1. SEHEMU YA A: USHAIRI
Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.
Jama, Jama, Jamani
Mbona twabebeshwa mateso hivi
Mizigo mikubwa ya dhiki kama
Kwamba hatuna haki ya kusema
Kukataa ndoa za lazima
Kukataa kuozwa wazee
Kukataa kukatishwa masomo
Kukataa tohara ya lazima

Jama, Jama Jamani

Iweje tuteswe mateso haya
Na watu wasio kuwa hata na haya kama
Kwamba hatuna haki ya kulalamika
Kulalamikia kutumikishwa kama mayaya
Kulalamikia kudhalilishwa kiunyama
Kulalamikia kutolindwa na sheria

Jama, Jama, Jamani

Sasa hii ni awamu nyingine
Na macho tumeyafungua kabisa
Tumekataa kudhalilishwa kabisa
Tumekataa kuteswa kama watumwa
Tumekataa tohara ya lazima
Tumekataa kuozwa....... Tumekataa! Tumekataa
Hii awamu ya ’Haki ya mtoto wa kike’

2
Maswali
(a) Taja mambo matatu muhimu yaliyozungumziwa na mshairi kisha ueleze kila moja . (alama 6)
(b) Eleza muundo wa shairi hili (alama 4)
(c) Taja mbinu mbili za lugha alizotumia mshairi kisha ueleze kila moja (alama 4)
(d) Kwa nini mshairi huyu anasema hii ni ’awamu’ nyingine? (alama 3)
(e) Eleza maana ya maneno haya kama yalivyotumiwa na mshairi (alama 3)
(i) awamu
(ii) kudhalilishwa
(iii) Dhiki

SEHEMU YA B:
Tamhilia –Timothy M Arege:Bembea ya Maisha
Jibu swali la 2au la 3
2. Soma dondoo lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata:

...lakini ndio tabia yenu wanawake.Miaka inaposonga kama hivi mnatuona kama... kama... kama... kama vile
tambara bovu.
a)Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)
b) Eleza umuhimu wa msemaji katika kukuza ploti. (alama 4)
c)Tambua mbinu nne za kimtindo katika dondoo hili. (alama 4)
d)Kwa kutoa hoja nane kutoka kwa Tamthilia eleza ni vipi utamaduni ulivyothaminiwa katika jamii hii ya
Bembea ya Maisha. (alama 8)
AU

3.Jadili nafasi ya mwanamke katika jamii ya Bembea ya Maisha. (alama 20)

3
SEHEMU YA C:
Riwaya ya Nguu za Jadi-Prof Clara Momanyi
Jibu swali la 4 au la 5

4.Soma dondoo kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuta ;

Watategemewa na nani maishani? Hiki ndicho kizazi cha kesho au kizazi kilichopotea tayari?
a)Weka dondoo hili katika muktadha wake. (alama 4)
b)Tambua toni katika mazungumzo haya. (alama 2)
c)Onyesha ni vipi kizazi cha leo na cha kesho kilivyopotea. (alama 12)

AU
5.Fafanua ufaafu wa anwani ya ‚‘Nguu za Jadi‘. (alama 20)

SEHEMU YA D:
Diwani ya Mapambazuko ya Machweo na Hadithi zingine.
Jibu swali la 6 au la 7

6.Soma dondoo kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.

Akainama chini kwenye tendeguu moja la kitanda cha besera.Akachukua kibatari cha kiberiti ili awashe
taa.Mimi,nikiwa mle mvunguni.sasa kwa hakika nilishamjua shetani wa mzimu ule ni nani.Kumbe hakuwa
shetani wala Kipwerere!
a)Yaweke maneno haya katika muktadha wake. (alama 4)
b)Fafanua mbinu za kimtindo katika dondoo hili. (alama 4)
c)Onyesha umuhimu wa mandhari katika dondoo hili. (alama 4)
d)Wanakijiji waliuogopa mzimu wa Kipwerere kiasi cha kuuabudu na kutoufanyia mzaha. Thibitisha kauli hii.
(alama 8)

AU
7. Kimyakimya analikariri;
Mteule nimechoka ,kila siku kusikiya,
Vyereje nchi hakika,visanga kupindukiya,
4

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
Tunazidi filisika ,walaji kujijaziya
Msiba kujitakia, kweli hauna kiliyo.

a)Huu ni ubeti wa shairi katika hadithi“Msiba wa Kujitakia‘.Eleza sababu ya mwandishi kutumia mbinu hii
katika usimulizi. (alama 6)
b)Thibitisha ukweli wa kauli iliyopigiwa mstari katika dondoo. (alama 8)
c)Bainisha maudhui mbalimbali yanayojitokeza katika kifungu hiki. (alama 6)

SEHEMU YA E:
FASIHI SIMULIZI
8. Soma utungo ufuatao kisha ujibu maswali.
Malaika
Nakupenda malaika x2
Ningekuoa malaika...
Ningekuoa dada...
Nashindwa na mali sina wee...

