KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCKS

ALL SUBJECTS

To promote academic excellence, top-performing national schools collaborate

on this joint mock exam compilation. The goal of this collaborative effort is to
push students and enhance their readiness for national exams through the use of
challenging tests.

SUBJECTS TESTED;
Mathematics, English, Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, CRE, IRE, Geography,
History, Home-science, Agriculture, Business & Computer Studies.

NATIONWIDE COMPETITION

For Marking Schemes

Mr Isaboke 0746-222-000 /0742-999-000

MWALIMU CONSULTANCY
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
313/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1) Write the Name, Admission number and Index number in the spaces provided above.
2) Sign and write the Date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
3) Answer any five questions.
4) Each question carries 20 marks.
5) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 CANDIDATES
TOTAL
SCORE
CANDIDATES
SCORE

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 Answer Any Five Questions
1. (a) Identify the national goals of education that the study of Christian Religious Education helps
to achieve (7mks)
(b) State seven characteristics of God demonstrated in Genesis 3 (7mks)
(c) Outline six ways in which Christians show respect to God in society today (6mks)

2. (a) Describe the covenant ceremony between God and Abraham in genesis 15:1-19 (8Mrks)
(b)State six ways through which Abraham demonstrated his faith in God (6 Mrks)
(c)Give seven ways through which Christians portray themselves in society today (7Mrks)

3. (a) How did King Ahab fail in upholding the covenant way of life during his rule in Israel?(7mks)
(b) Outline seven signs performed by Elijah to prove that Yahweh was the true God (7mks)
(c) State six reasons why Christians should fight against the spread of devil worship in the society
(6mks)

4. (a)Describe the call of Amos to become a prophet of God in Amos 1:1, 3:8,7:10-15 (6mks)
b) State seven ways through which the rich oppressed the poor during the time of prophet Amos.
(7mks)
c) Give seven ways through which the church in Kenya punishes errant members. (7mks)

5. (a) Describe the religious background of Prophet Nehemiah (6mks)

b) Compare four Nehemiah’s experiences to the life of Jesus as shown in Saint Luke’s gospel.
(8mks)
c) What six lessons can a Christian learn from Nehemiah’s leadership qualities? (6mks)

6. (a) State seven ways in which the African sought reconciliation with God (7mks)
(b) List seven Traditional African practices, which show that life is sacred (7mks)
(c) How are the youth prepared for the adult life in the church in Kenya today? (6mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
313/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1) Write the Name, Admission number and Index number in the spaces provided above.
2) Sign and write the Date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
3) Answer any five questions.
4) Each question carries 20 marks.
5) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 CANDIDATES
TOTAL
SCORE
CANDIDATES
SCORE

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 Answer any five questions in the booklet provided
1. a) Outline Isaiah’s prophecy on the suffering servant. (7marks)
b) Describe the activities that took place on the night when Jesus was born Luke2:6-20
(7marks)
c) State six ways in which Christian couple should respond to the challenge of being childless.
(6marks)

2. a)With reference to sermon on the plain outline six teachings of Jesus on how human beings
should relate to one another. (6mks)
b)Describe the incident in which Jesus forgave the sinful woman. Luke 7:36-50 (7 marks)
c) State six lessons Christians learn from the miracle of the feeding of the five thousand people
(6marks)

3. a) Outline six teachings of Jesus about a committed follower from the story of the good
Samaritan (6marks)
b) Outline seven teachings of Jesus on wealth from the story of the rich man and Lazarus
(7marks)
c) What is the relevance of the resurrection of Jesus to Christians today (7marks)

4.a) State the teachings of Jesus on the role of the holy spirit. (7marks )
b) Outline the teachings of St Paul on the unity of believers as expressed in the image of the
body of Christ (8marks)
c) Identify five causes of conflict between the youth and the old in the church today
(5marks)

5.a) identify five sources of christian ethics (5marks)

b) State seven similarities between traditional and christian understanding of marriage
(7marks)
c) outline eight ways through which christian parents should demonstrate responsible
parenthood (8marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
6a) Outline the rights of a Kenyan citizen (8marks)
b) State six effects of pollution on the environment in Kenya today (6marks)
c) Explain the causes of poverty in the society today (7marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
311/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name, index number and the name of your school in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of THREE sections A, B and C
(d) Answer all questions in section A, choose three questions in section B and two questions in
section C
(e) Answers to all questions must be written in the answer booklet provided

FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY

SECTION SECTION B SECTION C GRAND
A TOTAL
1-17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A (25MKS)
Answer all questions in this section
1. Identify one branch in the study of History and Government of Kenya. (1mrk)
2. Name one community in Kenya that belongs to River Lake Nilotes. (1mrk)
3. State two economic activities of the Abagusii in Kenya during te Pre-Colonial Period. (2mrks)
4. Apart from the Maasai, name two other Plain Nilotes found in Kenya. (2mrks)
5. Name the type of the constitution used in Kenya. (1mrk)
6. Identify two communities which resisted the British Occupation in Kenya. (2mrks)
7. Give the main reason why poll tax was introduced in Kenya during the colonial period. (1mrk)
8. Identify two development rights of children. (2mrks)
9. Name the first African to be nominated to the Legislative Council in 1944 in Kenya. (1mrk)
10. Identify two methods used by Trade Unionists to demand to their rights during the colonial
periods. (2mrks)
11. Identify one method used by the British to administer Kenya colony between 1920 and 1963.
(1mrk)
12. States two problems which the Imperial British East Africa Company faced in the
administration of the protectorate. (2mrks)
13. Name the treaty which marked the Colonial Sphere of Influence in East Africa in 1886. (1mrk)
14. State two grievances of the Kikuyu Central Association (KCA) against the colonial government
in Kenya. (2mks)
15. Identify one philosophy adapted at Independence to promote social justice in Kenya. (1mrk)
16. Who was the first Vice President of the Republic of Kenya after Independence? (1mrk)
17. Name two African leaders who were detained in 1952 at the declaration of a State of
Emergency. (2mrks)

SECTION B (45 marks)

Answer three questions in this section
18.(a) Give five reasons as to why the Highland Nilotes migrated from their original homeland
during the Pre-colonial Period. (5mrks)
(b) Explain five results of the migration and settlement of the Highland Nilotes in Kenya.
(10mrks)

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19. (a)Identify five factors that led to the growth of towns along the coast of Kenya before the 19 th
Century. (5mrks)
(b)Describe five ways of life in the coastal towns of Kenya before the 19th Century (10mks)

20. (a)State three reasons as to why the colonial government denied the Africans the right to to
grow.The cash crops in Kenya before 1954. (3mks)
(b)Explain six problems faced by Africans in Urban centres during the colonial period in Kenya.
(12mks)

21. (a) Identify five methods that the colonial government used to discourage the activities of the
Mau Mau Movement. (5mks)
(b) Explain five reasons why the Mau Mau Movement was able to last for a long time. (10mks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any two questions in this section
22. (a)Identify five elements of a good citizenship in Kenya. (5mrks)
(b) Explain five ways in which the Harambee Philosophy has promoted the development of
Education in Kenya since Independence. (10mks)

23. (a) Apart from High Court, identify five other types of courts in Kenya. (5mks)
(b) Explain five reasons as to why there should be a separation of powers between Legislature,
Executive and Judiciary in Kenya. (10mks)

24. (a) List five importance of National Integration in Kenya. (5mks)

(b) Explain five factors that promote National Unity in Kenya. (10mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
311/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name, index number and the name of your school in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of THREE sections A, B and C
(d) Answer all questions in section A, choose three questions in section B and two questions in
section C
(e) Answers to all questions must be written in the answer booklet provided

FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY

SECTION SECTION B SECTION C GRAND
A TOTAL
1-17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A (25MKS)
Answer all questions in this section
1. Give two ways archaeologists identify historical sites. (2mks)
2. Give two economic activities of early man during stone age period. (2mks)
3.Give two inventions that promoted Agrarian Revolution in Britain. (2mks)
4. What is the main factor that stimulated the growth of Trans-Atlantic trade? (1mk)
5. Give two reasons why camel is referred to as the ship of the desert. (2mks)
6. Give one disadvantage of using coal as a source of industrial energy. (1mk)
7. State one advantage of horn blowing in the pre-colonial period. (1mk)
8. State one problem faced by Athens. (1mk)
9. Identify one symbol of unity among the shona kingdom. (1mk)
10. Name two colonies of British in West Africa. (2mks)
11. Give one reason the Africans were against the Akidas by German colonial administrators.
(1mk)
12. Identify two chartered companies which were used to administer European colonial possessions
in Africa. (2mk)
13. Name one political party that fought for independence in Ghana. (1mk)
14. Identify one weapon that was used during cold war. (1mk)
15. Give the main reason why the league of nations was formed in 1919. (1mk)
16. State two ways the treaty of versailles affected Germany. (2mks)
17. Give two advantages of being a member of common wealth organization. (2mks)

SECTION B (45 MARKS)

Answer three questions from this section.
18. a) State three negative effects of land enclosure system in Britain during Agrarian Revolution.
(3mks)
b) Explain Six disadvantages of open cast system of agriculture. (12mks)
19. a) Identify three modern means of print media. (3mks)
b) Explain six positive effects of telecommunications. (12mks)
20. a) State three reasons that has contributed to the growth of Johannesburg city. (3mks)
b) Describe six social problems experienced by the people of Johannesburg since the end of
apartheid. (12mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
21. a) Give three reasons it took so long for Mozambique to attain its independence from
Portugal. (3mks)
b) Explain six factors that have favoured the success of FRELIMO nationalists during their
struggle. (12mks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer two questions from this section.
22. a) What factors enabled Samori Toure to resist the French colonisation in West Africa. (5mks)
b)Explain five results of defeat of Mandika by the French. (10mks)

23. a)What were the causes of the first world war.(1914-1918) (5mks)
b) Explain the results of the Second World War. (10mks)

24. a)State three challenges faced by Pan-African movement. (3mks)

b) Explain six achievements of the organisation of African unity (OAU) since it's formation.
(12mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
GEOGRAPHY
312/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided
b) Answer All questions in section A
c) In section B answer question 6 and any other two questions
d) Students should check the question paper and ensure that all pages are printed and that no
question s are missing.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Section Questions Candidate’s Score Maximum Score
A 1-5 25
B 6 25
25
25
Total Score 100

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A
1. The diagram below shows some weather instruments.

(a) Identify the instruments marked K, L and M. (3 marks)

(b) Give two modern methods of weather forecasting. (2 marks)
2. (a) Give the two main movements of the earth. (2 marks)
(b) State three reasons why the interior of the earth is very hot. (3 marks)
3. The diagram below show the occurrence of an earthquake

(a) Name the parts marked A, B and C. (3marks)

(b) List two scales used to measure the magnitude of an earthquake. (2 marks)
4. State five characteristics of coniferous forests. (5 marks)
5. (a) What is soil catena? (2 marks)
(b) State three factors that influence soil colour. (3 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section
6. (a) Study the map of Tambach 1:50 000 (sheet 90/3) provided and answer the Following
questions.
(i) Name three human features found in grid square 8260. (3 marks)
(ii) Measure the length of all-weather road loose surface C 51from the junction near the mining
camp to the southern edge of the map. Give your answer in Kilometers. (2 marks)
(iii) Convert the map scale into a statement scale? (2 marks)
(iv) Give two ways through which relief has been represented in the area covered by the map.
(2 marks)
(c) Draw a square 15cm by 10cm to represent the area enclosed by easting 78 and 95 and
northing 60 and 70. (1 mark)
On it mark and label the following features.
(i) River Kerio. (1 mark)
(ii) Lake Kamnorok. (1 mark)
(iii) Seasonal swamp. (1 mark)
(iv Tambach Municipality (1 mark)
(d) (i) Describe the drainage of the area covered by the map. (6 marks)
(ii) Citing evidence from the map, state five functions of Tambach town. (5 marks)

7. (a)(i) What is a mineral? (2 marks)

(ii) Give three ways used to classify rocks. (3 marks)
(b) (i) Describe how igneous rocks are formed. (5 marks)
(ii)List three examples of mechanically formed sedimentary rocks. (3 marks)
(c)Explain three types of rock metamorphism. (6 marks)
(d) Suppose you were to carry out a field study on rocks in the area surrounding your school
(i) State three characteristics that you would look for while identifying different rock types
(3 marks)
(ii) State three follow up activities for the field study (3 marks)

8. (a) (i)Differentiate between faulting and folding. (2 marks)

(ii) Name five features formed as a result of faulting. (5 marks)
(b) The world map below shows the location of some fold mountains. Use it to answer the
questions that follow:

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(i) Identify the fold mountains marked W, X, Y and Z (4 marks)
(ii) Citing relevant examples, explain how Fold Mountains were formed according to the plate
tectonics theory. (6 marks)
(c) Explain the effects of Fold Mountains on the following
(i) Transport. (2 marks)
(ii) Agriculture. (2 marks)
(iii) Tourism. (2 marks)
(iv) Mining. (2 marks)

9. (a) Give three examples of West coast deserts. (3 marks)

(b)(i) Apart from rock pedestals, name four other features formed due to wind erosion in arid
regions. (4 marks)
(ii) With the aid of well labelled diagrams, describe how a rock pedestal is formed. (7 marks)
(c) Explain four factors that influence the rate of wind transport. (8 marks)
(d) State three negative influence of desert features. (3 marks)

10. (a) (i) What is a lake? (2marks)

(ii) Give three processes that lead to formation of Lakes. (3marks)
(b) Describe how Lake Victoria was formed (6marks)
(c) Explain three factors why some Lakes in the Rift Valley in Kenya are saline. (6marks)
(d) Explain four ways in which lakes influence the climate of the surrounding areas. (8marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
GEOGRAPHY
312/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions To Candidates
1. Write your name and Index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
3. This paper consists of two sections; A and B
4. Answer all the questions in Section A.
5. In section B answer question 6 and any other two questions.
6. All answers must be written in the answer booklet provided.
7. Candidates should answer the questions in English

For Examiner’s Use Only

Section Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

A 1-5 25
6 25
B 25
25
Total Score 100

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A (25 marks)
Answer all the questions in this section
1. (a)State three conditions that favour the growing of oil palm in Nigeria (3marks)
(b) Apart from making oil, state two other uses of oil palm. (2marks)
2. (a) Name three areas which make up the Zuider Zee reclamation project in the Netherlands.
(3marks)
b) State three natural problems experienced by farmers at Mwea-Tebere irrigation schemes.
(3marks)
3. (a) State three measures that have been taken to conserve fisheries in Kenya (3marks)
(b) Give three reasons why Japan is a great fishing nation. (3marks)
4. (a) Give two advantages of using Hydro-electric power over other forms of energy (2marks)
(b) State two benefits that have resulted from rural electrification in Kenya (2marks)
5. Explain two ways in which people are affected by floods. (4marks)

SECTION B (75 marks)

Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section
6. The table below shows total number of livestock in selected Counties in Kenya in 2019. Use it to
answer (a)

County Number of livestock

Turkana 479,902
Wajir 661,152
Garissa 457,102
Kajiado 348,304
Narok 744,010
Marsabit 645,713
Laikipia 387,969
(a)(i) Using a scale of 1cm to represent 100,000 livestock, draw a simple bar graph to represent the
data in the table above. (9marks)
(ii) Apart from simple bar graph, name three statistical methods that can be used to represent the
data in the table (3marks)
(b) Name:
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
(i) Three exotic breeds of commercial beef cattle reared in Kenya. (3marks)
(ii) Two traditional breeds of cattle kept by nomadic pastoralism in Kenya (2marks)
(c) Explain three physical factors that favour beef farming in Argentina. (6marks)
(d) State two problems experienced by beef farmers in Argentina. (2marks)

7. (a) (i) Define the term mining (2marks)

(ii) Identify the areas where the following minerals are mined in Kenya.
i) Carbon (iv)oxide (1 mark)
ii)Titanium (1 mark)
iii) Limestone (1 mark)
(b) State three factors that influence the exploitation of minerals (3marks)
(c) Describe the processing of gold in south Africa (7marks)
(d) (i) Explain three ways in which gold contributes to the economy of South Africa. (6marks)
(ii) State four problems which South Africa experiences in the exploitation of gold. (4marks)

8.(a) (i) What is Agro-forestry? (2marks)

(ii) Give four reasons why Agro-forestry is encouraged in Kenya (4marks)
(b) Explain how the following factors influence the distribution of forests in Kenya.
(i)Relief (4 marks)
(ii) Soil (4marks)
(c) State five challenges experienced in exploitation of tropical hardwood forests. (5mark)
(d) You plan to carry out a field study in a forest
i)Give three secondary sources of information you would use to prepare for the field study.
(3marks)
ii) What would be disadvantages of using secondary methods of collecting data in this kind of
study. (3marks)

9. (a) i) Define the term industrialization (2marks)

ii) Name a town in Kenya where each of the following industries is located.
 Motor vehicle assembly (1mark)
 Oil refining (1 mark)
 Export processing zone (1 mark)
 Fish processing (1 mark)
(b) Explain four causes of the decline in the textile industry in Kenya. (8 marks)
( c) Explain four factors which influenced the location of iron and steel industries in the Ruhr
Region of Germany in the 19th Century (8 marks)
(d) Show how industrialization can lead to environmental pollution in Kenya. (3 marks)
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
10. Use the map of East Africa below to answer question (a)

(a) (i) Name the railway terminus P,Q and R (3marks)

(ii)In each case give the main commodity transported by the railway lines marked S and T.
(2marks)
(iii) Give four challenges facing railway transport in East Africa. (4marks)
(b) Outline three advantages of using containers while handling goods at the port of Mombasa
(3marks)
(c) One of the problems facing road transport is the high frequency of accidents. Explain four
measures the Kenya Government has taken to reduce motor vehicle accidents in the Country.
(8marks)
(d) Give five reasons why there is limited use of letter writing as a means of communication in
Kenya. (5marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
ENGLISH
101/1
PAPER 1 (Functional Skills)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions to the candidates

a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer all the questions in this paper
d) Candidates must answer the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use only

Question Maximum Candidate’s
Score score
1 20
2 10
3 30
Total score

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 Marks)
You recently read an article on the lack of a reading culture among the youth in Kenya. The writer
claimed that there are not enough interesting African novels young Kenyans can enjoy. You feel
that more young people should try the novel “Fathers of Nations.”
Write a book review of the novel. In your review, briefly describe the storyline, the major themes
and give a good reason why young people should read the book.
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2. CLOZE TEST (10MKS)
Read the passage below and fill in each blank space with the most appropriate word. (10
Marks)
As a teenager, Rebecca ---------------------- (1) about reproductive health from her biology class.
Outside of school, the changes in a ----------------------(2) body were not readily discussed. Rebecca
ended ------------…(3) feeling confused and isolated in her journey as she grappled with a mixture
of --------------------------(4) that were hard to explain – from severe cramps, bloating, constipation
and unusual cravings to heavy bleeding, headaches and fatigue that left her bedridden for days.
Unfortunately, because many of her peers -----------------------(5) mild cramps, her ‘discomforts’
were often dismissed as ‘typical menstrual issues.’
Now a 35-year-old mother, she looks back at her experience.
“I thought I was just unlucky,” Rebecca --------------------------(6). “My friends would talk about ----
-------------(7) period cramps, but what I felt was on a whole different level. I’d miss school because
the pain was so bad.”
The turning -------------------------------(8) came in her late twenties when she was finally --------------
------(9) with endometriosis. “Endometriosis is a condition where tissue similar to the lining inside
the uterus grows outside. When these cells undergo bleeding during menstruation, it leads to pain,”
explains Dr Ezekiel Mecha a senior -----------------------------(10) at the department of
Biochemistry, university of Nairobi.
(Adapted from “Why Chronic Menstrual Pain is Often Misunderstood” The Standard, Monday, June
17,2024)

3. ORAL SKILLS (30MARKS)

A. Read the oral narrative below and answer the questions that follow.
Hyena and Fox said to one another, “Let us go and eat food together”. They walked to Hyena’s place
and here they ate some old bones. Then they went to Fox’s home and here they were given some
honey. Hyena had never tasted such sweet food before. He ate and ate and greedily licked his
fingers.
“Do you relieve yourself after eating this sweet food?” he asked.
“No, we do not,” replied Fox.
“What do you do to ensure such sweetness remains inside you?” he asked.
“A person is sewed tightly as quickly as possible,” Fox explained.
The Hyena was sewed and he went back home. After two days, Hyena was dying to relieve himself.
So, he went back to Fox.
“Fox unsew me now so that I can go to the bush to relieve myself”.
“Oh no, why should we relieve you of sweetness,” said Fox running away.
Hyena was now desperate, he kept fighting and making funny noises.
“Why are you behaving like that?” Crow asked.
“I have plenty of meal bothering me. Would you pull this thread so that you can eat some?” said
Hyena.
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The greedy Crow quickly undid the thread and ‘pooaa’ came out the unwanted stuff from inside
Hyena. It gushed out at a terrific speed and covered the Crow completely. The Crow could not
move until it rained. The rain washed off Hyena’s excrement but Crow had a white patch on his
neck. He still has it to this day.

