CAREER POINT .

AIPMT - 2005

AIPMT - 2005
Q.1 The work functions for metals A, B and C are Q.7 Two charges q1 and q2 are placed 30 cm apart,
respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5eV. According as shown in the figure. A third charge q3 is
to Einstein's equation, the metals which will emit moved along the arc of a circle of radius 40 cm
photo electrons for a radiation of wavelength from C to D. The change in the potential energy
4100Å is/are- q3
(1) None (2) A only of the system is k , where k is –
4π∈0
(3) A and B only (4) All the three metals
q3
Q.2 Zener diode is used for:- C
(1) Rectification
40 cm
(2) Stabilisation
(3) Amplification q2
q1
(4) Producing oscillations in an oscillator D
A 30 cm B
2 3
→ 42 He + 10 n . If the (1) 8q2 (2) 6q2 (3) 8q1 (4) 6q1
Q.3 In the reaction 1 H + 1H

binding energies of 2 3
1 H, 1 H and 4
2 He are Q.8 An electron moves in a circular orbit with a
respectively a, b and c (in MeV), then the energy uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B
(in MeV) released in this reaction is at the centre of the circle. The radius of the
(1) a + b + c (2) c + a – b circle is proportional to :
(3) c – a – b (4) a + b – c v v
(1) (2)
B B
Q.4 In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series
with an alternating voltage source of frequency f. B B
(3) (4)
The current leads the voltage by 45º. The value v v
of C is -
Q.9 A 5-ampere fuse wire can withstand a
1 1
(1) (2) maximum power of 1 watt in the circuit. The
2πf (2πf L − R ) 2πf (2πf L + R )
resistance of the fuse wire is :
1 1 (1) 5 ohm (2) 0.04 ohm
(3) (4)
πf (2πf L − R ) πf (2πf L + R ) (3) 0.2 ohm (4) 0.4 ohm

Q.5 Which of the following processes is reversible Q.10 As per this diagram a point charge +q is placed
(1) Transfer of heat by radiation at the origin O. Work done in taking another
(2) Transfer of heat by conduction point charge –Q from the point A coordinates
(3) Isothermal compression (0, a) to another point B coordinates (a, 0) along
(4) Electrical heating of a nichrome wire the straight path AB is
y
Q.6 Two batteries, one of emf 18 volts and internal
resistance 2Ω and the other of emf 12 volt and A
internal resistance 1Ω, are connected as shown.
The voltmeter V will record a reading of.
V O x
B
2Ω
 − qQ 1 
18V (1)   2a
2 
(2) zero
1Ω  4πε 0 a 
12V  qQ 1  1  qQ 1 
(1) 18 volt (2) 30 volt (3)  
2 
(4)   2a
2 
(3) 14 volt (4) 15 volt  4πε 0 a  2  4πε 0 a 

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Q.11 A very long straight wire carries a current I. At Q.18 A bomb of mass 30kg at rest explodes into two
the instant when a charge +Q at point P has pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity
→
of 18kg mass is 6ms–1. The kinetic energy of the
velocity V , as shown, the force on the charge is- other mass is :
y (1) 524 J (2) 256 J (3) 486 J (4) 324 J
Q.19 The nuclei of which one of the following pairs
Q of nuclei are isotones :
→ O x
P v (1) 34Se74, 31Ga71 (2) 38Sr84, 38Sr86
92 92
(3) 42Mo , 40Zr (4) 20Ca40, 16S32
I
Q.20 A photosensitive metallic surface has work
(1) Along ox (2) Opposite to oy function, h ν0. If photons of energy 2h ν0 fall on
(3) Along oy (4) Opposite to ox this surface, the electrons come out with a
maximum velocity of 4 × 106 m/s. When the
Q.12 If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of photon energy is increased to 5hν0, then
diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and maximum velocity of photo electrons will be
ferromagnetic material are denoted by µd, µp and (1) 2 ×107 m/s (2) 2 × 106 m/s
5
(3) 8 × 10 m/s (4) 8 × 106 m/s
µf respectively, then
(1) µp = 0 and µf ≠ 0 (2) µd ≠ 0 and µp = 0 Q.21 As a result of change in the magnetic flux
linked to the closed loop shown in the figure, an
(3) µd ≠ 0 and µf ≠ 0 (4) µd = 0 and µp ≠ 0
e.m.f. V volt is induced in the loop. The work
Q.13 Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive done (joules) in taking a charge Q coulomb
waves given by Y1 = 4 sin 500 πt and Y2 = 2 sin once along the loop is-
506 πt Number of beats produced per minute is
(1) 3 (2) 360 (3) 180 (4) 60

Q.14 When a wire of uniform cross-section a, length l

and resistance R is bent into a complete circle,
(1) QV (2) QV/2
resistance between any two of diametrically
(3) 2QV (4) Zero
opposite points will be -
(1) R/2 (2) R/4 (3) R/8 (4) 4R Q.22 An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot
cycle between 227ºC and 127ºC. It absorbs
Q.15 A particle executing simple harmonic motion of 6 × 104 cals of heat at higher temperature.
amplitude 5 cm has maximum speed of 31.4 Amount of heat converted to work is:-
cm/s. The frequency of its oscillation is : (1) 4.8 × 104 cals (2) 2.4 × 104 cals
(3) 1.2 × 104 cals (4) 6 × 104 cals
(1) 1Hz (2) 3Hz (3) 2Hz (4) 4Hz
Q.23 A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of
Q.16 The temperature of inversion of a thermocouple
side l is suspended between the pole pieces of a
is 620ºC and the neutral temperature is 300ºC. r
permanent magnet such that B is in place of the
What is the temperature of cold junction :
coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a torque
(1) 40ºC (2) 20ºC (3) 320ºC (4) –20ºC
τ acts on it, the side l of the triangle is-
Q.17 The ratio of the dimension of Planck's constant 2  τ  1 τ
(1)   (2)
and that of the moment of inertia is the 3  Bi  3 Bi
dimension of : 1 1
 τ 2 2  τ 2
(1) Velocity (2) Angular momentum (3) 2 
 (4)  
 3Bi  3  Bi 
(3) Time (4) Frequency