Ningekuoa malaika x2

Pesa, zasumbua roho yangu x2

Nami niafanyeje, kijana mwenzio
Nashindwa na mali sina wee...

Ningekuoa malaika x2

(a) Ainisha wimbo huu kwa kuzingatia kipengele cha maudhui. (alama 2)
(b) Andika sifa mbili za jamii inayosawiriwa na wimbo huu. (alama 2)
(c) Eleza mikakati sita ambayo mwimbaji angetumia kufanikisha uwasilishaji wa wimbo huu. (alama 6)
(d) Unanuia kutumia mahojiano kukusanya habari kuhusu nyimbo za aina hii.
(i) Eleza manufaa matano ya kutumia mbinu hii. (alama 5)

(ii) Eleza changamoto tano za kutumia mbinu hii. (alama 5)

5
6
KCSE TRIAL EXAMINATIONS - 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

121/1 - MATHEMATICS - Paper 1

(Alt A)
Time 2 ½ hours

Name …………………………………………….………………… Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……………………….Date ……………………………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

EXAMS
1. Write your name, index number and class in the spaces provided above.
2. The paper contains two sections: Section I and Section II.
3. This paper contains 14 PRINTED pages make sure all PAGES ARE PRINTED and NON IS
MISSING
4. Answer ALL the questions in Section I and ANY FIVE questions from Section II.
5. All working and answers must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below each
question.

2025
6. Marks may be awarded for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
7. Negligent and slovenly work will be penalized.
8. Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and mathematical tables are allowed for use.

For examiners use only

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

Section II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total

TMATHS2025 TURN OVER

1 1

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION I (50 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this Section in the spaces provided

1. Evaluate without using calculator; (3 marks)

− 2(3 − 5) + 7  −2 + 4
5  −3of 2 − 6

2. Find the acute angle formed between the lines y + 2x = 5 and 2y - 6x + 8 = 0. (3 marks)

3. A water tank 10m high stands on a tower. Mrs. Kamau observes the angles of elevation of the top and
bottom of the tank to be 40° and 25° respectively. Calculate the height of the tower. (4 marks)

2 1
4. Evaluate without using mathematical tables or a calculator. (3 marks)

  
 
   
 

 3 5 is singular, find the value of x.

5. Given that the matrix   (2 marks)
(x+2) x

6. The exchange rates for a certain year were as follows:

Buying (Kshs) Selling (Kshs)
Chinese Yuan 12.34 12.38
1 US Dollar 80.24 80.44
A Kenyan businessman had 100,000 dollars which he converted into Kenyan shillings. He spends 5
million Kenyan shillings to import goods from China. How much is his balance in Chinese Yuan.
(3 marks)

3 1
7. Find the value of y which satisfies the equation.
22y - 3(2y+1) + 8 = 0 (3 marks)

8. Solve 2(2 - x) <3x + 2 < x + 9, and state the integral values of x that satisfy the inequalities.
5 2 (3 marks)

9. On one side of line AB below, use a ruler and a pair of compasses only to construct the locus of a
point P such that APB = 67.5°. (3 marks)

4 1

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
10. Using tables of cubes, square roots and reciprocals, evaluate; (4 marks)

− (23.59)
5 3

0.876

11. Given that P1(6, 4) is the image of P(1, -2) under an enlargement with scale factor ½. Find the centre
of enlargement. (3 marks)

12. Simplify completely;

3 x 3 − 12 x (3 marks)
2 x 2 + 10 x + 12

5 1
13. The masses of two similar containers are 23.2g and 185.6g. If the surface area of the smaller
container is 40cm², find the surface area of the larger one. (3 marks)

14. Find the value of y in the equation

2 - log (3x + 2) = log 25 - log (x - 1) (3 marks)

6 1
15. Find the equation of the normal to the curve;
y = 2x3 + 4x2 - 3x - 6
x+2 at the point y = 5. (4 marks)

16. Calculate the surface area of a solid hemisphere of radius 7cm, giving your answer to 3 significant
figures. (3 marks)

7 1

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION II (50 MARKS)
Answer only FIVE questions from this section in the spaces provided

17. On a certain day, a matatu left Nakuru for Nairobi at 8am travelling at 80km/hr while a personal car
left Nairobi for Nakuru at 8.15am, travelling at 100km/hr. Given that the distance between Nairobi
and Nakuru is 200km;
a) Calculate;
i) the time when the two vehicles met. (3 marks)

ii) the distance of Nakuru from their meeting point. (2 marks)

b) At the meeting point the matatu stopped for 30 minutes and continued to Nairobi, while the
personal car broke down and the owner took a taxi back to Nairobi, 20 minutes after the matatu
left. If the taxi moves at 150km/h, calculate;
i) the time the taxi caught up with the matatu. (2 marks)

ii) the difference of their arrival in Nairobi. (2 marks)

