JEE Main 2025

April Session
Question Paper with
Solution
Contents
2nd April - Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution 3
2nd April - Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution 71
3rd April - Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution 128
3rd April - Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution 197
4th April - Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution 262
4th April - Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution 333
7th April - Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution 404
7th April - Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution 476
8th April - Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution 543

2
 JEE Main 2025

2 April - Shift 1
nd

Question Paper with Solution

3
Physics
Q. 1 A light wave is propagating with plane wave fronts of the type x + y + z = constant. The
angle made by the direction of wave propagation with the x -axis is :

Option 1:
−1 1
cos ( )
√3

Option 2:
−1 2
cos ( )
3

Option 3:
−1 1
cos ( )
3

Option 4:
−1 2
cos (√ )
3

Correct Answer:
−1 1
cos ( )
√3

Solution:
The direction of propagation of light is perpendicular to the wave front and is symmetric about x, y and z
axis.
∴ Angle made by the light with x, y&z axis is same.

∴ cos α = cos β = cos γ(α, β&γ are angle made by light with x, y&z axis respectively)

Also cos α + cos β + cos γ = 1 [Sum of direction cosines]

2 2 2

−1 1
∴ α = cos
√3

Hence, the answer is the option (1)

Q. 2 The equation for real gas is given by (P + a

)(V − b) = RT, where P, V, T and R are
2
V

the pressure, volume, temperature and gas constant, respectively. The dimension of ab is
−2

equivalent to that of:

Option 1:
Planck's constant

4
 Option 2:
Compressibility

Option 3:
Strain

Option 4:
Energy density

Correct Answer:
Energy density
Solution:
a
[P + ](V − b) = RT
2
V
2 −1 −2 6 5 −2
∴ [a] = [P] [V ] = ML T L = ML T

3
[ b] = [V] = L

−2 5 −2 −6 −1 −2
[ab ] = ML T L = ML T

Dimension of energy density.

Hence, the answer is the option (4)

Q. 3 A cord of negligible mass is wound around the rim of a wheel supported by spokes with
negligible mass. The mass of wheel is 10 kg and radius is 10 cm and it can freely rotate
without any friction. Initially the wheel is at rest. If a steady pull of 20 N is applied on the
cord, the angular velocity of the wheel, after the cord is unwound by 1 m , would be :

Option 1:
20rad/s

Option 2:
30rad/s

5
 Option 3:
10rad/s

Option 4:
0rad/s

Correct Answer:
20rad/s

Solution:
W F = 20 × I = 20 J

1
2
∴ ΔKE = 20 J = Iω
2
2 2 2
I = MR = 10 × 0.1 = 0.1 kg m

1
2
∴ 20 = × 0.1 × ω
2

⇒ ω = 20rad/sec

Hence, the answer is the option (1)

Q. 4 A slanted object AB is placed on one side of convex lens as shown in the diagram. The
image is formed on the opposite side. Angle made by the image with principal axis is :

Option 1:
α
−
2

Option 2:
∘
−45

Option 3:
∘
+45

Option 4:
−α

Correct Answer:
∘
−45

6
Solution:

Location of image of A :-
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
− = ⇒ − = ⇒ = ⇒ v = 60 cm
v u f v −30 20 v 60

∴ m = 2

Since size of object is small w.r.t. the location, hence

2
dv = m du ⇒ dv = 4 × l = 4 cm

h i = mh 0 ⇒ h i (dy) = 2 × 2 = 4 cm

∴ Angle made with principle axis = −45 ∘

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 5 Consider two infinitely large plane parallel conducting plates as shown below. The plates are
uniformly charged with a surface charge density +σ and −2σ. The force experienced by a
point charge +q placed at the mid point between two plates will be :

Option 1:
σq

4ϵ 0

Option 2:
3σq

2ϵ 0

Option 3:
3σq

4ϵ 0

7
−σ

2
σq

∴ F net

∣
Option 4:
2ϵ 0

Correct Answer:
3σq

2ϵ 0

Solution:

Final charge distribution will be

Plate 1

Option 1:
300 m

Option 2:
112.5 m

Option 3:
75 m

Option 4:
3σ

112.5 × √ 3 m

Correct Answer:
112.5 m

Solution:
=
Plate 2
−3σ

3σ

2ϵ 0
q
−σ

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 6 A river is flowing from west to east direction with speed of 9 km h . If a boat capable of
−1

moving at a maximum speed of 27 km h in still water, crosses the river in half a minute,
−1

while moving with maximum speed at an angle of 150 to direction of river flow, then the
width of the river is :
∘

8
 ∘ 27
∴ V⊥ = river f low = 27 × cos 60 = km/hr
2

Time taken = 30sec.

27 5
∴ S = Vt = × × 30 m = 112.5 m
2 18

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 7 A point charge +q is placed at the origin. A second point charge +9 q is placed at (d, 0, 0) in
Cartesian coordinate system. The point in between them where the electric field vanishes is :

Option 1:
(4 d/3, 0, 0)

Option 2:
(d/4, 0, 0)

Option 3:
(3 d/4, 0, 0)

Option 4:
(d/3, 0, 0)

Correct Answer:
(d/4, 0, 0)

Solution:

9
Let E P = 0

kq k9q
∴ =
2
x (d − x) 2

d − x d
⇒ = 3 ⇒ x =
x 4

d
∴ co-ordinate of P is ( , 0, 0)
4

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 8 The battery of a mobile phone is rated as 4.2 V , 5800 mAh . How much energy is stored in it
when fully charged?

Option 1:
43.8 kJ

Option 2:
48.7 kJ

Option 3:
87.7 kJ

Option 4:
24.4 kJ

Correct Answer:
87.7 kJ

Solution:
Given V = 4.2 volt
∴ Energy supplied by battery

−3
= vq = 4.2 × 5800 × 3600 × 10 J = 87.696 kJ

∴ Energy stored in the battery when fully charged

= 87.696 kJ ≈ 87.7 kJ

Hence, the answer is the option (3)

10
 Q. 9 A particle is subjected two simple harmonic motions as :

x 1 = √ 7 sin 5tcm

and x 2 = 2√ 7 sin (5t +

π

3
)cm

where x is displacement and t is time in seconds. The maximum acceleration of the particle
is x × 10 ms . The value of x is :
−2 −2

Option 1:
175

Option 2:
25√ 7

Option 3:
5√ 7

Option 4:
125

Correct Answer:
175

Solution:
x 1 = √ 7 sin 5t

π
x 2 = 2√ 7 sin (5t + )
3

From phasor,

∴ Amplitude of resultant SHM = 7

2√ 7 × √ 3/2 √ 21 √3
−1 −1 −1
ϕ = tan = tan = tan
1
√ 7 + 2√ 7 × 2√ 7 2
2

∴ X R = 7 sin(5t + ϕ)

a R = −7 × 25 sin(5t + ϕ)

−2
∴ a max = 175 cm/sec = 175 × 10 m/sec

Hence, the answer is the option (1)

11
 Q. 10 The relationship between the magnetic susceptibility (χ) and the magnetic permeability (μ)
is given by :
( μ is the permeability of free space and μ is relative permeability)
0 r

Option 1:
μ
χ = − 1
μ0

Option 2:
μr
χ = + 1
μ0

Option 3:
χ = μt + 1

Option 4:
μ
χ = 1 −
μ0

Correct Answer:
μ
χ = − 1
μ0

Solution:
We have

μ r = (1 + χ) ⇒ χ = (μ r − 1)

μ
μ = μ0 μr ⇒ μr =
μ0

μ
∴ χ = ( − 1)
μ0

Hence, the answer is the option (1).

Q. 11 A zener diode with 5 V zener voltage is used to regulate an unregulated dc voltage input of
25 V . For a 400Ω resistor connected in series, the zener current is found to be 4 times load
current. The load current (I ) and load resistance (R ) are :
L L

Option 1:
I L = 20 mA; R L = 250Ω

12
 Option 2:
I L = 10 A; R L = 0.5Ω

Option 3:
I L = 0.02 mA; R L = 250Ω

Option 4:
I L = 10 mA; R L = 500Ω

Correct Answer:
I L = 10 mA; R L = 500Ω

Solution:

From the circuit diagram,

20 1
5i = = A
400 20

1
∴ i = A = 10 mA = Load current
100

Also, V L
= 5 V

5
∴ RL = −3
Ω = 500Ω
10×10

Hence, the answer is the option (4).