I. How would you would prepare yourself to effectively tell the story? (3 Marks)
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II.Mention two ways in which you would know that your audience in the story is fully participating
in the performance. (2 Marks)
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III.‘Let us go and eat food together…’

Which words would you stress in the sentence above and why? (2 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

B. Underline the silent letters in the following words. (4 Marks)

I. Comb
II. Coup
III. Guilt
IV. Sword

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C. Classify and then identify the dominant sound feature in each of the short forms given.(4 Marks)
I.A good wife and health are man’s best wealth.

II.Ken can can a can of curled kales.

D. The underlining indicates which word is stressed in the sentences below. Briefly explain
what each sentence means. (3 Marks)
I.My chair broke.

II.My chair broke.

III.My chair broke.

E. Mention any three ways you would use your voice effectively when asked to give a speech
during assembly. (3 Marks)
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F. You have been elected the Chairperson of your English study group. Explain three things you
would to do during an upcoming discussion to ensure it is productive. (6 Marks)
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G.Read the dialogue below and answer the question that follow.
Kamau: (Looking distraught) Oh what do I do now?
Jane: Hi Kamau. How are you?
Kamau: Oh, Jane, my mother…
Jane: What a coincidence! My mother is in town!
Kamau: That is great, Jane. As I was telling you, my mother has just been admitted to hospital.
Jane: Is everyone’s mother unwell? Mine called and said she wants money to buy medicine; a
lot of money. These people back at home think money grows on trees!
Kamau: Jane, she is your mother. Surely you should help her if you can.
Jane: I have only twelve thousand shillings and it is all for buying an outfit and shoes. I have to
look good at that dinner next week.
Kamau: Well, I have to look for some money and send it to my mother. See you later, Jane.
Jane: Wait, don’t you want to know where I am going for that dinner next week?
I.Identify three shortcomings in Jane’s responses. (3 Marks)
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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
ENGLISH
101/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
(Comprehension, Literary Appreciation and Grammar)
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your details in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer all the questions in this paper.
3. Answer the questions in English.

EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 20
2 25
3 20
4 15
TOTAL 80

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1. COMPREHENSION
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Technology is basically the way we execute the discoveries of science and blend it with our own
needs. Technology is a general term used to refer to the different tools, machines and equipment
we use in everyday life. These tools and equipment have been invented by man to make the tasks
faster, easier and more comfortable.
Since the invention of the wheel and the use of microchips in computers and mobiles, technology has
come a long way. Man has reached the moon and explored the outer space just because of the
advancement in the aeronautics field. Even in primitive occupations such as agriculture, there have
been so many technological advancements with modern tools such as traction engine and stream
tractor technology which has helped us make progress.
Although there have been countless examples where technology has changed our lives, there are some
which are considered as revolution for mankind. The technology used in the field of robotics is one
such fine example. Nowadays robots are being used by people and industries all over the world for
various purposes. They are also used in places which are otherwise considered harmful for humans
thereby protecting us. One such area is the cleaning and managing of radioactive waste
Artificial intelligence (AI) is another field which is a classic example of the technological
advancement man has achieved. Who could have imagined that a machine would be capable of
thinking like us? That is what Artificial Intelligence has been successful in doing. It is an intelligent
machine capable of behaving like us. It can do activities such as problem-solving, planning,
learning and even reasoning. Today Artificial Intelligence is used in all major areas such as
warfare, security, healthcare and communication. On top of this, it is far more efficient than us and
has a lower rate of error.
Technology has its own importance in our lives. Without technological advancement, our lives would
not be simpler and faster. The modernization that the world is witnessing today has all been
possible because of technological developments in different fields. Moreover, it has helped in
reducing the risks people had to undertake in many sectors such as mining. With new tools
available, the tasks are less risky and are more efficient as well.
Although technological advancements are important for us, it is also true that we seem to be over-
dependent on them nowadays. The use of mobiles was meant to be able to keep us in touch in
different times. But now we see kids too much involved in the different applications on mobiles
and killing the valuable time. In addition, many crimes have been reported through the misuse of
digital technology. Also, it has been seen that many people lack the basic education required to
ensure the proper use of the technology available today. In fact, most of them use it for the sake of
fashion and hence end up misusing it. People have been so dependent on technology that they no
longer want to do any kind of manual activity. Even for small works that can be done manually,
people prefer to do it through technology. This has resulted in making humans mentally as well as
physically dormant.
Technology is surely a boon for mankind. It is all the more important for the economic growth of a
country. Modern technologies have in fact succeeded in reducing the human effort and the risk in

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 doing a lot many other things. But still, it is for us to see how best we make use of technology
available to us.
While on one hand we can make use of technological advancements of nuclear energy to generate
electricity and help many villages lighten us, on the other hand the same nuclear energy can be
used to create bombs which cause mammoth destruction. Similarly, robots and other technological
advancements have served as a good servant to us but the moment it becomes the master it can
wipe all humanity from earth.
Questions
a. What is technology according to the passage? 2mks
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b. State two prominent ways in which technology has changed lives according to the passage. 2mks
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c. How has technology been Important to human beings according to the passage? 3mks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d. How has advancements in the field of aeronautics changed this field? 2mks
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e. Make notes on the drawbacks of technology 4mks

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

f. Technology is surely a boon for mankind. Begin: Surely………………. 1mk

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

g. Discuss the writer’s mixed thought on technology. 3mks

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h. Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the passage. 3mks
i Blend
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ii Mammoth
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iii Boon
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………

2.Read the following extract from the play “The Samaritan” by John Lara and then answer the
questions after.
Seymour: (Springing to his feet with clenched fists) That cannot be possible. Nobody can
write that kind of thing about me in this world!
Harvester: (Looking at Ted and Seymour) Copies of indisputable documentary evidence
to that effect were all over today’s newspapers and are being shared in all
media platforms.
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Seymour: (Resuming his seat and swearing with trembling voice) Those are fake documents!
These are all barefaced falsehoods! And I can assure you one thing: Those behind
the allegations now have their appointment with fate! Certainly!
Ted: (Sitting properly and looking up for the first time) Supply of air? I am beginning
to think this is serious. Could we end up in Baneta Express Prison?
Harvester: (Turning pages of his note book) But that is only one of the allegations, there are
many more, including drug trafficking, grabbing of public land, inflation of
the cost of municipal projects, use of proxies to secure municipal tenders,
undertaking shoddy public works, murder and gang warfare. The information
is very detailed on the people and companies involved.
Mossi: There is a lot of personal information on municipal leaders on that evil
thing too; including lifestyles of individual municipal officials, where they
live, the kind of houses they live in, their businesses, the vehicles they own,
other properties in their possession, when the properties were acquired, and
a lot of other personal details I don’t want to mention here. (Looking at Bembe)
There was a lot of talk yesterday on the Madingo Golf Club, with everyone
Wondering where you got the money to put it up.
Bembe: (Sitting up with an expression of horror on his face) The Madingo Golf Club? No!
I have always been very discreet about my private affairs! How did they get the
Information it is mine?
Mossi: You see, there is hardly anything on earth you can do without somebody knowing
About it. You should also remember that those we regard as our friends are
Sometimes wolves in sheep’s clothing. And they may have a lot of information
About us, which could be damaging!
Bembe: This might be our worst nightmare!
Mossi: What worries me most is the recent formation of a lobby group, an amorphous
virtual group, comprising mostly of lawyers, calling itself The Samaritan. It is calling
upon the people to volunteer as witnesses and help in the prosecution of those
involved in corruption and abuse of office in the Municipality. They are also
planning to petition the Local Government Minister, the Prime Minister, and the
Chief Justice to take action. The situation is not pretty at all.
Ted: (Looking at Justice Jaden) Can such online allegations form a strong basis for
prosecution and conviction?
Jaden: (Adjusting his eyeglasses) Yes, they can; provided there are valid documents
supporting the allegations.
Bembe: (Throwing his hands in the air) I think we have no choice other than ban that
thing within Maracas Municipality! The Municipal Council needs to pass a by-law
to that effect urgently. I will enforce it immediately!
Jaden: (Adjusting his eyeglasses and then his tie) I think we need to be careful and strategic.
On what basis do you ban it? And how can you police the use of mobile phones to
ensure the ban is effective?
Seymour: We can think creatively about that. For example, we can claim that municipal
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 authorities are concerned that suspect Apps, particularly spy Apps, are finding
their way into our municipality. This may lead to theft of confidential
information such as bank account details. We can also cite issues of cyberbullying
and the sharing of pornographic materials in schools
QUESTIONS
a) What is Seymour referring to at the beginning of the excerpt? (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Identify and illustrate two aspects of style in this excerpt. (4mks)

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c) Discuss two themes evident in this excerpt. (4mks)

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d)Discuss one character trait of Seymour and one character trait of Mossi as presented in this
excerpt. (4mks)
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) From your knowledge of the rest of the play, what two things does Mossi suggest could be done
to control the use of the Samaritan App? (2mks)
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f) From your knowledge of the rest of the play, briefly explain the origin of the Samaritan App.
(4mks)
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g) Explain the meaning of the following words and phrases as used in the excerpt (5mks)
i) Supply of air
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ii) Inflation
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iii) Discreet
……………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) Amorphous
……………………………………………………………………………………………
v) Petition
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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3.Read the following Song and then answer the questions that follow.
THE RETURN
Oh! People of Andatsi,
Listen to the drums,
Listen to the ululations,
Bestowed upon the son of our land.

Celebrate him, we must,

from a young lad, hero is born,
A role model to you sluggards,
Can’t you hear the praises over the wheat farms,
Bestowed upon the son of our land.

Tooth and nail fought he,

People of Andatsi,
Apt wine you must prepare,
A drop- for the ancestors, gods and him,
On our land- sun has shone,
Elders, come, hear- the sweet songs
Bestowed upon the son of our land.

No more fear– the seer once proclaimed,

No more sorrow, upon the clansmen faces,
People of Andatsi- you hold him high,
For the son of Andatsi is back and praises are,
Bestowed upon the son of our land.

Questions.
a. Classify the above song. 2mks
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b. Who is the singer? 1mk

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c. Briefly explain what the song is about. 3mks
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d. Identify and illustrate one economic activity of the community. 2mks

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e. How is the community organized? 2mks

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f. With illustrations, show what makes the song above an oral song. 3mks
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g. Identify and illustrate any one-character trait of the son of the land. 2mks
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h. Describe the prevailing mood in the song. 3mks

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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i. Explain the meaning of the following lines as used in the song.
On our land the sun has shone. 1mk
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Tooth and nail he fought. 1mk
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4. GRAMMAR
1.Rewrite the following sentences as instructed. 3mks
a. He was obviously angry with you. Begin: His…………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b. He did not apply for the job. He did not get it. Begin: Had…………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c. ‘’Are you taking part in the walk? My father asked. ‘Rewrite in indirect speech
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2.Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each of the following sentences.
3mks
a. Owen did not know that the tree had ……………………………. his house. (Strike)
b. The three………………………………………… were arrested. (Passer-by)
c. She has spent a lot of time …………………………………………. her compound. (Beautiful)

3.Underline the main Clause in the following sentences. 2mks

a. I saw the woman who gave birth to twins.

b. If you work hard, you will pass your examinations.

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4.Underline the gerund in the following sentence. 1mk
Diana is studying but swimming is her hobby.

5.Replace the phrasal verb underlined with one word similar in meaning. 2mks
a. The project has really eaten into my savings.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b. He had his dog put down because it was in a lot of pain from its tumors.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6.Fill in the blank space with the correct alternative from the given choices. 2mks.
a. Neither Tom nor his friend …………………. there. (was / were)
b. Vivian is one of the people who ……………… always in a hurry. (are/is)

7.Explain the difference in meaning between the following sentences. 2mks

a. Has the donkey eaten Mary?
b. Has the donkey eaten, Mary?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
ENGLISH
101/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
(Creative Composition and Essays Based On Set Books)
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Answer three questions only
b) Question one and two are compulsory
c) In question three choose only one of the optional texts you have prepared on
d) Where a candidate presents work on more than one optional text, only the first one to appear
will be marked
e) Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1. 20

2. 20

3. 20

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1. Imaginative composition. (Compulsory) (20 marks)
Either
Write a composition ending with the following words: …..The events of that day will remain etched
in my mind forever.
OR
Discuss how young people can use their talent for personal development.

2.Compulsory text ‘The Samaritan’ by John Lara (20 Marks)

Change can be initiated through the effort of ordinary citizens. Closely referring to Nicole in The
Samaritan by John Lara, write an essay to support this statement.

3.Optional texts
a) The Novel: Kazuo Ishuguro, an Artist of the Floating World. (20marks)
Noriko’s marriage negotiations have been used as a means to reveal Ono’s past. Justify the statement
using illustrations from the novel Artist of the floating world.

or
(b) A Silent Song and Other Stories (20marks
War causes a lot of harm and should be avoided at any cost.Validate this statement basing your
illustration in Chimamanda Adichies"Ghost"

or
c) Misuse of power is a common phenomenon in most African countries. Validate this statement
basing your arguments on the play “Parliament of Owls” (20 Marks)

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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
102/1

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 1-INSHA
MUDA: SAA 1¾

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI……………………….

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………..

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari (KCSE)

Maagizo
(a) Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima
(b) Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya hizo tatu zilizobaki
(c) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400
(d) Kisha insha ina alama 20
(e) Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
(f) Andika nambari ya maswali uliyoyajibu kwenye jedwali ulilocherewa hapo chini

Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee

Swali Upeo Alama

1 20

20

Jumla 40

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Lazima
1.Wewe ni katibu wa chama cha walinda Mazingira wasio na mipaka shuleni mwenu. Andika
kumbukumbu za mkutano uliofanyika kujadili athari za mafuriko yaliyokumba eneo lenu.

2 .Kumekuwa na visa vingi vya ajali za barabarani nchini. Ukiwa mhariri wa gazeti la
Darubini. Andika tahariri kuhusu chanzo cha ajali hizi huku ukionyesha mikakati inayofaa
kuzuia ajali nchini.

3. Tunga kisa kitakachodhihirisha maana ya methali ifuatayo:

Pele hupewa msi kucha.

4. Tunga kisa kitakachomalizika kwa maneno yafuatayo:

Sikuupa moyo wangu nafasi ya kujutia niliyoyatenda. Nilikuwa nimeamua kuyajenga maisha
yangu upya.

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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
102/2

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 2-LUGHA
MUDA: SAA 2½

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI……………………….

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………..

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari (KCSE)

Maagizo
(a) Andika jina lako na namba yako ya usajili katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike darasa lako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(c) Jibu maswali yote.
(d) Majibu yote yaandikwe kwenye nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.
(e) Majibu yote ni lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
(f) Usitoe ukurasa wowote kutoka kwenye kijitabu hiki.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE: -

Swali Upeo Alama
1 15
2 15
3 40
4 10
JUMLA 80

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1. UFAHAMU (Alama 15)
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.
Ustawi wa dola lolote lile hutegemea mseto wa nguvu, maarifa chipukizi, uchapuchapu wa barubaru,
pamoja na maarifa, upevu, uvumilivu na tajriba ya wazee. Tunaweza kuumithilisha ufanisi wa nchi
na jumba la ghorofa lililojengwa juu ya tegemezo: msingi huu ukiwa imara, ghorofa nyingi zaweza
kuinuliwa. Nayo imara ya tegemezo hutegemea vyuma imara visivyotetereka na vifaa vinginevyo.
Zaidi ya haya yote, mafundi wahusika kama vile wasanifu mjengo, wahandisi, mafundi bomba na
wengineo sharti wawe na ujuzi tosha ili kufanikisha kazi inayohusika. Katika taswira hii, twaweza
kuelewa ni kwa nini baadhi ya nchi zimestawi huku nyingine zikiitwa ulimwengu wa tatu. Shida
za nchi hizo ni kutozistawisha taaluma ambazo ndizo msingi wa maendeleo, hivyo huwa na
walakini katika utekelezaji. Matokeo yake ni kulimatia.

Nchi nyingi humu barani mwetu zimekosa kustawi kutokana na kasoro nyingi tulizo nazo katika
uimarishaji wa taaluma zetu. Sababu kuu ni kuwa, wengi wetu hukimbilia kutekeleza kazi
mbalimbali hata bila ujuzi wowote kwa kazi hizo. Tabia kama hii inatokana na ukweli kuwa sisi
hatujali kama tuna vipawa vya kufanya kazi fulani. Wengine huvunjwa moyo na waliowazingira
kuwa vipawa vyao havifai. Hivyo, si ajabu kuona kijana aliye na kipawa fulani akikosa kukivuvia
kwa sababu labda hata hatambui kuwa anacho.