8 1
18. Four points ABCD are positioned in a garden such that point B is 200m on a bearing of 063° from
point A and 320° and 300m from point C. Point D is due North of C and 250m from B.
a) Using a scale of 1cm to represent 50m, show the positions of the four points. (4 marks)
b) From your diagram in (a) above, find;
i) the distance of D from C.
ii) the true bearing of D from B.
iii) the distance of A from C.
iv) the compass bearing of A from D. (6 marks)

9 1
19. P, Q, R and S are vertices of a parallelogram. Find the co-ordinates of S, given that P(-1, 1), Q(2, 2
and R(3, 5) (3 marks)

b) i) Given that OT = i + 3j, show that P, R and T are collinear. (3 marks)

ii) State the ratio OT:TR (1 mark)

c) Calculate the magnitude of PR to 2 significant figures. (2 marks)

d) Find vector QS in terms of i and j. (1 mark)

WESTLANDS - TERM 2 - 2016 10 (MM) FORM 4 - MATHEMATICS 1

10
Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
20. The figure below shows two intersecting circles with centres P and Q and radii 10cm and 7cm
respectively.

P Q

Given that the distance between the centres is 15cm, calculate;

a) the length of the common chord AB. 4 marks)

b) the area of the shaded region. (6 marks)

WESTLANDS - TERM 2 - 2016 11 (MM) FORM 4 - MATHEMATICS 1

11
21. A particle moves in a straight line with a velocity Vm/s given by
V = t3 - 4t2 + 5t
If at t = 0, S = 4m
i) Find the distance covered at t = 2s. (4 marks)

ii) Find the acceleration of the particle at t = 3s. (3 marks)

iii) Find the maximum velocity attained. (3 marks)

WESTLANDS - TERM 2 - 2016 12 (MM) FORM 4 - MATHEMATICS 1

12
22. The table below represents marks scored by 50 students in a test.

Marks 0 <x <10 10 <x <20 20 <x < 30 30 <x < 40 40 <x < 50 50 <x < 60 60 <x < 80

No. of 4 7 10 6 9 12 2
students

a) Calculate the mean mark. (3 marks)

b) Calculate the median (3 marks)

c) On the grid provided, draw a frequency polygon to represent the data. (4 marks)

WESTLANDS - TERM 2 - 2016 13 (MM) FORM 4 - MATHEMATICS 1

13
Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
23. In the figure below, PQR is a tangent to the circle at Q. TS is a diameter and TSR and QUV are
straight lines. QS is parallel to TV. Angles SQR = 40° and TQR = 55°
V

35°

U
50°

T S
10° R
40° 50° 130°

35°
55°

a) Find the following angles, giving reasons in each case;

i) QTS (2 marks)

ii) QRS (2 marks)

iii) QVT (2 marks)

iv) QUT (2 marks)

b) Given that QR = 8cm and SR = 4cm, find the radius of the circle. (2 marks)

WESTLANDS - TERM 2 - 2016 14 (MM) FORM 4 - MATHEMATICS 1

14
24. Triangle ABC has vertices A(1, 1), B(3, 1) and C(1, 3)
a) On the grid provided, plot triangle ABC. (1 mark)

b) Triangle ABC is transformed onto A1B1C1 by a translation vector 

2 
 . State the co-ordinates of
1 1 1
 2 
A , B and C and plot it on the graph. (2 marks)

c) A1B1C1 is reflected along the line x= 0 onto A11B11C11. Obtain the co-ordinates of A11B11C11 and
plot them on the graph. (2 marks)

d) A11B11C11 undergoes an enlargement scale factor -1 and centre origin onto A111B111C111. Obtain the
co-ordinates of the image A111B111C111. (2 marks)

e) A111B111C111 undergoes a rotation of 120° about (1, -2). Obtain the co-ordinates of the final image
AivBivCiv. (3 marks)

WESTLANDS - TERM 2 - 2016 15 (MM) FORM 4 - MATHEMATICS 1

15
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WESTLANDS - TERM 2 - 2016 16 (MM) FORM 4 - MATHEMATICS 1
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

121/2 - MATHEMATICS - Paper 2

(alt A)
Time 2 ½ hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ……………………………………

EXAMS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, index number and class in the spaces provided above.

2. The paper contains two sections: Section I and Section II.

3. This paper contains 14 PRINTED pages make sure all PAGES ARE PRINTED and NON IS MISSING

4. Answer ALL the questions in Section I and ANY FIVE questions from Section II.

2025
5. All working and answers must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below each question.

6. Marks may be awarded for correct working even if the answer is wrong.

7. Negligent and slovenly work will be penalized.

8. Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and mathematical tables are allowed for use.

For examiners use only

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

Section II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
Grand
Total

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION 1 (50 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.