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Q.24 If λv, λx and λm represent the wavelengths of Q.30 Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding
visible light, x-rays and microwaves respectively, energy per nucleon in them-
then- (1) Decreases with mass number at low mass
numbers
(1) λm > λx > λv (2) λv > λm > λx
(2) Increases with mass number at low mass
(3) λv > λx > λm (4) λm > λv > λx numbers
(3) Decreases with mass number at high mass
Q.25 For a satellite moving in an orbit around the
numbers
earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential
(4) Increases with mass number at high mass
energy is - numbers
1 1
(1) (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) Q.31 The angular resolution of a 10cm diameter
2 2
telescope at a wavelength of 5000Å is of the
Q.26 For the network shown in the figure the value of order of -
(1) 10–4 rad (2) 10–6 rad
the current i is – 6
(3) 10 rad (4) 10–2 rad
2Ω
Q.32 A network of four capacitors of capacity equal
4Ω to C1 = C, C2 = 2C, C3 = 3C and C4 = 4C are
4Ω
conducted to a battery as shown in the figure.
3Ω
The ratio of the charges on C2 and C4 is –
i 6Ω

V C2

18V 5V C3 C1
(1) (2) C4
5 9
9V 5V V
(3) (4)
35 18
7 22 3 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Q.27 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of 4 3 22 7
radius 'R' and mass 'M' about an axis passing from
Q.33 A drum of radius R and mass M, rolls down
the edge of the disc and normal to the disc is- without slipping along an inclined plane of
1 7 angle θ. The frictional force-
(1) MR2 (2) MR2
2 2 (1) Decreases the rotational and translational motion
3 (2) Dissipates energy as heat
(3) MR2 (4) MR2
2 (3) Decreases the rotational motion
(4) Converts translational energy to rotational energy
Q.28 In any fission process the ratio
Q.34 A stone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long is
mass of fission products
is- whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant
mass of parent nucleus
speed. If the stone makes 22 revolution in 44
(1) Greater than 1 seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of
(2) Depends on the mass of the parent nucleus acceleration of the stone-
(3) Equal to 1 (1) π2ms–2 and direction along the tangent to
(4) Less than 1 the circle
(2) π2ms–2 and direction along the radius
Q.29 Copper has face centered cubic (fcc) lattice with towards the centre.
interatomic spacing equal to 2.54Å. The value of π2
(3) ms–2 and direction along the radius
lattice constant for this lattice is- 4
(1) 3.59Å (2) 2.54 Å towards the centre.
(4) π2ms–2 and direction along the radius away
(3) 1.27 Å (4) 5.08 Å
from the centre.
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Q.35 Choose the only false statement from the Q.41 Imagine a new planet having the same density
following- as that of earth but it is 3 times bigger than the
(1) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases earth in size. If the acceleration due to gravity
with increase in temperature
on the surface of earth is g and that on the
(2) Substances with energy gap of the order of
surface of the new planet is g', then -
10eV are insulators.
(1) g' = 3g (2) g' = 9g
(3) In conductors the valence and conduction
bands may over lap (3) g' = g/9 (4) g' = 27g
(4) The conductivity of a semiconductor → →
increases with increases in temperature. Q.42 If the angle between the vector A and B is θ,
→ → →
Q.36 The circular motion of a particle with constant the value of the product ( B × A ). A is equal to -
speed is-
(1) Zero (2) BA2 sin θ cos θ
(1) Periodic and simple harmonic
(2) Simple harmonic but not periodic (3) BA2 cos θ (4) BA2 sin θ
(3) Neither periodic nor simple harmonic
Q.43 A point source emits sound equally in all
(4) Periodic but not simple harmonic
directions in a non-absorbind medium. Two
Q.37 The total energy of an electron in the first excited points P and Q are at distance of 2m and 3m
state of hydrogen atom is about –3.4eV. Its
respectively from the source. The ratio of the
kinetic energy in this state is-
intensities of the waves at P and Q is -
(1) –6.8 eV (2) 3.4 eV
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 6.8 eV (4) –3.4 eV
(3) 9 : 4 (4) 4 : 9
Q.38 Carbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have four
valence electrons each. Their valence and Q.44 A force F acting on an object varies with
conduction bands are separated by energy band distance x as shown here.
gaps represented by (Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge F (N)
respectively. Which one of the following 3
relationships is true in their case 2
(1) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge (2) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si 1
0
(3) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si (4) (Eg)C < (Eg)Si 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
x in (m)
Q.39 Which of the following circular rods, (given
The force is in N and x in m. The work done by
radius r and length l) each made of the same
energy material and whose ends are maintained the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x =
at the same temperature will conduct most heat 6 m is
(1) r = 2r0; l = 2l0 (2) r = 2r0 ; l = l 0 (1) 18.0 J (2) 13.5 J
(3) r = r0 ; l = 2l 0 (4) r = r0 ; l = l 0 (3) 4.5 J (4) 9.0 J

Q.40 If a vector 2î + 3 ĵ + 8k̂ is perpendicular to the Q.45 Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction -
(1) Widens the depletion zone
vector 4 ĵ − 4î + αk̂ , then the value of α
(2) Increases the number of donors on the n side
1
(1) –1 (2) − (3) Increases the potential difference across the
2
1 depletion zone
(3) (4) 1
2 (4) Increases the electric field in the depletion
zone
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Q.46 Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom Q.51 Which one of the following is an inner orbital
correspond to increasing values of energy i.e. complex as well as diamagnetic in behaviour -
EA < EB < EC. If λ1, λ2 and λ3 are wave lengths (1) [Zn (NH3)6]2+ (2) [Ni (NH3)6]2+
of radiations corresponding to transitions C to B, (3) [Cr (NH3)6]3+ (4) [Co (NH3)6]3+
B to A and C to A respectively, which of the
Q.52 Which one of the following oxides is expected
following relations is correct -
to exhibit paramagnetic behaviour -
(1) λ3 = λ1 + λ2 (2) λ1 + λ2 + λ3 = 0 (1) CO2 (2) ClO2 (3) SO2 (4) SiO2
λ1λ 2
(3) λ23 = λ21 + λ22 (4) λ 3 = Q.53 The best method for the separation of
λ1 + λ 2
naphthalene and benzoic acid from their mixture
Q.47 The displacement x of a particle varies with time is -
t as x = ae–αt + beβt, where a , b, α and β are (1) Sublimation
positive constants. The velocity of the particle (2) Chromatograpy
will - (3) Crystallisation
(4) Distillation
(1) Be independent of α and β
(2) Go on increasing with time Q.54 Which one of the following forms micelles in
(3) Drop to zero when α = β aqueous solution above certain concentration -
(4) Go on decreasing with time (1) Glucose
(2) Urea
Q.48 Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a
(3) Dodecy1 trimetly1 ammonium chloride
ground where AB = a. The boy at B starts. (4) Pyridinium chloride
running in a direction perpendicular to AB with
velocity v1. The boy at A starts running Q.55 The aqueous solution containing which one of
simultaneously with velocity v and catches the the following ions will be colourless -
other boy in a time t, where t is - (1) Fe2+ (2) Mn2+ (3) Ti3+ (4) Sc3+
[Atomic number : Sc = 21, Fe = 26, Ti = 24,
a a2 Mn = 25]
(1) (2)
v 2 + v12 v 2 − v12
Q.56 A reaction occurs spontaneously if -
a a (1) T∆S > ∆H and ∆H is +ve and ∆S are –ve
(3) (4)
( v − v1 ) ( v + v1 ) (2) T∆S = ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve
(3) T∆S < ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve
Q.49 Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and
2I respectively about their axis of rotation. If (4) T∆S > ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve

their kinetic energies of rotation are equal, their Q.57 In a face –centered cubic lattice, a unit cell is
angular momentum will be in the ratio - shared equally by how many unit cells :-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 :1 (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 8