Wengi wa wakembe wetu hukosa kuvitambua vipawa vyao, hivyo kukosa kuendeleza utaalamu
unaohusiana navyo kwa kukosekana kwa mtalaa wa kuvichochea katika mfumo wa elimu. Mfumo
wa elimu nchini Kenya kwa sasa unasisitiza wanafunzi kupita mtihani ili kuingia vyuoni. Hata
hivyo, ni muhimu kuvikuza vipawa walivyo navyo vijana ili wavitumie katika siku za halafu.
Vitambuliwe mapema shuleni bali si vyuoni. Kunao wanagenzi wengine ambao, licha ya
kuvitambua vipawa vyao hawavifukutii kamwe, huvipuuza na kujisukuma katika taaluma ambazo
hazikuwafaa kamwe. Kunao wanagenzi wengine ambao hutamani na kuingilia taaluma fulani, si
kwa kuzipenda, bali kwa kuwa wandani wao wazishiriki. Hawajui kuwa kibaya chako si kizuri cha
mwenzio. Huliona tanga la nguo wakalisahau la miyaa. Kuna wengine ambao huziandama
taaluma fulani kwa kushurutishwa na wazazi au wadhamini wao. Nao vijana hukosa ukakamavu
wa kujiamulia na kukubali shingo upande maamuzi hayo. Hata hivyo, kuna wale ambao hujitosa
katika taaluma hizo bila kushurutishwa ili wapate hadhi. Matokeo ni kuwa kijana huzifanya kazi
hizo kwa chati wala si kwa dhati. Wengine hujipenyeza kwa taaluma fulani eti kwa kuwa
wamekosa nyingine. Si ajabu basi kutokana na ukosefu wa ajira kumwona mtaalamu wa mifugo
akiwa mwalimu, mwalimu akiwa dereva na tabibu akiwa mkulima hali zaraa haimudu.

Ili kupata suluhu katika jambo hili, sharti kila mmoja wetu ashiriki katika kuitambua, kuikuza,
kuikomaza na kutumia taaluma ya kila kijana. Twaweza kuuiga mfano wa Wazungu wafanyavyo
kwao. Wao hujitahidi kuvitambua vipawa vya watoto wangali wachanga hali ambayo huwasaidia
kuzikuza taaluma zao baadaye. Naye kijana akishajua atakachofanya, afaa kufanya utafiti ili
kufikia kina cha taaluma yake.

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Maswali
(a) Eleza sababu za watu kujishughulisha na taaluma zisizo zao. (alama2)
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(b) Eleza kikwazo cha ustawi wa nchi zinazoendelea. (alama 1)

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(c) Taja mambo manne yanayostawisha taifa. (alama 4)

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(d) Taja mambo matano yanayokwamiza uendelezaji wa vipawa miongoni mwa vijana. (alama 5)
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(e) Kuna tofauti gani kati ya Waafrika na Wazungu katika ukuzaji wa taaluma? (alama 2)
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(f) Eleza maana ya ‘Huliona tanga la nguo wakalisahau la miyaa’. (alama 1)
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(g) Eleza maana ya vifungu vifuatavyo vilivyotumika katika ufahamu. (alama 2)
(i) kulimatia
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(ii) mtalaa
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A. UFUPISHO (Alama 15)

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kasha ujibu maswali
Ardhi ni mali ya taifa. Hivyo inampasa kila raia kuinafidhi. Hii ina maana kwamba hatuna budi
kuwarithisha wana na wajukuu, vitukuu na vilembwe, vining’ina na wapwa zetu ardhi yenye
rutuba. Ardhi ndiyo chanzo cha riziki zote. Fauka ya hayo, ardhi ni dafina kubwa.

Tangu asili ardhi hii imefunikwa na joho la miti na majani. Rutuba ilienea kila mahali. Lakini wakati
ulifika ambapo wanadamu hawakuvumilia kukaa bila kuitumia johari hii. Walishika maparange na
mashoka. Wakafyeka majani na miti yote. Wakalima wakapanda na kuvuna.
Kisha walihama hapo. Waliendelea kufanya hivyo mwaka hadi mwaka. Hali ya kufyeka sehemu
mbalimbali za nchi, kuchoma mioto ovyo, kuwa na mifugo mingi na kutojua kuhifadhi ardhi vizuri
kulileta mavuno hafifu kila mwaka.

Mvua iliponyesha matone ya mvua yaligonga ardhi. Maji yakajiri kwa nguvu na kutawanya chembe
za udongo. Wakati wa kiangazi udongo ulipokauka, upepo mkali ulichukua tabaka la juu. Hivyo
ikawa mazao hayawezi kustawi. Hatimaye nchi ikawa kama mkuranga. Mambo haya
yakasababisha mmomonyoko wa juu juu halafu mwanzo wa michirizi na mwisho makorongo na
maporomoko ya ardhi.
Walakini basi ya kale hayapo. Sasa wakuu wa serikali yetu ya Insafu wamekuhimizeni, ikiwa mu
wakulima, mpande zaidi. Wamewashauri namna ya kuongeza mavuno katika mashamba yenu kwa
maarifa bora ya zaraa, kama vile kuunafidhi udongo, kutumia mbolea, njia za kunyunyizia dawa
makondeni ili kuua wadudud wanaoharibu mimea, na kutumia maarifa malihi katika kupanda
mbegu. Kwa wale ambao si wakulima, serikali yetu ya Insafu imeweka shule za mafundisho
maalum na kumhimiza kila mmoja wao aongeze maarifa yake na afanye kazi kwa tabasuri na bidii
ili aongeze mapato yake na mapato ya serikali pia. Katika sehemu nyingine maelezo ya wakuu wa
serikali yamefuatwa barabara, na kumetokea maongezeko malihi ya mazao.

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Walakini pia katika sehemu hizo maongezeko yake hayakutosha sana. Katika sehemu nyingine kwa
bahati mbaya watu wamepotezwa na watu wakaidi ambao kwa kutaka ushaufu, wamewaambia
watu kuwa njia rahisi na nyepesi ya kujipatia serikali ya kujitawala yenyewe, na wamewashawishi
na kuwatisha baadhi ya watu waasi amri za serikali zihusuzo zaraa. Wahaini hao wametibua
mambo. Ni watu wa kuaili na ni afkani.
Maswali
a. Fupisha ujumbe wa aya tatu za kwanza kwa maneno 80. (alama 9, 1 ya mtiririko)
Matayarisho.
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Nakala Safi
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b. Eleza masuala ambayo mwandishi anaibua katika aya mbili za mwisho kwa maneno 60.
(alama 6, 1 ya mtiririko)
Matayarisho.
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Nakala Safi
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B. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA
(a) Taja sauti mbili ambazo huitwa viyeyusho (alama 1)
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(b) Andika neno lililo na muundo wa silabi ufuatao (alama 1)
IKKI
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(c) Ainisha viambishi katika neno lifuatalo (al. 2)

Yafutikayo
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(d) Tambua aina mbili za sentensi ukizingatia uamilifu na utoe mfano mmoja kwa kila moja
(ala. 2)
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(e) Ainisha vielezi vya namna katika sentensi hii (ala. 2)

Mzee huyu mkongwe alicheka kijinga huku akila haraka haraka
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(f) Ainisha vishazi katika sentensi ifuatayo (ala. 2)

Kijana aliyezungumza na nyanyake ameingia katika darasa lililochafuliwa na wanafunzi
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(g) Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa kielelezo cha mistari (ala. 3)
Mwanafunzi mwerevu sana aliyekuwa mgonjwa jana amepelekwa nyumbani
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(h) Bainisha shamirisho na chagizo katika sentensi ifuatayo (ala. 3)

Somo aliukata mti kwa kisu jana asubuhi
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(i) Andika kwa usemi wa taarifa (ala. 3)

Karani: Njoo nikutume kwa babu yangu.
Karanja: Sitaki kupita njia ya kwa babu
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(j) Eleza matumizi ya ‘ni’ katika sentensi hii (ala. 2)

Ingieni darasani mara moja ili niwape zoezi ambalo ni rahisi
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(k) Eleza maana ya sentensi zifuatayo (ala. 2)
(i) Ningalisoma kwa bidii ningalipita mtihani
(ii) Ningesoma kwa bidii ningepita mtihani
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(l) Andika katika udogo wingi (ala. 2)

Mti wa msonobari unatengeneza meza nzuri sana
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(m) Tambua miundo yoyote mitatu ya ngeli ya LI-YA (ala. 3)

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(n) Eleza maana tatu za sentensi ifuatayo (ala. 3)

Alisema angeenda kwao
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(o) Andika upya sentensi ifuatayo katika hali sambavu (ala. 1)

Mwanafunzi anasoma darasani
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(p) Tumia neno ‘hadi’ kuonyesha mahali na wakati katika sentensi (ala. 2)
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(q) Yakinisha katika hali ya mazoea. (ala. 2)

Asiyeugua hahitaji daktari
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(r) Tunga sentensi ukitumia neno ‘komaa’ kama (ala. 2)

(i) Kivumishi
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(ii) Nomino
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(s) Taja matumizi yoyote mawili ya kistari kirefu (ala. 2)

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4). ISIMUJAMII. (Alama 10)

a) Eleza sababu za kufanya makosa katika mazungumzo (alama 4)
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b) Eleza mambo manne yaliyochochea kusanifisha lugha ya Kiswahili nchini Kenya.(alama 4)

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c) Taja lahaja zozote nne za lugha ya Kiswahili (alama 2)

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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
102/3

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 3-FASIHI
MUDA: SAA 2½

JINA…………………………………………………………………………………………

SHULE……………………………………………… SAHIHI……………………….

NAMBARI YA USAJILI……………………………… MKONDO……………………..

Cheti cha Kuhitimu Kisomo cha Sekondari (KCSE)

MAAGIZO
a) Jibu maswali manne pekee.
b) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
c) Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki yaani; tamthilia,
riwaya, hadithi fupi na fasihi simulizi.
d) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
e) Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
f) Majibu yote sharti yaandikwe kwa kijitabu cha majibu ulichopewa.
g) Andika nambari ya maswali uliyoyajibu.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

SWALI UPEO ALAMA
20
20
20
20
JUMLA 80

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SEHEMU YA A: USHAIRI
MBELE YA SAFARI
1. Ilipoanza safari , ilianza kwa dhiki
Tulishikana kwa ari, kwenda safari ya haki
Tukawa ni majabari, nyoyo zisitaharuki
Tukajizatiti

2. Njaa ikawa dhabiti ,na kiu kutamalaki

Nasi tulitia dhati tusijali kuhiliki
Ingawa mbele mauti ,dhila na mingi mikiki
Tukajizatiti

3. Huu mwisho wa safari, tukaambiwa ni haki

Shangwe kwetu na fahari,utumwa hatuutaki
Kuwa mbele ya safari , juhudi iliyobaki
Tukajizatiti

4. Ile ilikuwa ndoto , mwisho wake mafataki

Nguvu zimechomwa moto,sahala ‘mekuwa dhiki
Wagombanio kipato,utashi haukatiki
Nakutabakari

5. Msafara ukasita , kwenye mlima wa haki

Kijasho kinatuita , mlima haupandiki
Basi sote ‘kijipeta, kukikwea kima hiki
Twataka hazina

6. Tukiwa migongo wazi ,tukainama kwa shaki

Tukawa’chia ukwezi , kialeni wadiriki
Wakapanda bila kazi ,Kuteremsha miliki
Wakaitapia

7. Wakafikia makazi,ya pumbao na ashiki

Huko wakajibirizi, kwenye raha lakilaki
Wakaisahau ngazi, ya umma ulomiliki
Mbele ya safari

8. Na hazina yetu sote, kuishusha hawataki

Wamo wanatema , kwa umati halaiki
Imezima nia yote ,kiza hakitakasiki
Mbele ya safari
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MASWALI
a) Eleza safari inayolejelewa katika shairi hili. (al 2)
b) Onyesha kinaya cha safari inayozungumziwa. (al 6)
c) Taja na ueleze bahari mbili za shairi ukizingatia : (al 4)
i. Mizani
ii. Vina
d) Andika ubeti wa saba kwa lugha ya nathari. (al 4)
e) Eleza umuhimu wa aina mbili za uhuru wa kishairi zilizotumiwa katika ubeti wa sita (al 4)
f) Eleza umbo/ muundo wa shairi hili. (ala 2)

SEHEMU YA B: TAMTHILIA
Timothy Arege;BEMBEA YA MAISHA
Jibu swali la 2 au la 3
2. (a.) Soma dondoo lifuatalo kasha ujibu maswali.
Sara : Mimi ninashukuru kwa hawa alionipa mungu. Nikitaka zaidi nitakuwa mchache wa
shukrani.(kimya) Dina nimesemwa sanana kutukanwa kwa sababu ya hawa wasichana wangu.
Wewe unajua yote yaliyosemwa, hadharani na faraghani. Si makanisani, si magengeni. Leo
nikiviona vitoto hivi vilivyochekwa na kusimangwa jana, vikijiendeshea mambo yao, ninaridhika
moyoni. Hata nikiitwa nitaondoka nikiwa nimeridhika. (Anatokwa na machozi)
Kila binadamu hukabiliana na mabadiliko katika maisha yake. Jadili kauli hii ukirejelea tamthilia
ya Bembea ya Maisha.
i.) Changanua maudhui katika dondoo hili (ala 3)
ii.) Bainisha toni katika dondoo hili (ala 2)
iii.) Tambua mbinu tatu za lugha ambazo zimetumiwa katika dondoo hili. (ala 3)
(b.) Jadili jinsi suala la utu linavyoshughulikiwa katika tamthilia ya Bembea Ya Maisha (ala 12).
AU
3. Kila binadamu hukabiliana na mabadiliko katika maisha yake. Jadili kauli hii ukirejelea tamthilia
ya Bembea ya Maisha. (ala 20)

SEHEMU YA C: RIWAYA
C. MOMANYI: NGUU ZA JADI
Jibu swali la 4 au la 5
4. “Lazima amejiunga na kundi la marafiki wenye pesa wanaojaribu kumpotosha.”
(a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo. (alama 4)
(b) Anayesema maneno haya ni jasiri. Thibitisha kwa hoja tano. (alama 5)
(c) Tathmini kwa hoja kumi na moja nafasi ya wenye pesa katika kuendeleza tamaa na ubinafsi
katika nchi ya Matuo. (alama 11)
AU
5. “Mangwasha siku zote hizi ulikuwa unachezeshwa kayamba tu. Ati walisema Osama alikuwa
hatari kwa usalama duniani; kuna Osama kuliko huyu?” alijiskia kusema. Alishusha pumzi kwa
nguvu akajiuliza kimoyomoyo kwa nini Mungu aliruhusu moto kumtia kwenye shimo la
maangamizi na wanawe. Hata hivyo, aliamini kuwa wakati mwingine Mungu huruhusu mabaya
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 kutokea ili kuwafunza waja. Waaidha, alijua kuwa mashaka yanapomkumba mja, huwa ni funzo
pia. Humtayarisha kuyahimili machungu zaidi ulimwenguni ama kumuasa dhidi ya kuabudu
maovu. Maovu yanapotendwa na wachache, hata wale wasio na hatia pia hujikuta wamo humo
uovuni. Ni mtego wa waliomo na wasiokuwemo.
(a) Changanua mtindo katika dondoo hili. (alama 5)
(b) Eleza umuhimu wa mandhari ya kanisani aliko Mangwasha katika kukuza Riwaya ya Nguu
za Jadi (alama 5)
(c)Nchi ya matuo imeshinikizwa na Nguu Za Jadi zinazorudisha nyuma usawa katika jamii.
Tathmini kauli hii kwa hoja kumi. (alama 10)

SEHEMU YA D :HADITHI FUPI

MAPAMBAZUKO YA MACHWEO NA HADITHI NYINGINE
Jibu swali la 6 au 7
WINNIE NYARURI OGENCHE: ‘’SABINA’’
6. ‘’Maneno ya ripota huyo yalimwiingia Ombati maskioni yakasalia huko.Hayakufika
akilini.Mwalimu mkuu alipenya kwenye umati uliokuwa umeanza kuwa mkubwa na kumtaka
Ombati awaelekeze alikokuwa Sabina .Kabla ya Ombati kuwajibu,Sabina alifika nyumbani
amevaa rinda kuukuu huku harufu ya samadi inamvuka.Watu waliokuwa wakimngoja walimzoa
juujuu na kuanza kuimba tena. Ombati aliwafurusha wageni waliokuja kumwoa Sabina pamoja
na mifugo wao.Baada ya kufanya hivyo,alijiunga na Sabina kuhojiwa na kupigwa
picha.Alijitanua jinsi alivyotunukiwa kumlea mwana mwepesi masomoni.’’
a) Eleza umuhimu wa mhusika Sabina katika kukuza hadithi husika. (alama 6)
b) Kwa kutoa mifano mwafaka kutoka kifunguni,onyesha aina nne za taswira zilizojitokeza.
(alama 4)
c) Fafanua changamoto zinazokabili jinsia ya kike kwa mujibu wa hadithi hii. (alama 10)

YUSSUF SHOKA HAMAD: ‘’Mzimu wa Kipwerere’’

7.“…Kabla mwanamke yule hajakiwasha kile kibatari,nilijitokeza mle mvunguni na maguo yangu
meupe kama ya maiti nikaangua mwangwi mkali mfano wa parapanda ya siku ya kiama.”
(a)Yaweke maneno haya katika muktadha wake. (Alama 4)
(b)Fafanua umuhimu wa mandhari katika dondoo hili. (Alama 4)
(c)Fafanua mbinu za kimtindo katika dondoo hili. (Alama 2)
(d)Onyesha jinsi itikadi ilivyomwezesha mlinda mzimu na wahenga waliotukuka kuwafanya
wanakijiji kuogopa na kuamini mzimu wa Kipwerere kiasi cha kutofanya mzaha na maeneo yale
ambayo mzimu uliotea.. (alama 10)
SEHEMU YA E: FASIHI SIMULIZI
Swali la nane
8. a) Ulumbi ni nini? (alama 2)
ii) Ulumbi hutekeleza majukumu gani katika jamii?. (alama 6)
iii) Eleza vipengele sita vya kuzingatia katika uchanganuzi wa hadithi. (alama 6)
b) Eleza namna ambavyo hadhira huhusishwa katika uwasilishaji wa fasihi simulizi. (alama 6)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
AGRICULTURE
443/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS
The paper consists of three sections A , B and C
Answer all questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
Answer any two questions from section C on foolscaps provided

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES’

SCORE
A 1 - 17 30
B 18 – 21 20
20
C 20
TOTAL SCORE 90

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A (30 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. What is the importance of taking farm inventory? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. State four factors that determine the choice of a crop enterprise. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. Calculate the amount of P2O5 in 1000 kg of a compound fertilizer 20:10:10 (2 marks)

4. Give four farming practices leading to soil loss. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5.a) What is organic farming? ( ½ mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Give any two conditions that lead to small scale farming. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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6.List three factors that contribute to competitive ability of weeds. (1 ½ marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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7. State three ways in which pruning helps to control diseases in tomatoes. (1 mark)
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8.a) Give three ways through which minerals can be lost in the soil. (1 mark)
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b) State any three deficiency symptoms of phosphorous in crop production. (1 ½ mark)

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9. Give four reasons for using certified seeds for planting. (2 marks)
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10.a) State three effects of plant diseases on crop production. (1 ½ mark)

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 b) Name two diseases of maize. (1 mark)
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11. List four functions of Coffee Board of Kenya. (2 marks)

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12.a) Define the term land reform. ( ½ mark)

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b) State three advantages of land consolidation (1 ½ mark)
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13.a) Distinguish between a dam and a weir. (1 mark)

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b) Give any four cultural methods used in soil and water conservation. (2 marks)
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14. Differentiate between hybrids and composites as used in maize breeding. (1 mark)
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15. What is rogueing as used in crop production. (½ mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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16. State three reasons why a farmer should diversify his farm enterprises. (1 ½ mark)
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17. State four advantages of organic mulches. (2 marks)

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SECTION B (20 MARKS)

Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
18. Study the illustration below and answer the questions underneath.

a
b

(i)

(ii)

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a) Identify the above illustrations (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Name the parts labelled a,b,c and d (2 marks)
a) ………………………………………… c) …………………………………………..
b)………………………………………… d)…………………………………………..
c) Name two other methods of vegetative propagation in each case give an example of a crop
propagated using the method. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. The diagram below shows a set up of apparatus for finding the percentage of humus contents in
a soil by ignition.
ii
i

iii

iv

a) Label the apparatus (2 marks)

i) ……………………………………..
ii) …………………………………….
iii)……………………………………..
iv) …………………………………….
b) Outline the steps followed in carrying out the illustrated experiment. (3 marks)
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20. Observe the following diagrams and answer the questions that follow.