1. Use a calculator to evaluate. (1 mark)

Sin 480  − Cos 765
Tan 225  − Cos (−330 )

2. Solve the equation 3 Cos x = 2 Sin²x, where 0°  x  360° (4 marks)

1
3. Simplify (1 + 3)(1 -3). Hence evaluate to 3s.f. given that 3 = 1.7321 (3 marks)
1+ 3

2
4. Obtain the binomial expression for (1 - 2x)5. Use your expansion to evaluate (0.98)5 to five places of
decimal. (4 marks)

5. The marks of 5 pupils in a test were as follows.

53, 41, 60, 80 and 56. Calculate the standard deviation. (4 marks)

6. The curve y = ax² + bx + c passes through point (1, 0). The tangent to the curve when x = 5 is parallel
to the line y = 6x. Given that the curve has a maximum at point (2, 3). Find the value of a, b and c.
(3 marks)

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
 (x )
3
7. Evaluate 4
− 22 x 2 dx (3 marks)
0

8. Given that 8  y  2 and 1  x  6, find the maximum possible value of ( )

x+ y
y− x (2 marks)

1
xy 
9. Make x the subject of the formulae. P = 
2

 (3 marks)
z+ x

4
10.
Under a transformation whose matrix is A = a − 2 − 2
 , a triangle whose area is 12.5cm² is mapped
 a a

onto a triangle whose area is 50cm². Find two possible values of a. (4 marks)

11. Find the centre and the radius of a circle whose equation is x² - 4x + y² - 5 = 0 (3 marks)

12. A trader mixes 3 sacks of sugar which cost shs 900 per sack of 60kg with 5 sacks of sugar which costs
shs 700 per sack of 70kg. He sells the mixture at shs 950 per sack of 80kg. Calculate the profit or loss
the trader makes. (3marks)

5
13. A merchant bought a car for shs 40,000. Its depreciation rate is estimated at 10% per annum of its
value at the beginning of each year. What will be the value of the car at the end of four years?
(3 marks)

 4 3  14 17 
14. Given that A =   and C =   find B if A² + B = C (3 marks)
 −1 2  − 4 2 

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15. Solve for m in the equation. 3 4 ( m +1 ) + 3 4 m = 246 (3 marks)

16. Three quantities P, Q and R are such that P varies directly as Q and inversely as squareroot of R. Find
the percentage change in P if Q is decreased by 40% and R increased by 44%. (4 marks)

7
SECTION 11 (50 MARKS)
Answer ANY 5 questions in this section in the spaces provided.

17. A particle moves in a straight-line such that its displacement 5 (meters) from a given point is s = t³ -
6t² + 2t + 3 where t is the time in seconds. Find

a) The displacement of the particle at t = 3. (2 marks)

b) The velocity of the particle where t = 4. (2 marks)

c) The value of t where the particle is momentarily at rest. (3 marks)

d) The acceleration of the particle when t = 4. (3 marks)

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
18. The figure below is a square based pyramid ABCDV with AD = DC = 6cm, and height VO = 10cm.
V

10cm
B C
O 6cm
A D
6cm
a) State the projection of VA on the base ABCD (1 mark)

b) Find:
i) The length of VA (3 marks)

ii) The angle between VA and ABCD (2 marks)

iii) The angle between the planes VDC and ABCD (2 marks)

iv) Volume of the pyramid. (2 marks)

9
19. a) Write down the first three terms of the sequence whose nth term is 5n - 2 (2 marks)

b) The third term of a geometric sequence is 18 and the sixth term is 486. Find the first term and the
common ratio. (3 marks)

c) The first and last term of a AP with 34 terms are 8 and -90 respectively. Find the sum of the first 34
terms. (2 marks)

d) The 2nd, 4th and 7th terms of an AP are the first 3 consecutive terms of a GP. Find the common ratio
if the first term is 2. (3 marks)
20. The probability of a candidate passing her secondary examination is 4/5. If she passes her examination
the probability of her joining the University is 2/3. If she fails her examinations, the probability of her
joining the university is 1/4. If she joins the university the probability of her getting a job is 6/7 and if
she doesn't join the university the probability of her getting a job is 2/9. Using a tree diagram, Find:
a) the probability that she fail her examination. (3 marks)

b) Find the probability that she got a job after failing her secondary examination. (2 marks)

c) The probability that she joins the university. (2 marks)

d) The probability that she did not get a job. (3 marks)

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
21. a) Using the trapezium rule with seven ordinates, estimate the area of the region bounded by the
curve y = -x² + 6x + 1, the lines x = 0, y = 0 and x =6. (5 marks)

b) Calculate

i) The area of the region in (a) above by integration. (3 marks)

ii) The percentage error of the estimated area to the actual area of the region, correct to two decimal
places. (2 marks)
22. In the figure below OA = a and OB = b. M is the midpoint of OA and AN : NB = 2 : 1
A

M X B

O
a) Express in term of a and b

i) BA (1 mark)

ii) BN (1 mark)

iii) ON (2 marks)

b) Given that BX = hBM and OX = kON determine the values of h and k. (6 marks)

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
23. A globe representing the earth has a radius of 0.5m, points A (0°, 10°W) B(0°, 35°E), P(60°N, 110°E)
and Q(60°N, 120°W) are marked on the globe.

a) Find the length of arc AB, leaving your answer in terms of . (3 marks)

b) If O is the centre of the latitude 60°N, find the area of the minor sector OPQ. (4 marks)

c) If the local time at Q is 10.30am on Monday. Determine the local time at P. (3 marks)
24. Income tax is charged on annual income at the rate shown below.