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 Q.58 Which amongst the following is the most stable
carbocation :-
Q.50 A ball is thrown vertically up ward. It has a
+ +
speed of 10m/sec when it has reached one half of (1) CH 3 C H 2 (2) C H 3
its maximum height. How high does the ball CH3
+
rise? Take g = 10 m/s2 - (3) CH3 – C+ (4) CH3 – CH
(1) 5m (2) 15m CH3 CH3
(3) 10 m (4) 20 m

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Q.59 Equilibrium constants K1 and K2 for the Q.65 The absolute enthalpy of neutralisation of the
following equilibria : reaction :
1 K1 MgO(s) +2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq)+H2O(1) will
NO(g) + O2 NO2 (g) and
2 be : -
K2 (1) 57.33 kJ mol–1
2NO2(g) 2NO(g) + O2(g)
(2) –57.33 kJ mol–1
are related as -
(3) Greater than –57.33 kJ mol–1
1 K1 (4) Less than –57.33 kJ mol–1
(1) K2 = (2) K2 =
K1 2
Q.66 Which one of the following alkenes will react
1
(3) K2 = (4) K2 = K12 faster with H2 under catalytic hydrogenation
K12
conditions :-
Q.60 The mole fraction of the solute in one molal R R R R
(1) (2)
aqueous solution is :- R R H H
(1) 0.027 (2) 0.036 R R R H
(3) (4)
(3) 0.018 (4) 0.009 R H R H
[R = Alkyl substituent]
Q.61 The chirality of the compound
Br Q.67 A solution of urea (mol. mass 56 g mol–1) boils
C H at 100.18ºC at the atomospheric pressure. If Kf
is : -
H3C Cl and Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.512K kg mol–1
(1) E (2) R (3) S (4) Z respectively , the above solution will freeze at :-
(1) –6.54ºC (2) –0.654ºC
Q.62 Which one of the following arrangements (3) 6.54ºC (4) 0.654ºC
represents the correct order of electron gain
Q.68 The energy of second Bohr orbit of the
enthalpy (with negative sign) of the given atomic
hydrogen atom is –328 kJ mol–1; hence the
species :-
energy of fourth Bohr orbit would be :-
(1) F < Cl < O < S (2) S < O < Cl < F
(1) –1312 kJ mol–1 (2) –82 kJ mol–1
(3) O < S < F < Cl (4) Cl < F < S < O
(3) –41 kJ mol–1 (4) –164 kJ mol–1
Q.63 The vapour pressure of two liquids 'P' and 'Q' are
Q.69 The surface tension of which of the following
80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour
liquid is maximum :-
pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 mole
(1) C6H6 (2) H2O
of P and 2 mole of Q would be :-
(3) C2H5OH (4) CH3OH
(1) 68 torr (2) 140 torr
(3) 72 torr (4) 20 torr Q.70 Which one of the following pair represents
stereo isomerism :-
Q.64 The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving (1) Linkage isomerism and Geometrical
only carbondioxide) in the production of 270 kg isomerism
of aluminium metal from bauxite by the Hall (2) Chain isomerism and Rotational isomerism
process is :- (3) Optical isomerism and Geometrical
(1) 90 kg (2) 540 kg isomerism
(3) 180 kg (4) 270 kg (4) Structural isomerism and Geometrical
(Atomic mass : Al = 27) isomerism

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Q.71 The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced by one Q.78 Which functional group participates in
mole of KI in alkaline medium is :- disulphide bond formation in proteins :-
(1) One (2) Two (3) Five (4) One fifth (1) Thioether (2) Thiol
(3) Thioester (4) Thiolactone
Q.72 Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic
substitution exclusively by SN1mechanism : Q.79 At 25ºC, the dissociation constant of a base,
(1) Ethyl chloride (2) Isopropyl chloride BOH, is 1.0 × 10–12. The concentration of
(3) Benzyl chloride (4) Chlorobenzene hydroxyl ions in 0.01M aqueous solution of the
base would be :-
Q.73 Four successive members of the first row
(1) 1.0 × 10–6 mole L–1
transition elements are listed below with their
(2) 1.0 × 10–7 mole L–1
atomic numbers. which one of them is expected
(3) 2.0 × 10–6 mole L–1
to have the highest third ionization enthalpy :-
(4) 1.0 × 10–5 mole L–1
(1) Vanadium (Z = 23)
(2) Manganese (Z = 25) Q.80 The correct order in which the O-O bond length
(3) Chromium (Z = 24) increases in the following is :-
(4) Iron (Z = 26) (1) O3 < H2O2 < O2 (2) O2 < O3 < H2O2
(3) O2 < H2O2 < O3 (4) H2O2 < O2 < O3
Q.74 Which one of the following is expected to
exhibit optical isomerism ? Q.81 Which of the following molecules has trigonal
(en = ethylenediamine) planner geometry ;
(1) cis – [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (1) NH3 (2) BF3 (3) PCl3 (4) IF3
(2) cis – [Co(en)2Cl2]
Q.82 The main reason for larger number of oxidation
(3) trans – [Co(en)2Cl2]
states exhibited by the actinoids than the
(4) trans – [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
corresponding lanthanoids, is :-
Q.75 A solution has a 1 :4 mole ratio of pentane to (1) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d
hexane. The vapour pressures of the pure orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals
hydrocarbons at 20ºC are 440 mm Hg for (2) More energy difference between 5f and 6d
pentane and 120 mm Hg for hexane. The mole orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals
fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would (3) Greater reactive nature of the actinoids than
be- the lanthanoids
(1) 0.200 (2) 0.478 (3) 0.549 (4) 0.786 (4) Larger atomic size of actinoids than the
Q.76 The rate of reaction between two reactants A and lanthanoids
B decreases by a factor of 4 if the concentration
Q.83 Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly
of reactant B is doubled. The order of this
acidic medium gives :-
reaction with respect to reactant B is :-
(1) Aniline
(1) 2 (2) –1 (3) 1 (4) –2
(2) p-Hydroxy aniline
Q.77 The monomer of the polymer : (3) N-Phenyl hydroxyl amine
CH3 CH3 (4) Nitroso benzene
CH2 – C – CH2 –C⊕ is :-
Q.84 Which one of the following compounds is most
CH3 CH3
acidic :-
(1) CH3CH = CH.CH3 OH OH
(2) CH3CH = CH2 (1) (2)
(3) (CH3)2 C = C (CH3)2 NO2 CH3
CH3 OH
(4) H2C = C
CH3 (3) (4) Cl–CH2–CH2–OH

