23-02-2025

9610ZMDRANKER100000 MD

PHYSICS

1) A cylindrical wire of radius R is carrying current i uniformly distributed overt its cross-section. If a

circular loop of radius r is taken as amperian loop, then the variation value of over this loop
with radius r of loop will be best represented by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A conducting ring of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is placed on a smooth horizontal plane. The ring
carries a current i = 4A. A horizontal magnetic field B = 10T is switched on at time t = 0 as shown in
figure. The initial angular acceleration of ring is :-
(1) 40π rad/sec2
(2) 20π rad/sec2
(3) 5π rad/sec2
(4) 15π rad/sec2

3) Which of the following statements is incorrect about hysteresis?

(1) This effect is common to all ferromagnetic substances.

The hysteresis loop area is proportional to the thermal energy developed per unit volume of the
(2)
material.
The hysteresis loop area is independent of the thermal energy developed per unit volume of the
(3)
material.
(4) The shape of the hysteresis loop is characteristic of the material.

4) The figure shows a conducting loop ABCDA placed in a uniform magnetic field (strength B)
perpendicular to its plane. The part ABC is the three-fourth portion of the square of side length .
The part ADC is a circular arc of radius R. The points A and C are connected to a battery which
supply a current I to the circuit. The magnetic force on the loop due to the field B is : -

(1) zero
(2)
(3) 2BIR

(4)

5) A thin circular ring of area A is perpendicular to uniform magnetic field of induction B. A small cut
is made in the ring and a galvanometer is connected across the ends such that the total resistance of
circuit is R. When the ring is suddenly squeezed to zero area, the charge flowing through
galvanometer is : -

(1)

(2)

(3) ABR

(4)

6) An e.m.f. of 12 volts is induced in a given coil when the current in it changes at the rate of 48
amperes per minute. The self-inductance of the coil is : -

(1) 0.25 henry

(2) 15 henry
(3) 1.5 henry
(4) 9.6 henry

7) The initial velocity of a particle is u and the acceleration is given by (kt), where k is a positive
constant. The distance travelled in time t is :

(1) s = ut2 + kt2

(2) s = ut + (kt3/6)
(3) s = ut + (kt3/2)
(4) s = (ut2/2) + (kt3/6)

8) A rocket of mass 1000 kg exhausts gases at a rate of 4 kg/sec with velocity 3000 m/s. The thrust
developed on the rocket is :-

(1) 12000 N
(2) 120 N
(3) 800 N
(4) 200 N

9) A cricket ball of mass 250 g collides with a bat with velocity 10 m/s and returns with the same
speed within 0.01 second. The force acted on bat is :–

(1) 25 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 250 N
(4) 500 N

10) In the arrangement shown, the pulleys are fixed and ideal, the strings are light, m1 > m2 and S is
a spring balance which is itself massless. The reading of S (in units of mass) is –

(1) m1 – m2

(2)
(m1 + m2)

(3)

(4)

11) The ratio of angular speed of hours hand and seconds hand of a clock is :-
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 60
(3) 1 : 720
(4) 3600 : 1

12) If the radius of the earth is suddenly contracts to half of its present value, then the duration of
day will be of

(1) 6 hours
(2) 12 hours
(3) 18 hours
(4) 24 hours

13) While measuring diameter of wire using screw gauge the following readings were noted. Main
scale reading is 1mm and circular scale reading is equal to 42 divisions. Pitch of screw gauge is

1mm and it has 100 divisions on circular Scale. The diameter of the wire is . The value of x is -

(1) 142
(2) 71
(3) 42
(4) 21

14) A body crosses the topmost point of a vertical circle with a critical speed. Its centripetal
acceleration, when the string is horizontal will be:-

(1) 6g
(2) 3g
(3)
(4) g

15) Two identical 5 kg blocks are moving with same speed of 2 m/s towards each other along a
frictionless horizontal surface. The two blocks collide, stick together and come to rest. Consider the
two blocks as a system. The work done by external and internal forces are respectively :-

(1) 0, 0
(2) 0, 20 J
(3) 0, –20 J
(4) 20 J, –20 J

16)

The apparent weight of a person inside a lift is w1 when lift moves up with a certain acceleration and
is w2 when lift moves down with same acceleration
The weight of the person when lift moves up with constant speed is :

(1)
(2)

(3) 2w1
(4) 2w2

17) A ball A is thrown vertically upwards with speed u. At the same instant another ball B is dropped
from height h. At times t, the speed of A relative to B is :-

(1) u
(2) u – 2 gt

(3)

(4) u – gt

18) A body falls from a height of 16 m and rebounds to a height of 4 m. The coefficient of restitution
is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19)

The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies with the position of the particle as shown in
the figure. The body is in stable equilibrium at -

(1) x = x1
(2) x = x2
(3) Both x1 and x2
(4) Neither x1 nor x2

20) Find work done by friction if block reaches to the end with constant velocity:-
(1) –50 J
(2)
(3) –100 J
(4) None of these

21) Velocity – time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg moving in a straight line is as shown in figure.

Work done by all the force on the particle is :-

(1) 400 J
(2) –400 J
(3) –200 J
(4) 200 J

22) A solid cylinder is rolling down on an inclined plane of inclination 60°. What is its acceleration?

(1) g/3
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

23) A constant torque of 1000 N-m turns a wheel of moment of inertia 200 kg-m2 about an axis
through its centre. Its angular velocity after 3 sec is : -

(1) 1 rad/sec
(2) 5 rad/sec
(3) 10 rad/sec
(4) 15 rad/sec

24) If masses of blocks A and B are 3 kg and 8 kg respectively, then normal reaction between A and

B:-

(1) 20N
(2) 30N
(3) 35N
(4) 115N

25) Two particles A and B having charges 20 μC and –5 μC respectively are held fixed with a
separation of 5 cm. At what position a third charged particle should be placed so that it does not

experience a net electric force?

(1) At 5 cm from 20 μC on the left side of system

(2) At 5 cm from –5 μC on the right side
(3) At 1.25 cm from –5 μC between two charges
(4) At midpoint between two charges

26) Shown in the figure are two point charges +Q and –Q inside the cavity of a spherical shell. The
charges are kept near the surface of the cavity on opposite sides of the centre of the shell. If σ1 is the
surface charge on the inner surface and Q1 net charge on it and σ2 the surface charge on the outer

surface and Q2 net charge on it then : -

σ1≠ 0, Q1 = 0
(1)
σ2 = 0, Q2 = 0
σ1≠ 0, Q1 = 0
(2)
σ2≠ 0, Q2 = 0
σ1= 0, Q1 = 0
(3)
σ2 = 0, Q2 = 0
σ1≠ 0, Q1 ≠ 0
(4)
σ2≠ 0, Q2 ≠ 0

27) Consider the force F on a charge 'q' due to a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R
carrying charge Q distributed uniformly over it. Which one of the following statements is true for F,
if 'q' is placed at distance r from the centre of the shell?