40cm

10 cm

40cm
Soil

Seedling

a) i. Name the type of structure above used to prepare seedlings. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. State three advantages of this method of preparing seedlings. (1 1/3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b)i. After sowing seeds give two practices carried out before seedling germinate. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii. Give three management practices that should be carried out to increase the survival of
seedling in the seedbed before transplanting. (1 ½ marks)
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21. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.

Nozzle

Water

Horizontal
Ground level

a) Name the method of irrigation illustrated above. ( ½ mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State two advantages of this method of irrigation. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) State three problems encountered by farmers using this method of irrigation (1 ½ marks)
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d) Give four factors which determine the choice of the method named in (a) above. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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 SECTION C (40 MARKS)
Answer any two questions in this section in the spaces provided after question 24.
22.a) Describe field production of tomatoes under the following sub-headings.
i) Ecological requirements (5 marks)
ii) Land preparations (4 marks)
iii) Transplanting (7 marks)
iv) Disease control (4 marks)

23.a) Outline the factors a farmer would consider before selecting a farm enterprise to undertake.
(10 mrks)

b) The farm manager of Kilimo farm made the following purchases in December 2004.
-Seeds and fertilizers 2,500/=
-disc plough 80,000/=
-Fuel 5,000/=
-Poultry feeds 4,500/= and
-Cattle drugs 2,000
During the year the farm sold maize to Njoro girls for 20,000; milk processor for Shs. 40,000.
Kilimo farm also expected Shs. 8,000 from a prominent neighbouring farmer for ploughing the
land. The opening valuation was Shs. 50,000 and closing valuation Shs. 80,000.
Using the information provided above, prepare Profit and Loss account for Kilimo farm.(10 mrks)

24.a) Discuss factors that should be put into consideration while choosing suitable implements for
primary cultivation. (10 marks)
b) Describe how you would establish grass pasture seeds on land that is already ploughed using a
Mouldboard plough, up to when the pasture is ready for grazing. (10 marks)

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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
AGRICULTURE
443/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.
 Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided
 This paper consists of three section A,B and C
 Answer all questions in section B and C
 Answer any two questions in section C
 All the questions should answered in the spaces provided

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTIONS MAX SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
A 1-13 30
B 14-17 20
C 18-20 20
20
TOTAL SCORE 90

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
1. (a) Name the causative organisms of pneumonia in calves (1mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State two symptoms of pneumonia in calves (2mks)
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(c) Give two ways of controlling pneumonia in calves (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. (a) Which tool will be required for the following farm operations?
(i) Cutting wool sheep (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Castrating piglets (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Give four reasons why feeding of colostrums is important in rearing of piglets. (2mks)
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3. Give three conditions under which a famer may prefer to use an Ox-cart instead of a tractor
drawn trailer? (3mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. Give four factors that should be considered when siting a beehive in a farm (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. State four management practices that would ensure maximum harvest of fishing from fishpond
(2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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6. Give two predisposing factors to foot-rot diseases in sheep (2mks)

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7. What is the intermediate host for liver fluke? (1mk)

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8. Give two causes of soft shells in eggs (1mk)

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9. List four factors associated to the animal that determines the amount of feed animals consumed
(2mks)
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10.Give four reasons why young rams should be docked. (2mks)
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11.List four cattle diseases caused by virus (2mks)

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12.State any two disadvantages that may arise from in breeding in livestock production (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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13.Give two signs that would show that a doe is just about to give birth (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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SECTION B (20MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided
21. The diagram below represents conditions of a tractor tyre.

E F G

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(a) Which diagram represents the correct pressure in a tractor tyre? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Identify the mistakes with the other two tyres. (2 marks)
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(c) Give the correct measures taken for each tyre mentioned in (b) above. (2 marks)
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22. Study the diagram below of a farm structure.

A
B
D
E

(a) Identify the structure above. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name the parts labeled. (4 marks)

A
B
E
D

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23. Study the tools below and answer the questions below.

W X Y
(a) Identify the tools. (3 marks)
W
X
Z

(b) What are the functions of tools? (2 marks)

Z
X

24. Study the diagram below then answer the questions that follow.

A
B

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(i) Name one farm animal which has the above digestive system. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Label the following parts. (2 marks)

A
B

(iii) Give the functions of each of the parts named ( 2 marks)

C
D

SECTION C
Answer any TWO questions in this section in the spaces provided
25. (a) Give the differences between a petrol and a diesel engine (10mks)
(b) Describe the daily maintenance of a tractor (10mks)

26. (a) What are disease predisposing factors? (2mks)

(b) State five disease predisposing factors in livestock (5mks)
(c)State five predisposing factors of mastitis in dairy cattle (5mks)
(d) Explain any four general methods of disease control in livestock (8mks)

27. Discuss the management of layers from day old up to point of lay in a deep litter system.
(20mks)

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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
BUSINESS STUDIES
565/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
2. Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above
3. Answer all the questions
4. All answers should be written in the spaces provided
5. Candidates should ensure that no questions are missing
6. Candidates should answer the questions in English.

For examiners use only

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22

Marks

Question 23 24 25 TOTAL
MARKS
Marks

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1. Outline four causes of business failure (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. Outline four circumstances under which goods can be transported using containers (4marks)
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3. Highlight four characteristics of money (4marks)

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4. State the type of product market described below (4 marks)

a. Buyers and sellers have perfect knowledge of the market
………………………………………………………….
b. Only one seller in the industry
………………………………………………………………………………………..
c. Many sellers dealing with differentiated products which are close substitutes
……………………………………..
d. Few sellers and many buyers
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

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5. Mention four characteristics of a good filing system (4 marks)
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6. Highlight three uses of ledger accounts (3 marks)

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7. State the term given to each of the following statements as used in business studies (4marks)
Statement. Term
a. Movement of goods and services from the producer to consumer………………….
b. Creation of goods and services.…………………………………………….
c. Using a good or service .………………………………………………………………
d. Satisfaction derived from using a good or service .…………………………………………

8. Highlight four circumstances under which a partnership may be dissolved. (4 marks)

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9. Taxation is the main source of public revenue. Highlight four demerits of taxation (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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10 .The following information was extracted from the books of Wembe traders (5 marks)
Capital Ksh. 1,119,300
Long term liabilities Ksh. 1,807,000
Current Liabilities. Ksh 978,700
Determine Wembe traders rate of return on capital employed if the business made a net profit of
Ksh. 438,945

11. Outline four channels of distribution of imported sugar (4marks}

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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12. Miundo Academy's bus was involved in an accident. Highlight five steps the school should
take while claiming for compensation (5marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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13. State four characteristics of capital as a factor of production. (4marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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14. Highlight four types of demand of a commodity. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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15.Sacco's have become very popular in Kenya today. Outline four reasons behind their popularity
(4 marks)
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16. Outline four advantages of open office layout. (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. The following information relates to Nyandarua stores as at 31/12/2023

Cash sh. 70,000
Creditors sh. 22,000
Bank overdraft sh. 5000
Furniture and fittings sh. 105,000
Premises sh. 50,000
Cash at bank sh. 33 000
AFC loan Sh. 120,000
Prepare a balance sheet as at 31/12/2023 (5 marks)

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18. State the level of production that matches the following occupations
Occupation Level of production
a. Carpentry ..………………………… ………
b. Lumbering …………………………………………………………
c. Fishing …………………………………………………………
d. Banking ……………………………………………………………

19. Outline four methods of government involvement in business. (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. Outline three causes of unemployment in Kenya (3marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
21. State four classification of goods produced in an economy (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

22. State three motives that would make a person retain part of his wealth in cash (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. State four sources of a business idea. (4 marks )

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

24. State the account to be debited and credited from the following transactions (4 marks)
Transaction. Debit. Credit
a. Bought a motor van in cash sh. 700,000 …………………. ……………………………..
b. Paid Maina by cheque sh. 6,000 …………………… ……………………………..
c. Converted his house to a business premises ……………………. …………………………..
d. Took sh. 7,000 from the bank for business use ………………… ………………………..

25. Highlight four internal diseconomies of scale to a firm as a result of expansion. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
BUSINESS STUDIES
565/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of 6 questions.
d) Answer any five questions.
e) All questions carry equal marks.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
20
20
20
20
20
20
Total score

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
1. a) Explain five factors that may promote entrepreneurship in Kenya. (10 Marks)
b) There has been a decline in demand for leather jackets, explain five factors that may have caused
this. (10 Marks)

2. a) Explain five positive effects of inflation to the economy. (10 Marks)

b) Explain five causes of balance of payments disequilibrium. (10 Marks)

3. a) Explain five benefits that a private limited company may enjoy by changing to a public limited
company. (10 Marks)
b) Explain the functions of the following documents as used in home trade (10 Marks)
i). Invoice
ii). Debit note
iii). Credit note
iv). Receipt
v). Statement of account

4. a) The following trial balance relates to XYZ ltd.

XYZ limited
Trial Balance
As at 31st Dec. 2013.

Details Dr CR
Kshs Kshs
Capital 800,000
Opening stock 200,000
Purchases 680,000
Returns 50,000 80,000
Discount 80,000 45,000
Carriage inwards 42,000
Debtors and creditors 200,000 105,000
Sales 1,200,000
Motor vehicles 750,000
Furniture and fittings 250,000
Rent 50,000 60,000
Bank overdraft 42,000
Carriage outwards 30,000
Additional information:
Closing stock was valued at shs. 80,000
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
Required:
Prepare XYZ limited Trading, profit and loss account (10 Marks)
b) Explain any five sources of public finance (10 Marks)

5. a) Describe five types of advertising techniques used in product promotion. (10 Marks)
b) Explain five advantages of a bonded warehouse to the importer. (10 Marks)

6. a) Describe five government-initiated methods that help in the protection of consumers from
exploitation by dishonest traders (10 Marks)
b) The following opening balances were extracted from the books of Masinga Traders on 1st May
2023
Details sh
Furniture 56,000
Capital 80,000
Creditors 20,000
Debtors 25,000
Bank 11,000
Cash 8,000
The following transactions took place in the course of the month:
- Paid a creditor sh 4,500 in cash
- Took sh 3,000 from the bank for family use
- Bought stock sh 18,600 on credit
- Acquired a 10 year bank loan sh 165,000 which was credited to the business bank account
- Purchased land worth sh 82,000 paying by cheque
- Converted a family table worth sh 55000 to business use
- Received sh 7,300 in cash from debtor.
Required: Prepare Masinga Traders Balance sheet at the end May 2023. (10 Marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
BIOLOGY
231/1
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions to Candidates
a) Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above
c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided below each question.
d) This paper consists of 30 questions only.
e) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
f) All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Questions Max. Score Candidate’s Score

1 – 30 80

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
1. How does growth as a characteristic of living organisms differ in plants and animals? (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. (a) State two roles of active transport in animals (2 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Cyanide lowers the rate of active transport. Explain? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The figure below is a diagram of a vertical section of a mammalian tooth.

Name the parts labelled A and B. (2 marks)

(i)
(ii) State 0NE way in which structure D is adapted to its functions. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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4. The figure below shows % saturation of oxygen in blood in fish as water passes along the gill
plate.

% Blood Water
Saturation
of oxygen
Distance along the gill plates
(a) (i) Name the type of blood flow shown in the gill plate. (1mark
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Explain the advantage of the type of flow named in a (i) above. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State organs in humans which display the type of flow named in a (i) above. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. The equation below shows an oxidation reaction of food substances.

C51H98O6 + 145O2 102 CO2 + 98 H2O + energy
a) What do you understand by the term respiratory quotient? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Determine respiratory quotient of the oxidation of food substance. (2marks)

c) Identify the food substance. (1mark)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
6. When any one of the growth parameters such as growth in size or weight, increase in number of
cells are plotted in a graph against time like below, a clear curve is obtained.

State its name. (1mark

7. The embryo of a dry, fully developed seed usually passes through a period of rest after ripening
period and it cannot germinate even when provided with all favorable conditions. State the
significance of this. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. a) Cowpeas seeds were place in a vacuum flask and left for five days. What is the expected
change in composition of gases in the flask on the sixth day? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give a reason for your answer in (a) above (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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9. Biotechnologist works day and night to curb food insecurity using the knowledge of polyploidy
in genetics. Explain the economic importance of such practice? (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Define a backcross? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. The structure below was obtained from an animal cell

a) What is the name of the hair like structure and state its function? (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) From which parts of the mammalian body are these structures found? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. A student was found to have blood group B+.

a) What type of antibody is present in his plasma? (1mark)

b) Which antigens are present in this blood group? (1mark)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
12. Plants relatively have less waste to excrete than animals. Give ONE reasons to explain this
observation, (1marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. State TWO methods by which plants get rid of their waste products. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. To estimate the population size of mosquitoes in Banji village that covers an area of 25km2,
visiting researchers caught 400 mosquitoes which they marked and released. After 24 hours, 200
mosquitoes were caught out of which 120 had not been marked.
(a) Suggest the sampling method described above. (1 mark)

(b) What are the disadvantages of this method? (2 marks)

15. The table below shows stomatal distribution on leaves A and B and their surface area. Use the
information to answer the questions.
Leaf surface A B
Number of Upper leaf 20 5
stomata Lower leaf
surface 0 15
Surface area surface 25 cm2 18cm2

Identify with reasons the habitats of the plant from which the leaves were obtained.
Leaf A:
Habitat: (1 mark)
Reason; (1 mark)
Leaf B:
Habitat: (1 mark)
Reason: (1 mark)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
16. Name the causative agent of the following diseases. (2 marks)
(i) Trichomoniasis.

(ii) Gonorrhea.

17. The diagram below shows a pollen tube as it develops down the style.
Use it to answer the questions that follow;

(i)Name the part labelled G. (1 mark)

(ii)State two functions of part labelled E. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. (a).Define parthenocarpy. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Name the plant hormone that induces fruit ripening. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
19. A group of Form Three students collected a certain specimen for study as shown below. Study it
carefully and use it to answer the questions that follow.

(i)Name the type of metamorphosis that the above specimen undergoes. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)Give any two advantages of the above metamorphosis. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. (i).Give two structural features in a leaf that adapts it to absorb Carbon (IV) Oxide. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)Name the cell organelle in which Carbon (IV) oxide combines with water to form a complex
organic compound takes place. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 21. In an experiment to investigate a factor affecting photosynthesis; leaf of a potted plant, which
had been kept in the dark overnight was covered with an aluminum foil as shown in the diagram
below. The set up was kept in the sunlight for three hours after which food test was carried out.

(a) Which factor was being investigated in the experiment? (1 mark)

(b) Which food test was carried out? (1 mark)

(c) State the results of the food test. (1 mark)

22. Explain how the following plant adaptations minimizes rate of transpiration. (2marks)
a) Sunken stomata.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Thick cuticle.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
23. Explain how drooping of leaves on a hot sunny day is advantageous to a plant. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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24. Name two tissues in plants which are thickened with lignin. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. The diagram below shows the front view of a male reproductive system.

a) Give the functions of the structures labelled X and V. (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) What is the role of Follicle Stimulating Hormone in male reproduction? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

26. How do the following factors hinder self-pollination in flowering plants? (3marks)
a) Self-sterility.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Heterostyly.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Protogyny.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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27. The table below shows the concentration in parts per million of sodium and iodide ions in sea
water and cell sap of a plant.
Sodium ions concentration Iodide ions concentration
Sea water 326 39
Cell sap 162 574

a) i) Which of the two ions intake will be affected if the plant was sprayed with a chemical that
inhibits respiration. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Explain your answer in 27(a) (i) above. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) An experiment was set up as shown in the diagram below.