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Q.85 For a first order reaction A → B the reaction rate Q.90 Which of the following pairs of a chemical
at reactant concentration of 0.01M is found to be reaction is certain to result in a spontaneous
2.0 × 10–5 mole L–1s–1. The half life period of the reaction -
(1) Endothermic and decreasing disorder
reaction is :-
(2) Exothermic and increasing disorder
(1) 300s (2) 30s
(3) Endothermic and increasing disorder
(3) 220s (4) 347s (4) Exothermic and decreasing disorder
Q.86 What is the correct relationship between the pHs Q.91 Products of the following reaction :
of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide (pH1), CH3C ≡ CCH2CH3  
(i ) O
3
→ are -
( 2) Hydrolysis
sodium sulphide (pH2), sodium selenide (pH3)
and sodium telluride (pH4) ? (1) CH3COOH + CH3COCH3
(2) CH3COOH + HOOC. CH2CH3
(1) pH1< pH2 < pH3 < pH4
(3) CH3CHO + CH3CH2CHO
(2) pH1 > pH2 > pH3 > pH4
(4) CH3COOH + CO2
(3) pH1 < pH2 < pH3 ≈ pH4
Q.92 Which of the following would have a permanent
(4) pH1 > pH2 ≈ pH3 > pH4
dipole moment -
Q.87 The cell membranes are mainly composed of :- (1) BF3 (2) SF4 (3) SiF4 (4) XeF4
(1) Phospholipids (2) Proteins Q.93 Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product D
(3) Fats (4) Carbohydrates NH2 CuCN
NaNo

HCl
2 → A → B
Q.88 The major organic product formed from the
following reaction HNO 2 H2
D ←  C
Ni
O (i)CH 3 NH 2
is - The structure of the product D would be -
(ii) LiAlH4 (ii)H 2 O
(1) C6H5CH2OH (2) C6H5CH2NH2
H (3) C6H5NHOH (4) C6H5NHCH2CH3
NCH3
(1) (2) Q.94 The correct sequence of increasing covalent
NCH3
OH H character is represented by -
H (1) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
NCH3 (2) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2
(3) (4) O–NHCH3
OH (3) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
(4) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2

Q.89 In a set of reactions acetic acid yielded a product Q.95 IUPAC Name of some compounds are given.
D Which one is incorrect -
CH3
CH3COOH SOCl
2 → A Benzene
 → B
Anhy.AlCl 3 (1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH–CH–CH2CH3
HCN H 2O CH2CH3
→ C → D
3-Methyl-4-ethyl-heptance
The structure of D would be -
(2) CH3–CH–CH–CH3
OH COOH
OH CH3
–C–COOH –CH2–C–CH3
(1) (2) 3-Methyl-2-butanol
CH3 OH
(3) CH3–CH2–C – CH–CH3
CN OH CH2 CH3
–C–CH3 –CH2–C–CH3
(3) (4) 2-Ethyl-3-methyl-but-1-ene
OH CN
(4) CH3–C ≡ C–CH(CH3)2
4-Methyl-2-pentyne
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Q.96 A nuclide of an alkaline earth metal undergoes Q.102 During which stage in the complete oxidation of
radioactive decay by emission of the α-particles glucose are the greatest number of ATP
molecules formed from ADP -
is succession. The group of the periodic table to
(1) Glycolysis
which the resulting daughter element would
(2) Krebs cycle
belong is :- (3) Electron transport chain
(1) Gr. 4 (2) Gr.6 (3) Gr.16 (4) Gr.14 (4) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA

Q.97 4.5g of aluminium (at. mass 27 amu) is deposited Q.103 Ectophloic siphonostele is found in -
at cathode from Al3+ solution by a certain (1) Osmunda and Equisetum
(2) Adiantum and Cucurbitaceae
quantity of electric charge. The volume of
(3) Marsilea and Botrychium
hydrogen produced at STP from H+ ions in
(4) Dicksonia and Maiden hair fern
solution by the same quantity of electric charge
Q.104 G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated
will be -
with haemolysis of -
(1) 44.8L (2) 11.2L (3) 22.4L (4) 5.6L
(1) Leucocytes (2) Lymphocytes
Q.98 Which of the following is the electron deficient (3) Platelets (4) RBCs

molecule - Q.105 Which of the following statements regarding

(1) C2H6 (2) SiH4 (3) PH3 (4) B2H6 enzyme inhibition is correct -
(1) Competitive inhibition is seen when a
Q.99 H2S gas when passed through a solution of substrate competes with an enzyme for
cations containing HCl precipitates the cations of binding to an inhibitor protein
second group of qualitative analysis but not (2) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the
enzyme irreversibly
those belonging to the fourth group. It is
(3) Competitive inhibition is seen when the
because-
substrate and the inhibitor compete for the
(1) Presence of HCl decreases the sulphide ion active site on the enzyme
concentration. (4) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme
(2) Sulphides of group IV cations are unstable in can be overcome by adding large amount of
HCl substrate
(3) Solubility product of group II sulphides is Q.106 In contrast to Annelids the Platyhelminths show
more than that of group IV sulphides (1) Absence of body cavity
(4) Presence of HCl increases the sulphides ion (2) Presence of pseudocoel
concentration (3) Radial symmetry
(4) Bilateral symmetry
Q.100 The correct order of acid strength is -
Q.107 Which of the following represents the edible
(1) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO part of the fruit of Litchi -
(2) HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO (1) Endocarp (2) Pericarp
(3) HClO4 < HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 (3) Juicy aril (4) Mesocarp
(4) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 Q.108 Which one of the following pairs in
mismatched-
Q.101 Which of the following is the simplest amino
(1) Nuclear power – radioactive wastes
acid -
(2) Solar energy – green house effect
(1) Alanine (2) Asparagine (3) Fossil fuel burning – release of CO2
(3) Glycine (4) Tyrosine (4) Biomass burning – release of CO2
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Q.109 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be Q.114 Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future
classified into a single category of biological with the following improved trait -
chemicals, because all of these - (1) High protein content
(1) Are exclusively synthesized in the body of a (2) High vitamin – A content
living organism as at present (3) High lysine (essential amino acid) content
(2) enhance oxidative metabolism
(4) Insect resistance
(3) Are conjugated proteins
(4) Help in regulating metabolism Q.115 In a type of apomixis known as adventive
embryony, embryos develop directly from the -
Q.110 E. coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac
(1) Synergids or antipodals in an embryo sac
operon cannot grow in medium containing only
(2) Nucellus or integuments
lactose as the source of energy because -
(1) They cannot synthesize functional beta (3) Zygote