(1)
for r < R

(2)
> F > 0 for r < R

(3)
for r > R

(4)
for all r

28) The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown is : -

(1)

(2) 4C
(3) 2C

(4)
C

29) Statement 1 : It is not possible to make a sphere of capacity 1 farad using a conducting
material.
Statement 2 : It is possible for earth as its radius is 6.4 × 106 m.

(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
(3)
Statement 1.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.

30) The electric current through a wire varies with time as I = I0 + βt, where I0 = 20 A and β = 3
A/s. The amount of electric charge crossed through a section of the wire in 20s is : -

(1) 1600 C
(2) 800 C
(3) 80 C
(4) 1000 C

31) A Copper (Cu) rod of length 25 cm and cross-sectional area 3 mm2 is joined with a similar
Aluminium (Al) rod as shown in figure. Find the resistance of the combination between the ends A
and B. (Take Resistivity of Copper = 1.7 × 10–8 Ωm Resistivity of Aluminium = 2.6 × 10–8 Ωm )

(1) 2.170 mΩ
(2) 1.420 mΩ
(3) 0.0858 mΩ
(4) 0.858 mΩ

32) Two cells are connected in opposition as shown. Cell E1 is of 8V emf and 2Ω internal resistance;
the cell E2 is of 2V emf and 4Ω internal resistance. The terminal potential difference of cell E2 is

_________ V.

(1) 6V
(2) –8V
(3) –6V
(4) 8V

33) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Alloys such as constantan and manganin are used in making standard resistance coils.
Reason R : Constantan and manganin has very small value of temperature coefficient of resistance.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

34)

The values of kinetic energy (K) and potential energy (U) are measured as follows
K = (100.0 ± 2.0) J and U = (200.0 ± 1.0) J
then the percentage error in the measurement of mechanical energy is :

(1) 2.5%
(2) 0.5%
(3) 1.0%
(4) 1.5%

35) Least count of a vernier caliper is cm. The value of one division on main scale is 1mm. Then
the number of divisions of main scale that coincide with N divisions of vernier scale is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) For c = 2a, and a < b < c, the magnetic field at point P will be zero when
(1) a = b

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Two magnets A and B are identical and these are arranged as shown in the figure Their length is
negligible in comparison to the separation between them. A magnetic needle is placed between the
magnets at point P which gets deflected through an angle θ under the influence of magnets. The

ratio of distance d1 and d2 will be. :-

(1) (2 tan θ)1/3

(2) (2 tan θ)–1/3
(3) (2 cot θ)1/3
(4) (2 cot θ)–1/3

38) The north and south poles of two identical magnets approach a coil containing a condenser, with

equal speeds from opposite sides. Then : -

(1) Plate 1 will be negative and plate 2 positive

(2) Plate 1 will be positive and plate 2 negative
(3) Both the plates will be positive
(4) Both the plates will be negative

39) If P represents radiation pressure, c represents speed of light and Q represents radiation energy
striking a unit area per second, then non-zero integers x, y and z such that PxQycz is dimensionless,
can be :-

(1) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1
(2) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
(3) x = –1, y = 1, z = 1
(4) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1

40) A girl finds herself stuck with her back to the wall of a cylinder rotating about its axis. Which
diagram correctly shows the forces acting on her?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Water falling from a 50 m high fall is to be used for generating electric energy. If 1.8 × 105 kg of
water falls per hour and half the gravitational potential energy can be converted into electric
energy, how many 100 W lamps can be lit :-

(1) 75
(2) 100
(3) 125
(4) 150

42) A rod of length 3m and its mass per unit length is directly proportional to the distance x from its
one end. The center of gravity of the rod from that end will be at

(1) 1.5 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 2.5 m
(4) 3.0 m

43) Two spheres each of mass M and radius R/2 are connected with massless rod of length 2R as
shown in the figure.

The moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the centre of one of the spheres
and perpendicular to the rod is

(1)
MR2

(2)
MR2

(3)
MR2

(4)
MR2

44) For a ball thrown vertically upwards and returning back to ground, which will be its distance-
time graph.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) In Fig. shown, the block of mass m is at rest relative to the wedge of mass M and the wedge is at
rest with respect to ground. This implies that :-

(1) Net force applied by m on M is mg.

(2) Normal force applied by m on M is mg.
(3) Force of friction applied by m on M is mg.
(4) None of above

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following nitrogen containing compound does not give Lassaigne’s test ?

(1) Phenyl hydrazine

(2) Glycine
(3) Urea
(4) Hydrazine

2) The adsorbent used in adsorption chromatography is/are

(1) silica gel

(2) quick lime
(3) magnesia
(4) None of above

3) Total No. of stereoisomer possible for the given structure :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 6

4) The absolute configuration of is :

(1) (2S, 3S)

(2) (2R, 3R)
(3) (2R, 3S)
(4) (2S, 3R)

5) Assertion [A] : SN2 reaction of C6H5CH2Br occurs more readily than the SN2 reaction of
CH3CH2Br.
Reason [R] : The partially bonded unhybridized p-orbital that develops in the trigonal bipyramidal
transition state is stabilized by conjugation with the phenyl ring.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

6) Total number of optically active compounds from the following is :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 6

7) Example of Vinylic halide is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which among the following halide will not show SN1 reaction

(1) CH2=CH—CH2—Cl
(2) CH3—CH=CH—Cl

(3)

(4)

9) Which of the following compound is inactive towards SN1 reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) Which one of the following compound will readily react with dilute NaOH ?

(1)

(2) CH3–CH2–OH

(3)

(4)

11) The increasing order of acidity of the following carboxylic acid is :-

(1) III < II < IV < I

(2) I < III < II < IV
(3) IV < II < III < I
(4) II < IV < III < I

12) The increasing order of the rate of HCN addition to compound A to D is

A. HCHO B. CH3COCH3
C. PhCOCH3 D. PhCOPh

(1) A < B < C < D

(2) C < D < B < A
(3) D < C < B < A
(4) D < B < C < A

13) Tollen’s reagent and Fehling solutions are used to distinguish between.

(1) Acid and Alcohol

(2) Alkane and Alcohol
(3) n-alkane and branched alkane
(4) Ketones and Aldehydes

14) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : Aminobenzene and aniline are same organic compounds.
Statement (II) : Aminobenzene and aniline are different organic compounds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

15) Which of the following characteristic property of KMnO4 is/are correct ?