At the end of the experiment, it was observed that the starch turned blue black while the color of
iodine solution in the beaker did not change. Account for this observation. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
28. State the role of the following organelles: (3 marks)
a)Ribosomes.

b) Chloroplast.

c) Nucleus

29. A process that occurs in plants is represented by the equation below.

C6H12O6 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + Energy
(Glucose) (Ethanol)
(Carbon dioxide)
a) Name the process. (1 marks)

b) State two economic importance of the process named in (a) above. (2 marks)

30. Below is a diagram of an organism.

a) Identify the Class to which the organism belongs. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State two features shown on the diagram that are characteristics of this Class. (2 mk
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
BIOLOGY
231/2
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
- Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
- This paper consists of two sections; A and B.
- Answer ALL the questions in section A in the spaces provided.
- In section B, answer questions 6 (compulsory) and either questions 7 or 8 in the spaces
provided after question 8.
For Examiner’s use only
SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE SCORE
1 8
2 8
A 3 8
4 8
5 8
6 20
B 7 20
8 20
TOTAL SCORE 80
 SECTION A(40 MARKS)
1. Study the flow chart below of a process that takes place in both plants and animals;

a) Name the above process. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) (i) In the above process name the chemical reaction represented by X. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Name the part of the cell where the enzyme controlled reactions in b(i) above takes place.
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Name the product Z in:

i) Plants (1mk)

ii) Animals (1mk)

d) What would be the fate of pyruvic Acid if oxygen supply is availed in the mitochondria of an
animal cell. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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e) What is meant by the term oxygen debt. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. A student set up an experiment as shown in the diagram below to investigate a certain phenomenon.
The petri dish contained moist cotton wool. The set up was placed in darkness and left for 24
hours.

a) What is the aim of the experiment. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) State the expected results after 24 hours. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Account for the results you have stated in (b) above. (5mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
3. (a) Give an example of vestigial structure in humans. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State three evidences of organic evolution. (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) The peppered moth (Biston betularia) exists in many parts of England. It normally rests on barks
of trees. It exists in two major forms; a normal or wild type which is speckled white and mutant
variety which is darker (melanic form). Before industrialization almost all the peppered moth in
England were of white variety. After 1840s the population of the melanic form increased rapidly
especially around the industrial cities. The white form dominated in the rural (non-polluted) areas.
i) Discuss why the lighter (non melanic) form was dominant in rural (non-pollued) areas. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) What factors could have led to the differences in population size of the two variety in the two
areas. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Distinguish between homologous and analogous structures. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
4. The following diagram of a leaf shows what happens in a plant leaf during photosynthesis;

a) Name the gases labeled X and Y (2mks)

X
Y
b) Give two ways in which leaves are adapted to absorb light. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Name the tissue that transports water into the leaf and sugars out of the leaf. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Explain why it’s an advantage for the plant to store carbohydrates as starch rather than as sugars.
(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. (a) What are sex linked genes. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
(b) A normal woman and a haemophiliac man have a family. Using a punnet square and letter H for
normal blood clotting, determine the possible phenotypes of their offsprings. (5mks)

(c) Other than haemophilia give two examples of sex-linked traits. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B:
Answer question 6 (compulsory and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided
6. Two person X and Y drunk volumes of concentrated solution of glucose. The amount of glucose
in their blood was determined at intervals. The results are shown in the table below;
Time (minutes) Glucose level in blood (Mg/100cm3)
X Y
0 87 84
15 112 123
30 139 170
45 116 188
60 100 208
90 95 202
120 92 144
150 88 123

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a) On the grid provided, plot, graphs of glucose level in blood against time on the same axes. (7mks)

b) What was the concentration of glucose in the blood of X and Y at the 20 th minute. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
c) Suggest why the glucose level in the person X stopped rising after 30 minutes while it continued
rising in person Y. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Account for the decrease in glucose level in person X after 30 minutes and person Y after 60
minutes. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) Name the compound that stores energy released during oxidation of glucose. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
f) Explain what happens to excess amino acids. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. (a) Describe how gaseous exchange takes place in terrestrial plant. (10mks)
(b) Describe the mechanism of gaseous exchange in a mammal. (10mks)

8. Explain how abiotic factors affect plant. (20mks)

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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
BIOLOGY
231/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

BIOLOGY CONFIDENTIAL
Each candidate will require the following:
3 bean seedlings as follows:
One grown under normal conditions labelled A
One grown in the dark labelled B
One grown in the dark with unilateral source of light labelled C

NB:
The curvature of the seedling C towards source of light should be obvious.
Germination time 10 – 14 days.
 Iodine solution
 White tile
 Dropper
 2 test-tube
 Mortar & pestle
 2 labels
Coloured photographs

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
BIOLOGY
231/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided.
3. Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
4. You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1 ¾ hours allowed for this paper reading the
whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
5. Additional pages must not be inserted.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Section Maximum Marks Candidate Score

1 13
2 16
3 11
TOTAL SCORE 40

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
1. You are provided with three sets of seedlings labelled A, B and C.
Examine them and answer the questions that follow:
(a) State the conditions under which seedling A and B were grown. (2marks)
A ………………………………………………………………………………………
B……………………………………………………………………………………

(b) (i) Name the type of germination exhibited by the seedlings. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Give a reason for your answer in b (i) above. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) List two observable differences between seedlings A and B. (2marks)

A B

(d) Name the term used to describe the phenomenon exhibited by specimen B (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) (i) Name the response exhibited by the seedlings labelled C. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………

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(ii)Explain how the response named in (e) (i) above occurred. (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(f) Separately, pluck, cut and crush the leaves from seedling A and B.
Place the crushed extract into separate test-tubes labelled A1 and B2.
Add 2ml of water to form solutions A1 and B1 respectively.
(i) Using the reagent provided, carry out food test on A1 and B1. (4 marks)
Test for Procedure Observation Conclusion

(ii) Account for the results obtained (f) (i) above. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
2. Below are photographs of animals labeled R and T. Study them carefully and answer the
questions that follow.

a)
i) Name the phylum to which the animal in photograph R belongs. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii).List three characteristics found in members belonging to the phylum of specimen R only.
(3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii).Which class does the animal in photograph R belong. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
b).Using observable features only, state three differences between animals in photograph R and T
(3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c).On the photograph T name the parts labeled 2 and 3. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Study the photographs below and use them to answer the questions that follow;

A1
A2

Remains of
style

B1

B2

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
a) Using the number of flowers arising from the shoot of each plant, state the flowers labelled A1
and B1 (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Name the class of the plant from which each of the flowers was obtained. Give a reason for your
answer in each case (2 marks)
Flower Class Reason
A1

B1

c) Name the parts labelled S and T (2 marks)

S……………………………………………………………………………………
T ……………………………………………………………………………………

d) What type of ovary is shown in flower B1? Give a reason for your answer. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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e) i) Name the agent responsible for the process represented by the arrow labelled R in B2
(1 mark)
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ii) Give a reason for your answer in e (i) above (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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iii)List two other features (not shown in the photograph) expected of such flowers as B1 (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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f) (i) Name an agent that brings about a similar process as the one shown by the arrow in B2
for A1 (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Give a reason for your answer in f(i) above (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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g) What is the likely agent of dispersal of the specimen labelled B2? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
CHEMISTRY
233/1
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
 Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
 Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
 KNEC Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
 All working must be clearly shown where necessary.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1-26 80

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1(a) State the condition under which a Bunsen burner produces a non-luminous flame. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Write an equation for the reaction that takes place in a luminous flame assuming the laboratory
gas is butane. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c)One of the regions in the non-luminous flame is the unburnt gas region. Describe how the
presence of this region can be shown using a piece of paper. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. The diagram below is a section of a model of the structure of element T.

KEY
∓ ∓ ∓ ∓ ∓ ∓
+ Nuclear Charge
∓ ∓∓∓∓∓∓ ̶ An Electron
∓ ∓∓∓∓∓∓

a) State the type of bonding that exist in T. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) In which group of the periodic table does element T belong? Give a reason. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. A radioactive isotope of lead undergoes radioactive decay in two stages as shown below:
216 212 212
85𝑃𝑏 (i) 83𝑋 (ii) 84𝑌

(a) Identify the particle emitted at each stage. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b) State one use of radioactive isotopes. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4(i)State the observations made when Hydrogen Sulphide gas is bubbled through aqueous Lead
(II) Nitrate solution. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Write an ionic equation for the reaction above. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. The set up below was used to investigate the reaction between dry hydrogen gas and Copper (II)
Oxide.

(a) Name substance A. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State the observation made in the combustion tube. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Explain the observation in (b) above. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 6(a)Consider the following equation. A(g) + B(g) AB(g)

AB(g)
A(g) + B(g)
Energy
content

Reaction path

On the same axis, sketch the graph when a catalyst is added. (1mk)
H H

(b)Hydrazine H – N – N – H is used as a fuel in rockets. Using the bond energies in the table
below. Calculate the enthalpy change for combustion of hydrazine. (3mks)
N2H4(l) + O2(g) N2(g) + 2H2O(g)
Bond Bond energy kJ/mol
N–H 388
N–N 163
O=O 496
N≡N 944
O–H 463

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7. The diagram below represents large scale manufacture of hydrochloric acid. Study it and answer
the questions that follow:

(a) Identify
(i) Gas A (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Gas B (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Write the chemical equation for the reaction between gas A and gas B. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) State the role of glass beads in the process. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Use the following information on substances S, T, V and Hydrogen to answer the question that
follow.
(i) T displaces V from a solution containing V ions.
(ii) Hydrogen reacts with the heated oxide of S but has no effect on heated oxide of F.

a) Arrange substances S, T, V and Hydrogen in order of increasing reactivity. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) If T and V are divalent metals, write an ionic equation for the reaction in (i) above. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Describe how the PH of anti-acid (Actal tablet) can be determined in the laboratory. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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10(a)A student electroplated a spoon with copper metal. Write an equation for the reaction at the
cathode. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Calculate the time in minutes required to deposit 1.184 grams of Copper if a current of 2A was
used. (1 Faraday = 96500 coulombs, Cu = 63.5) (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11.When steam was passed over heated charcoal as shown in the diagram below, hydrogen gas and
Carbon (II) oxide were formed.

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a) Write a balanced equation for the reaction which takes place in the combustion tube. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Name two uses of Carbon (II) oxide gas, which are also the uses of hydrogen gas. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

A12.A given sample of ink is a mixture of red dye, blue dye and orange dye. The blue dye is least
absorbed than the rest and the red dye is the most sticky.
a) Complete the paper chromatogram below showing their separation. (1½mks)

(b)The above dyes are soluble in water. Describe how a pure sample of blue dye can be obtained.
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Name the solvent used in paper chromatography. (½ mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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13.In an experiment to investigate the conductivity of substances, a student used the set up shown
below.

The student noted that the bulb did not light.

a) What had been omitted in the set up. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain why the bulb lights when the omission is corrected? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14.The results of an experiment to determine the solubility of potassium chlorate in water at 30 oC

were as follows.
Mass of dish = 15.86g
Mass of dish + saturated solution at 30oC = 26.8g
Mass of dish + solid potassiumchlorate after evaporation to dryness = 16.68g
Calculate the mass of saturated solution containing 60g of water at 30 oC. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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15(a) Give the systematic names of the following compounds. (2mks)
CH3

(i) CH3 – C – CH3

CH3
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) CH3C≡ CCH2CH3
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)Describe a chemical test that can be carried out inorder to distinguish between.

CH3

CH3 – C – CH3 and CH3C ≡ CCH2CH3 (2mks)

CH3
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23
16(a) Draw a labelled diagram showing the atomic structure of 11𝑁𝑎 (2mks)

(b)The atomic number of phosphorous is 15. Draw a dot (˖) and cross (x) diagram for the
compound formed when phosphorous react with chlorine. (1mk)

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17(i) State Gay-Lussaic’s Law. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) 15cm3 of a gaseous hydrocarbon reacted completely with 45cm3 of Oxygen gas. 30cm3 of
carbon (IV) oxide were formed. Determine the formula of the hydrocarbon given that all volume
of gases were measured under same conditions of temperature and pressure. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18.Consider the following reactions

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

The enthalpy is -92.4kJ per mole of nitrogen.

a) Give the enthalpy change per mole of ammonia. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State and explain how each of the following affects the yield of ammonia: .
(i) Increase in temperature. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Finely divided iron. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19.Excess iron was allowed to rust in cm3 of moist air remaining was measured at 1
atmospheric pressure each day. The results were as follows.
Day 0 1 3 4 5 6 7 8
Volume (cm3) 2000 1900 1720 1660 1620 1600 1600 1600

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(i) Write an equation for the formation of rust. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) On which day was the reaction complete. Explain. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) What is the percentage volume of oxygen in air. Show your working. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20.Element P3+ and Q2- belong to period three of the periodic table.
(i) Write the electronic arrangement of their atoms. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Write the formula of the compound formed by P and Q. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21(i)Give the IUPAC name of the following:

CH3CH2COOCH2CH3 (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Give the chemical name to which the compound you have named in (i) above belongs.(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii)Name the two substances used in the formation of the compound in (i) above. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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22.The set up below was used to investigate some properties of two gases M and N.

When beaker A was filled with gas M, the level of water in the glass tube rose to point II. When
the experiment was repeated using gas N, the level of water dropped to point III. Explain these
observations. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23.Nitric (V) acid may be prepared in the laboratory by the action of concentrated sulphuric (VI)
acid on a suitable nitrate and distilling off the nitric V acid.
(a)Why is the apparatus used in the preparation of nitric (V) acid made of glass. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Pure nitric (V) acid is colourless but the products in the laboratory preparation is usually yellow.
Explain. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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24.Starting with copper metal, describe how a pure sample of Copper (II) carbonate can be
prepared. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25.Aluminum is both malleable and ductile.

(a)Differentiate between malleable and ductile. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)State one use of aluminium based on:

(i) Malleability (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Ductility (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

26.Sulphur (IV) oxide and nitrogen (IV) oxide reacts as shown in the equation below.
SO2(g) + NO2(g) SO3(g) + NO(g)
(i) Using the oxidation numbers of either sulphur or nitrogen, show that this is redox reaction.(2mks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Identify the reducing agent. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
CHEMISTRY
233/2
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions to candidates
(a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(c) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used.
(d) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
(e) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use Only

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 11
2 13
3 13
4 12
5 11
6 08
7 12
Total score 80

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 1. State two factors that should be considered when choosing fuel for cooking. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) The diagram below represents a set –up that was used to determine the molar heat of
combustion of ethanol

During the experiment, the data given below was recorded

Volume of water 450cm3
Initial temperature of water 250 C
Final temperature of water 46.50 C
Mass of ethanol + Lamp before burning 125.5g
Mass of ethanol + Lamp after burning 124.0g
Calculate the:
i. Heat evolved during the experiment (density of water=1g/cm3,Specific heat capacity of water
=4.2Jg-K - (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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ii. Molar heat of combustion of ethanol (C=12.0, O=16.0, H=1.0) (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Write the thermal chemical equation for the complete combustion of ethanol. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) The value of the molar heat of combustion of ethanol obtained (b) (ii) above is lower than the
theoretical value. State two sources of error in the experiment. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) Define the term molar heat of combustion (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. The grid below shows a section of the periodic table. The letters do not represent the actual
symbols of the elements.

K L M N P
Q R S T V
W

a) Name the family to which element P belongs. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Which two elements will form carbonates that do not decompose on heating. (2 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) With a reason, identify an element in period three with the largest atomic radius. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Write the formula of the compound formed between L and M (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) State two uses of element R and for each use, state property of element R that makes it possible
for the use
(i) Use ( 1/2mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
Property (1/2 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) Use (1/2 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
Property (1/2 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………

f) Using dots (.) and cross (x), show bonding in the compound formed between R and oxygen .
(2 marks)

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g) In terms of structure and bonding, explain why the boiling point of the oxide of L is higher than
that of N. (1 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

h) Calculate the volume of the gas produced when 1.95g of element W reacts with water
(W= 39, Molar gas volume at S.T.P= 24,000cm3) (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Use the information below on standard electrode potentials to answer the questions that follow
Electronic reaction EƟ volts
C2+ (aq) + 2e- → C(s) +0.34
D2+ (aq) + 2e- → D (s) +0.44
E+ (aq) + e- → E (s) -2.92
F2+ (aq) + 2e- → F (s) -2.71
G2+(aq) + 2e- → G(s) -0.14
½H2 (g) + e- → H- (aq) +2.87
½K2 (g) + e- → K-(aq) +1.09
L+ (aq) + e- → ½L2 (aq) 0.00

a) i) Identify the strongest reducing agent. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Calculate the e.m.f of the cell obtained by connecting half cells C and D (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) Draw a well labeled diagram of a cell formed by connecting half cells C and D. 3 marks)

c) he figure below shows the electrolysis of dilute sulphuric (VI) acid

i) On the diagram label the cathode and anode (2 mark)

ii) Name the gases U and V (2 mark)
Gas U …………………………………………………………………...…………..
Gas V …………………………………………………………………………

iii) Write the equation taking place at the anode (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Define the term electrolysis (1 mrks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e)State two applications of electrolysis (2 mrks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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4. The flow chart below outlines some processes involved in the extraction of copper from copper
pyrites. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Name the following: (3 marks)

(i) Ore P ………………………………………………………………………………...…..

(ii) Gas L………………………………………………………………………………….

(iii) Slag M ……………………………………………………………………………...….

(b) (i) Explain how the ore is concentrated. ( 1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Why is it necessary to grind the ore into powder? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(c ) Give the purpose of adding silicon (IV) oxide compound G into the smelting furnace. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Pure copper is obtained from impure copper by electrolysis. Name the material used as anode
and cathode. (1 mark)
Anode ……………………………………………………………………………………
Cathode …………………………………………………………………………………….

(e) What effects does this process of copper extraction have to the environment? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(f) State two uses of copper metal. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(g) A current of 100 Amperes was passed for 20 days. What mass of copper in kg was deposited at
the cathode? (Cu = 64, If = 96500 C) (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. The table below shows the solubility of potassium nitrate at different temperatures.
Temperature 0 c 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
Solubility g/100g 80 88 96 104 114 124 136 148 162 180
of water

a) Plot a graph of solubilities of potassium nitrate against temperature. (3mk)

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b) From your graph determine;
i) the solubility of the potassium nitrate at 650c. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) the mass of potassium nitrate that would dissolve in 50g of water at 820c. (2mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Determine the molar concentration of potassium nitrate at 370 c. (N=14, O= 16, K= 39. Assume
the density of solution to be 1g/cm3 ) (3mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) 130g of potassium nitrate salt was added to 100g of water and heated to 900c. It was then cooled
to 150 c.
i) At what temperature were the crystals first formed? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Calculate the mass of crystals formed. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. The figure below shows the apparatus used to burn hydrogen in air. Use it to answer the
questions that follow.

i) State the role of substance X (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
ii) Give the name of the substance that could be used as X (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………….

iii) State the role of the suction pump (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) Name the product Y formed (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

v) Give a simple physical test to prove the identity of Y (2 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

vi) State the difference between “dry” and “anhydrous”. (2 mrks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7 a)Name the following compounds (3 mrks)

i) CH3CH2CH2OH

ii). CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH

iii). CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH3

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b). Study the scheme below and answer the questions that follow

Gas A
KMnO4 Sodium
Compound C Propan – 1 - 01
+
H Compound B
Regent D

Polymer E Propene Bromine F

gas
Step 1
Propane
Cracking

G Methane

i.Identify product
A. (1 mark)
F. (1 mark)
ii.Name the compound C (1 mark)

iii.State the conditions for step 1 (2 mark)

iv.Name the process leading to formation of compound C (1 mark)

v.Write an equation for the reaction leading to the formation of methane. (1 mark)

vi.Identify reagent D. (1 mark)

vii.Draw the structure of F. (1 mark)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
CHEMISTRY
233/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Chemistry confidential
Instruction to schools
Apart from the common laboratory and chemicals, each candidate requires the following;
A
 Solution D -100cm3
 Solution K -100cm3
 Solution N -100cm3
 Solution R -100cm3
 One burette 0-50ml
 One pipette 25ml and pipette filler
 Six dry test tube and test tube holder
 One thermometer
 One metallic spatula
 One boiling tube
 One 10ml measuring cylinder
 250ml plastic beaker
 Distilled water
 2-conical flask
 About 2g of solid NaHCO3
B: ACCESS TO
 Source of heat
 Distilled water.
 Litmus paper
 2M NaoH
 2M Ba(No3)2
 2M NH3(aq)
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 2M NaCl
 Phenolphthalein
 Acidified potassium dichromate
 Bromine water
C) FURTHER INFORMATION
Solid J - Maleic acid (0.5g)
Solid D hydrated Zncl2 (0.5g)
Solution D -Sulphuric (VI) acid 1M
Solution R (NaoH) 1M
Solution N prepared by dissolving 100cm3 concentration of HCL in 400cm3 concentration of HCl in
400cm3 distilled water then top up to make one liter (100cm3)