Q. 12 In an adiabatic process, which of the following statements is true?

Option 1:
The molar heat capacity is infinite

Option 2:
Work done by the gas equals the increase in internal energy

Option 3:
The molar heat capacity is zero

13
 Option 4:
The internal energy of the gas decreases as the temperature increases

Correct Answer:
The molar heat capacity is zero
Solution:
For adiabatic process, dQ = 0
∴ Molar heat capacity = 0

∵ dQ = 0 ⇒ dU = −dW

Also dU = nRdTf

Hence, the answer is the option (3).

Q. 13 A square Lamina OABC of length 10 cm is pivoted at 'O'. Forces act at Lamina as shown in
figure. If Lamina remains stationary, then the magnitude of F is :

Option 1:
20 N

Option 2:
0 (zero)

Option 3:
10 N

Option 4:
10√ 2 N

Correct Answer:
10 N

Solution:
Suppose that there is a square lamina of length ℓ and the lamina is over a number ‘O’ which is over
r

some forces applied to it as shown:

For clockwise torque, there is only the 10 N force on the rod at the top-right corner, O = ℓ ):

14
 τ clockwise = 10 ⋅ ℓ

- Anticlockwise torque is produced by force F at the top-left corner (distance from O = ℓ ):

τ anticlockwise = F ⋅ ℓ

For equilibrium (net torque = 0 ):

F ⋅ ℓ = 10 ⋅ ℓ

Canceling ℓ on both sides:

F = 10 N

Hence, the answer is the option (3)

Q. 14 Let B be the magnitude of magnetic field at center of a circular coil of radius R carrying
1

current I . Let B be the magnitude of magnetic field at an axial distance ' x ' from the
2

center. For x : R = 3 : 4, B2

B1
is :

Option 1:
4 : 5

Option 2:
16 : 25

Option 3:
64 : 125

15
 Option 4:
25 : 16

Correct Answer:
64 : 125

Solution:

1. Use magnetic field at center of circular loop: B

μ0 i
1 =
2R

2. Magnetic field at axial point: B = B sin θ 2 1

3

3. Take ratio: B2
= sin θ
B1
3

4. Given sin θ = 4

5. Compute: sin
3
3 4 64
θ = ( ) =
5 125

Hence, the answer is the option (3)

Q. 15 Considering Bohr's atomic model for hydrogen atom :

(A) the energy of H atom in ground state is same as energy of He ion in its first excited
+

state.
(B) the energy of H atom in ground state is same as that for Li ion in its second excited
++

state.
(C) the energy of H atom in its ground state is same as that of He ion for its ground state.
+

(D) the energy of He ion in its first excited state is same as that for Li ion in its ground
+ ++

state

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(B), (D) only

Option 2:
(A), (B) only

Option 3:
(A), (D) only

Option 4:
(A), (C) only

16
 Correct Answer:
(A), (B) only
Solution:
Z
E ∝
n2

ZH = 1 Z He + = 2 Z +2 = 3
Li

1
st
excited state ⇒ n = 2
nd
2 excited state ⇒ n = 3

From the given statements only A & B are correct.

Hence, the answer is the option (2).

Q. 16 Moment of inertia of a rod of mass ' M ' and length 'L' about an axis passing through its
center and normal to its length is ' α '. Now the rod is cut into two equal parts and these
parts are joined symmetrically to form a cross shape. Moment of inertia of cross about an
axis passing through its center and normal to plane containing cross is :

Option 1:
α

Option 2:
α/4

Option 3:
α/8

Option 4:
α/2

Correct Answer:
α/4

Solution:
1. Moment of inertia of full rod about center:
2
Mℓ
α =
12

2. Rod is cut into two equal halves:

17
Each has mass M /2 and length ℓ/2
3. Moment of inertia of each half about its own center:
2
(M /2)(ℓ/2)
I =
12

4. Use parallel axis theorem to shift axis to original center for each half: Distance = ℓ/4, so added term
2
= (M /2)(ℓ/4)

5. Total moment of inertia for both halves:

2 2 2
(M /2)(ℓ/2) (M /2)(ℓ/4) Mℓ
′
α = 2[ + ] =
12 1 48

6. Compare with original:

′
α
α =
4

Hence, the answer is the option (2).

Q. 17

A spherical surface separates two media of refractive indices 1 and 1.5 as shown in figure.
Distance of the image of an object ' O ', is :
( C is the center of curvature of the spherical surface and R is the radius of curvature)

Option 1:
0.24 m right to the spherical surface

Option 2:
0.4 m left to the spherical surface

Option 3:
0.24 m left to the spherical surface

Option 4:
0.4 m right to the spherical surface

18
 Correct Answer:
0.4 m left to the spherical surface
Solution:
μ2 μ1 μ2 − μ1
− =
v u R

1.5 1 1.5 − 1
− =
v (−0.2) 0.4

1.5 0.5 1
= −
v 0.4 0.2

1.5 1.5
= −
v 0.4

v = −0.4 m

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 18 Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Coefficient of viscosity (I) [ML 0

T
−3
]

(B) Intensity of wave (II) [ML −2

T
−2
]

(C) Pressure gradient (III) [M −1

LT ]
2

(D) Compressibility (IV) [ML −1

T
−1
]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(A) -(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

Option 2:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

Option 3:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

Option 4:
(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C) -(IV), (D) -(I)

19
 Correct Answer:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Solution:
(A) Coefficient of viscosity[η] = [M 1
L
−1
T
−1
]

(B) Intensity [I] = [M L T ] 1 0 −3

(C) Pressure gradient = [ML T −2 −2

]

(D) Compressibility [K] = [M L −1 1

T ]
2

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 19 A small bob of mass 100 mg and charge +10μC is connected to an insulating string of
length 1 m . It is brought near to an infinitely long nonconducting sheet of charge density ' σ
' as shown in figure. If string subtends an angle of 45 with the sheet at equilibrium the
∘

charge density of sheet will be :

(Given, ε = 8.85 × 10
0 and acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s )
−12

m
F 2

Option 1:
2
0.885nC/m

Option 2:
2
17.7nC/m

Option 3:
2
885nC/m

Option 4:
2
1.77nC/m

Correct Answer:
2
1.77nC/m

Solution:

20
qE = mg

σ
q[ ] = mg
2ε 0

2ε 0 mg
σ =
q
−12 −6
2 × 8.85 × 10 × 100 × 10 × 10
σ =
−6
10 × 10
−10 2
σ = 17.7 × 10 C/m

2
σ = 1.77nC/m

Hence, the answer is the option (4)

Q. 20 A monochromatic light is incident on a metallic plate having work function ϕ. An electron,

emitted normally to the plate from a point A with maximum kinetic energy, enters a
constant magnetic field, perpendicular to the initial velocity of electron. The electron passes
through a curve and hits back the plate at a point B. The distance between A and B is :
(Given : The magnitude of charge of an electron is e and mass is m, h is Planck's constant
and c is velocity of light. Take the magnetic field exists throughout the path of electron)

Option 1:
hc
√2 m ( − ϕ)/eB
λ

Option 2:
hc
√m ( − ϕ)/eB
λ

Option 3:
hc
√8 m ( − ϕ)/eB
λ

Option 4:
hc
2√ m ( − ϕ)/eB
λ

21
 Correct Answer:
hc
√8 m ( − ϕ)/eB
λ

Solution:
hc
KE max = − ϕ
λ

p = √ 2mK max

hc
p = √2 m ( − ϕ)
λ

d A−B = 2R

p
= 2[ ]
qB

hc hc
2√ 2 m ( − ϕ) √8 m ( − ϕ)
λ λ
d AB = =
eB eB

Hence, the answer is the option (3)

Q. 21 A vessel with square cross-section and height of 6 m is vertically partitioned. A small window
of 100 cm with hinged door is fitted at a depth of 3 m in the partition wall. One part of the
2

vessel is filled completely with water and the other side is filled with the liquid having density
1.5 × 10 kg/m . What force one needs to apply on the hinged door so that it does not get
3 3

opened ?
(Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s ) 2

Correct Answer:
150

Solution:

in equilibrium

22
F ext + F w = F ℓ

⇒ F ext = Fℓ − Fw

= (P 0 + ρ ℓ gh)A − (P 0 + ρ w gh)A

= (ρ ℓ − ρ w )ghA

−4
= (1500 − 1000) × 10 × 3 × (100 × 10 )

= 150 m

Hence, the answer is 150.