(1) KMnO4 forms dark purple crystals

2–
(2) SO2 is oxidised to SO4 with KMnO4 in acidic medium
(3) Purple colour to MnO4¯ ion is due to charge transfer
(4) All of these

16) Which of the following belongs to the actinoids series of elements ?

(1) Y
(2) Ta
(3) U
(4) Yb

17) Which element do you expect to have the highest melting point ?

(1) La
(2) W
(3) Os
(4) Pt

18) Potassium dichromate reacts with potassium iodide in acidic medium. What is oxidation state of
product formed from reductant ?

(1) +1
(2) zero
(3) +3
(4) +5

19) Which of the following configurations of ions have zero CFSE in both strong and weak field
ligands in octahedral complex ?

(1) d8
(2) d4
(3) d6
(4) d10

20) Facial-meridional isomerism is associated with which one of the following complexes ?

(1) [Pt(py)2(NH3)2Cl]SO4
(2) [Cr(gly)3]
(3) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]

21) Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :

(1) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" donor atoms
(2) Unidentate ligand
(3) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
(4) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms

22) Which of the following is not an ionic carbide :-

(1) CaC2
(2) Al4C3
(3) SiC
(4) Be2C

23) Order of relative stability of +1 oxidation state in Boron family :-

(1) Al < Ga < In < Tl

(2) Al > Ga > In < Tl
(3) Al = Ga = In = Tl
(4) Al < Ga > In < Tl

24) Which of the following compound does not show Hydrolysis :-

(1) NF3
(2) CCl4
(3) SF6
(4) All of these

25) Which of the following oxy acids of sulphur contains a sulphur-sulphur single bond ?

(1) H2S2O7
(2) H2S2O8
(3) H2S2O5
(4) H2SO5

26) In Arrhenius equation , as K equals to :

(1) lnA
(2) A
(3) log10A
(4) none of these

27) Statement-1: Time taken for the completion of 75% of a Ist order reaction is double that its t1/2.
Statement-2: Time taken for completion of any fraction of a Ist order reaction is a constant value.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

28) Statement-1: A catalyst provides an alternative path to the reaction in which conversion of
reactants into products take place quickly.
Statement-2: The catalyst forms an activated complex of lower potential energy, with the reactants
by which more number of molecules are able to cross the barrier per unit of time.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

29) Correct statements about a voltaic (galvanic) cell include which of the following?
P. Oxidation occurs at the anode.
Q. Electrons flow from the cathode to the anode.

(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) Both P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q

30) A gas Cl2 at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution containing a mixture of 1 M Br–1 and 1 M F–1 at
25°C.If the reduction potential order is F > Cl > Br. then :

– –
(1) Cl2 will oxidise Br and not F
– –
(2) Cl2 will oxidise F and not Br
– –
(3) Cl2 will oxidise both Br and F
(4) Cl2 will reduce both Br2 and F2

31) There is AB3 and sucrose solution with 0.1 M concentration each. If osmotic pressure of AB3 and
sucrose solution is 0.72 atm and 0.24 atm respectively at same temperature. The fraction of AB3
dissociated will be :

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.67
(4) 0.90

32) FeCl3 on reaction with K4 [Fe(CN)6] in aq. solution gives blue colour. These are separated by a
semipermeable membrane PQ as shown. Due to osmosis there is :

(1) blue colour formation in side X

(2) blue colour formation in side Y
(3) blue colour formation in both of the sides X and y
(4) no blue colour formation

33) Moles of K2SO4 to be dissolved in 12 mol water to lower its vapour pressure by 10 mm Hg at a
temperature at which vapour pressure of pure water is 50 mm is : (Assume complete dissociation)

(1) 3 mol
(2) 2 mol
(3) 1 mol
(4) 0.5 mol

34) The index for the gold number is

(1) Protective power of lyophilic colloid

(2) Purity of gold
(3) Metallic gold
(4) Electroplated gold
35) Phenolphthalein color in basic medium is

(1) Pink
(2) Orange
(3) Yellow
(4) Colourless

36) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II
(Test/Method) (Reagent)

(I) Lucas Test (A) C6H5SO2Cl/aq. KOH

(II) Dumas method (B) HNO3/AgNO3

(III) Kjeldahl’s method (C) CuO/CO2

(IV) Hinsberg test (D) Conc. HCl and ZnCl2

(E) H2SO4
(1) (I)-(D), (II)-(C), (III)-(B), (IV)-(A)
(2) (I)-(B), (II)-(D), (III)-(E), (IV)-(A)
(3) (I)-(D), (II)-(C), (III)-(E), (IV)-(A)
(4) (I)-(B), (II)-(A), (III)-(C), (IV)-(D)

37) Identify the product A and product B in the following set of reactions.

(1) A = CH3–CH2–CH3, B = CH3–CH2–CH3

A = CH3–CH2–CH2–OH,

(2)

(3)
A = CH3–CH2–CH2–OH,

(4)
, B = CH3–CH2–CH2–OH

38) Assertion (A) :- Alcohols act as both nucleophiles and electrophiles.

Reason (R) :- Alcohols react with active metal sodium, potassium and aluminium to form alkoxides
and Hydrogen gas.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

39) In Cannizzaro reaction given below :

2PhCHO PhCH2OH + PhCOO–

the slowest step is :

(1) The transfer of hydride to the carbonyl group

(2) The removal of proton from the carboxylic group
(3) The deprotonation of PhCH2OH
(4) The attack of OH⊝ at the carboxylic group.

40) Cannizzaro’s reaction is not given by :

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3—CHO
(4) HCHO

41) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : The NH2 group in Aniline is ortho and para directing and a powerful activating
group.
Statement (II) : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Craft’s reaction (alkylation and acylation).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

42) KMnO4 acts as an oxidizing agent in :

(1) Acidic medium only

(2) Neutral and acidic media
(3) Neutral and alkaline media
(4) Neutral, acidic, and alkaline media
43) Statement-I :- Geometrical isomers of the complex [M(NH3)4Br2] are optically inactive.
Statement-II : Both geometrical isomers of [M(NH3)4Br2] have plane of symmetry.

(1) Both Statements are true and statement-2 is the correct explanation for statement-1
(2) Both Statements are true but statement-2 is not the correct explanation for statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

44) Which of the following complexes has magnetic moment of 2.83 BM ?