galactosidase (4) Accessory embryo sacs in the ovule

(2) They cannot transport lactose from the
Q.116 All of the following statements concerning the
medium into the cell
Actinomycetous filamentous soil bacterium
(3) The lac operon is constitutively active in
Frankia are correct EXCEPT that Frankia -
these cells
(1) Forms specialized vesicles in which the
(4) In the presence of glucose, E. coli cells do
not utilize lactose nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a
chemical barrier involving triterpene
Q.111 The deficiencies of micronutrients, not only
hopanoids
affects growth of plants but also vital functions
(2) Can induce root nodules on many plant
such as photosynthetic and mitochondrial
species
electron flow. Among the list given below,
(3) Like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host
which group of three elements shall affect most,
plant through root hair deformation and
both photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron
transport - stimulates cell proliferation in the host's

(1) Ca, K, Na (2) Co, Ni, Mo cortex

(3) Mn, Co, Ca (4) Cu, Mn, Fe (4) Cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living state

Q.112 Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the Q.117 In ornithine cycle which of the following wastes
pollen tube enter the embryo sac- are removed form the blood -
(1) Persistant synergid (1) CO2 and ammonia
(2) Egg cell (2) Ammonia and urea
(3) Central cell (3) CO2 and urea
(4) Degenerated synergid
(4) Urea and urine
Q.113 An acromian process is characteristically found Q.118 At a particular locus, frequency of 'A' allele is
in the - 0.6 and that of 'a' is 0.4. What would be the
(1) Skull of frog frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating
(2) Sperm of mammals population at equilibrium -
(3) Pelvic girdle of mammals (1) 0.24 (2) 0.16 (3) 0.48 (4) 0.36
(4) Pectoral girdle of mammals
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Q.119 Four healthy people in their twenties got Q.126 Match items in Column I with those in
involved in injuries resulting in damage and Column II -
death of a few cell of the following. Which of the Column I Column II
cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells - (A) Peritrichous (J) Ginkgo
(1) Osteocytes flagellation
(2) Liver cells (B) Living fossil (K) Macrocystes
(3) Neurons (C) Rhizophore (L) Escherichia coli
(4) Malpighian layer of the skin (D) Smallest
flowering plant (M) Selaginella
Q.120 Which one of the following makes use of RNA
(E) Largest (N) Wolffia
as a template to synthesize DNA -
Perennial alga
(1) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
(2) DNA polymerase Select the correct answer with the following

(3) Reverse transcriptase (1) A –L ; B –J; C –M ; D – N ; E – K

(4) RNA polymerase (2) A– K ; B – J; C – L ; D –M; E – N

(3) A– J ; B – K; C – N ; D –L; E – K
Q.121 A student wishes to study the cell structure under (4) A– N ; B – L; C – K ; D – N; E –J
a light microscope having 10X eyepiece and 45X
objective. He should illuminate the object by Q.127 Using imprints from a plate with complete
which one of the following colours of light so as medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you
get the best possible resolution - can select streptomycin resistant mutants and
(1) Red (2) Green (3) Yellow (4) Blue prove that such mutations do not originates as
adaptation. These imprints need to be used -
Q.122 As compared to a C3-plant, how many additional
(1) On plates with and without streptomycin
molecules of ATP are needed for net production
(2) Only on plates with streptomycin
of one molecule of hexose sugar by C4-plants -
(3) On plates with minimal medium
(1) Zero (2) Six
(4) Only on plates without streptomycin
(3) Two (4) Twelve
Q.128 Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the
Q.123 Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been
chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on
used for designing novel -
(1) Membrane potential
(1) Bioinsecticidal plants
(2) Accumulation of K ions
(2) Bio-mineralization processes
(3) Proton gradient
(3) Biofertilizers
(4) Accumulation of Na ions
(4) Bio-metallurgical techniques
Q.129 Which one of the following experiments
Q.124 Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive
suggests that simplest living organisms could
hormones. They are secreted in -
not have originated spontaneously from non-
(1) Oesophagus (2) Ileum
living matter -
(3) Duodenum (4) Pyloric stomach
(1) Larva cound appear in decaying organic
Q.125 Grey crescent is the area - matter
(1) At the point of entry of sperm into ovum (2) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept
(2) Just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into sealed in a vessel
ovum (3) microbes did not appear in stored meat
(3) At the animal pole (4) Microbes appeared form unsterilized organic
(4) At the vegetal pole matter
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Q.130 Which of the following is not used for Q.137 Which of the following is generally used for
disinfection of drinking water - induced mutagenesis in crop plants -
(1) Chlorine (2) Phenyl (1) Gamma rays (from cobalt 60)
(3) Chloramine (4) Ozone (2) Alpha particles
(3) X rays
Q.131 Which of the following characters is not typical (4) UV (260 nm)
of the class Mammalia -
Q.138 One of the most important functions of
(1) Alveolar lungs
botanical gardens is that -
(2) Ten pairs of cranial nerves (1) They allow ex-situ conservation of germ
(3) Seven cervical vertebrae plasm
(4) Thecodont dentition (2) They provide the natural habitat for wild life
(3) One can observe tropical plants there
Q.132 Identify the correctly matched pair -
(4) They provide a beautiful area for recreation
(1) Kyoto protocol – Climatic change
(2) Montreal Protocol - Global warming Q.139 The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to
(3) Basal Convention – Biodiversity Conservation filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is -
(1) 20 mm Hg (2) 50 mm Hg
(4) Ramsar Convention – Ground water pollution
(3) 75 mm Hg (4) 30 mm Hg
Q.133 Auxospores and hormocysts are formed
Q.140 Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food
respectively, by -
absorption have on their surface -
(1) Some cyanobacteria and many diatoms (1) Zymogen granules (2) Pinocytic vesicles
(2) Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria (3) Phagocytic vesicles (4) Microvilli
(3) Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms
Q.141 If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which
(4) Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
one of the following is unlikely -
Q.134 Which one of the following phenomena supports (1) Estrogen secretion further decreases
Darwin's concept of natural selection in organic (2) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
(3) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
evolution -
(4) Primary follicle starts developing
(1) production of 'Dolly', the sheep by cloning
(2) Development of organs from 'stem' cells for Q.142 The catalytic efficiency of two different
organ transplantation enzymes can be compared by the -
(3) Development of transgenic animals (1) The Km value
(4) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects (2) The pH optimum value
(3) Molecular size of the enzyme
Q.135 The name of Norman Borlaug is associated with- (4) Formation of the product
(1) Green Revolution (2) White Revolution
Q.143 Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the
(3) Yellow Revolution (4) Blue Revolution Parliament in the year -
Q.136 Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. (1) 2002 (2) 1992 (3) 1996 (4) 2000