Taxable annual income Rate shs per £

1 - 2300 2

2301 - 4600 3

4601 - 6900 5

6901 - 9200 7

9201 - 11500 9

11501 and over 10

Mr. Mati is single and earns shs 12000 per month. He lives in a company house for which he pays
nominal rent of Kshs 1000 per month. In addition, he claims a single relief of Kshs 1056 per month
and an insurance relief of Kshs 480 per month.

Calculate

i) Mr. Mati's taxable income (3 marks)

ii) Calculate the amount of tax he pays per month in shillings. (5 marks)

b) Calculate Mr. Mati's net monthly salary. (2 marks)

KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

232/1 - Physics - Paper 1

(Theory)
Time 2 hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm Number………………………….

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...………. Date ……………………………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES: -
Instructions to candidates
• This paper consists of two sections A and B.
• Answer all the questions in the two sections in the spaces provided after each question
•
•
•
EXAM
All working must be clearly shown.
Electronic calculators, mathematical tables may be used.
All numerical answers should be expressed in the decimal notations.
• You may use ‘g’ as 10m/s2

SECTION

A
2025 For Examiner use only
QUESTION

1 – 14
15
MAX MARKS

25
13
CANDIDATE’S
SCORE

B 16 13

17 13

18 09

19 07

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION A (25 Marks)
Answer ALL questions in this section.
1. State and explain one basic laboratory safety rule (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Figure 1 shows the scales a pair of vernier callipers being used to measure the length of a pipe,
whose radius is 1.20 cm. The zero error of the device is -0.13 cm.

1 2 cm

Fig. 1 0 10
Use this information to answer questions 2 and 3.
2. Determine the actual length of the pipe. (2 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Given that the radius of the pipe is 1.20 cm, find its volume. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. a) What is surface tension? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Figure 2 shows a funnel dipped into a liquid soap solution.

Funnel

Soap
solution

Fig. 2 Soap
bubble

Explain what happens to the soap bubble when the funnel is removed. (1 mark)

2
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Figure 3 shows a hydraulic press system using a lever of negligible mass on the side of a small
piston pivoted at point P. A force of 100N is applied at R.

A Bale
100 cm 50 cm

Fixed
R
P

50 cm2 Area = 180

100 N cm2

Liquid

Fig. 3
Use this information to answer question 5 and 6.
Calculate the force F exerted by small piston on the liquid. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Find the weight of the Bale supported by the large piston. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Figure 4 shows apparatus used to observe the behaviour of smoke particles in a smoke cell.
Fig. 4
Microscope

strong smoke particles

beam
of light smoke cell

a) Explain what was observed (1 mark)

3
b) Explain what happens if the temperature was raised. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Figure 5 shows a clinical thermometer which is not graduated.

Fig. 5 B
a) Name the parts indicate with letters: A and B (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………..
b) Mark the appropriate scale range in degrees Celsius (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Figure 6 shows two corks X and Y fixed on a polished plate and a dark plate with candle wax
respectively.

cork fitted
with candle cork fitted
wax with candle
wax
Heater

X
Fig. 6 Y

Polished surface dull surface

Explain the observation, when the heater is switched on for a short time. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. The stability of a body can be increased by increasing the base area and lowering its centre
of gravity. State one way of lowering its centre of gravity. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
11. Figure 7 shows air flowing through a pipe of non-uniform cross-sectional area. Two pipes A and
B are dipped into liquids as shown.

Air flow

Fig. 7

Liquid
Liquid

a) Indicate the levels of the liquids in Pipe A and pipe B. (1 mark)

b) Explain your answer in 11 (a) above. (1 mark)

12. Figure 8 shows dots which were made by a ticker timer-tape attached to a trolley.

Fig. 8
If the frequency used was 50 Hz, determine
a) the velocities between AB and BC (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) the deceleration of the trolley. (2 marks)

13. Figure 9 shows a pail of water being swung in a vertical circle.

5
Fig. 9

Explain why the water does not pour out when the pail is at position A as shown(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (55 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided.
14. a) A rifle of mass 4.0 kg fires a bullet of mass 12.0 g with a muzzle velocity of 700 ms-1.
Assuming that the rifle is free to move. Find the velocity of recoil. (3 marks) *UG*
i. Figure 10 shows a cross-section of a handle of a screw jack 70 cm long. The pitch of the screw is
0.8 cm.
70 cm

Load

Handle
Fig. 10

0.80 cm

Base

Given that the efficiency is 65%, calculate:

i) the velocity ratio of the system (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) the mechanical advantage of the screw jack. (2 marks)

6
ii. Sketch a graph of efficiency against Load (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii. Draw a single moving pulley with a velocity ratio of 2. (2 marks)

15. a) Define latent heat of vaporization. (1 mark)

b) Figure 11 shows a set up by a student to determine the specific latent heat of

vaporization of a liquid.