2+
(1) [Ni(NH3)6]
3–
(2) [CoCl6]
2–
(3) [Ni(CN)4]
3+
(4) [Cr(NH3)6]

45) 3 centered 2 electron bond is present in :-

(1) Be2H4
(2) Al2(CH3)6
(3) B2H6
(4) All of these

BIOLOGY

1) Statement-I : All living organisms possess metabolic reactions.

Statement-II : Each name have two components generic name and the specific epithet.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.

2) Who is known as the "Father of Taxonomy"?

(1) Aristotle
(2) Linnaeus
(3) Darwin
(4) Lamarck

3)

Identify the incorrect statement(s) :-

(I) Growth is a defining feature of living organisms.
(II) All living organisms show cellular organization.
(III) Reproduction is a defining characteristic of all living organisms.
(IV) All living organisms exhibit metabolism.
(1) I and II
(2) III only
(3) II and IV
(4) I, II, and III

4) In which type of phyllotaxy each node bear two leaves?

(1) Alternate
(2) Opposite
(3) Whorled
(4) Spiral

5) Which part of a flower develops into fruit?

(1) Ovule
(2) Ovary
(3) Petal
(4) Anther

6)

Identify the incorrect statement(s) :-

(1) In compound leaves, the leaf blade is divided into leaflets.

The outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinous layer called aleurone
(2)
layer.
Ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two chambered due to the formation of the false septum
(3)
in tomato.
(4) The style connects the ovary to the stigma.

7) The type of inflorescence wherein the main axis has limited growth and ends in a flower is termed
:-

(1) Racemose
(2) Cymose
(3) Hypanthodium
(4) Cyathium

8) In a monocot stem, which of the following structures is absent?

(1) Ground tissue

(2) Epidermis
(3) Vascular bundles
(4) Cambium

9) Statement-I : When xylem and phloem within a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate
manner along the different radii, the arrangement is called radial such as in stem.
Statement-II : The conjoint vascular bundles usually have the phloem located only on the outer side
of xylem.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

10)

Identify the correct statement :-

Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during the secondary growth takes place in
(1)
hypodermal cells.
(2) The pith is small or inconspicuous in monocot root.
(3) As compared to the monocot root, dicot root have fewer xylem bundles.
The tangential as well as radial walls of the endodermal cells have a deposition of water-
(4)
impermeable, waxy material suberin in the form of conjunctive tissue.

11) The four elements called "Big-four" which make up 95% of all elements found in a living system
are :-

(1) C, H, O, N
(2) C, H, O, P
(3) C, H, O, S
(4) C, N, O, P

12) Macromolecules are :-

(1) Nucleic acids, proteins and polysaccharides

(2) Nucleic acids and monosaccharides
(3) Amino acids and polysaccharides
(4) Amino acids, lipids and nucleotides

13) Fructose is a ketose sugar and also called :-

(1) An aldose
(2) Fruit sugar
(3) Cane sugar
(4) Corn sugar

14) Invert sugar is mixture of :-

(1) Maltose and fructose

(2) Glucose and galactose
(3) Glucose and fructose
(4) All of the above
15) Identify the incorrect statement about Z scheme :-

(1) Z shaped is formed when all the carriers are placed in sequence on a redox potential scale.
(2) PS I are excited when they receive red light of wavelength 700 nm.
(3) PS II absorbs 680 nm of blue light causing electrons to become excited.
(4) Addition of electron (downhill) reduces NADP+ to NADPH + H+

16) _______________ is the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate in the presence of
light.

(1) Phosphorylation
(2) Photo phosphorylation
(3) Light reaction
(4) Dark reaction

17) Photophosphorylation occurs due to cyclic flows of electrons when only PS I is functional in :-

(1) Stroma lamellae

(2) Grana lamellae
(3) Stroma
(4) Lumen

18) Which of the following is a first product of the Calvin cycle?

(1) Glucose
(2) Sucrose
(3) ATP
(4) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

19) How many ATP are formed in ETS from reduced NAD generated in one turn cycle of krebs'
cycle?

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 9

20) Chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP synthesis in respiration based on :-

(1) Proton gradient between lumen and stroma.

(2) Proton gradient between matrix and inner membrane.
(3) Proton gradient between matrix and inner membrane space.
(4) Proton gradient between matrix and inter membrane space.

21) What is shown in the figure :-

(1) A → Heterocyst, B → Mucilaginous sheath
(2) A → Akinete, B → Filament
(3) A → Akinete, B → Hormogonia
(4) A → Akinete, B → Trichome

22)

Match the column and find the correct answer :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Streptomyces (i) Food poisoning

(B) Rhizobium (ii) Source of antibiotics

(C) Nitrosomonas (iii) Nitogen fixation

(D) Acetobacter (iv) Nitrification

(v) Vinegar synthesis

(1) A–iv, B–v, C–i, D–iii
(2) A–v, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
(3) A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–v
(4) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–v

23) The unicellular eukaryotic organisms were placed in :-

(1) Protista
(2) Monera
(3) Fungi
(4) Animalia

24) Fungi differ from algae in having :-

(1) Mainly cellulosic cell wall

(2) Mainly cell wall of chitin
(3) Unicellular nonjacketed sex organ
(4) Starch as reserve food

25)

Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Phaeophyceae (A) Fucoxanthin

(ii) Cyanophyceae (B) Phycoerythrin

(iii) Rhodophyceae (C) Chl a, b

(iv) Diatoms (D) Chrysolaminarin

(1) i–A, ii–B, iii–C, iv–D
(2) i–A, ii–C, iii–B, iv–D
(3) i–C, ii–B, iii–A, iv–D
(4) i–B, ii–A, iii–D, iv–C

26) Characteristic of angiosperms which distinguish them from gymnosperms :-

(1) Presence of fruits and flowers

(2) Double fertilization and triploid endosperm formed after double fertilization
(3) Companion cells in phloem and vessels in xylem
(4) All of the above

27) Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed
habit because :-

(1) Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds.

(2) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia.
(3) Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat.
(4) Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte.

28) Assertion : In Eukaryotic cells there is an extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm.

Reason : There is a presence of membrane bound organelles in eukaryotic cells.

(1) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.

29) Which statement is not correct about integral and peripheral proteins :-

(1) They are considered as a membrane protein.

(2) They are classified based on ease of extraction.
 Peripharal proteins lie on the surface of membrane while integral proteins are partially buried
(3)
in the membrane.
Peripharal proteins lie on the surface while integral proteins are partially or totally buried in the
(4)
membrane.

30) What is the cause of cell division?

(1) Increase in surface area/volume ratio due to growth of cell.

(2) Nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio decreases due to increase in size of cell.
(3) Disturbance in lipid and protein ratio.
(4) All of the above

31) In disjunction (separation) of sister chromatids at anaphase :-

(1) Centromere moves first and arms trail behind.