Solution K (NaOH) dissolves 40g in 400cm3 made upto litre (100cm3)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
CHEMISTRY
233/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(i) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(ii) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(iii) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(iv) You are not allowed to start working with apparatus for the first 15 minutes of 2𝟏⁄𝟒Hours
allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you read the question and make sure you have all
the chemicals and apparatus required.
(iv) Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
(v) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
(vi) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages
are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:
Question Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
1 20
2 13
3 7
Total Score 40

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 QUESTION 1
(a) You are provided with the following
(i) Sulphuric(VI) acid labeled a solution D
(ii) Solution R prepared by dissolving 40g of NaOH in 400cm3 of distilled water and made up to 1
litre.
You are required to determine the molarity of Sulphuric (VI) acid.
PROCEDURE
(i) Fill the burette with Sulphuric (VI) acid.
(ii) Using pipette and pipette filter place 25cm3 of solution R into conical flask.
(iii) Add 2-3 drops of phenolphthalein indicator.
(iv) Titrate solution R against solution D.
(v) Repeat the titrations to obtain two concordant titrates
(vi) Record your results in the table below.
I II III
Final burette reading (cm3)
Initial burette reading (cm3)
Volume of solution D used(cm3)
(4mks)
i) Calculate the average volume of acid solution D used . (1mk)

ii) Calculate the number of moles NaOH solution (Solution R) used. 1mk)

iii) Calculate the number of moles of acid used. (1mk)

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iv) Determine the molarity of Sulphuric (vi) acid. (1mk)

b) You are provided with the following;

(i) 0.85M HCL labeled solution N.
(ii) Sodium hydroxide labeled solution K.
You are required to determine the molar heat of neutralization of solution N
Procedure
i. Measure 50cm3 of solution N and transfer it into a 250cm plastic beaker provided.
ii. Record the initial temperature of solution N to the nearest 0.50c.
iii. Rinse the burette thoroughly with distilled water and fill it up to the 0.0cm3 mark with
sodium hydroxide solution ( Solution K)
iv.From the burette add 10cm3 of solution K to solution N in the beaker. Stir gently with the
thermometer and record the new temperature in the table below.
v. Continue adding 10cm3 portions of Solution K recording new temperature after each addition
until 80cm3 of K has been added
Volume of Solution K 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
added (cm3)
Temperature 0C
(3mks)
a) Plot a graph of temperature (y-axis) against total volume of sodium hydroxide (Solution K) (x-
axis) (3mks)

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i) From the graph determine the maximum temperature reached. (1mk)

ii) What is the temperature change? (1mk)

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b) From the graph determine the volume of sodium hydroxide required for complete neutralization
of hydrochloric acid. (1mk)

c) Write an Ionic equation for the neutralization reaction. (1mk)

d) Calculate the heat evolved when volume of sodium hydroxide in (c) was neutralized. Density of
solution 1g/cm3,C=4.2j/g/k. (1mk)

e) Calculate the molar heat of neutralization. (1mk)

QUESTION 2
You are provided with solid D. Carry out the following tests and record your observation and
inferences in the spaces provided.
a) Describe the appearance of Solid D. (1mk)

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b) Place about half of solid D in dry test. Heat it strongly and test for any gas produced using a blue
and red litmus paper.
Observation Inferences

1mk 1mk

c) Place the rest of Solid D in boiling tube and add about 10cm3 of distilled water. Shake well and
add about 2cm3 portions for each of the test below.
Observation Inferences

1mk 1mk

i) To one portion, add aqueous NaOH drop wise until in excess

Observation Inferences

1mk 𝟏⁄ mk
𝟐

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ii) To the second portion, add aqueous ammonia drop wise until in excess
Observation Inferences

1mk 𝟏⁄ mk
𝟐

iii) To a third portion add about 5 drops of sodium chloride solution.

Observation Inferences

1mk 𝟏⁄ mk
𝟐
iv) To a fourth portion, add dilute Barium nitrate solution.
Observation Inferences

1mk 𝟏⁄ mk
𝟐

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v) To a fifth, add lead (ii) nitrate solution, warm mixture
Observation Inferences

1mk 1mk

QUESTION 3
i) You are provided with solid J. carry out the tests below and record your observation and
inferences to the spaces provided.
Place a half of Solid J in a clean metallic spatula and ignite it on Bunsen burner flame.
Observation Inferences

1mk 1mk

Put the remaining portion of solid J in a boiling tube and add about 8cm3 of distilled water. Shake to
dissolve.
ii) To about 2cm3 of solution J in a test tube add 2 to 3 drops of bromine water.
Observation Inferences

1mk 1mk

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iii) To about 2cm3 of solution J in a test tube, add about 1cm3 of acidified potassium dichromate
(vi). Warm gently and allow to stand for a minute.
Observation Inferences

1mk 𝟏⁄ mk
𝟐
iv) To about 2cm3 of solution in a test tube, add a small amount of solid Sodium hydrogen
carbonate.
Observation Inferences

1mk 𝟏⁄ mk
𝟐

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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
PHYSICS
232/1
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS
1. The paper consists of two sections, Section A and B.
2. Answer ALL the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided.
3. ALL working MUST be clearly shown.
4. Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
5. Take g = 10m/s2 and density of water = 1000kg/m3, LV = 2.6 x 106Jkg-1, Lf= 3.3 x 105J-1kg

FOR EXAMINER’S USE:

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1-13 25
14 11
15 10
16 11
17 10
18 13
TOTAL 80

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A (25 MARKS)
1. The micrometer screw gauge in figure below gives the reading of the diameter of a piece of a wire.
Given that the length of the wire whose diameter was read by using figure below is 4cm, determine
the volume of the wire. (3 marks)

35

30

25

2. The figure below shows two masses placed on light pistons. The pistons are held stationary by
water of density 1000kgm-3. Determine the weight W. (2marks)

Weight W

Mass of 5kg
A = 10cm2 cm2
20 cm

A = 100cm2 Water

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3. The following figure shows the velocity-time graph for the journey of a car in 100 minutes.

35

30 B C

25
Velocity (ms-1)

20

15

10

5
A D
20 40 60 80 100
Time (min)

i) Determine the acceleration of the car between A and B and between C and D. (2 marks)

ii) Determine the distance covered by the car during the journey. (1 marks)

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4. The result of an experiment to investigate how the total length of a spring varies with load on the
end of the spring is as shown in the graph below. (Assume Hooke’s Law is obeyed)

Calculate the energy increase stored by the spring when the load is increased from 4N to 8N.
(2marks)

5. State the two constant forces that act on a body falling through a fluid. (1mark)

6. A fixed mass of gas is enclosed in a vessel. Explain in terms of molecular theory how the pressure
measured at the wall of the vessel is produced by the gas molecules. (2 marks)

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7. A uniform narrow-bored tube closed at one end contains dry air which is sealed by a thread of
mercury15.0cm long. The tube is held in the following two positions as shown in the diagram
below

Mercury
15 cm 30 cm Air

Air
Mercury
20 cm 15 cm

(i) Calculate the atmospheric pressure (2 marks)

8. Explain the cause of random motion of smoke particles as observed in Brownian motion
experiment using a smoke cell. (1mark)

9. The figure below shows a uniform bar of length 1.0 m pivoted near one end. The bar is kept in
equilibrium by a spring balance as shown:

Spring balance

20cm

10cm

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Given that the reading of the spring balance is 0.6 N, determine the reaction force at the pivot.
(3marks)

10. State the reason why it is colder during the night when the sky is clear than when it is cloudy.
(1mark)

11. In terms of intermolecular distances explain anomalous expansion of water. (1mark)

12. A resultant force F acts on a body of mass M causing an acceleration of A1 on the body. When
the same force acts on a body of mass 2M, it causes an acceleration of A2. Express A2 in terms of
A1 (2marks)

13. Figure shows a pith ball being lifted into a funnel end of a blower.

Air blown in

Funnel

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 Explain this observation (2marks)

SECTION B (55 MARKS)

14. An object is fired vertically upward from the ground level with a velocity of 50ms -1 and reaches
a maximum height, h. It falls back to the ground and bounces to a height of 4m.
a) Sketch a velocity time graph to represent the motion of the object from the time it is fired till it
bounces to the height of 4m. (1mark)

V m/s

t (s)

b.) Calculate the maximum height reached h. (2marks)

c) The figure below represents a wheel and axle used as a machine, whose efficiency is 80% to
raise 400N of building materials. The wheel and axle has diameters of 75cm and 15cm
respectively.

Wheel

Axle

Effort

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i) Mark on the diagram the correct position and direction of the load to be lifted. (1Mark)
ii) Name the principle on which this machine works. (1Mark)

iii) Calculate the effort needed to raise the load. (3Marks)

iv) The machine is operated manually and raises the load to a height of 5m in 20 seconds.
Calculate the power developed by the operator. (3Marks)

15. a) State what is meant by the term specific latent heat of vaporization. (1 mark)

b) In an experiment to determine the specific latent heat of vaporization of water, steam at 100 0C was
passed into water contained in a well lagged copper calorimeter. The following measurements were
made.
Mass of calorimeter =50g
Initial mass of water =70g
Final mass of calorimeter + water + condensed steam = 123g
Initial temperature of water + calorimeter = 50 C
Final temperature of mixture = 300C
(specific heat capacity of water=4200JKg-1K-1 and specific heat capacity of copper=390 JKg-1K-1.}
Determine:
i) Heat gained by calorimeter alone (2 marks)

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 ii) Heat gained by water only. (2 marks)

iii) Given that L is the specific latent heat of evaporation of steam

I. Write an expression for the heat given out by steam. (1 mark)

II. Determine the value of L (2 marks)

c) Steam at 100oc was passed for some time into ice at 0oc. At the end, temperature of the water
obtained was 52oC and its mass 2g. Calculate;
ii) Mass of the ice used. (2marks)

16 a) Define a radian (1mk)

b) Three masses are placed in a rotating table at distances 6cm, 9cm and 12cm respectively from
thecanter of rotation. When the frequency of rotation is varied it is noted that each mass slides off
at a different frequency of rotation of the table. Table 1 shows the frequency at which each mass
slides off.
Radius, r (cm) 12 9 6
Sliding off frequency rev/s 0.68 0.78 1.0

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i) State two factors that determine the frequency at which each mass slides off. (2 marks)

ii) Oil is now poured on the table before placing the masses. Explain the effect of this on the frequency
at which the mass slides off. (2 marks)

c) A marked point on a rim of a wheel has a linear velocity of 11.2m/s. If the rim has a radius of 0.8m
Calculate;
i)The angular velocity of the point (2 marks)

ii)The centripetal acceleration (2 marks)

d) The figure below shows a bucket filled with water moving round in a vertical circular path of
radius 1m
C Bucket

D B

If the mass of water is 5kg and the speed of the bucket is 20m/s Show by calculation that this net
force is greater at point A than at point C. (2 marks)

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17. The table below shows the volume V of a certain mass of a gas at different temperatures, T,
obtained in an experiment to verify Charles law.
V (cm3) 7.0 7.6 8.2 8.6 8.8
T (oC) 15 40 65 80 90
(a) Draw a set-up of apparatus that could be used to verify the law. (2marks)

(b) i) Plot a graph of volume (y-axis) against temperature. (3marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 ii) From the graph determine the volume of the gas at 0oc. (1Mark)

iii) Use the graph to determine the rate of expansion of the gas. (2Marks)

iv) Given that V=KT+C, write down the values of K and C. (2Marks)

18) (a) State Archimedes’ principle. (1Mark)

b) A student was provided with water in a beaker, a spring balance, a metal block, a cork and a string.
Using the arrangements shown in figure below she recorded the following results

W1 W2 W3

Cork

Metal block Cork

Metal block

Weight of cork in air = W1

Weight of cork in air and metal in water = W2
Weight of both cork and metal in water = W3

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Derive an expression for the relative density of the cork. (3marks)

(c) A wooden block of mass 50g floats with 20% of its volume above the water surface and kept
in place by string as shown below. The tension in the string is 0.06N.

Calculate: -
(i) The upthrust experienced by the object. (1 Mark)

(ii) The volume of the water displaced. (2 Marks)

(iii) The density of the object. (2 Marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
(iv) What would happen if the string was cut and what volume of water would the block finally
displace? (2 Marks)

d) The rubber used to make a balloon weighs 0.1kg.The balloon is inflated to a volume of 0.5m3with
hydrogen whose density is 9.0 x10-2Kg/m3.Determine the maximum load the balloon can lift.
(Density of air=1.3Kg/m3) (3marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
PHYSICS
232/2
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:

(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two Sections A and B.
(d) Answer all the questions in sections A and B in the spaces provided.
(e) All working must be clearly shown in the spaces provided.
(f) Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

Section Question Maximum Candidate’s
Score Score
A 1 11
12
13
B 14
15
16
17
Total Score 80

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A: (25 MARKS)
1.State the two laws of reflection of light. (2 marks)

2.A positively charged rod is brought near the cap of a lightly charged electroscope. The leaf
divergence first reduces and as the rod comes nearer, it’s divergence increases.
(a) State the charge on the electroscope. (1 mark)

(b) Explain the behaviour on the leaf. (2 marks)

3. The figure below shows a simple cell. Use it to answer question 3 and 4 below.

Name the parts labelled B. (1 marks)

Explain why the bulb goes off after sometimes. (1 mark)

4. Why is repulsion the sure test for the polarity of a magnet? (1 mark)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
5. The figure below shows a container loader which uses electromagnet to offload containers from
a ship.

(i) Why should the container be made of iron? (1 mark)

(ii) State two ways in which the loader can be made to lift a heavier container. (2 marks)

6.. The figure below shows an object O and its image I formed by a concave mirror. The diagram is
drawn to scale.

0 I

Using a suitable ray, determine the focal length (f) and the radius of curvature (r) of the
mirror. (3 marks)

f ……………… cm

r……………….. cm

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7 The following are electromagnetic waves and some of their characteristics.
A - Have high penetrating power
-Used to sterilize medical equipment
- Used to detect flaws in metals in industry
B - Causes heating effect
-Used in cooking, heating and drying
-Used in heat seeking missiles
C -High penetrating power
-Used to locate bone fractures
- Used to control germs and pests

Arrange the waves in order of increasing frequency (1mark)

8. The figure below shows a 6V battery connected to an arrangement of resistors. Determine the
current flowing through the 2Ω resistor. (3marks)

9.The figure below shows a set up to study sound waves.

State and explain what is observed on the bell when the switch is closed. (2 marks)

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10.A water wave whose wavelength is 7.5cm in the deep end of an inclined tank has a wavelength
of 3.0cm in the shallow end. If the speed of the wave in the shallow end is 0.6msˉ¹, calculate it’s
speed in the deep end. (3 marks)

11.The diagrams below show waves going through an opening. Draw the wave patterns of the
aperture. (2 marks)

SECTION B: (55 MARKS) ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

12. (a) (i) State the difference between gamma and X-rays in the way they are produced. (1mk)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 (ii) Give a reason why the target of an x ray tube is made of metals of high melting points.
1mark)

(iii) State with a reason the effect on the x rays produced in an x ray tube, when pd across the
tube is increased. (2marks)

(iv) X rays are used for detecting cracks in metal beams.

I. State the type of x-rays used. (1mark)

II. Give a reason for your answer in (i) above. (1mark)

(b) in a certain X ray tube the electrons are accelerated by the p.d. of 12000V. Assuming all the
energy goes to produce X-rays, determine the frequency of x rays produced. (Planck’s constant =
6.62 x 10-34Js, charge of an electron = 1.6 x 1019 (3 marks)

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13 (a) The figure below shows the main features of a cathode ray tube (CRT) of a cathode ray
oscilloscope (CRO).
Electron Deflecting

gun system
X-plates
Cathode Y-plates
Anodes
Filament Grid
Fluorescent
(Cathode screen

heat supply) Spot

Electron beam

– +
Vacuum

(i) Describe how the electrons are produced in the tube. (2 marks)

(ii) State and explain the function of the grid. (2 marks)

(b) The diagram in figure below shows the screen of a CRO displaying the
waveform of a certain a.c. signal. 4 cm

4 cm

Y-gain = 80 V/division

Time base control = 2.5 ms/division

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Determine:
(i) The frequency of the a.c. signal. (3 marks)

(ii) The peak to peak voltage of the a.c. signal. (2 marks)

14 (a) .The diagram below shows the National Grid system.

What type of transformer is;

X………………………………………… (1mark)
Y…………………………………………. (1mark)

b) A house has the following appliances

Appliance Power rating Time used in hours per
W day
Cooker 4000 1
TV set 150 3
Electric kettle 2000 0.5
Radio 300 6

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
i) Determine the appropriate fuse which would be required for the cooker and the radio
respectively. The 240V mains available fuses are rated 40A, 35A, 20A, 13A, 3A &1A.(2marks)

ii) Calculate the total cost of electricity paid in a month of 30 days given that all the appliances are
used as shown above and 1KWh costs ksh1.85. (3 marks)

iii) State with reason the fuse suitable for the mains switch. (2marks)

(iv) State one advantage of using circuit breakers over fuses. (1mark)

15 (a) State what is meant by refractive index of a material. 1 mark)

(b) The figure represents a ray of light falling normally on the curved surface of a semi-circular
plastic block at X, meeting the opposite face at an angle of incidence of 30 0 and emerging into
the air at an angle of 400.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
(i) State and explain what happens to the ray as it moves from:
I) Air to glass at X. (1marks)

II) From glass to air at O. (1marks

(ii) Calculate refractive index of the plastic. (3marks)

(iii) State the conditions to be satisfied for total internal reflection to occur. (2marks)

(iv)Calculate the critical angle for this plastic. (2marks)

16. (a) State what is meant by the term capacitance. (1mark)

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(b) State two factors that determine capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor (2marks)

(c) The figure below shows a network of capacitors in series.

c1 c2 c3

12V
.
(i) Derive an expression for their effective capacitance CE (3marks)

(ii) Given that C1=10.5µF, C2 =2µF and C3= 3µF.

Calculate effective capacitance CEin (i) above and hence
Determine the charge stored on each capacitor. (3marks)

(d) State two applications of capacitors. (2marks).