Q. 22 A steel wire of length 2 m and Young's modulus 2.0 × 10 Nm is stretched by a force. If

11 −2

Poisson ratio and transverse strain for the wire are 0.2 and 10 respectively, then the
−3

elastic potential energy density of the wire is ____ ×10 (in SI units)
5

Correct Answer:
25

Solution:
11
N
ℓ = 2 m; Y = 2 × 10
2
m
Δr
( ) Δℓ 1 Δr
r
μ = − ⇒ = × ( )
Δℓ
( ) ℓ μ r
ℓ

1 −3
= × (10 )
0.2

Δℓ
−3
⇒ = 5 × 10
ℓ

1 1 2
2 11 −3
u = yεε ℓ = × 2 × 10 × [5 × 10 ]
2 2

= 25

Hence, the answer is 25

Q. 23 If the measured angular separation between the second minimum to the left of the central
maximum and the third minimum to the right of the central maximum is 30 in a single slit
∘

diffraction pattern recorded using 628 nm light, then the width of the slit is _____ μm.

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:

23
 2λ
−1
θ 1 = sin ( )
a

−1
3λ
θ 2 = sin ( )
a
∘
∵ θ 1 + θ 2 = 30

−1
2λ −1
3λ π
⇒ sin ( ) + sin ( ) =
a a 6

2 2
2λ 3λ 3λ 2λ π
⇒ √1 − ( ) + √1 + ( ) = sin
a a a a 6

Here λ = 628 nm
After solving

A = 6.07μ m

Approximate Method :

θ = θ1 + θ2

π 2λ 3λ
⇒ = +
6 a a

π 5
⇒ = (628 nm)
6 a

⇒ a = 6μ m

Hence, the answer is 6.

Q. 24 γA is the specific heat ratio of monoatomic gas A having 3 translational degrees of freedom.
γ is the specific heat ratio of polyatomic gas B having 3 translational, 3 rotational degrees
B

of freedom and 1 vibrational mode. If = (1 + ), then the value of n is _____ .

γA

γB
1

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

24
γA fA + 2 fB
= ×
γB fA fB + 2

3 + 2 (6 + 2)
= ×
3 (6 + 2) + 2

5 8 40
= × =
3 10 30

40 1
∵ = 1 +
30 n

40 1
⇒ − 1 =
30 n

⇒ n = 3

Hence, the answer is 3.

Q. 25 A person travelling on a straight line moves with a uniform velocity v for a distance x and
1

with a uniform velocity v for the next x distance. The average velocity in this motion is
2
3

m/s. If v is 5 m/s then v = _____ m/s.

50
1 2
7

Correct Answer:
10

Solution:
x1 + x2
v avg =
t1 + t2
3x
50 x +
2
⇒ =
x 3x
7 +
5 2v 2

50 5/2
⇒ =
1 3
7 +
5 2v 2

1 3 7
⇒ + =
5 2v 2 20

3 7 1 7 − 4
⇒ = − =
2v 2 20 5 20

3 3
⇒ =
2v 2 20

⇒ v 2 = 10 m/s

Hence, the answer is 10.

25
Chemistry
Q. 1 Designate whether each of the following compounds is aromatic or not aromatic.

Option 1:
e, g aromatic and a, b, c, d, f, h not aromatic

Option 2:
b, e, f, g aromatic and a, c, d, h not aromatic

Option 3:
a, b, c, d aromatic and e, f, g, h not aromatic

Option 4:
a, c, d, e, h aromatic and b, f, g not aromatic

Correct Answer:
a, c, d, e, h aromatic and b, f, g not aromatic

Solution:
Aromatic compounds

26
b, f, g, are not aromatic, these compounds do not follow Huckel’s rule

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 2 An optically active alkyl halide C H Br[A] reacts with hot KOH dissolved in ethanol and
4 9

forms alkene [B] as major product which reacts with bromine to give dibromide [C]. The
compound [C] is converted into a gas [D] upon reacting with alcoholic NaNH . During
2

hydration 18 gram of water is added to 1 mole of gas [D] on warming with mercuric sulphate
and dilute acid at 333 K to form compound [E]. The IUPAC name of compound [E] is :

Option 1:
But-2-yne

Option 2:
Butan-2-ol

Option 3:
Butan-2-one

Option 4:
Butan-1-al

Correct Answer:
Butan-2-one

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

27
 Q. 3 The property/properties that show irregularity in first four elements of group-17 is/are :

(A) Covalent radius

(B) Electron affinity
(C) Ionic radius
(D) First ionization energy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1:
B and D only

Option 2:
A and C only

Option 3:
B only

Option 4:
A, B, C and D

Correct Answer:
B only

Solution:
The order of first four elements of group-17 are as follows.
F < Cl < Br < I (Covalent radius)

Cl > F > Br > I (Electron affinity)

< I (Ionic radius)

− − − −
F < Cl < Br

F > Cl > Br > I ( I ionization energy)

st

Electron affinity order is irregular.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 4 Which of the following graph correctly represents the plots of K at 1 bar gases in water
H

versus temperature ?

28
Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

29
 Correct Answer:

Solution:
As temperature increases solubility first decrease then increase hence K first increase than decrease
H

also at moderate temperature K value He > N > CH .

H 2 4

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 5 According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, which of the following statement is incorrect?

Option 1:
Radius of 3 rd
orbit is nine times larger than that of 1 st
orbit.

Option 2:
Radius of 8 th
orbit is four times larger than that of 4 th
orbit.

Option 3:
Radius of 6 th
orbit is three time larger than that of 4 th
orbit.

Option 4:
Radius of 4 th
orbit is four times larger than that of 2 nd
orbit.

Correct Answer:
Radius of 6 orbit is three time larger than that of 4
th th
orbit.

Solution:
2
r ∝ n

(1) r3

r1
=
9

(2) r8

r4
=
64

16
= 4

(3) r6 2
6 9
= ( ) =
r4 4 4

(4)
2
r4 4
= ( ) = 4
r2 2

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

30
 Q. 6

Two vessels A and B are connected via stopcock. The vessel A is filled with a gas at a certain
pressure. The entire assembly is immersed in water and is allowed to come to thermal
equilibrium with water. After opening the stopcock the gas from vessel A expands into vessel
B and no change in temperature is observed in the thermometer. Which of the following
statement is true ?

Option 1:
dw ≠ 0

Option 2:
dq ≠ 0

Option 3:
dU ≠ 0

Option 4:
The pressure in the vessel B before opening the stopcock is zero.

Correct Answer:
The pressure in the vessel B before opening the stopcock is zero.