Each nucleotide is a composite molecule formed Q.144 The salivary gland chromosomes in the dipteran
by - larva, are useful in gene mapping because -
(1) Base-sugar-OH (1) They have endoreduplicated chromosomes
(2) Base-sugar-phosphate (2) These are fused
(3) Sugar-phosphate (3) These are easy to stain
(4) These are much longer in size
(4) (Base-sugar-phosphate)n
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Q.145 Top-shaped multiciliate male gametes, and the Q.150 Which one of the following hydrolyses internal
mature seed which bears only one embryo with phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain-
two cotyledons, are characteristic features of - (1) Lipase (2) protease
(1) Gamopetalous angiosperms (3) Exonuclease (4) Endonuclease
(2) Conifers
(3) Polypetalous angiosperms Q.151 Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules
(4) Cycads on earth, are produced by -
(1) Some bacteria, algae and green plant cells
Q.146 Which group of three of the following five (2) All bacteria, fungi and algae
statements (a-e) contain is all the three correct (3) Fungi, algae and green plants cells
statements regarding beri-beri -
(4) Viruses, fungi and bacteria
(a) A crippling disease prevalent among the
native population of sub-Saharan Africa Q.152 Animals have the innate ability to escape from
(b) A deficiency disease caused by lack of predation. Examples for the same are given
thiamine (vitamin B1) below. Select the incorrect example
(c) A nutritional disorder in infants and young (1) Colour change in chameleon
children when the diet is persistently deficient (2) Poison fangs in snakes
in essential protein (3) Melanism in moths
(d) Occurs in those countries where the staple (4) Enlargement of body size by swallowing air
diet is polished rice in puffer fish
(e) The symptoms are pain from neuritis,
paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive Q.153 Which one of the following represents an ovule,
oedema, mental deterioration and finally where the embryo sac becomes horse- shoe
heart failure shaped and the funiculus and micropyle are
(1) b, c and e (2) a, b and d close to each other -
(3) b, d and e (4) a, c and e (1) Amphitropous (2) Anatropous
(3) Circinotropous (4) Atropous
Q.147 Which of the following unicellular organism has
a macronucleus for trophic function and one or Q.154 Three crops that contribute maximum to global
more micronuclei for reproduction - food grain production are -
(1) Trypanosoma (2) Paramecium (1) Wheat, rice and maize
(3) Euglena (4) Amoeba (2) Rice, maize and sorghum
(3) Wheat maize and sorghum
Q.148 Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs -
(1) On ribosomes presents in cytoplasm as well (4) Wheat, rice and barley
as in mitochondria Q.155 Telomerase is an enzyme which is a -
(2) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as (1) RNA
well as in cytoplasm (2) Ribonucleoprotein
(3) Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear
(3) Repetitive DNA
envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Simple protein
(4) Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
Q.156 In order to find out the different types of
Q.149 Centromere is required for -
gametes produced by a pea plants having the
(1) Movement of chromosomes towards poles
genotype AaBb, it should be crossed to a plant
(2) Cytoplasmic cleavage
with the genotype -
(3) Crossing over
(1) AaBb (2) aabb (3) AABB (4) aaBB
(4) Transcription
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Q.157 Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural fields Q.163 More than 70% of world's fresh water is
is likely to create the problem of - contained in –
(1) Aridity (2) Metal toxicity (1) Antarctica
(3) salinity (4) Acidity (2) Polar ice
Q.158 According to widely accepted "fluid mosaic (3) Glaciers and Mountains
model" cell membranes are semi-fluid, where (4) Greenland
lipids and integral proteins can diffuse randomly.
Q.164 A woman with normal vision, but whose father
In recent years, this model has been modified in
several respects. In this regard, which of the was colour bind, marries a colour blind man.
following statements are incorrect - Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was
(1) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop a boy. This boy -
movements in the lipid bilayer (1) Must have normal colour vision
(2) Many proteins remain completely embedded (2) May be colour blind or may be normal
within the lipid bilayer vision
(3) Proteins in cell membranes can travel within (3) Will be partially colour blind since he is
the lipid bilayer
heterozygous for the colour blind mutant
(4) Proteins can remain confined within certain
allele.
domains of the membranes
(4) Must be colour blind
Q.159 There exists a close association between the alga
and the fungus within a lichen. The fungus - Q.165 production of a human protein in bacteria by
(1) Provides food for the alga genetic engineering is possible because
(2) Provides protection, anchorage and (1) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing
absorption for the alga reactions
(3) Fixes the atomospheric nitrogen for the alga (2) The mechanism of gene regulation is
(4) releases oxygen for the alga identical in humans and bacteria
Q.160 In a woody dicotyledonous tree, which of the (3) The human chromosome can replicate in
following parts will mainly consist of primary bacterial cell
tissues - (4) The genetic code is universal
(1) Stem and root
(2) All parts Q.166 Which of the following substances, if
(3) Shoot tips and root tips introduced into the blood stream, would cause
(4) Flowers, fruit and leaves coagulation of blood at the site of its
introduction -
Q.161 Which of the following is not a hereditary
(1) Thromboplastin (2) Fibrinogen
disease -
(1) Haemophilia (2) Cretinism (3) Heparin (4) Prothrombin