(2) Arms move first and centromere trails behind.
(3) Any of the above cases.
(4) Centromere does not move in anaphase.

32) The sequence of substages of prophase-I are :-

(1) Leptotene — Zygotene — Pachytene — Diplotene — Diakinesis

(2) Leptotene — Zygotene — Pachytene — Diakinesis — Diplotene
(3) Leptotene — Zygotene — Pachytene — Diakinesis
(4) Leptotene — Pachytene — Diplotene — Zygotene — Diakinesis

33) The phenomenon of apical dominance can be overcome by exogenous application of :-

(1) ABA
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Cytokinins
(4) Ethylene

34) The first natural cytokinin of plants is :-

(1) Zeatin
(2) Kinetin
(3) Dihydrooxyzeatin
(4) Riboxylzeatin

35) Bakanae disease in japan was due to a fungus known as :-

(1) Gibberella fujikori

(2) Aspergillus flavus
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Plasmopara viticola
36) Assertion : Nomenclature provides each organism a scientific name.
Reason : Scientific names are universally accepted.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

37)

Out of four aestivations of petals given below, which one is found in Malvaceae :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) Statement-I : Sclerenchyma cells are dead at maturity.

Statement-II : Sclerenchyma cells have lignified cell walls that provide rigidity.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

39) Amino acids usually exist in the form of Zwitter ions. This means that they consist of :-

(1) The basic NH2 group and acidic COOH group.

+ –
(2) The basic NH3 group and acidic COO group.
– –
(3) Basic COO group and acidic NH3 group.
(4) None of the above

40)

Cellulose in plant cell wall is made up of :-

(1) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by α, 1→6 glycosidic bond.

(2) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by β, 1→4 glycosidic bond.
Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by α, →6 glycosidic bond in straight chain & β →1,4
(3)
at the site of branching.
(4) Branched chains have α →1,4 bond and β →1,6 glycosidic bonds both.
41) Which statement is incorrect with respect of splitting of water :-

(1) Splitting of water is associated with PS II

(2) Water is splits into 2H+, [O] and electrons
(3) Oxygen is one of the net products of splitting of water
(4) Splitting of water process occurs on the outer side of the membrane of thylakoid

42) Pyruvic acid + CoA + NAD+ Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH + H+

A is →

(1) Coenzyme A
(2) Mg+2
(3) K+
(4) ATP

43)

Match the following and select the correct combination from the options given below :-

Column-I Column-II
(Kingdom (Class)

(A) Plantae (1) Archaebacteria

(B) Fungi (2) Euglenoids

(C) Protista (3) Phycomycetes

(D) Monera (4) Algae

(1) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1
(2) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(3) A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1
(4) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1

44) Mycorrhizae are symbiotic association of fungi with roots of higher plants. these are useful for
plants due to their following attribute.

(1) Fixing atmospheric nitrogen.

(2) Enhancing absorption of nutrients from soil.
(3) Killing atmospheric nitrogen in nearby area.
(4) Providing susceptibility against abiotic stress.

45) Select the mismatch :-

(1) Pinus – Coralloid roots

(2) Cycas – Unbranched stem
(3) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(4) Equisetum – Homosporous

46) Body covered by calcareous shell and unsegmented with distinct head, muscular foot and
visceral hump is seen in :-

(1) Mollusca
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Hemichordata
(4) Chordata

47) Incomplete digestive system that has a single opening to outside of body that serves as both
mouth and anus is present in member of which phylum ?

(1) Porifera
(2) Coelentrata
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelminthes

48) Compound epithelium is found in all except :

(1) Dry surfaces of skin

(2) Moist surface of vagina
(3) Inner lining of arteries
(4) Moist surface of buccal cavity.

49) Simple squamous epithelium

(1) Is absent in thin part of loop of Henle

(2) Is found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs
(3) Has no role in filtration
(4) All are incorrect

50) Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in :-

(1) Eustachian tube

(2) Lining of intestine
(3) Ducts of salivary gland
(4) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron

51) All of the following factors are favourable for dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin at tissues level,
except :

(1) High pCO2

(2) Lower temperature
(3) Low pO2
(4) Higher H+ concentration
52) Mark the correct pair of muscles involved in the normal breathing in humans -

(1) External and internal intercostal muscles

(2) Diaphragm and abdominal muscles
(3) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
(4) Diaphragm, external and internal intercostal muscles

53)

Respiratory process is regulated by certain specialized centres in the brain. One of the following
listed centres can reduce the inspiratory duration upon stimulation –

(1) Medullary inspiratory centre

(2) Pneumotaxic centre
(3) Chemosynthetic centre
(4) Apneustic centre

54) How many Antigen is present on the surface of RBC in blood group AB positive ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

55) Fibrins are formed by conversion of ______ in ______ by the enzyme _______.

(1) Fibrinogen, Serum, Thrombokinase

(2) Prothrombin, Plasma, Thrombin
(3) Fibrinogen, Plasma, Thrombin
(4) Prothrombin, blood, Thrombokinase

56) Rh antibodies from Rh -ve mother can be fatal to :-

(1) 1st Rh child

(2) Subsequent foetus which is Rh ve
(3) Subsequent foetus which is Rh ve
(4) Not fatal to any foetus

57) Which one of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Adult human excretes, on an average 3 to 3-5 litres of urine per day
(2) In micturition relaxation of urethral sphincter cause release of urine
(3) Analysis of urine have least important role in clinical diagnosis of metabolic disorders
(4) Urine is slightly basic in nature

58) Match the column I with column II

 Column-I Column-II

A Nephridia I Prawn

B Malpighian tubules II Earthworm

C Green glands III Cockroach

(1) A - I, B - II, C - III
(2) A - III, B - II, C - I
(3) A - II, B - III, C - I
(4) A - II, B - I, C - III

59) Which of the following is incorrect statement about cardiac muscles?

(1) Found in heart and intestine

(2) Based on appearance, cardiac muscles are non-striated
(3) They are voluntary in nature as the nervous system does not control their activities directly
(4) All are incorrect

60) Which of the following is correct statement ?

(1) Sternum is a flat bone on the dorsal side

(2) The spinal cord protects the vertebrae column
(3) Cervical vertebrae are seven in all mammals with no exception
(4) Vertebrae column serves as the point of attachment for the musculature of the back

61) The cerebrum wraps around a structure called ___. Which is major coordinating centre for
sensory and motor signaling.