Solution:
It is free expansion of gas ⇒ P ext = 0

Where w = 0, q = 0 and ΔU = 0

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 7 A solution is made by mixing one mole of volatile liquid A with 3 moles of volatile liquid B.
The vapour pressure of pure A is 200 mm Hg and that of the solution is 500 mm Hg. The
vapour pressure of pure B and the least volatile component of the solution, respectively, are
:

31
 Option 1:
1400 mm Hg, A

Option 2:
1400 mm Hg, B

Option 3:
600 mm Hg, B

Option 4:
600 mm Hg, A

Correct Answer:
600 mm Hg, A

Solution:
o o
PS = PA ⋅ XA + PB ⋅ XB

1 o
3
500 = 200 × + P ⋅
B
4 4
o
P B = 600 mmHg

As P o

A
< P
0
B
⇒ A is least volatile.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 8 CaCO 3 ( s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl 2 (aq) + CO 2 ( g)H 2 O(l)

Consider the above reaction, what mass of CaCl will be formed if 250 mL of 0.76 M HCl
2

reacts with 1000 g of CaCO ? 3

(Given : Molar mass of Ca, C, O, H and Cl are 40 , 12, 16, 1 and 35.5 g mol , respectively)
−1

Option 1:
3.908 g

Option 2:
2.636 g

Option 3:
10.545 g

Option 4:
5.272 g

32
 Correct Answer:
10.545 g
Solution:
CaCO 3 + 2HCl → CaCl 2 + CO 2 + H 2 O

1000
Moles of CaCO 3 = = 10
100
250
Moles of HCl = 0.76 × = 0.19 (L.R.)
1000

0.19
Moles of CaCl 2 f ormed =
2

0.19
Mass of CaCl 2 = × 111 = 10.545gm
2

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 9 If equal volumes of AB and XY (both are salts) aqueous solutions are mixed, which of the
2

following combination will give a precipitate of AY at 300 K ? 2

( Given K ( at 300 K) for AY = 5.2 × 10

−7
sp ) 2

Option 1:
−3 −4
3.6 × 10 MAB 2 , 5.0 × 10 MXY

Option 2:
−4 −3
2.0 × 10 MAB 2 , 0.8 × 10 MXY

Option 3:
−2 −2
2.0 × 10 MAB 2 , 2.0 × 10 MXY

Option 4:
−4 −3
1.5 × 10 MAB 2 , 1.5 × 10 MXY

Correct Answer:
−2 −2
2.0 × 10 MAB 2 , 2.0 × 10 MXY

Solution:
When equal volumes are mixed molarity reduce to half.
For precipitation Q = [A ][Y ] > K +2 − 2
SP SP

(1) Q
2
−3 5 −4
SP = (1.8 × 10 )( × 10 ) < K SP
2

(2) Q
2
−4 −3
SP = (10 )(0.4 × 10 ) < K sp

(3) Q
2
−2 −2
SP
= (10 )(10 ) > K sp

(4) Q
2
1.5 −4 1.5 −3
SP
= ( × 10 )( × 10 ) < K SP
2 2

33
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 10 Among SO , NF , NH , XeF , ClF and SF , the hybridization of the molecule with non-
2 3 3 2 3 4

zero dipole moment and highest number of lone-pairs of electrons on the central atom is

Option 1:
3
sp

Option 2:
2
dsp

Option 3:
3 2
sp d

Option 4:
3
sp d

Correct Answer:
3
sp d

Solution:
Molecule Hybridisation Dipole Moment Lone pair on the
central atom
SO 2 sp Non - zero
2
1
NF 3 sp Non - zero
3
1
NH 3 sp Non - zero
3
1
XeF 2 sp d
3
zero 3
Cℓ F sp d
3
3
Non - zero 2
SF 4 sp d
3
Non - zero 1
Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

34
 Q. 11 Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : Vanillin

will react with NaOH and also with Tollen’s reagent.

Statement (II) : Vanillin

will undergo self aldol condensation very easily. In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Option 2:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Option 3:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Solution:

Vanillin does not give self-aldol reaction due to lack of acidic H for condensation.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

35
 Q. 12 Identify the correct statement among the following:

Option 1:
All naturally occurring amino acids except glycine contain one chiral centre.

Option 2:
All naturally occurring amino acids are optically active.

Option 3:
Glutamic acid is the only amino acid that contains a –COOH group at the side chain.

Option 4:
Amino acid, cysteine easily undergo dimerization due to the presence of free SH group.

Correct Answer:
Amino acid, cysteine easily undergo dimerization due to the presence of free SH group.

Solution:
* Isoleucine has 2 chiral centre
* Glycine is optically inactive
* Aspartic acid also contain COOH group at the side chain.
* Cysteine easily dimmerise due to free SH group

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 13 The correct order of basic nature on aqueous solution for the bases
NH , H N − NH , CH CH NH , (CH CH ) NH and (CH CH
3 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 )3 N is :

Option 1:
NH 3 < H 2 N − NH 2 < (CH 3 CH 2 ) N < CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 < (CH 3 CH 2 ) NH
3 2

Option 2:
NH 3 < H 2 N − NH 2 < CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 < (CH 3 CH 2 ) NH < (CH 3 CH 2 ) N
2 3

Option 3:
H 2 N − NH 2 < NH 3 < (CH 3 CH 2 ) N < CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 < (CH 3 CH 2 ) NH
3 2

Option 4:
NH 2 − NH 2 < NH 3 < CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 < (CH 3 CH 2 ) N < (CH 3 CH 2 ) NH
3 2

36
 Correct Answer:
NH 2 − NH 2 < NH 3 < CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 < (CH 3 CH 2 ) N < (CH 3 CH 2 ) NH
3 2

Solution:
Basic strength of amine depends on hydrogen bonding and electronic inductive effect.

NH(Et) 2 > N(Et) 3 > NH 2 Et > N̈ 3 > NH 2 − NH 2

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 14 Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : The metallic radius of Al is less than that of Ga .
Statement (II) : The ionic radius of Al is less than that of Ga .
3+ 3+

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :

Option 1:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Option 2:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Option 3:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Correct Answer:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Solution:
⇒ The metallic radius order of Al&Ga is

B < Ga < Al < In < Tℓ


   
↓

(due to poor shielding of d-subshell electrons)

⇒ The ionic radius order of Al +3

&Ga
+3
is
+3 +3 +3 +3 +3
B < Al < Ga < In < Tℓ

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

37
 Q. 15 Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : In octahedral complexes, when Δ < P high spin complexes are formed.
o

When Δ > P low spin complexes are formed.

o

Statement (II) : In tetrahedral complexes because of Δ < P, low spin complexes are rarely
t

formed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :

Option 1:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Option 3:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Correct Answer:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Solution:
In octahedral complex (CN = 6)
If Δ < P.E. , then high spin complexes are formed
0

If Δ > P.E. , then low spin complexes are formed

0

But in tetrahedral complex (CN = 4)

Δ < P.E. , then mainly high spin complexes are formed and rarely low spin complexes are formed.
t

Hence, the correct answer is the option (4).

Q. 16 Choose the correct tests with respective observations.

(A) CuSO (acidified with acetic acid) + K [Fe(CN) ] → Chocolate brown precipitate.
4 4 6

(B) FeCl + K [Fe(CN) ] → Prussian blue precipitate.

3 4 6

(C) ZnCl + K [Fe(CN) ], neutralised with NH OH → White or bluish white precipitate.

2 4 6 4

(D) MgCl + K [Fe(CN) ] → Blue precipitate.

2 4 6

(E) BaCl + K [Fe(CN) ], neutralised with NaOH → White precipitate.

2 4 6

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

38
 Option 1:
A, D and E only

Option 2:
B, D and E only

Option 3:
A, B and C only

Option 4:
C, D and E only

Correct Answer:
A, B and C only

Solution:
CH 3 COOH

2CuSO 4 + K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ]
− →

Cu 2 [Fe(CN) 6 ] + 2 K 2 SO 4

(Chocolate brown ppt.)

4FeCl 3 + 3 K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] ⟶

Fe 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3 + 12KCl

(Prussian Blue ppt.)

NH 4 OH

3ZnCl 4 + 2 K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ]
− →

K 2 Zn 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ] + 6KCl
2

(White or bluish white ppt.)

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 17 On complete combustion 1.0 g of an organic compound (X) gave 1.46 g of CO and 0.567 g
2

of H O. The empirical formula mass of compound (X) is __________ g.