Y
Fig. 11

Collected
liquid

i) Identify the parts labelled X and Y (2 marks)

ii) State the measurements that should be taken. (2 marks)

iii)
Describe how the set up can be used to determine the specific latent heat of
vaporisation of the liquid. (5 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) What is the purpose of the condenser? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. a) Define Pressure Law (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State one basic assumption of the kinetic theory of gases. (1 marks)

c) Figure 12 shows a set up that may be used to verify Pressure law.

Fig. 12

i) State the measurements that may be taken in the experiment. (2 marks)

8
ii) Explain how the measurement in (i) above may be used to verify Pressure law
(4 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) A car tyre is at an air pressure of 4.0 x 105 Pa. at a temperature of 27 0C. While it is
running, the temperature rises to 75 0C. What is the new pressure in the tyre?
(Assume the tyre does not expand) (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. a) i) Define Archimedes’s Principle. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

1.
An object weighs 1.04N in air, 0.64N when fully immersed in water and 0.72N when
fully immersed in a liquid. If the density of water is 1000 kg m-3, find the density of the
liquid. (4 marks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) i) Define the law of floatation (1 mark)

ii) Give a reason why a steel rod sinks in water while a ship made of steel floats on water.
(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Draw a clearly labelled diagram of a common hydrometer which is suitable for
measuring the densities of liquids varying between 1.0 and 1.2 g cm-3.(2 marks)

9
iv) Figure 13 shows a buoy, B, of volume 40 litres and mass 10 kg. It is held in position
3
in sea water of density 1.04 g cm-3 by a light cable fixed to the bottom so that of
4
the volume of the buoy is below the surface of the sea water. Determine the tension T
in the cable. (4 marks)
Fig. 13
Buoy

sea water
cable
T

18. a) State Hooke’s laws (1 mark)

b) The following results were obtained in an experiment to verify Hooke’s law when a
spring was extended by hanging various loads on it.
Load, L(N) 0.00 1.00 2.00 3.00 4.00 5.00 6.00
Length of spring (cm) 10.00 11.50 13.00 14.50 16.00 18.50 24.00
Extension, e 0.00
(cm)
i) Complete the table for extension, e, above (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
ii) Plot a graph of Load (y-axis) against extension. (5 marks)

ii) From the graph, determine the spring constant, k. (3 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

11
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

232/2 - Physics - Paper 2

(Theory)
Time 2 hours

Name …………………………………………….……………………….. Adm Number………………………

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...…………………………..Date …………………………………

Instructions to candidates
(a) Write your name, index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.

EXAM
(c) This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
(d) Answer all the questions in sections A and B in the spaces provided.
(e) All working must be clearly shown.
(f) Silent non-programmable electronic calculators may be used.
(g) Candidates should answer the questions in English.
For Examiners Use Only

Section

A 2025 Question

1 – 12
13
Candidate’s
Score

14
B 15
16
17

Total Score 80

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
SECTION A (25 MARKS)

Answer all the questions in the spaces provided

1. Figure 1 shows a ray of light incident on a plane mirror. The mirror is rotated anticlockwise
through an angle of 100.

Figure 1

Determine the angle between the incident ray and the new reflected ray. (2marks)

2. Figures 2 (a) and 2 (b) show two circuits with identical cells and bulbs.

(a)
(b)
Figure 2

State, with a reason, in which circuit the bulbs will be brighter. (2 marks)

2
3. Figure 3 shows a wooden rod placed between two bar magnets.

Figure 3

Sketch the resulting magnetic pattern in the arrangement in figure 3. (1 mark)

4.Figure 4 shows a circuit used by a student to investigate the effect of current on a coil.

Figure 4

(i) The coil feels warmer after closing the switch. Explain. (1 mark)

(ii) The ammeter and voltmeter reading in figure 4 is 1.5A and 4.1V respectively.
Calculate the energy developed in 1 minute. (2 marks)

5.Give the difference between Infra-red and Ultraviolet radiation in terms of their production
3
(1 mark)

6. On the grid provided below, show the display on the CRO screen of an AC signal peak voltage 400V and
a frequency 50Hz when the time base is on. (Y-gain at 200V/div, time base at 5ms/div) (2 marks)

7. Figure 5 shows a virtual image I formed by a convex mirror.

Figure 5

Draw a ray diagram to locate the object. (3 marks)

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
8. The figure 6 shows a cathode ray beam entering a magnetic field, perpendicular to the plane of the
paper. Complete the diagram to show the path of the beam in the field. (1 mark)

. . .