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Corpus callosum
(3) Thalamus
(4) Epithalamus

62) Find out the incorrect statement from the options given below :-

(1) Neurotransmitter bind to their specific receptors, present on the post synaptic membrane.
(2) A canal called the cerebral aqueduct possesses through the midbrain.
Association areas of brain are responsible for complex functions like intersensory association,
(3)
memory and communication.
(4) Electrical synapses pass electrical signal between cells with the use of Ach.

63) Select the correct statement w.r.t brain stem

(1) It connects two cerebellar hemispheres

(2) It includes midbrain and parts of hindbrain
(3) Neural structure responsible for maintaining temperature of body
(4) It includes midbrain and complete hindbrain

64) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) The endocrine system provides chemical integration through hormones.

The neural system provides an organised network of point-to-point connections for quick
(2)
coordination.
In our body neural system and endocrine system jointly coordinate and integrate all the
(3)
activities of the organs so that they function in a synchronised fashion.
(4) In Hydra a brain is present along with a number of ganglia and neural tissue.

65) The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true' endocrine gland because

(1) It is provided with a duct

(2) It only stores and releases hormones
(3) It is under the regulation of hypothalamus
(4) It secretes enzymes

66) Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?

(1) ADH
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Parathyroid hormone
(4) Prolactin

67) Statement I: Oxytocin is called milk ejecting hormone.

Statement II: Epinephrine is a catecholamine.

(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are correct

68) Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates erythropoiesis is secreted by :-

(1) β cells of pancreas

(2) cells of Neurohypophysis
(3) Red bone marrow
(4) Juxta glomerular cells of kidneys

69) In amphibians, respiration occurs through -

(1) Gills
(2) Lungs
(3) Skin
(4) All of these
70) The following statement are associated with the occurrence of notochord. Identify the incorrect
statement.

(1) It is present only in larval tail in ascidians.

(2) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog.
(3) It is absent throughout the life in humans from the very beginning.
(4) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus.

71) Refer the figures A, B and C and choose the correct option which shows animals that regulate

buoyancy with the help of air bladder.

(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) B and C
(4) All of the above

72) The following figure shows the external features of cockroach with few structures labelled as A,

B, C, D, and E. Identify A to E .

(1) A- Mesothorax, B-Pronotum, C-Metathorax, D-Tegmina, E-Anal style

(2) `A- Pronotum, B-Metathorax, C-Mesothorax-Tegmina, E-Sterna
(3) A- Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, C-Metathorax, D-Tegmina, E-Anal cerci
(4) A- Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, C-Metathorax, D-Tegmina, E-Anal style

73) Most oxygen is carried by the blood __(i)__. Most carbon dioxide is carried by the blood __(ii)__.
(1) (i) attached to haemoglobin, (ii) in the form of bicarbonate ions.
(2) (i) dissolved in plasma, (ii) dissolved in plasma.
(3) (i) in the form of H+ ions, (ii) in the form of bicarbonate ions.
(4) (i) attached to haemoglobin, (ii) attached to haemoglobin.

74) Contraction of the ventricle in the heart begins by the command from -

(1) Purkinje fibres

(2) AV node
(3) Chordae tendinae
(4) SA node

75) During muscle contraction.

(1) Chemical energy is changed to electrical energy.

(2) Mechanical energy is changed to chemical energy.
(3) Chemical energy is changed to physical energy.
(4) Chemical energy is changed to mechanical energy.

76) ‘X’ is an important part of ‘Y’ which lies at the base of the structure which is a major
coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling. It contains a number of centre which control
body temperature, urge for eating and drinking.
Identify X and Y from the options given below -

(1) X -Cerebellum; Y – Hindbrain

(2) X -Hypothalamus; Y - Forebrain
(3) X -Corpora quadrigemina; Y – Midbrain
(4) X -Pituitary gland; Y – Forebrain

77) In hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from target organ, the target organ will -

(1) Continue to respond to hormone.

(2) Not respond to hormone.
(3) Continue to respond but requires higher concentration.
(4) Continue to respond but in the opposite way.

78) Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism are -

(1) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and calcitonin

(2) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and glucocorticoids
(3) Insulin, glucagon, cortisol and melatonin
(4) Insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and melatonin

79) If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron which of the following event is to be
expected?
(1) There will be no urine formation.
(2) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed.
(3) The urine will be more concentrated.
(4) The urine will be more dilute.

80) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Counter-current flow of blood in vasa recta helps to retain the reabsorbed sodium in the renal
(1)
medulla.
(2) Glomerular filtrate is protein free plasma.
(3) Vasa recta carry glomerular filtrate from distal convoluted tubule to the collecting duct.
(4) Glomerular filtrate in Bowman’s capsule is isotonic to the plasma.

81) Read the following terminology of column-I & II and identify their correct match :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Dorsal hollow nerve cord (i) Echinodermata

(B) Stomochord (ii) Porifera

(C) Radial symmetry (iii) Platyhelminthes

(D) Feather like gills (iv) Annelida

(v) Chordata

(vi) Mollusca

(vii) Hemichordata
(1) (A)-(v), (B)-(vii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(v), (B)-(vii), (C)-(vi), (D)-(ii)
(3) (A)-(v), (B)-(vii), (C)-(i), (D)-(vi)
(4) (A)-(vii), (B)-(v), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

82) Statement-1 :- The skin of Aves is unique in possessing hairs.

Statement-2 :- Most unique mammalian character is presence of mammary glands.

(1) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

(2) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.
(3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
(4) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

83) Given below are some statements :

I. Members of this class are ectoparasite on some fishes.
II. Bearing 6-15 pairs of gill slits.
III. Circular mouth without jaw.
IV. Member of this class are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.
How many statements belong to class cyclostomata ?

(1) Only two

(2) Only three
(3) Only one
(4) All four

84) Which of the following statements is correct for the organism shown in the given figure.

(1) It does not shows sexual dimorphism

(2) Body divisible into Head, Trunk and Tail
(3) Tadpole undergoes metamorphosis to form the adult.
(4) Female lays 20000–22000 ova at a time

85) Match the following columns

Place pO2 pCO2

A Alveoli P 95 I 40

B Oxy. Blood Q 40 II 45

C Tissue R 104 III 40

(1) A - R - I, B - P - III, C - Q - II
(2) A - P - II, B - Q - I, C - R - III
(3) A - Q - I, B - P - II, C - R - III
(4) A - R - III, B - Q - II, C - P - I

86) Find out the correct statement about human circulatory system ?

(1) Opening between right atrium and right ventricle is guarded by tricuspid valve
(2) Heart is ectodermally derived organ
(3) Not all vertebrates posses muscular chambered heart
(4) All molluscs have closed network of blood vessels

87) In which one of the following options Column I is correctly matched with Column II?