2

(Given molar mass in gmol C : 12, H : 1, O : 16 )

−1

Option 1:
30

Option 2:
45

Option 3:
60

39
 Option 4:
15

Correct Answer:
30
Solution:
1.46
Moles of ' C ' = n CO = = 0.033
2
44

Moles of ' C ' = W C = 0.033 × 12

0.567
Moles of ' H ' = 2 × n H2 O = 2 × = 0.063
18

Mass of ‘'H’ = 0.0063

Mass of Oxygen (O) = 1 − (W C + WH )

= 1 − (0.033 × 12 + 0.063 × 1) = 0.541gm

Moles of ' O ' = 0.541

= 0.033
16

Empirical formula = CH O 2

Empirical formula mass = 30.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 18 Consider the following compound (X)

The most stable and least stable carbon radicals, respectively, produced by homolytic
cleavage of corresponding C – H bond are :

Option 1:
II, IV

Option 2:
III, II

Option 3:
I, IV

Option 4:
II, I

40
 Correct Answer:
II, I
Solution:

II most stable carbon radical due to resonance stablise.

I least stable carbon radical due to no stabilising factor.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 19 Consider the following molecules :

The correct order of rate of hydrolysis is :

Option 1:
r > q > p > s

Option 2:
q > p > r > s

41
 Option 3:
p > r > q > s

Option 4:
p > q > r > s

Correct Answer:
p > q > r > s

Solution:
Rate of hydrolysis ∝ Leaving group ability

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 20 A molecule with the formula AX4Y has all it’s elements from p-block. Element A is rarest,
monoatomic, non-radioactive from its group and has the lowest ionization enthalpy value
among A, X and Y. Elements X and Y have first and second highest electronegativity values
respectively among all the known elements. The shape of the molecule is :

Option 1:
Square pyramidal

Option 2:
Octahedral

Option 3:
Pentagonal planar

Option 4:
Trigonal bipyramidal

Correct Answer:
Square pyramidal

Solution:
Given A is rarest, monoatomic, non-radioactive p-block element and form AX 4Y type of molecule.
∴ It is concluded that it is Xe

It is given the electronegativity of A is less than X & Y

42
It is given the electronegativity of X&Y is highest and second highest respectively among all element.
∴ X&Y are F&O

∴ Compound is consider as XeOF with square pyramidal shape.

4

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 21 A transition metal (M) among Mn, Cr, Co and Fe has the highest standard electrode
potential (M /M ). It forms a metal complex of the type [M(CN) ] . The number of
3+ 2+
6
4

electrons present in the e orbital of the complex is ____________ .

g

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Co has highest standard electrode potential (M /M+3 +2
) among Mn, Cr, Co, Fe
∴ Complex is [Co(CN) ] and its splitting is as follows.
4
6

∴ electron in e orbital is one.

g

Hence, the answer is 1.

43
 Q. 22 Consider the following electrochemical cell at standard condition.
+
Au( s) |QH 2 , Q|NH 4 X(0.01M)||Ag (1M) ∣ Ag( s)

E cell = +0.4 V

The couple QH 2
/Q represents quinhydrone electrode, the half cell reaction is given below

o 2.303RT
[ Given : E + = +0.8 V and = 0.06 V]
Ag /Ag F

The pK value of the ammonium halide salt (NH

b 4
X) used here is __________. (nearest
integer)

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
+ +
QH 2 + 2Ag → 2Ag + Q + 2H

∘
0.06 + 2
E = E − log [H ]
2
∘ +
E = E − 0.06 × log [H ]

0
+
E − E 0.4 − 0.1
pH = − log (H ) = =
0.06 0.06
0.3
= = 5
0.06

1 1
pH + NH 4 X = 7 − pK b − log C
2 2

1 1 −2
5 = 7 − × pK b − log (10 )
2 2

pK b = 6.

Hence, the answer is 6.

44
 Q. 23 0.1 mol of the following given antiviral compound
(P) will weigh ___________ ×10
−1
g

(Given : molar mass in gmol −1

, O:16, F: 19, I : 127)
H : 1, C : 12, N : 14

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:

Molar mass = 372gm

∴ 0.1 mole has = 372 × 10
−1
gm

Hence, the answer is 372 x 10-1gm

45
 Q. 24 Consider the following equilibrium,

CO(g) + 2H 2 ( g) ⇌ CH 3 OH(g)

0.1 mol of CO along with a catalyst is present in a 2dm flask maintained at 500 K . 3

Hydrogen is introduced into the flask until the pressure is 5 bar and 0.04 mol of CH 3
OH is
formed. The K is __________ ×10 (nearest integer).
0
p
−3

Given : R = 0.08dm bar K 3 −1

mol
−1

Assume only methanol is formed as the product and the system follows ideal gas behaviour.

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
CO(g) + 2H 2 ( g) ⇌ CH 3 OH(g)

t = 0 0.1 mol a mol −

t eq 0.1 − x a − 2x x = 0.04

= 0.06 = a − 0.08

= 0.23 − 0.08

= 0.15 mole

V = 2 L

T = 500 K

P total = 5bar

1
n Total = 0.25 = mol.
4

RT
P total = n total ×
V

0.08 × 500
⇒ 5 = (0.06 + a − 0.08 + 0.04) ×
2

⇒ 10 = (0.02 + a) × 0.08 × 500

⇒ a = 0.25 − 0.02 = 0.23 mol.

2
X CH OH 1/4
3 1 0.04
KP = 2 × 2 = 2 × [ ]
X CO ×X 0.06×(0.15) 5
H (P T )
2

4 1
= ×
2
6 × (0.15) × 16 25

100 × 100 100 × 100

= =
24 × 225 × 25 135000
−3
= 0.074 = 74 × 10

46
Hence, the answer is 74 x 10-3

Q. 25 For the reaction A → products.

The concentration of A at 10 minutes is ____________ ×10 −3

mol L
−1
(nearest integer).
The reaction was started with 2.5 mol L of A .−1

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
t 1/2 ∝ [ A] 0 ⇒ Order = zero

A0 1
t 1/2 = ⇒ Slope = = 76.92
2 K 2 K

1
K =
2 × 76.92

1
[ A] 10 = −Kt + A 0 = − × 10 + 2.5 = 2.435
2 × 76.92
−3
= 2435 × 10 mol/L

Hence, the answer is 2435 x 10-3 mol/L

Maths
Q. 1 The largest n ∈ N such that 3 divides 50 ! is:
n

Option 1:
21

Option 2:
22

47
 Option 3:
20

Option 4:
23

Correct Answer:
22
Solution:
α β γ
2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 5

50 50 50 50
B = [ ] + [ 2
] + [ 3
] + [ 4
]
3 3 3 3

= 16 + 5 + 1

= 2

Maximum value of n is 22

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 2 Let one focus of the hyperbola H : −

x
2
y
2

= 1 be at (√ 10, 0) and the corresponding

2 2
a b

directrix be x = . If e and l respectively are the eccentricity and the length of the latus
9

√ 10

rectum of H, then 9 (e 2
+ l) is equal to:

Option 1:
14

Option 2:
15

Option 3:
16

Option 4:
12

Correct Answer:
16

Solution:
ae = √ 10 and a

e
=
9

10

48
 and e =
√ 10
2
⇒ a = 9
3

Now (ae)
2
= a
2
+ b
2

2 2
10 = 9 + b ⇒ b = 1

2
2 b 2(1)
ℓ = =
a 3

2
⇒ 9 (e + ℓ)

10 2
= 9( + )
9 3

= 10 + 6

= 16

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 3 The number of sequences of ten terms, whose terms are either 0 or 1 or 2 , that contain
exactly five 1 s and exactly three 2 s , is equal to

Option 1:
360

Option 2:
45

Option 3:
2520

Option 4:
1820

Correct Answer:
2520

Solution:
Total positions = 10
Given:
5 positions → 1
3 positions → 2
Remaining 2 positions → 0

We need to count the number of ways to arrange these:

This is a permutation of the multiset problem, so:
10!
Number of such sequences =
5!⋅3!⋅2!

49
 10!

5!⋅3!⋅2!

3628800
=
120⋅6⋅2

3628800
=
1440

= 2520

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 4 Let f : R → R be a twice differentiable function such that

, for
(sin x cos y)(f (2x + 2y) − f (2x − 2y)) = (cos x sin y)(f (2x + 2y) + f (2x − 2y))

all x, y ∈ R.