Cathode rays

Figure 6

9. Uranium 235 was bombarded with a neutron and fission took place in the following manner.
𝟐𝟑𝟓 𝟏 𝟗𝟎 𝐚 𝟏
𝐔 + 𝐧→ 𝐑𝐧 + 𝐗 + 𝟏𝟎 𝐧
𝟗𝟐 𝟎 𝟑𝟖 𝐛 𝟎

Determine the values of a and b (2 marks)

10. Figure 7 shows bulbs connected in a household.

Figure 7

(i) Identify any mistake in the circuit. (1 mark)

(ii) Draw the correct connection of the circuit. (1 mark)

5
11. The resistance of a metal conductor increases with increase in temperature. Explain
(2 marks)

12. State what is meant by the term doping as used in diode. (1 mark)

13.Two students stand 300m from a wall. One bangs two pieces of wood together and at the same time,
the other starts a stop watch. They hear an echo after 1.8 seconds. Determine the speed of sound in air.

(2 marks)

14. Define wavelength as used in longitudinal wave. (1 mark)

6
SECTION B (55 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.

15 a) Figure 8 shows the parts and circuit of a modern X-ray tube.

Figure 8

(i) State and explain how the following changes affect the nature of X-rays produced:
I. increasing the potential across MN. (2 marks)

II. increasing the filament current. (2 marks)

(ii) The material of Q should withstand a lot of heat. State the source of heat in the tube.
(1 mark)

(iii) State the property of lead which makes it suitable as a shield. (1 mark)

(iv) Give a reason for the shape of part R. (1 mark)

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
b) A 5F and a 3F capacitor are connected in series with a 6V battery.

(i) Sketch and label the circuit diagram showing the arrangement. (2 marks)

(ii) Determine;

I. The potential difference across the 5F. (4 marks)

II. The charge stored in the circuit. (1 mark)

(d) State one use of a charged gold leaf electroscope. (1 mark)

16.(a) State what is meant by the term mutual induction. (1 mark)

(b) Figure 9 shows two coils wound on a laminated soft iron core. It is connected to a 300V mains
supply.

8
Figure 9

(i) Identify the type of the transformer in figure 9. (1 mark)

(ii) The transformer in figure 9 loses 20% of the input energy into heat per second.
Determine the maximum current measured on the ammeter, if the input current is 2A.
(3 marks)

(iii) Explain how energy losses in the transformer in figure 9 are minimized by having:
(I) a soft iron core. (1 mark)

(II) a laminated core. (1 mark)

(b) Figure 10 shows two identical copper coils X and Y placed close to each other. Coil X is
connected to a DC power supply while coil Y is connected to a galvanometer.

9
Figure 10

i) Explain what is observed on the galvanometer when the switch is closed. (4mks)

ii) State what is observed on the galvanometer when the switch is opened. (1mk)

17. (a) Apart from light moving from an optically denser medium to less dense medium, state the other
condition for total internal reflection. (1 mark)

(b) Figure 11 below shows the path of light through a transparent material placed in air.

Figure 11

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
Determine the refractive index of the transparent material. (3marks)

c) (i) Figure 12 shows an object O placed in front of an objective lens Lo whose focal length fo is less
than fe the focal length of the eye piece lens Le. Complete using ray construction how the arrangement
would produce the final image. (3 marks)

Figure 12

(i) An object is placed 25cm from the objective lens of focal length 15cm.On the other side of the
objective lens another converging lens of focal length 30cm is placed as the eye piece lens. The
distance between the two lenses is 52.5cm. Determine;

I. The position of the first image. (3 marks)

II. The position of the final image from the eye piece lens. (3 marks)
11
18. State two factors which determine the speed of photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface.
(2 marks)

c) Figure 13 shows a graph of the square of the maximum velocity (Vmax)2 of the emitted
photoelectrons against the frequency (f) of the radiation causing photoelectric effect on a
clean zinc plate.

Figure 13

(i) Determine the slope of the graph. (2 marks)

12
2ℎ 2ℎ
The equation of the line is V2 = f – fo where m = 9.11 x 10-31 kg
𝑚 𝑚

(ii) From the graph determine the:

(I) minimum frequency of the radiation that will cause emission of electrons from the zinc
surface. (1 mark)

(II) Planck’s constant. (2 marks)

(III) minimum amount of energy required to just emit electrons from the zinc surface.
(2 marks)

19. Figure 14 shows a set up for observing interference of waves from two sources S1 and S2. The points C
and D represent positions of the constructive and destructive interference respectively as observed on the
screen.