Column I Column II
(1) Reabsorption of glucose, amino acids, Na+ Passive
(2) Reabsorption of urea Active
(3) Tubular secretion of H +
Active
(4) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water PCT
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) Which of the given regulatory mechanisms can be observed once there is an increase in volume
of body fluid ?
a. Osmoreceptors on hypothalamus switch off
b. Vasopressin from neurohypophysis is released
c. Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and water
d. Constriction of blood vessels occur

(1) a, c only
(2) b, c, d only
(3) a, d only
(4) Only a

89)
Where among the following, one can find the given tissue

(1) Stomach, intestine, heart

(2) Intestine, stomach, biceps
(3) Anterior 1/3rd of oesophagus, diaphragm
(4) Stomach, uterus, urinary bladder

90) Match the list-I with list-II :-

List-I List-II

Site of information processing and

A. I. Somatic neural system
control

Relays impulses from the CNS to Autonomic neural

B. II.
skeletal muscles system

Comprises of all the nerves of the

C. III. Central neural system
body associated with the CNS

Transmits impulses from the CNS to Peripheral neural

D. IV.
the involuntary organs system

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :-

(1) A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)
(2) A-(III), B-(II), C-(IV), D-(I)
(3) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(II), D-(III)
(4) A-(I), B-(II), C-(III), D-(IV)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 3 2 2 2 2 1 4 4 3 1 2 2 3 1 1 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 4 1 1 3 2 3 3 2 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 1 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 2 4 1 3 1 2 3 4 1 3 4 2 4 3 2 2 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 1 4 3 3 2 1 1 1 3 4 3 1 1 3 4 2 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 1 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 4 3 1 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 1 2 2 4 4 1 3 2 1 1 3 1 1 2 1 1 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 1 2 1 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 3 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 2 4 2 3 4 4 4 3 1 3 1 4 4 2 2 2 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 3 1 1 3 4 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Current within radius r < R :

for r < R,

for r > R,

2)

3) The energy lost per unit volume of a substance in a complete cycle of magnetisation is equal
to the area of the hysteresis loop.

4)

5)

6)

7) a = kt

dv = kt dt
8) F = u = 3000 × 4 = 12000 N

9)

Force = m = 25 × 20 = 500 N

10)
Reading = Tension of spring

11) ωh =

ωs =

12) if radius becomes half then time period becomes of the previous value i.e. =6
hours.
Hence, the correct answer is option (a).
13) Diameter =

Diameter = 1 mm + 42 ×

Diameter =

Diameter =
So ; x = 71

14)
v'2 = v2 + 2gL = gL + 2 gL = 3gL

When the string is horizontal ac =

15) Wext = 0

Wint = ΔKE = – OR Kf – Ki

Wint =

Wint
Wint = –20J

16)

When lift moves up with constant acceleration a, then

w1– mg = ma ....(i)

When lift moves down with constant acceleration a, then

mg – w2 = ma ....(ii)
From eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
w1+ w2 = 2 mg ....(iii)
When lift moves up with constant speed, its acceleration is zero
So, w – mg = 0
w = mg ....(iv)
From eqs. (iii) and (iv), we get

w1 + w2 = 2w ⇒

17) For A
vA = u – gt (in upward direction)
For B
vB = gt (in downward direction)
As two balls are moving in opposite direction
vAB = vA + vB = (u – gt) + gt = u

18)

19)

at x = x2, F = 0

(for stable equilibrium)

20) By WET
Wg + Wfr = 0
mg sin(30°) × 10 + Wfr = 0
Wfr = – mg sin(30°) × 10

Wfr = –1 × 10 × × 10 = –50 J

21)

v = –10t + 20
a = –10
F = –20
Displacement = Area under v – t curve

= × 2 × 20 = 20 m
Work done = – 20 × 20 = –400 J
OR
WET

here v = 0 u = 20 (By graph)

22) For cylinder,

So, acceleration,

23) ⇒ α = 5 rad/sec2
Using 1st equation
ωf = ωi + αt
ωf = 0 + (5)(3) = 15 rad/sec

24)
F.B.D of block A
R = 5 + 3g
= 5 + 30
= 35 N

25)
Let, charge q be placed at P.
At point P forces due to 20 μC & –5μC should be in opposite direction.

For net force & from coulomb's law force

26) Inside the cavity net charge is zero.

∴ Q1 = 0 and σ1 = 0
There is no effect of point charges +Q, –Q and induced charge on inner surface on the outer
surface.
∴ Q2 = 0 and σ2 = 0

27) For spherical shell

(if r ≥ R)
=0 (if r < R)
Force on charge in electric field, F = qE
∴F=0 (For r < R)

(For r > R)

28) The circuit can be reduced to

The equivalent capacitance of the combination is

Ceq = C + C = 2C

29) Capacitance of sphere is given by :

If, C = 1F then radius of sphere needed :

9 × 109 m is very large, it is not possible to obtain such a large sphere. Infact earth has radius
6.4 × 106 m only and capacitance of earth is 711 μF.

30) Charge,

= 1000C

31) In parallel combination, equivalent resistance,

or, ∴ R = 0.858mΩ

32)
Applying Kirchhoff voltage law, KVLC to B
VC – 2 – 4 × 1 = VB
VC – VB = 6V

33) They have high resistivity, low-temperature coefficient of resistance ability to attain good
resistance values in small size.

34) E = K + U = 100 + 200 = 300.0 J

ΔE = ΔK + ΔU = 2.0 + 1.0 = 3.0 J

35) L.C. = 1 MSD – 1 VSD .....(1)

& 1 MSD = 1 mm
MSD = N VSD

1 VSD =
Now by equation (1)

36) Magnetic field at centre,

As per problem,

If c = 2a,
37)

38) By the movement of both the magnets, current will be anticlockwise, as seen from left side,
i.e., plate 1 will be positive and 2 will be negative.

39) PxQycz is dimensionless

0 0 0
[ML–1T–2]x [MT–3]y [LT–1]z = [M L T ]
0 0 0
[Mx+y L–x+z T–2x–3y–z] = [M L T ]
Comparing powers of M, L and T
x + y = 0 ⇒ y = –x
–x + z = 0 ⇒ z = x
–2x – 3y – z = 0
x and y are equal and of opposite sign
x and z are equal and of same sign
x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
 40)

41) Loss in P.E. = mgh = 1.8 × 105 × 10 × 50

= 900 × 105 J
Energy used to generate power

= W

Number of bulbs =

42)

Mass per unit length, i.e. linear mass density

µ ∝ x ⇒ µ = λx, λ : constant

dm = µ dx = λx dx

43) According to parallel axes theorem,

IAB = + M(2R)2 +

IAB = 4MR2 + M(R)2 = MR2

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

44) Distance increase continuously.