If f ′
(0) =
1

2
, then the value of 24f ′′
(
5π

3
) is:

Option 1:
2

Option 2:
-3

Option 3:
3

Option 4:
-2

Correct Answer:
-3

Solution:
(sin x cos y)(f (2x + 2y) − f (2x − 2y)) = (cos x sin y)

(f (2x + 2y) + f (2x − 2y))

f (2x + 2y)(sin(x − y)) = f (2x − 2y) sin(x + y)

f (2x+2y) f (2x−2y)
=
sin(x+y) sin(x−y)

Put 2x + 2y = m, 2x − 2y = n
f (m) f (n)
m = n = K
sin( ) sin( )
2 2

50
 m
⇒ f (m) = K sin ( )
2

x
∴ f (x) = K sin ( )
2

′ K x
f (x) = cos ( )
2 2

Put x = 0; 1

2
=
K

2
⇒ K = 1

′ 1 x
f (x) = cos
2 2

′′ 1 x
f (x) = − sin
4 2

′′ 5π 1 5π
4f ( ) = (− sin ( ))24
3 4 6

−24
= = −3
8

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 5 α −1
Let A = [ , such that det(A) = 0 and α + β = 1. If I denotes 2 × 2
], α > 0
6 β

identity matrix, then the matrix (1 + A) is: 8

Option 1:
4 −1
[ ]
6 −1

Option 2:
257 −64
[ ]
514 −127

Option 3:
1025 −511
[ ]
2024 −1024

Option 4:
766 −255
[ ]
1530 −509

Correct Answer:
766 −255
[ ]
1530 −509

Solution:

51
|A| = 0

αβ + 6 = 0

αβ = −6

α + β = 1

⇒ α = 3, β = −2

3 −1
A = [ ]
6 −2

3 −1 3 −1 3 −1
2
A = [ ][ ] = [ ]
6 −2 6 −2 6 −2

2
∴ A = A

2 3 4 5
A = A = A = A = A

8
(I + A)

8 7 8 6 8 8
= I + C1 A + C2 A + … . . + C8 A

8 8 8
= I + A ( C1 + C2 + … . . + C8 )

8
= I + A (2 − 1)

1 0 765 −255
= [ ] + [ ]
0 1 1530 −510

766 −255
= [ ]
1530 −509

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 6 10

The term independent of x in the expansion of is:

(x+1) (x+1)
( 2/3 1/3
− 1/2
) ,x > 1
(x +1−x ) (x−x )

Option 1:
210

Option 2:
150

52
 Option 3:
240

Option 4:
120

Correct Answer:
210
Solution:
10

(x+1) (x−1)
( 2 1
− 1
)
(x 3 +1−x 3 ) (x−x 2 )

10
1
√x+1
= ((x 3 + 1) − ( ))
√x

10
1
1
= (x 3 − )
√x

10−r r
10 r −
T r+1 = C r (x) 3 (−1) (x) 2

10−r r
− = 0
3 2

(20 − 2r) − 3r = 0

r = 4

10 4
⇒ C 4 (−1) = 210

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 7 If θ ∈ [−2π, 2π], then the number of solutions of 2√2 cos 2

θ + (2 − √ 6) cos θ − √ 3 = 0 ,
is equal to:

Option 1:
12

Option 2:
6

Option 3:
8

53
 Option 4:
10

Correct Answer:
8
Solution:
2
2√ 2 cos θ + 2 cos θ − √ 6 cos θ − √ 3 = 0

(2 cos θ − √ 3)(√ 2 cos θ + 1) = 0

√3 −1
cos θ = ,
2 √2

Number of solutions = 8

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 8 Let a , a , a
1 2 3
… be in an A.P. such that ∑ 12
a 2k−1 = −
72
. If ∑
a1 , a1 ≠ 0
n
,
ak = 0
k=1 5 k=1

then n is:

Option 1:
11

Option 2:
10

Option 3:
18

Option 4:
17

Correct Answer:
11

Solution:
Let a = a, common difference = d
1

72
a 1 + a 3 + a 5 + … … + a 23 = − a
5

12 72
[2a + 11 × 2d] = − a
2 5

72
12a + 132d = − a
5

54
132a + 132 × 5d = 0

a = −5 d

n
(2a + (n − 1)d) = 0 ⇒ −10 d + nd − d = 0
2

n = 11

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 9 If the function f (x) = 2x − 9ax + 12a x + 1, where a > 0, attains its local maximum
3 2 2

and local minimum values at p and q, respectively, such that p = q, then f (3) is equal to:
2

Option 1:
55

Option 2:
10

Option 3:
23

Option 4:
37

Correct Answer:
37

Solution:
′ 2 2
f (x) = 6x − 18ax + 12a

2 2
f (x) = 6 (x − 3ax + 2a )

roots are a, 2ahai

2 2
p = q ⇒ a = 2a

a = 2

3 2
f (x) = 2x − 18x + 48x + 1

f (3) = 37

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

55
 Q. 10 Let z be a complex number such that |z| = 1. If
2
2+k z
– = kz, k ∈ R, then the maximum
k+ z

distance of k + ik from the circle |z − (1 + 2i)| = 1 is:

2

Option 1:
√5 + 1

Option 2:
2

Option 3:
3

Option 4:
√3 + 1

Correct Answer:
√5 + 1

Solution:
2
2+k z
– = kz
k+ z

2
|z| k = 2

k = 2

point p(2, 4); center (1, 2)

distance from the circle

(x − 1)
2
+ (y − 2)
2
= 1 is max.

if (OP + r) = √1 + 4 + 1 = √5 + 1

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 11 → is nonzero vector such that its projections on the vectors 2^i − ^j + 2k,
If a ^ ^
j − 2k and
i + 2^
^

k are equal, then a unit vector along a

^ → is:

Option 1:
1 ^
(−7^
i + 9^
j + 5k)
√ 155

56
 Option 2:
1
(−7^
i + 9^ ^
j − 5k)
√ 155

Option 3:
1
(7^
i + 9^ ^
j + 5k)
√ 155

Option 4:
1
(7^
i + 9^ ^
j − 5k)
√ 155

Correct Answer:
1
(7^
i + 9^ ^
j + 5k)
√ 155

Solution:
Let ā = a ^
i + a 2^
1
^
j + a3 k

2 2 2
a + a + a = 1
1 2 3

Let b̄ = 2→i − ^j + 2k,

^ c̄ = →
i − 2^ ^
j − 2k

–
^
d = k

–
–
– – – –
a⋅b a⋅ c a⋅d
= =
|b| |c| |d|

2a 1 −a 2 +2a 3 a 1 +2a 2 −2a 3

= = a3
3 3

By solving
7 9 5
a1 = , a2 = , a3 =
√ 155 √ 155 √ 155

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 12 Let A be the set of all functions f : Z → Z and R be a relation on A such that

R = {(f , g) : f (0) = g(1) and f (1) = g(0)}. Then R is:

Option 1:
Symmetric and transitive but not reflective

Option 2:
Symmetric but neither reflective nor transitive

57
 Option 3:
Reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive

Option 4:
Transitive but neither reflexive nor symmetric

Correct Answer:
Symmetric but neither reflective nor transitive
Solution:
R = {(f , g) : f (0) = g(1) and f (1) = g(0)}

Reflexive: (f, f) ∈ R

= f (0) = f (1) and f (1) = f (0) → must hold

⇒ but this is not true for all functions

So not reflexive

Symmetric: If (f , g) ∈ R ⇒ (g, f ) ∈ R

Now, g(0) = f (1) and g(1) = f (0) → true

∴ symmetric

Transitive : If (f , g) ∈ R and (g, h) ∈ R

⇒ (f , h) ∈ R

Now (f , g) ∈ R ⇒ f (0) = g(1) and f (1) = g(0)

(g, h) ∈ R ⇒ g(0) = h(1) and g(1) = h(0)

For (f , h) ∈ R we need f (0) = h(1) and f (1) = h(0)

Now f (0) = g(1) = h(0) and f (1) = g(0) = h(1)

Hence not transitive.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 13 2 x
2