17 (a) Define the term principal focus for a convex lens (l mark)

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(b) Figure 7 below shows an object A and its image B when an optical device is placed
between A and B

i. State two characteristics of the image B (2marks)

ii. Name the optical device that should be placed between A to produce image B (l mark)

iii. Find the angle at which two mirrors are inclined when the number of images formed by the
mirror is eleven. .(2 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2½ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

CONFIDENTIAL
Each candidate will require the following.
QUESTION 1:
1. An ammeter (Range 0 – 1 A).
2. A volt meter (Range 0 – 3, or 0 – 5 Volts).
3. Two cells (Size D).
4. A switch.
5. A wire labelled L mounted on a millimeter scale.
(A nichrome resistance wire of diameter 0.30 ± 0.02)
6. A micro-meter screw gauge (to be shared).
7. Six connecting wires at least four with crocodile clips.
QUESTION 2:
PART A
1. Triangular glass prism.
2. Four optical pins.
3. Some celllotape.
4. A soft board.
5. A plain sheet of paper.
PART B
1. 100 ml beaker (Glass) Transparent
2. A meter rule.
3. A source of light (bulb or candle)
4. A screen.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Instructions to candidates
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
1
d) You are supposed to spent the first 15 minutes of the 2 hours allowed for this paper reading the
2
whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
e) Marks are given for a clear record of the observations actually made, their suitability, accuracy
and the use made of them.
f) Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made
g) Non-progmmable silent electronics calculators may be used.
h) Candidates should answer the questions in English.
For Examiner`s Use Only
Question 1 a b d e f(i) f(ii) g
Maximum Score 1 1 5 5 3 3 2 Total
Candidate`s Score

QUESTION 2 a b d e f(i) f(ii) i j k(i) k(ii) k(iii)

Maximum Score 2 2 1 2 1 3 4 1 1 1 2
Candidate`s Score Total

GRAND TOTAL

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QUESTION ONE
1. You are provided with the following:
 An ammeter
 A voltmeter
 Two cells (size D)
 A cell holder
 A switch
 A wire labelled L mounted on a millimeter scale
 A micrometer screw gauge (to be shared)
 Six connecting wires at least four with crocodile clips
Proceed as follows:
a) Using a micrometer screw gauge, measure and record the diameter d of the wire L.
(1 mark)
d = ……………………………………….mm

d = ……………………………………….m

b) Place the two cells in series in the cell holder and use the voltmeter to measure the total
electromotive force (emf) E0 of the battery. (1 mark)

E0 = ………………………………………V

c) Starting with the switch open, connect the circuit as shown in figure 1 below. P and Q are points
on the wire L such that PQ is 60 cm. (PQ should remain 60 cm throughout the experiment)
N is a point on the wire such that PN is 10cm (0.1 m)

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 Figure 1
d) (i) Close the switch and record the current I. (1 mark)

I = …………………………………A.

(ii) Measure and record in table 1 the potential differences across PN.

(iii) Measure and record the potential difference across PN for the other values of PN shown in
table 1 and complete the table. (The current is expected to remain constant)
Hint: The switch should be crossed only when reading the voltmeter.

Table 1 (4 marks)
Length PN (m) 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6

p.d (V)

𝒗
Resistance ( )𝜴
𝟏

e) On the grid provided, plot a graph of resistance (y-axis) against length. (5 mark)

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f) From the graph, determine:
(i)the slope S and its units. (3 marks)

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(ii) the constant K and its units given that
4𝑘
𝑠= (3 marks)
𝜋𝑑 2

g) Determine constant t given that

𝐸0−𝑣𝑛
𝑡=
𝐼

Where Vn is the p.d at PN = 0.6 m. (2 marks)

QUESTION TWO
2. You are provided with the following:
 Triangular glass prism
 Four optical pins
 Some sellotape
 A soft board
 A plain sheet of paper

Proceed as follows:
PART A
a) Fix the plain sheet of paper on the soft board using some sellotape. Place the triangular prism on
the paper and trace its outline on the sheet of paper. Remove the prism and use a ruler to extend
the three sides of the outline. See Figure2.

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 Figure 2
Measure angle A and the length 𝒍.

A = …………………………………………………………. (1 mark)

𝒍 = ………………………………………………………….cm (1 mark)

NB: The plain sheet of paper must be submitted together with the question paper.

b) At a point about a thirdway along one side of the outline from angle A, draw a normal.
(2 marks)
c) Draw a line at angle i = 40° to the normal. Stick two pins P1 and P2 vertically on this line. (see
Figure 3)

Figure 3

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Place the prism accurately on the outline. By viewing through the opposite side, stick the two pins
P3 and P4 vertically such that they are in line with the two images of pins P1 and P2.
d) Remove the prism and the pins. Draw a line joining the marks made by P3 and P4. Extend lines P1
P2 and P 3 P4 to intersect. Hence measure the angle of deviation D.

D = ……………………………………………. (1 mark)

e) For two other values of the angle i shown in Table 2 locate and measure the corresponding
angles of deviation. Complete Table 2.

Table 2 (2 marks)
i 40° 50° 60°
D

f) (i) Determine the average value Dm of D. (1 mark)

(ii) Determine the constant K using the equation;

𝐴+𝐷𝑚
sin( )
2
𝑘= 𝐴 (3 marks)
sin
2

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PART B
You are provided with the following:
 100 ml beaker
 A meter rule
 Source of light
 A screen

Proceed as follows:
g) Place the 100 ml beaker on a meter rule and pour 80 cm3 of water into it. Arrange a lamp (source
of light) and a screen on either side of the beaker. (see figure 4)

Figure 4
h) Adjust the position of the lamp on the metre rule so that its centre is a distance u = 12 cm from
the beaker. Switch on the light. Adjust the position of the screen until a well focused vertical line
(the image of filament) is formed on the screen. Measure and record in table 3 the image distance
V between the screen and the beaker.
i) Repeat part (b) for the values of u shown in table 3 and complete the table.

Table 3 (4 marks)
Distance u (cm) 12 16 20
Distance V (cm)
𝑼𝒗
𝒚=
𝑼+𝒗

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j) Determine m, the mean value of y using the values in table 3. (1 mark)
m = ……………………………………….

k) (i) With the meter rule outside the beaker, measure the height h of the water meniscus above the
bench. (1 mark)

h = …………………………………………cm

(ii) Determine the value of P given that (1 mark)

5
𝑃=
√ℎ

𝑃
(iii) Hence determine the value of f given that 𝑓 = + 1 to one decimal place. (2 marks)
2𝑚

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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
MATHEMATICS
121/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of two sections: Section l and Section II.
3. Answer all questions in section l and five questions from Section II.
4. Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces below
each question.
5. Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
6. Non- programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

SECTION II GRAND TOTAL

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL

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 SECTION I (50 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section.
2 1  3  5 of 2 2
1. Without using a calculator, evaluate, 4 5 6 5 , leaving your answer as a fraction in
1 7
10
its simplest form. ( 3mks)

2. Find the equation of a perpendicular bisector of a line AB if the coordinates of A and B are
(-4,-2) and (6,2) respectively. (3mks)

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3. Use squares, squares roots and reciprocal tables only to evaluate the following giving your
answer correct to 2 decimal places. (4mks)
1 3
+
√31.47 8.542

4. Find the integral values of x for which: (3mks)

-6 < 3x + 3
14 – 3x >2

5. Pipe A empties a full tank in 8 hours, pipe B empties in 6 hours and pipe C empties in 3 hours. If
all the three pipes are open for 30 minutes and then pipe A closed , How long will it take to
empty a full tank. (3mks)

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6. Without using a calculator or mathematical table, evaluate. (3mks)
2 3
8 3 4 2

3
4
16

7. A man on top of a tower 300m sees two cars P and Q on a straight level road.
The angle of depression of P was 48° and that of Q was 28°. Calculate the distance between the
two cars. (Give your answer to 2d.p.). (3 marks)

8. Two trains T1 and T2, traveling in opposite directions on parallel tracks are just beginning to pass
one another. Train T1 is 72metres long and is traveling at 108km/hr.T2 is 78 metres
Long and traveling at 72km/hr. Find the time in seconds the two take to completely pass one
another. (4mks)

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9. In the figure bellowed and EA are tangents to the circle at D and A.DC is parallel to AB and
<BDC = 510. Calculate the value of x. (3mks)

10.Two similar containers have base areas 25cm2 and 324cm2 respectively. Calculate the Capacity
of the larger container correct to one decimal place if the capacity of the smaller
one is 8cm3 (3mks)

11.Solve for  and y in the simultaneous equation. (4 marks)

32 x 3y = 27
2 - y x 2 = 32

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   𝑎
12.Given that 1. 0 5 = 1 , Find the values of a and b. (3mks)
𝑏

13.A Kenyan bank buys and sells foreign currencies using the rates shown below.
Buying Selling
(Ksh) (Ksh)
1 Euro 86.25 86.97
100 Japanese Yen 66.51 67.26
A Japanese traveling from France arrives in Kenya with 5000 Euros, which he converts to Kenya
shillings at the bank. While in Kenya he spent a total of Ksh.289,850 and then converted the
remaining Kenya shillings to Japanese Yen at the bank. Calculate the amount of Japanese Yen
that he received. (3 mks)

14.All prime numbers between ten and twenty are arranged in descending order to form a number.
a) Write down the number (1mk)

b) State the total value of the third digit in the number formed in (a) above. (1 mark)

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15.If log 2=0.30103 and log 3=0.47712 find the logarithm of 36 without using tables or calculators.
(3mks)

16.The diagram below represents a right pyramid on a square base of side 3 cm. The slant
Height of the pyramid is 4 cm.

a) Draw a net of the pyramid (2 marks)

b) On the net drawn, measure the height of a triangular face from the top of the Pyramid (1 mark)

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 SECTION 11(50 MARKS)
Answer only FIVE questions from this section.
17. The figure below shows two circles of radii 10.5cm and 8.4cm and with centres
A and B respectively. The common cord PQ is 9cm.

(a) Calculate angle PAQ. (2 marks)

(b) Calculate angle PBQ. (2 marks)

(c) Calculate the area of the shaded part. (6 marks)

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18.B is 102km on the bearing of 112° from A. C is 94km on the bearing of 062° from B D is 073°
from A and 336° from C.
(a) Using a scale of 1cm to represent 20km,draw a diagram to show the positions of A,B,C
and D. (6mks)

b) Using your diagram, determine;

i) The bearing of B from D and A from C. (2mks)
ii)The distance AC and BD (2mks)

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19. A group of people planned to contribute equally towards a water project which needed kshs.
2,000,000 to complete. However, 40 members of the group withdrew from the project. As a
result, each of the remaining members were to contribute ksh 2500 more.
(a) Find the original number of members in the group. (5mks)

(b) Forty five percent of the value of the project was funded by Constituency DevelopmentFund
(CDF). Calculate the amount that would be made by each of the remaining members of the
group. (3mks)

(c)Members contribution were in terms of labour provided and money contributed. The ratio of
the value of labour to the money contributed was 6:19, calculate the total amount of money
contributed by the members (2mks)

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20.A bus left Kisumu at 9:30 a.m towards Nairobi at an average speed of 81 km/hr. A matatu left
Nairobi at 10.10 a.m at an average speed of 72km/hr. The distance between Kisumu and
Nairobiis 360km.
(a) Determine
(i) The time taken before the two vehicles met. (3mks)

(ii) The distance between the two vehicles 40 minutes after meeting. (2mks)

b) A car left Kisumu towards Nairobi at 9.50 a.m at an average speed of 90 km/hr.
Determine
i) The time when the car caught up with the bus. (3mks)

ii)The distance of Nairobi from the place where the car caught up with the bus. (2mks)

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21. Using a ruler and a pair of compasses only.
(i) Construct line AB = 6cm. (1 mark)

(ii) Construct triangle DAB where angle DAB = 75° and AB = BD. (2 marks)

(iii) Complete the parallelogram ABCD. (1 mark)

(iv) Drop a perpendicular from A to BD and hence find the area of the parallelogram. (3 marks)

(v) Construct a circle to touch line BC, AB produced and DC produced. Measure its radius.
(3 marks)

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22.A surveyor recorded the measurements of a field in a field book using lines AB 260m as shown
below.
B
130 R 40
70 Q10
50 P20
S50 10
A

a) Sketch the map of the field. (4mks)

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b) Find the area of the field in hectares. (6mks)

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23.A trader sold an article at sh.4800 after allowing his customer a 12% discount on the marked
price of the article. In so doing he made a profit of 45%.
a) Calculate
(i) The marked price of the article. (3 marks)

(ii) the price at which the trader had bought the article (2marks)

b) If the trader had sold the same article without giving a discount. Calculate the percentage
profit he would have made. (3 marks)

c) To clear his stock, the trader decided to sell the remaining articles at a loss of 12.5%
calculate the price at which he sold each article. (2mks)

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24. The distances S metres from a fixed point , covered by a particle after t seconds is given by the
equation, S= t3 – 6t2 + 9t +5
a) Calculate the gradient to the curve at t = 0.5 seconds. (3mks)

b) Determine the values of S at the maximum and minimum turning points of the curve.
(4mks)

c) On the space provided, Stretch the curves of S = t3 – 6t +9t + 5 (3mks)

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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
MATHEMATICS
121/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of TWO sections: Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer ALL the questions in section I and only five from Section II
(e) All answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided
below each question.
(f) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces below
each question.
(g) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(h) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be
used except where stated otherwise.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

Section II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total Grand Total

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 SECTION I:5MARKS- Answer all questions from this section
1. Rationalise the denominator and simplify leaving your answer in the form √𝑎 + 𝑏.(3 marks)
√2 + 2√5
√5 − √2

2. a) expand (1 – ½ x)5 (1 mark)

b) Use the expansion upto x3 in (a) above to evaluate (0.98)5 correct to 4 d.p (2 marks)

3. Agotho has a rectangular plot that was measured to the nearest meter and found to be 80m in length
and 60m in width. Determine the percentage error in its perimeter. (3 marks)

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 9𝑥 2 −1
4. Simplify (3 marks)
3𝑥 2 +2𝑥−1

5. A circle of radius 3cm has its centre at (3, 2). Express the equation of the circle in the form
x2 + y2 + mx + ny + c = 0. Where m, n and c are constants. (3 marks)

6. Find the value of 𝑥 that satisfies the equation log(2𝑥 − 11) − log 2 = log 3 − log 𝑥(4 marks)

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7. Five men working 8 hours a day take 2 days to cultivate an acre of land. How many days would
four men working 10 hours a day at double rate take to cultivate 3 acres of land? (3 marks)

8. The figure below shows the graph of a cubic function.

Write the equation of the function in the form 𝑦 = 𝑥 3 + 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐, where 𝑎, 𝑏 and 𝑐 are
constants. (3 marks)

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 1 𝑘 −3 5
9. Given that 𝐀 = ( ) and 𝐁 = ( ), find 𝑘 if the determinant of 𝐀𝐁 is 9(3 marks)
3 3 1 −2

10. A variable P varies directly as 𝑡 3 and inversely as the square root of 𝑆. When 𝑡 = 2 and
𝑆 = 9 𝑃 = 16. Determine the equation connecting 𝑃, 𝑡 and 𝑆 hence find 𝑃 when 𝑆 = 36
and 𝑡 = 3. (3mks)

11. In the figure below the tangent 𝑆𝑇 meets chord 𝑉𝑢. Produced at T. chord 𝑆𝑊 passes
through the centre 𝑂 of the circle and intersect chord 𝑉𝑢 at 𝑥. Line 𝑆𝑇 = 12𝑐𝑚 and 𝑢𝑇 = 8𝑐𝑚

𝑆 12𝑐𝑚 𝑇

8𝑐𝑚

𝑂
𝑢
𝑥
𝑉
𝑊
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a) Calculate the length of chord 𝑉𝑢. (1mk)

b) If 𝑤𝑥 = 3𝑐𝑚 and 𝑉𝑥: 𝑥𝑢 = 2: 3 . find 𝑆𝑥 (2mks)

12. Make 𝑛 the subject of the formula.

𝑟 𝑀
= (2mks)
𝑃 √𝑛−1

13. The table below shows income tax rates in a certain year
Monthly income in Kshs Tax rate in each kshs
1 ≤ 𝑥 < 9681 10%
9681 ≤ 𝑥 < 18801 15%
18801 ≤ 𝑥 < 27921 20%
27921 ≤ 𝑥 < 37040 25%
Over 37040 30%

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In that year Mr. Mogaka gets a total deduction of ksh5,000 he gets a personal tax relief of kshs.1056
and pays kshs.3944 for NHIF, WCPS and sacco loan repayment. Calculate
(i) P.A.Y.E. (1 mark)

(ii) Monthly income/salary (3 marks)

14. Use logarithms tables to evaluate. (4mks)

36.72  0.46
2
3
185.4

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15. The figure below shows a rectangular based right pyramid. Find the angle between the planes
V
ABCD and ABV. (2marks)
8cm

D C
3cm

A 4cm B

16. Find the shortest distance between points A(50oS,25ot) and B(50oS, 140oE in KM (Take
R=6370 Km) (3mks)

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 SECTION II – 50 MARKS;Answer any FIVE questions from this section
17.
P

S
R
T

O Q

3
In the figure above, OPQ is a triangle in which OS = 4OP and PR : RQ = 2:1

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Line OR and SQ meet at T.
h) Given that OP = p and OQ = q , exp ress the following vectors in terms of p and q .