45) N = mg cos θ, f = mg sin θ

Net force applied by M on m (or m on M) :
 = mg

CHEMISTRY

46) Hydrazine (NH2—NH2) have no carbon so does not show Lassaigne’s test.

47) The most common polar and acidic support used is adsorption chromatography is silicagel.
The surface silanol groups adsorb polar compound and work particularly well for basic
substances. Alumina is the example of polar and basic adsorbent that is used in adsorption
chromatography.

48)

There are two stereo centers (n = 2)

No. of stereoisomer = 2n = 22 = 4

49)

51)
52) In Vinylic halide halogen atom bonds with carbon atom of C = C bond.

53) sp2 hybridized carbocation is very unstable, therefore CH3—CH=CH—Cl

can not give SN1 reaction.

54)

In SN1 reaction carbocation is formed. The carbocation formed at bridge heat is very unstable
due to restricted bond angle.
So, it is inactive towards SN1

55)
Stronger acid than H2O due to more resonating structure of phenoxide ion.

56)

57) Addition of HCN to carbonyl compound is nucleophilic addition reaction.

58) Aldehyde (aliphatic and aromatic) show reaction with Tollen’s reagent and aliphatic
aldehydes show Fehling solution, but Ketones do not show there reactions.

59) Aminobenzene and aniline are same organic compounds.

60) KMnO4 has dark purple crystals.

MnO4¯ + SO2 → SO42– + Mn+2
MnO4¯ in Mn+7 has d° configuration, still it shows colour because of ligand to metal charge
transfer.

61) Y, Ta belongs to d-block, Yb is a part of lanthanide series.

62) Tungsten is having the highest melting point in the entire 5d series.
63)

64)

0
or (–0.4 × 6 + 0.6 × 4)Δ = CFSE

⇒ (–2.4 + 2.4)Δ = 0
0

65) [Ma3b3] type shows fac and mer.

66) EDTA (ion)

67) SiC is a covalent carbide.

68)

As we move down in a periodic table, the lower oxidation state becomes more stable due to
inert pair effect
In 13th group, order of relative stability of +1 oxidation state is Al < Ga < In < Tl

69)

NF3, CCl4 → No V.O.

SF6 → Steric Hinderance

70)

Here S – S bond will present here.

72)
t75% = 2 × t1/2

75) Higher the SRP, Better the oxidising agent.

76)

For sucrose; π1 = CRT ...(i)

For AB3; π2 = i × CRT ...(ii)
Divide (i) and (ii) we get

i=3
i = 1 + (n–1)α
3 = 1 + (4–1)α
α = 2/3

77) SPM allows only solvent molecules to pass through it.

78)

79)

Protective power of lyophilic colloid

80)

81)

(I) Lucas reagent-Conc. HCl/ZnCl2

(II) Dumas method-CuO/CO2
(III) Kjeldahl’s method-H2SO4
(IV) Hinsberg test-C6H5SO2Cl/aq.KOH

82)
83)

84)

85) Only those aldehyde which do not have α-H atom undergo Cannizzaro’s reaction. Hence
CH3CHO will not undergo Cannizzaro reaction.

86) –NH2 is an ortho and para directing group, in activates benzene ring towards electrophilic
substitution reaction.

Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction due to salt formation with AlCl3 which
deactivate ring towards electrophilic substitution reaction.

87) KMnO4 can act as oxidising agent in all the mediums – neutral, acidic and alkaline media.
MnO4¯ → Mn+2 (acidic medium)
MnO4¯ → MnO2 (neutral medium)
MnO4¯ → MnO42– (alkaline medium)
 88)

0
89) Ni2+(3d84s ), NH3(SFL)

Unpaired e– = 2
So, Magnetic moment =
= = = 2.83 BM

90) 3C – 2e– bond is present in respectively.

BIOLOGY

94)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 61
95)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 62

96)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 61,62,66

97)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 61

98)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 76

99)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 73

101)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 105

102)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 105

105) NCERT Page # 139

106) NCERT Page # 138

107) NCERT Page # 140

111)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 13

115)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 27

117)
 NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32

119)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

121)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123

122)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

128)

The correct answer is:

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
Explanation:

A. Statement-I: Sclerenchyma cells are dead at maturity. This is correct. Sclerenchyma cells are
typically dead when they reach maturity, as their primary function is to provide structural
support to the plant.
B. Statement-II: Sclerenchyma cells have lignified cell walls that provide rigidity. This is also
correct. The cell walls of sclerenchyma cells are heavily lignified, which makes them rigid and
helps in supporting the plant.

So, both statements are true.

131) NCERT Page # 139

135)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 22

136) NCERT, Pg. # 44, Para-4.2.8

137) NCERT, Pg. # 38, Para-4.1.1

138) NCERT Page No.- 102(old) ;

139) NCERT Page No.- 101(old);

140) NCERT Page No. 109

141) NCERT-XI, Pg # 189

142) NCERT-XI, PG. #186

143) NCERT-XI, PG. #190

144) NCERT XI Pg. # 195

145) NCERT Pg # 196

146) NCERT, Pg. # 196, Para-15.1.3.2

147) NCERT XI, Pg.# 297-298

148) NCERT PG 291

149) New NCERT-XI, Pg. # 218

150) NCERT, Pg # 225

151)

NCERT Pg#236

152)

NCERT Pg. # 319, 321

153)

NCERT Page # 321

154) NCERT-XI, Pg # 230,231

155) Posterior pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because it only stores and releases
hormones.

156)

NCERT Page # 342

157)

NCERT Page # 333,336

158) NCERT, Pg. # 339

159)

NCERT Page # 57

160)

NCERT Page # 48

161)

NCERT Page # 47

162)

NCERT Page # 111

163)

NCERT Page # 276

164)

NCERT Page # 284

165)

ATP is utilizes to contract muscle (Mechanical process)

166)

NCERT Page # 321

167)

NCERT Page # 339

168)

NCERT Page # 337

169)

NCERT Page # 294

170)

NCERT Page # 236

171) NCERT Pg.#44-46.

172) NCERT, Pg. # 50, 4.2.11.7

173) NCERT, Pg. # 47, Para-4.2.11

174) NCERT Pg. # 79

175) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 187

176) NCERT XI Pg.# 282 - 283

177) NCERT Pg # 209, 210

178) NCERT Page no 297

179) NCERT Page No.- 105(old);

180)

NCERT XI Pg.# 236