For α, β, γ, ∈ R, if lim , then β + γ − α is equal to:

x sin αx+(γ−1)e
x→0 = 3
sin 2x−βx

58
 Option 1:
7

Option 2:
4

Option 3:
6

Option 4:
-1

Correct Answer:
7

Solution:
2
2 x
x (αx)+(γ−1)(1+ )
1

lim x→10 = 3
8x 3
2x− −βx
6

2 3
(γ−1)+(γ−1)x +αx
lim x→0 4
= 3
3
(2−β)x− x
3

−3α
γ − 1, β = 2, = +3 ⇒ α = −4
4

β + γ − α = 7

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 14 If the system of linear equations

3x + y + βz = 3

2x + αy − z = −3

x + 2y + z = 4

has infinitely many solutions, then the value of 22β − 9α is :

Option 1:
49

Option 2:
31

59
 Option 3:
43

Option 4:
37

Δ =

∣
Correct Answer:
31
Solution:
3

⇒ 22β − 9α = 31
1

3α + 4β − αβ + 3 = 0

Δ3 =

9α + 19 = 0

α =
9
3

−19
1

,β =
−1
β

−3

11
= 0

= 0

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 15

Option 1:
x
2

Option 2:
x
2

Option 3:
x
2

Option 4:
x
2
Let P = α + β , n ∈ N. If P

− x + 1 = 0

+ x − 1 = 0

− x − 1 = 0

+ x + 1 = 0
n
n n

quadratic equation having roots

10
1

α β
,
= 123, P 9 = 76 P 8 = 47

and 1
is :
and P 1
, then the
= 1

60
 Correct Answer:
2
x + x − 1 = 0

Solution:
10 10
α + β = 123

α + β = 1

9 9
α + β = 76

8 8
α + β = 47

P 10 = P 9 + P 8

2 2
x = x + 1 ⇒ x − x − 1 = 0

α + β = 1, αβ = −1

1 1 α+β
+ =
α β αβ

1
= = −1,
−1

1
= −1
αβ

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 16 If S and S are the foci of the ellipse

′ x
2

+
y
2

= 1 and P be a point on the ellipse, then

18 9

min (SP. S P)+ max (SP. S P) is equal to :

′ ′

Option 1:
3(1 + √ 2)

Option 2:
3(6 + √ 2)

Option 3:
9

Option 4:
27

Correct Answer:
27

61
Solution:

=
2

⇒ e =

PS ⋅ PS

sum = 27
= a

Q. 17

∣
PS + PS = 2 × 3√ 2

Directrix x =
2

18 cos

Option 1:
m − 5√ 21n = 0

Option 2:
′

2 m − 5√ 21n = 0

Option 3:
5 m − 2√ 21n = 0

Option 4:
5 m − 21√ 2n = 0
=

2
a

√2
2
(1 − e ) ⇒ 9 = 18 (1 − e )

√2

θ − 36
=

(PS ⋅ PS) max = 18; (PS ⋅ PS) min = 9

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

3√ 2
1

√2
= 6

(3√ 2 cos θ − 6)
1
2

√2
(3√ 2 cos θ + 6)

Let the vertices Q and R of the triangle P QR lie on the line x+3

5
=
y−1

2
=
z+4

and the coordinates of the point P be (0, 2, 3). If the area of the triangle PQR is
, QR = 5
m

n
then :

62
 Correct Answer:
2 m − 5√ 21n = 0

Solution:

M(5λ − 3, 2λ + 1, 3λ − 4)

Drs of PM ⇒ 5λ − 3, 2λ − 1, 3λ − 7

Drs of line L ⇒ 5, 2, 3

PM ⊥ L

⇒ (5λ − 3)5 + (2λ − 1)2 + (3λ − 7)3 = 0

⇒ λ = 1

∴ M(2, 3, −1)

PM = √ 4 + 1 + 16 = √ 21

Area = 1

2
× 5 × √ 21 =
m

2 m − 5√ 21n = 0

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 18 Let ABCD be a tetrahedron such that the edges AB, AC and AD are mutually
perpendicular. Let the areas of the triangles ABC, ACD and ADB be 5, 6 and 7 square units
respectively. Then the area (in square units) of the △BCD is equal to :

Option 1:
√ 340

Option 2:
12

63
 Option 3:
√ 110

Option 4:
7√ 3

Correct Answer:
√ 110

Solution:
Ar(△BCD)

2 2 2
= √ (Ar(△ABC)) + (Ar(ACD)) + (Ar(△ADB))

= √5 2 + 6 2 + 7 2

= √ 110

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 19 Let a ∈ R and A be a matrix of order 3 × 3 such that det(A) = −4 and

1 a 1
⎡ ⎤
A + I = 2 1 0 , where I is the identity matrix of order 3 × 3.
⎣ ⎦
a 1 2

If det((a + 1) adj((a − 1)A)) is 2 m

3
n
, then m + n is equal to :
, m, n ∈ {0, 1, 2, … . .20}

Option 1:
14

Option 2:
17

Option 3:
15

Option 4:
16

Correct Answer:
16

Solution:

64
A =

⎢⎥
⎡

= 64 × (3 ) | A|

= 2

2
m
6

× 3
× 3

∴ m = 10, n = 6

⇒ m + n = 16
1

n
6

= 2
a

|A| = −4 ⇒ 2 − 2a = −4 ⇒ a = 3

× 16
2

10
1

|(a + 1) adj(a − 1)A| = |4 adj 3 A|

= 4
3
= 4 | adj 3 A|

3
× |3 A|
3−1

× 3
⎤

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 20

Option 1:
15

Option 2:
25

Option 3:
30

Option 4:
20

Correct Answer:
15

Solution:
− I =

= 64|3 A|

6
⎡

⎣
0

2
a

1
1

1
⎤

Let the focal chord P Q of the parabola y = 4x make an angle of 60 with the positive x-
2 ∘

axis, where P lies in the first quadrant. If the circle, whose one diameter is PS, S being the
focus of the parabola, touches the y-axis at the point (0, α), then 5α is equal to :
2

65
 ∘ 2t−0
tan 60 = 2
= √3
t −1

⇒ t = √3

∴ P(3, 2√ 3)

Circle :

(x − 1)(x − 3) + (y − 0)(y − 2√ 3) = 0

at x = 0
2
⇒ 3 + y − 2√ 3y = 0

⇒ y = √3 = α

2
5α = 15

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 21 Let [.] denote the greatest integer function. If ∫

e
3

[
1
, then α is equal
]dx = α − log e 2
3
x−1
0 e

to ______

Correct Answer:
8

Solution:
1 1−x
f (x) = x−1 = e
e

66
 1
f (0) = e = 2.71

3
3 1−e
f (e ) = e ∈ (0, 1)

3
1−ℓn2 1 e
I = ∫ 2dx + ∫ 1dx + ∫ 0dx
0 1−ℓn2 1

= 2(1 − ℓn2 − 0) + 1(1 − 1 + ℓn2) + 0

α − ln 2 = 2 − ln 2

α = 2

3
α = 8

Hence, the answer is 8.

Q. 22 Let f : R → R be a thrice differentiable odd function satisfying

′ ′
f (x) ≥ 0, f (x) = f (x), f (0) = 0, f (0) = 3
′
. Then 9f (log e
3) is equal to ______.

Correct Answer:
36

Solution:
′′
f (x) = f (x)

′ ′′ ′
⇒ f (x) ⋅ f (x) = f (x) ⋅ f (x)

′ 2 2
(f (x)) (f (x))
⇒ = + C
2 2

′ 2 2 ′
⇒ (f (x)) = (f (x)) + C

′ ′
f (0) = 0, f (0) = 3 ⇒ C = 9

′ 2 2
∴ (f (x)) = (f (x)) + 9

′ 2 ′
f (x) = √ (f (x)) + 9 ∵ f (x) ≥ 0

dy
2
∫ = ∫ dx ⇒ ln y + √ y + 9 = x + C
√ y 2 +9

⇒ f (0) = 0 ⇒ C = ln 3

2 x
⇒ y + √ y + 9 = 3e

at x = ℓ ln 3; y = 4

67
∴ 9f (ln 3) = 36

Hence, the answer is 36.