Figure 14

(a) If the observation was made in a ripple tank, describe:

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
(i) How the two sets of coherent waves were produced. (2 marks)

(ii) How the constructive and destructive interferences are identified. (1 mark)

(b) Explain how the constructive interference C and destructive interference D patterns are produced.
(2 marks)

(i) The line joining all points where waves S1 and S2 have travelled equal distance. Label it A.

(1 mark)

(ii) The line joining all points where waves from S2 have travelled one wavelength further than the
waves from S1. Label it B. (1 mark)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

14
KCSE TRIAL POST-MOCK EXAMINATION- 2025
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

232/3 - Physics - Paper 3

(Practical)
2025 – Time 2 ½ hours

Name: …………………………………….…….…… Index No: ……………

Stream: ……………………………….. Candidate’s Signature:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
❖ Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
❖ You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2¼ hours allowed for this paper reading
the whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
❖ Marks are given for clear record of the observations actually made, for their suitability and
accuracy and the use made of them.
❖ Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made.
❖ Mathematical table and electronic calculators may be used.

For Examiners Use Only

Question 1 b d e(i) e(ii) e(iii) f Total

Maximum Score 1 6 5 3 3 2
Candidate’s Score

Question 2 c d(i) d(ii) d(iii) e(ii) e(iii) e(iv) e(v) e(vi) Total

Maximum Score 2 6 6 3 3
Candidate’s Score

TOTAL SCORE

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
2

1. You are provided with the following:

- retort stand, one boss and one clamp
- a half meter rule
- a 100 cm3 measuring cylinder containing coloured liquid
- a 10 cm3 measuring cylinder
- about 20cm3 of water in a beaker
- a test tube

Proceed as follows:
a) Set up the apparatus as shown in figure 1

b) Put the test tube inside the 1000cm3 measuring cylinder as shown in figure 2. Note the reading
LO of the level of the coloured liquid in the measuring cylinder.
Lo ------------------------------------------------------------------cm (1mk)

c) Using the 10cm3 measuring cylinder, measure 2cm3 of water and pour it into the test tube
while the test tube is inside the measuring cylinder.Record the new reading, L, of the level of
the coloured liquid.

2
3
d) Repeat the procedure in (c) above for values of volume V = 2cm3, 4cm3, 6cm3, 8cm3 and
10cm3. Record your values for L in table I and complete the table.
Table 1
Volume. V (cm3) 2 4 6 8 10

L(cm)

h = L - LO (cm)

(6mks)
e) i) On the grid provided plot a graph of h(cm) against V(cm3) (5mks)

ii) Calculate the slope S1 of the graph.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
f) From the graph, determine the reading of the level of the coloured liquid in the measuring
cylinder when 7 cm3 of water is put in the test tube. (2mks)

2. This question consists of two parts A and B.

PART A
You are provided with the following:
• 2 Dry cells and a cell holder
• Voltmeter (0-2.5V)
• Ammeter (0 - 1A)
• Potentiometer, P, 50 ohms
• 2.5V bulb abd a bulb holder
• 7 connecting wires, 2 with crocodile clips at one end.
• Switch

Prefer Calling Amobi Goup Of Examiners @ 0743 333 000 or 0706 851 439 For Marking Schemes
5
Proceed as follows:

a) Set up the circuit as shown in figure 3

b) Close the switch S, and adjust the potentiometer P, until the voltmeter reads 2.0V. Record
the corresponding ammeter reading.
c) Repeat the procedure in (b) above for other values o voltage as in the table 2 and then
complete the table.
Voltage (V) 2,0 1.6 1.2 1.0 0.8 0.5

Current, I(A)

(3mks)
d) (i). Plot a graph of voltage, V (y-axis) against current, I. (5mks)

5
6
ii). From the graph,
Determine the resistance of the bulb when the voltage is 0.8 volts. (3mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii). Explain the shape of the graph. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………

PART B:
e) i). Clamp the cork so that the optical pin rests horizontally as shown in the set up below.
ii). Position the mirror on a flat surface so that the tip of the pin is directly above the centre
of the curved mirror. Measure the distance OA.
OA =………………………………………………………………………… (1mk)
iii). By viewing directly from above the tip of the pin move the Boss and Clamp, up and
down the stand until a clear, image of the pin is seen. Position the pin at this point (p) and
clamp firmly.
Describe the image observed fully
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
Use the rule to measure the distance OP. OP = ............................................................ (2mks)

iv). Fill the mirror to the brim using liquid L and then adjust the position of the pin until a clear
image of the pin is observed. Position the pin at this point R and measure the distance OR.
(1mk)

6
7

v). Use the values obtained above to determine the value of AP/AR, hence state its
significance.
Significance ………………………………………………………………………… (3mks)

vi). What is the focal length of the mirror you have used?(3 Marks)
f =…………………………………………………………………………………… (½mk)

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