(3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Thalasasemia Q.167 The world's highly prized wool yielding
Q.162 Which of the following is the relatively most 'Pashmina' breed is -
accurate method for dating of fossils - (1) Kashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross
(1) Electron-spin resonance method (2) Goat
(2) Uranium-lead method (3) Sheep
(3) Potassium–argon method (4) Goat-sheep cross
(4) Radio-carbon method
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Q.168 Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less Q.174 Which one of the following depresses brain
limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because activity and produces feelings of calmness,
(1) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via relaxation and drowsiness -
(1) Morphine (2) Valium
PEP carboxylase
(3) Hashish (4) Amphetamines
(2) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath
cells Q.175 Why is vivipary an undersirable character for
(3) Four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2 annual crop plants -
(1) It reduces the vigour of the plant
fixation products
(2) The seeds exhibit long dormancy
(4) Rubisco in C4 plants has higher affinity for
(3) It adversely affects the fertility of the plant
CO2 (4) The seeds cannot be stored under normal
conditions for the next season
Q.169 One of the examples of the action of the
autonomous nervous system is - Q.176 There are two opposing views about origin of
(1) Knee-jerk reponse modern man. According to one view Homo
(2) Pupillary reflex erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern
man. A study of variation of DNA however
(3) Peristalsis of the intestines
suggested African origin of modern man. What
(4) Swallowing of food
kind of observation of DNA variation could
Q.170 At what stage of the cell cycle are histone suggest this -
proteins synthesized in a eukaryotic cell - (1) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
(2) Similar variation in Africa and Asia
(1) During telophase
(3) Variation only in Asia and no variation in
(2) During S-phase
Africa
(3) During G-2 stage of prophase (4) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
(4) During entire prophase
Q.177 Which of the following is not true for a species -
Q.171 During transcription holoenzyme RNA (1) Members of a species can interbreed
polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the (2) Variations occur among members of a
DNA assumes a saddle like structure at the point. species
(3) Gene flow does not occur between the
What is the sequence called -
populations of a species
(1) CAAT box (2) GGTT box
(4) Each species is reproductively isolated from
(3) AAAT box (4) TATA box every other species.
Q.172 The main organelle involved in modification and Q.178 Photosynthetic Active Radiation (PAR) has the
routing of newly synthesized proteins to their following range of wavelengths
destinations is - (1) 340-450 nm (2) 450-950 nm
(1) Endoplasmic Reticulum (3) 500-600 nm (4) 400-700 nm
(2) Lysosome Q.179 Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human
(3) Mitochondria males than in human females because -
(4) Chloroplast (1) This disease is due to a Y-linked recessive
mutation
Q.173 Damage to thymus in a child may lead to (2) This disease is due to an X-linked recessive
(1) A reduction in haemoglobin content of blood mutation
(2) A reduction in stem cell production (3) This disease is due to an X-linked dominant
(3) Loss of antibody mediated immunity mutation
(4) Loss of cell mediated immunity (4) A greater proportion of girls die in infancy

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Q.180 Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in - Q.187 At which latitude, heat gain through insolation
(1) Grana (2) Pyrenoid approximately equals heat loss through
(3) Stroma (4) Both (1) and (3) terrestrial radiation -

Q.181 AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects (1) 42 1 º North and South
2
(1) Activator B cells
(2) 22 1 º North and South
(2) T4 lymphocytes 2
(3) Cytotoxic T cells (3) 40º North and South
(4) All lymphocytes (4) 66º North and South

Q.182 Which one of the following pairs in Q.188 In a man, abduncens nerve is injured. Which
mismatched- one of the following functions will be affected
(1) Savanna - acacia trees (1) Swallowing
(2) Coniferous forest - evergreen trees (2) Movement of the eye ball
(3) Tundra - permafrost (3) Movement of the neck
(4) Prairie - epiphytes (4) Movement of the tongue
Q.183 In which one pair both the plants can be
Q.189 De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic
vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces -
evolution while working on -
(1) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
(1) Oenothera lamarckiana
(2) Agave and Kalanchoe
(2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Asparaguns and Bryophyllum
(3) Pisum sativum
(4) Chrysanthemum and Agave
(4) Althea rosea
Q.184 parkinson's disease (characterized by tremors
and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by Q.190 Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants
degeneration of brain neurons that are involved are generally located in -
in movement control and make use of (1) Nuclear genome
neurotransmitter - (2) Chloroplast genome
(1) Norepinephrine (2) Acetylcholine (3) Cytosol
(3) GABA (4) Dopamine (4) Mitochondrial genome

Q.185 A women with 47 chromosomes due to three Q.191 A patient is generally advised to specially
copies of chromosome 21 is characterized by - consume more meat, lentils, milk and eggs in
(1) Turner syndrome (2) Down syndrome diet only when he suffers from -
(3) Superfemaleness (4) Triploidy (1) Anemia (2) Scurvy
(3) Kwashiorkor (4) Rickets
Q.186 A man and a women, who do not show any
apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, Q.192 Barophilic prokaryotes -
have seven children (2 daughter and 5 sons). (1) Grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes
Three of the sons suffer from the given disease at high altitudes
but none of the daughters are affected. Which of
(2) Grow and multiply in very deep marine
the following mode of inheritance do you
sediments
suggest for this disease
(3) Readily grow and divide in sea water
(1) Sex-limited recessive
enriched in any soluble salt of barium
(2) Autosomal dominant
(4) Occur in water containing high
(3) Sex-linked recessive
concentrations of barium hydroxide
(4) Sex-linked dominant
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Q.193 An important step in the manufacture of pulp for Q.197 According to IUCN Red List, what is the status
paper industry from the woody tissues of plants of Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens) ?
is the - (1) Critically endangered species
(1) Removal of water form the wood by (2) Vulnerable species
prolonged heating at approximately 50º (3) Extinct species
(2) Treatment of wood with chemicals that break (4) Endangered species
down cellulose
Q.198 A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His
(3) Removal of oils present in the wood by
urine will be found to contain abnormal
treatment with suitable chemicals
quantities of -
(4) Preparation of pure cellulose by removing
(1) Fats (2) Amino acids
lignin
(3) Ketones (4) Glucose
Q.194 Potometer works on the principle of -
Q.199 For retting of Jute the fermenting microbe used
(1) Potential difference between the tip of the
is -
tube and that of the plant
(1) Methophilic bacteria
(2) Amount of water absorbed equals the amount
(2) Helicobactor pylori
transpired
(3) Butyric acid bacteria
(3) Osmotic pressure
(4) Streptococcus lactin
(4) Root pressure
Q.200 From the following statements select the wrong
Q.195 The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture
one -
insects is due to -
(1) Prawn has two pairs of antennae
(1) Rapid turgor pressure changes
(2) Milliepedes have two pairs of appendages in
(2) A passive process requiring no special ability
each segment of the body
on the part of the plant
(3) Animals belonging to Phylum porifera are
(3) Specialized "muscle-like" cells
exclusively marine
(4) Chemical stimulation by the prey
(4) Nematocysts are characteristic of the phylum
Q.196 Which of the following pairs, is correctly cnidaria.
matched -
(1) Fibrous joint – between phalanges
(2) Cartilaginous joint – skull bones
(3) Gliding joint – between zygapophyses of the
successive vertebrae
(4) Hinge joint – between vertebrae

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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2005
ANSWER KEY (AIPMT-2005)