(i) PQ 1 Mark

(ii) OR 2 Marks

(iii) SQ 1 mark

i) You are further given that ST = mSQ and OT = nOR. Determine the values of m and n. (6 marks

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18. (a) Complete the table given below for the functions 𝑦 = −3 cos 2𝑥 and 𝑦 =

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 3 0
2 sin ( 𝑥 + 30) for 00 ≤ x ≤ 1800 (2 marks)
2

𝑥0 0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180

−3 cos 2𝑥 −3.00 1.50 2.82 2.82 −0.52 −2.30
3
2 sin ( 𝑥
2
0
1.00 2.00 1.73 0.00 −1.00 −1.73
+ 30)

3 0
(b) Using the grid provided, draw the graphs of 𝑦 = −3 cos 2𝑥 and 𝑦 = 2 sin ( 𝑥 + 30) for
2

00 ≤ x ≤ 1800 on the same pair of axes. Take 1cm to represent 200 on the 𝑥 − axis and 2cm
to represent 1 unit on the 𝑦 − axis. (5 maks)

(c) From the graphs in (b) above, find;

3 0
(i) the period of 𝑦 = 2 sin ( 𝑥 + 30) (1 mark)
2

3 0
(ii) the values of 𝑥 given that 2 sin ( 𝑥 + 30) + 3 cos 2𝑥 = 0 (2 marks)
2
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19. Awuor was paid an initial salary of Kshs. 180000 per annum with a fixed annual increment.
Wasonga was paid and initial salary of Kshs. 150000 per annum with a 10% increment
compounded annually.
(a)Given that Awuor’s annual salary in the 11th year was Kshs. 288,000, determine:
(i) Her annual increment. (2 marks)

(ii) The total amount of money Awuor earned during the 11 years. (2 marks)

(b) Determine Wasonga’s monthly earning, correct to the nearest 10 shillings during the 11 th
year (3 marks)

(c)Calculate the number of years it will take Awuor’s total earnings to be Ksh. 1022400.(3 marks)

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20. In a mixed school there are 420 boys and 350 girls. The probability that a girl passes her
4 5
exams in the school is while that of a boy passing is . The probability of a girl being made a
7 8
2 1
prefect is while that of a boy is .
11 8
Find the probability that a student picked at random.
a) Is a boy and passes the exam and is not a perfect. (3mks)

b) Is a girl, a prefect and passes the exam. (3mks)

c) Is not as prefect and passes the exam. (4mks)

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21. OABC is a parallelogram with vertices O (0, 0) A (2, 0) B (3, 2) and C (1, 2).
−2 0
𝑂1 𝐴1 𝐵1 𝐶 1 is the image of OABC under transformation matrix
0 −2

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a) Find the co-ordinates of 𝑂1 𝐴1 𝐵1 𝐶 1 . (2mks)
b) On the grid provided draw OABC and 𝑂1 𝐴1 𝐵1 𝐶 1 (2mks)
1 0
c) Find 𝑂11 𝐴11 𝐵11 𝐶 11 the image of 𝑂1 𝐴1 𝐵1 𝐶 1 under the transformation matrix (2mks)
0 −2
(i) On the same grid draw 𝑂11 𝐴11 𝐵11 𝐶 11 . (1mk)
(ii) Find the single matrix that map 𝑂11 𝐴11 𝐵11 𝐶 11 onto OABC. (3mks)

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22. A particle moves in such a way that the velocity V at any given time is
v=10t – ½ t2 – 15/2 mls.
(a) Calculate the initial velocity (1 mark)

(b) Calculate the velocity when the time t=3 (2 marks)

(c) Find the displacement during the 5th second (4 marks)

(d) Calculate the maximum velocity attained (3 marks)

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23. The 2nd and 5th terms of an arithmetic progression are 8 and 17 respectively. The 2 nd, 10th
and42nd terms of the A.P. form the first three terms of a geometric progression. Find
(a) The 1st term and the common difference. (3mks)

(b) The first three terms of the G.P and the 10th term of the G.P. (4mks)

(c)The sum of the first 10 terms of the G.P. (3mks)

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 4 7
24. Matrix P is given by ( )
5 8
(a) Find P-1 (2 Marks)

(b) Two institutions, Kamunyaka secondary School and Njabini mixed secondary School
purchased beans at Sh. b per bag and maize at Sh. m per bag. Kamunyaka secondary purchased 8
bags of beans and 14 bags of maize for KSh. 47,600. Njabini mixed purchased 10 bags of beans
and 16 bags of maize for KSh. 57,400.
(i) Form a matrix equation to represent the information above. (2 Marks)

(ii) Use matrix P-1to find the prices of one bag of each item. (3 Marks)

(c) The price of beans later went up by 5% and that of maize remained constant. Kamunyaka
secondary bought the same quality of beans but spent the same total of money as before on the two
items. State the new ratio of beans to maize. (3 Marks)

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 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
COMPUTER STUDIES
451/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your Name and Index/Adm Number in the spaces provided.
(b) This paper consists of TWO sections: A and B
(c) Answer ALL the questions in section A
(d) Answer question 16 and any other THREE questions from section B
(e) All answers should be written in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(f) Do not remove any pages from this booklet.
(g) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

For Examiners use only.

Section Question Candidates Score
A 1 – 15
16
17
B 18
19
20
Total Score

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A (40 MARKS)
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION
1. Give FOUR characteristics of first generation computers? (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. a) Why are powder fire extinguishers not allowed in the computer room? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) What is the difference between delete and backspace keys? (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Give FOUR factors that describe the ideal environment for a computer to work properly.
(2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Give TWO advantages of using sound output devices (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Give TWO application areas of OMR (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
6. a) Distinguish between primary and secondary storage devices. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. State FOUR devices that support multimedia capability on a computer (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Differentiate between the terms: volatile memory and non-volatile memory. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Differentiate between misreading and transposition errors in data processing (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. What is the function of the power supply unit found in the system unit? (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. (a) Name FOUR approaches that may be used to replace a Computerized Information system.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
(b) Which of the approaches named in (a) above is appropriate for critical systems? Explain.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Terry intends to download a movie from the Internet. State the two factors that may determine
the total time taken to complete the download. (2 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. A lecturer keeps the following student details in a database: name, age, course.
(a) Write an expression you would use to compute the year of birth of a student using this year as
the current year. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) What query expressions would the lecturer use to list the students whose age is above 15 years
and below 25 years? (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. a) Explain each of the following roles performed by an operating system

i.Memory management ( 2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii.Interrupt handling ( 2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. A computer teacher has put a rule that flash disk should not be used in the computer laboratory
(a) Give a reason for the rule (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State two alternatives that can be used to achieve the same objective (1 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. (a) What is a utility software? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Give FOUR examples of utility software (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (60 MKS)

Answer question 16 and any other 3 questions.
16. a) i) What is system maintenance? (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Differentiate between absolute and relative cell referencing. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
c) The formula $A$4 +C$5 is typed in cell D4 and copied to cell H6. Write down the formula as it
would appear in cell H6. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Generate output for the following pseudo code (4marks)
START
X= 5
WHILE (X<15) DO
Y= X +2
X=X+3
PRINT X,Y
ENDWHILE
PRINT (“DONE’,X)
STOP
e) Draw a flowchart for the above pseudo code (5 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
17. a) Using 10-bits binary number system, perform the following decimal operation using two’s
complement. (4
marks)
12910 - 12810
b) Convert the following into binary 6CD16 (2 marks)
c) Perform the following binary arithmetic 11001.101+1110.011 (2 marks)
d) Define the following terms. (3 marks)
i) Record
ii) File
iii) Database
e) List any FOUR ways of dealing with a virus on a computer. (4 marks)

18. a) Explain the functions performed by (2 marks)

i) The control unit-
ii) Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU)
b) Define the following terms in relation to computer software . (3 marks)
i) Free ware.
ii) Proprietary
iii) Open source
c) i) Define the term E-commerce (2marks)
ii) List down TWO advantages of e- commerce as used in modern business environment (2marks)
d) Describe THREE ways how computing has been applied to each of the following areas:
i) Reservation systems. (3 marks)
ii) Law enforcement (3 marks)

19. (a) i) Name any TWO types of non-printable guides in DTP. (1mark)
ii) Explain the functions of each of non-printable guides in (19 (a)i) above (4 marks)
b) State FOUR factors to consider when designing a good file (2 marks)
c) Name THREE responsibilities that are carried out by a:
(i) Web administrator (3 marks)
(ii) Computer trainer (3 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
d) Identify TWO disadvantages of Observation method used in fact-finding. (2 marks)

20.(a) List THREE advantages of wireless communication over wired communication.(3 marks)
(b) Using a Diagram, describe the following signals and state where each is applied in network
communication:
(i) Analog; (2 marks)
(ii) Digital. (2 marks)
(c) Name the TWO types of coaxial cables. (2 marks)
(d) (i) Define the term network protocol. (1 mark)
(e) List FOUR internet protocols (2 marks)
(f) Describe star topology as used in networking (3 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
COMPUTER STUDIES
451/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Type your name and index number at the top right-hand corner of each print out.
(b) Write your name and index number on the CD-R/ CD-RW provided.
(c) Write the name and version of the software used in each question attempted in the printouts
used.
(d) Answer all the questions.
(e) All questions carry equal marks.
(f) Passwords should not be used when saving files.
(g) All files must be transferred to the CD-R/ CD-RW.
(h) Make printouts of your answers on the papers provided for printing.
(i) Arrange your printouts and tie/ staple them together.
(j) Hand in all the printouts and the CD/removable storage medium provided.
(k) Candidates must answer the questions in English.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
1.(a) Open a word processing program and type the document below as it appears and save it as
CBC. (15 marks)
PARENT’S ROLES IN COMPETENCY BASED CURRICULUM
Kenya has embraced a Competency Based Curriculum (CBC) to increase skills development and
instill values in the learner. Parental empowerment and engagement in the learning process is
essential to the learner’s growth and development. As a parent, you are the first educator, trainer
and source of authority for your child. The purpose of this brochure, therefore, is to give you more
information about CBC and your role in the learning process of your child.
WHAT IS COMPETENCY BASED CURRICULUM?
This is a process that gives learners an opportunity to be actively involved in learning. It facilitates
identification and development of learner’s unique talents and abilities through different career
pathways after grade 9. CBC assists learners acquire, nurture and apply values in day to day
living
WHY THE CHANGE FROM 8-4-4 CURRICULUM TO CBC?
The Competency Based Curriculum was rolled out nationally in January 2019 in Early Years
Education. The difference between 8.4.4 and CBC;
From 8-4-4 To CBC
Focuses on teaching Focuses on practical learning
Focuses on memorization of content Focuses on application of knowledge
Focuses on academic achievement Focuses not only on academic achievement but also on
skills development and nurturing of values
Focuses on examination and results Focuses on what the learner is expected to achieve and
provision of feedback on the learner’s progress
Focuses on competition Focuses on collaboration
Not all learners transited to the next Facilitates smooth transition for all learners
level
Less emphasis on talent and career More emphasis on talent identification and career
progression development
Less parental engagement in learning More parental empowerment and engagement

GENERAL ROLES OF THE PARENT IN COMPETENCY BASED

For Marking SchemesCURRICULUM
Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
The following are general roles to support the learning of your child in CBC
 Provide basic necessities.
 Protect your child from physical and
emotional harm.
 Instill and nurture morals and values.
 Teach and guide children to make the right
choices and make them aware of
consequences.
 Teach and model proper use of resources.
 Instill a sense of responsibility by ensuring
children participate in age-appropriate
chores.
 Help in enhancing learning achievements in
your child as guided by the teacher.
 Engage with the teacher to enrich your
child’s learning experiences.
 Provide tender, loving care to boost your
child’s emotional safety and a sense of
belonging.
 Take part in school activities such as
academic clinics, talent

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
Required
b) Set page margins as follows:
i) Left margin: 6 Picas (2 marks)
ii) Right, Top and Bottom margins: 3 Picas (2 marks)
c) Apply 1.5 line spacing on the entire document (2 marks)
d) Insert an in margin drop cap on paragraph 1 dropped to 4 lines (2 marks)
e) Save the document as CBC-1 (2 marks)
f) Print out the following:
i) CBC (2 marks)
ii) CBC-1 (2 marks)
2.(a) The following is an extract from Wavumbuzi Entrepreneurship Challenge showing the
performance of different participants over the Six-week period.

i) Using a spreadsheet package, enter the above information and save it as Wavumbuzi Challenge
(11 marks)
ii) Format the worksheet to appear as it is (4 marks)
iii) Rename the worksheet containing the data as Wavumbuzi-1 (1mark)
iv) Copy the contents of Wavumbuzi-1 to another worksheet and rename it as Wavumbuzi-2
(2 marks)
b) Type a formula at:
i) Cell J4 to compute the total points for Sarah (2 marks)
ii) Apply the formula to the appropriate cells (1 mark)
c) Type a function at:
i) Cell K7 to compute the Average Points for Faith. (2 marks)
ii) Apply the function to the appropriate cells. (1 mark)

d) A participant earns a medal based on the Average Points scored as follows:

Average points Medal
500 and above Gold
300-499 Silver
Below 300 Bronze
i) Type a formula in L5 to determine David’s medal (3 marks)
ii) Apply the formula to other appropriate cells (2 marks)
e) Insert a blank column after average points and label it RANK. Using appropriate function,
compute the rank of the participants based on the average points in descending order
(5 marks)
f) (i) Using appropriate functions, compute the:
(a) Total points for the female per week in cell D15 (2 marks)
(b) Total points for the male per week in cell D16 (2 marks)
ii) Apply the functions to the appropriate cells (2 marks)
g) Using Wavumbuzi-1 worksheet, create a bar chart showing how various participants performed
in the six-week challenge and Move it to a new worksheet: (7 marks)
i) Insert the Chart Title as: WAVUMBUZI SIX WEEK CHALLENGE PERFORMANCE
ii) Insert X-axis as: PERFORMANCE SCORES
iii) Insert Y-axis as: PARTICIPANT NAME
iv) Display the legend at the bottom
v) Rename the worksheet containing the chart to WavumbuziChart
h) Print out each of the following: (3 marks)
i) Wavumbuzi -1
ii) Wavumbuzi-2 (showing the formulas)
iii) WavumbuziChart

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
HOME SCIENCE
441/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions to candidates
a) Write your name and admission no in the spaces provided.
b) Answer all the questions in section A and B and any two from section C.
c) Answers to all questions must be written in the spaces provided.

For examiners use only.

Section Question Maximum score Candidates score
A 1-23 40
B 24 20
C 25-27 40
TOTAL SCORE 100

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION A (40 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. Mention two disadvantages of steaming food (2mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. State two conditions essential in making steam effective as a raising agent (2mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Mention two points on prevention and control of round worms (2mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Identify two ways of meeting the emotional needs of patient recuperating at home (2mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. List two ways of achieving good grooming (2mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. State two advantages of bungalows (2mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. State two factors that affect a budget (2mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. State two advantages of breast milk (2mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. State two points that guarantee safe parenthood (2mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Mention two points to observe when using disinfectants during laundry (2mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. List two uses of candles as a source of lighting (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Mention two advantages of biogas fuel (2mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. List down two ways of ventilating a room using doors and windows. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. Mention two common injuries which may accidentally occur at home. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. State two ways of improvising clothes storage facilities (2mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. Mention two uses of facings in clothing construction (2mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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17. Differentiate between a tear and a wear (2mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. Mention two areas in a garment where diagonal tacking can be used (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Openings are of various types. Give two examples (2mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. State two properties of silk that makes it suitable for making furnishings (2mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. Give the correct directions of pressing the following darts. (1mark)
Front shoulder dart
………………………………………………………………………………………………
elbow dart
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

22. State two qualities of a well-made seam (2mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. Mention two methods of attaching collars to the neckline (2mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 SECTION B: (20 MARKS)COMPULSORY
Answer question 41 in the spaces provided.
24. Your sister has invited you to a stay with her over the holiday and she has an eight months
old baby. Describe the procedure of carrying out the following activities at her home;
a) Prepared a baby cot for her (8marks)
b) Thorough clean her calabash that she uses to serve porridge (5marks)
c) Thorough clean terrazzo floor of her bedroom (7marks)

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer two questions from this section in the space provided.
25.
a) Suggest four factors that can cause food prices to rise. (4marks)
b) Describe with the use of two diagrams the procedure of making a machine fell seam (6marks)
c) Briefly describe four principles of food preservation. (4marks)
d) Give two reasons for using each of the following ingredients in flour mixtures (6marks).
i) Eggs
ii) Sugar
iii) salt
26.
a) Discuss five reasons for sufficient ventilation in a room (5marks)
b) State five ways of keeping pastry cool during preparation. (5marks)
c) Outline four functions of counterfeit section. (3marks)
d) Describe three qualities of a well-made in seam pocket (6marks)
27. (a) State five factors that affect individual nutrient requirement (5mks)
(b) State five factors to consider when packing meals. (5mks)
(c) State six ways of ensuring that a sleeve is well set. (6mks)
1. (d) Suggest four advantages of blending wool with nylon (4mks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
HOME SCIENCE
441/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

CONFIDENTIAL

Instructions to the Home Science teacher

- Provide light weight plain coloured cotton fabric 56cm x 90cm.
- Sewing tools and equipment’s.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
HOME SCIENCE
441/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

HOME SCIENCE
(CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION)
Paper 2
(PRACTICAL)
2 ½ hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) This paper consists of 3 printed pages.
b) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
c) Candidates MUST use machine stitches appropriately in the construction of the garment.
Hand stitches used instead of machine stitches will not be marked.
d) Hand stitches will only be allowed for the making of loop, worked buttonhole tacking stitches.

Turn over

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
GIRL'S SKIRT
A pattern of a girl's skirt is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, instructions
and layout carefully before you begin the test.
MATERIALS PROVIDED
1. Pattern Pieces
A — Skirt back
B — Yoke (front)
C — Lower skirt (front)
D — Front waistband
E — Back waistband
F — Frill
2.Plain lightweight cotton fabric 56 cm long by 90 cm wide.
3 Sewing thread to match the fabric.
4 One large envelope.

THE TEST
Using the materials provided, cut out and make the left half of the girl's skirt to show the
following processes:
a) Cutting out. (18 marks)
b) Making of the dart at the back skirt. (61/2 marks)
c) Joining of the yoke front to the lower skirt front using an overlaid seam. Neaten half
the seam using loop stitches. (12 marks)
d) Attaching of the frill to the lower skirt front using a plain seam. Leave the gathering
stitches and do not trim the seam allowance. (11 marks)
e) Making of the skirt side seam from the yoke to the hemline using an open seam. (7
marks)
f) Attaching of the front and back waistbands and holding them in place using even
tacking stitches. (20 marks)
g) Making of the worked buttonhole. (12 marks)
h) OMIT The management of the skirt hem.
i) Overall presentation. (61/2 marks)

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
At the end of the examination, firmly sew onto your work, on a single fabric, a label
bearing your name and index number. Remove needles, pins and loose threads from
your work. Fold your work neatly and place it in the envelope provided. Do not put
scraps of fabric in the envelope. Do not seal the envelope.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 KCSE 2025 SMARTGRADE MOCK
(NATIONWIDE COMPETITION)
HOME SCIENCE
441/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME………………………………………………………………………………………..

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN……………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

(Foods and Nutrition)

(Practical)

Instructions to candidates
PLANNING SESSION: 30 Minutes
PRACTICAL TEST SESSION: 1¾ Hours

(a) Reading the test carefully.

(b) Use the booklet provided for all your work.
(c) Write your name and index number on every sheet of paper used.
(d) Text books and recipes may be used during the planning session.
(e) You will be expected to keep to your order of work during practical session.
(f) You are allowed to take away your reference materials at the end of the planning session.
(g) You are not allowed to bring additional notes to the practical sessions.
(h) Previously written plans are not allowed into the examination room.

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
TEST:
Your aunt is attending a clinic with a 5 month old baby.
Using the ingredients listed below prepare a 4 O’clock tea for you and your uncle to include;
a) Two snacks.
b) A suitable drink.
c) Dessert

Ingredients:
- Plain wheat flour.
- Water melon
- Bread.
- Cooking oil.
- Lettuce.
- Eggs.
- Pawpaw
- Tomatoes.
- Sugar.
- Margarine.
- Milk.
- Pineapple
- Tea leaves/coffee
- Salt

Planning session: 30 Min

Use separate sheets of paper and a carbon paper to make duplicate copies then proceed as follows:
1) Identify the dishes and write their recipes.
2) Write your order of work.
3) Make a list of food stuff and equipment you will require.
25 marks

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 TO ALL CANDIDATES;

Incase a Significant Number of these Questions

Appear in KCSE Exam, Don’t panic!

TAKE IT EASY

FOR MARKING SCHEMES

CONTACT

0746 222 000

0742 999 000
For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000
 kcsepredictions@gmail.com

SUCCESS
TO ALL
KCSE CANDIDATES

For Marking Schemes Contact 0746 222 000 / 0742 999 000