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 3 2 3 2 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 4 3 2 1 4 4 3 1 4
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 1 3 3 4 4 4 3 4 1 3 2 3 4 2 1 4 2 2 2 2
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 1 1 3 2 2 4 2 2 3 3 4 2 1 3 4 4 3 3 3 3
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 2 3 3 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 2 4 4 2 2 2
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 2 1 1 1 4 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 1 4 4 4 1 4
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 3 3 1 4 3 1 3 2 4 1 4 4 4 2 2 2 1 3 3 3
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 4 4 1 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 2 1 2 4 1 2 1 1 1 4
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 4 1 1 1 4 3 2 1 1 4 1 4 1 1 2 2 3 1 2 4
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 2 1 2 2 4 1 2 2 3 2 4 1 4 2 4 1 3 4 2 1
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 2 4 1 4 2 3 4 2 1 4 3 2 4 2 1 3 4 3 3 3

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. Energy of photon =
12400
≈ 3eV C q3
4100
3. Energy released in given reaction = BE of products – 40cm
BE of reactants = C – (a+ b) = C – a – b 50cm
q1 q2
4. Here XC –XL· = R
A 30cm B10cm D
1
⇒ = (R + 2πfL)
2πfc 1  q1q 3 q1q 2 q 2 q 3 
Ui =  + + 
4π ∈0  (0.4) (0.3) (0.5) 
1
⇒ C=
2π(2πfL + R ) 1  q1q 3 q1q 2 q 2q 3 
Ui =  + + 
VL 4π ∈0  (0.4) (0.3) (0.1) 
I
45º
Therefore ∆U = Uf – Ui =
1  1 1 
q 2q 3  − 
V 4π ∈0  0.1 0.5 
VC
E1 E 2 q 2 q3 q
+ = (10 − 2 ) = 3 (8q 2 )
r1 r2 E r + E 2 r1 π ∈0 4π ∈0
6. Reading of voltmeter = = 12
1 1 r1 + r2
+ ⇒ K = 8q2
r1 r2
µ 0 I µ 0  e  µ 0  ev 
= 14 volt 8. B= =  =  
2R 2R  T  2R  2πR 
7.
µ 0 ev v
⇒ R2 = ⇒R∝
4πB B
P 1
9. P = I2 R ⇒ R = = = 0.04 Ω
I2 25

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1  (−qQ) ( −qQ)  → → → →
10. Work done = 
4π ∈0  a
−
a 
=0 21. Q ∫ E .d l = V ∴ ∫ Q E .d l = QV
→ → → →
→ → → ^ ^ ^ But Q E = F & F . d l = dW ⇒ W = QV
11. F = q ( v × B) = qvB( i× (− k )) = qvB j ⇒ force on
W T  T 
the charge is along OY 22. η= = 1 – 2 ⇒ W = Q 1 − 2 
Q T1  T1 
12. µp ≠ 0, µf ≠ 0 & µd = 0
= 1.2 × 104 cals
13. Number of beats per second = n2 – n1 = 3 1/ 2
3 2  τ 
(Q n1 = 250, n2 = 253) 23. τ = MB = (IA) B = I lB⇒l= 2 
4  3BI 
⇒ Number of beats produced per minute 26.
= 3 × 60 = 180 2Ω
R/2
4Ω 4Ω
l
14. A B 3Ω
R
6Ω
R/2 R
⇒ RAB =  =
 2  4 i
ω V 31.4 V
15. Vmax = aω ⇒ f = = max =
2π 2πa 2π × 5 4 2
Here = ⇒ Balanced wheat stone Bridge
31.4 6 3
= = 1 Hz
10π Therefore given ckt. can be reduced to
16. Let e = α (θ – θC) + β (θ2 – θ C2 ) 2Ω
18
where θC = temperature of cold junction. at inversion 4Ω Ω
5
α 3Ω
temperature e = 0 ⇒ θi = – θC – at neutral
β
6Ω i
de
temperature =0 i
dθ V
V
α
⇒ θn = – 5V
2β ⇒ i=
18
α θ + θC MR 2 3
⇒ θi = – – θC = 2θn – θc ⇒ θ n = i 27. I = Icm + Md2 = + MR2 = MR2
β 2 2 2
620 + θ C 29. For FCC 4r = a 2 but 2r = 2.54 Å
⇒ 300 = ⇒ θC = –20ºC
2 so a = ( 2 ) (2.54) = 3.59 Å
h J − sec ML T 2 −1
1 31. use θ ~ λ /a ~ 10–6 rad.
17. ≡ ≡ = ≡ frequency 32.
I Kg − m 2 ML2 T
C2 = 2C
P 2 (18 × 6) 2
18. KE = = = 486 J
2m 2 × 12 3C C

19. Isotones → Number of neutrons are same . 4C = C4

1
20. 2hv0 = hv0 + m(4×106)2
2 V
1 1 6  6CV
5hv0 = hv0 + mv2 ⇒ 4 × m(4×106) Q4 = 4 V; Q2 =  C  V =
2 2  11  11
1 Q 2 6CV 1 3
= mv2 ⇒ v = 8 × 106 m/s ⇒ = × =
2 Q4 11 4CV 22

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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2005
 1
2 48.
34. ar = ω2r = (2πn)2 r =  2π ×  (1) = π2 C
 2
aT = 0 ⇒ option (2) is correct
37. K.E. = – T.E. = + 3.4 eV
v
l l v1
39. Use RHeat = =
KA Kπr 2 B
A a
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ 1 Ac = vt, BC = v1t
40. ( 2 i + 3 j+ 8 k ). (4 j − 4 i + α k ) = 0 ⇒ α =
2
Q AB = AC 2 − BC 2
4
G π R 3ρ
GM 3 4 a
41. use g = 2
= 2
= πG ρR ∴a= v 2 t 2 − v12 t 2 ⇒ t =
R R 3 v − v12
2

→ → → → →
42. ( B× A ). A = (BA sin θ) ( n . A) = 0 L21 L22 L21 L2 L 1
49. = ⇒ = 2 ⇒ 1 =
→ → 2I1 2I1 2(I) 2(2I) L2 2
since n^ is perpendicular to both A & B
50.
1
43. Use I ∝
r2
10 m/s h/2
44. W= ∫ F. dx = Area under the curve

1 10 m/s
= (3× 3) + × (3) (3) = 13.5 J
2
h/2
46.
Ec
λ1
EB h 100
102 = 2(g)   ⇒ h = = 10 m
λ2 λ3 2
  10

EA
Q (EC – EB) + (EB – EA) = (EC – EA)
hc hc hc  λλ 
⇒ = + ⇒ λ 3 =  1 2 
λ 3 λ1 λ 2  λ1 + λ 2 
47. x = ae–αt + beβt
dx
v= = −a ∝ e − αt + .bβeβt
dt
dv
= a α2 e–αt + bβ2 eβt
dt
dv
Q > 0 (Always)
dt
⇒ v is increasing function of t
⇒ option (2) is correct

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