Q. 23

Correct Answer:
22

Solution:

A = ∫

= (

80√ 2

3
0
4

(4+y)

− 16 =

α = 6, β = 16

α + β = 22
2
is (

√ 4 + ydy − ∫

Hence, the answer is 22.

Q. 24
4

0
80√ 2

+ (

40√ 2

∣
If the area of the region

{(x, y) : 4 − x

(4−y)

− 16
2

2
2

√ 4 − ydy − ∫

)
2

0
− (
y
3

2
3
2
2
≤ y ≤ x , y ≤ 4, x ≥ 0}

− β), boldsymbolα, boldsymbolβ ∈ N

)
4

0
4

2
√ ydy
, then α + β is equal to______.

Three distinct numbers are selected randomly from the set {1, 2, 3, … … , 40}. If the
probability, that the selected numbers are in an increasing G.P. is gcd(m, n) = 1, then
m + n is equal to______.
m

68
 Correct Answer:
NTA (4949) Or
Allen (2477)

Solution:
1 ≤ a < 6a < 36a ≤ 40

a ∈ {1}

(P =

m + n = 4949

r =

ar

r =

r =
2

(4, 6, 9)

r =

r =
3

(8, 12, 18)

3
9880

4
18

If –r ∉ N (also possible)

9a
; a = 4k

(12, 18, 27) (16, 24, 36)

5
ar

ar
2

2
=

(9, 15, 25). . . . . . . . (1)GP

4
ar
2
=
4940

25a

25a

16
4

25a

9
9

(16, 20, 25). . . . . . . . . . . . . (1)GP

r =

P =
6

40

m + n = 2477
28

C3
ar

=
2
=

28

9880
36a

25

⎪
) as per NTA f or r ∈

⎬4GP

; a = 4k

(4, 10, 25) … … . . (1)GP

ar
2
16a
→ a = 9k
N

(9, 12, 16), (18, 24, 3). . . . . . . . . . . (2)GP

; a = 9k

; a = 16k

; a = 25k

(25, 30, 36). . . . . . . . . . . . . . . (1)GP

Total = 18 + 10 = 28

=
7

2470

69
Hence, the answer is 2477.

Q. 25 The absolute difference between the squares of the radii of the two circles passing through
the point (−9, 4) and touching the lines x + y = 3 and x − y = 3, is equal to _____.

Correct Answer:
768

Solution:

Centre (a, 0)

a−0−3
r =
√2

2
2 2 a−3
circle(x − a) + y = ( )
√2

passes through (−9, 4)

2 2
2 (a + 18a + 81 + 16) = (a − 6a + 9)

2
a + 42a + 185 = 0

(a + 37)(a + 5) = 0

⇒ a = −37, −5

−37−3
r1 = = 20√ 2
√2

−5−3
r2 = = 4√ 2
√2

2 2
r − r = |800 − 32| = 768
1 2

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

70
 JEE Main 2025

2 April - Shift 2
nd

Question Paper with Solution

71
Physics
Q. 1 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Net dipole moment of a polar linear isotropic dielectric substance is not zero even in the absence of
an external electric field.
Reason (R) : In absence of an external electric field, the different permanent dipoles of a polar dielectric substance
are oriented in random directions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(A) is correct but ( R ) is not correct

Option 2:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Option 3:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Option 4:
(A) is not correct but ( R ) is correct

Correct Answer:
(A) is not correct but ( R ) is correct

Solution:
→ →
A : Since polar dielectrics are randomly oriental P nct
= 0 .
→
R : If E is absent, polar dielectric remain polar \& are randomly oriented.

Hence, the answer is the option (4).

Q. 2 In a moving coil galvanometer, two moving coils M and M have the following particulars :
1 2

−3 2
R 1 = 5Ω, N 1 = 15, A 1 = 3.6 × 10 m , B 1 = 0.25 T

−3 2
R 2 = 7Ω, N 2 = 21, A 2 = 1.8 × 10 m , B 2 = 0.50 T

Assuming that torsional constant of the springs are same for both coils, what will be the ratio of voltage sensitivity
of M and M ?
1 2

Option 1:
1 : 1

Option 2:
1 : 4

Option 3:
1 : 3

Option 4:
1 : 2

72
 Correct Answer:
1 : 1

Solution:
Voltage sensitivity = θ

V
=
NAB

cR

Ratio = (
N1 A1 B1 R2 15×3.6×0.25 7 1
) = × =
N2 A2 B2 R1 21×1.8×0.5 5 1

Hence, the answer is the option (1).

Q. 3 The moment of inertia of a circular ring of mass M and diameter r about a tangential axis lying in the plane of the
ring is :

Option 1:
1 2
Mr
2

Option 2:
3 2
Mr
8

Option 3:
3 2
Mr
2

Option 4:
2
2Mr

Correct Answer:
3 2
Mr
8

Solution:
1. Given:
- A circular ring of mass M and diameter R
- We are to find the moment of inertia about a tangential axis that lies in the plane of the ring.
2. Convert Diameter to Radius:
R
Radius =
2

3. Use standard results:

- Moment of inertia of a ring about its diameter (in-plane axis through center):
2
1 2
1 R
I diameter = Mr = M( )
2 2 2

- Moment of inertia about a tangential axis in the plane of the ring (i.e., parallel to diameter but passing through the edge of the
ring):

Use parallel axis theorem:

2
I tangent = I diameter + M r

4. Plug in values:
2 2
1 R R
I tangent = M( ) + M( )
2 2 2

73
5. Simplify:
2 2
1 R 3 R
I tangent = ( + 1)M ( ) = M( )
2 2 2 2

2
3 R 3
2
I tangent = M ⋅ = MR
2 4 8

Hence, the answer is option 2

Q. 4 Two water drops each of radius ' r ' coalesce to from a bigger drop of radius R. If ' T ' is the surface tension, the
surface energy released in this process is :

Option 1:
2
2
4πR T [2 − 2 3 ]

Option 2:
1
2
4πR T [2 − 2 3 ]

Option 3:
2
4πr T[1 + √ 2]

Option 4:
2
4πr T [√ 2 − 1]

Correct Answer:
2
2
4πR T [2 − 2 3 ]

Solution:
4 3 4 3 1/3
2 × πR = πr ⇒ r = 2 R
3 3

2
U i = 2 × 4πR T

2 2 2/3
U f = 4πr T = 4πR T 2

2 2/3
∴ Heat lost = u i − u f = 4πR T [2 − 2 ]

Hence, the answer is the option (1).

Q. 5 →
An electron with mass ' m ' with an initial velocity (t = 0)v→ = v ^i (v > 0) enters a magnetic field B = B ^j. If
0 0 0

the initial de-Broglie wavelength at t = 0 is λ then its value after time ' t ' would be :
0

Option 1:
λ0

2 2
e2 B t
√ 0
1−
m2

74
 Option 2:
λ0

2 2 2
e B t
√ 0
1+
2
m

Option 3:
2 2 2
e B t
λ 0 √1 +
0

2
m

Option 4:
λ0

Correct Answer:
λ0

Solution:
Magnetic field does not work
∴ Speed will not charge, so De-Broglie wavelength remains same.

1. Given:
- An electron with initial velocity v→ = v ^i 0

- Magnetic field: B → = B ^j 0

- Initial de-Broglie wavelength: λ 0

- We need to find the de-Broglie wavelength at time t

2. Effect of Magnetic Field:
- A magnetic field does not do any work on a charged particle (like an electron), because the magnetic force is always
perpendicular to the velocity of the particle.
- Hence, although the direction of the velocity changes (circular or helical motion), the magnitude (speed) of the velocity
remains constant.
3. De-Broglie Wavelength:
- De-Broglie wavelength is given by:

h h
λ = =
p mv

- Since m (mass of electron) and v (speed) remain unchanged, the momentum p is constant.

4. Conclusion:
- So, the de-Broglie wavelength remains the same as initial:

λ = λ0

Hence, the answer is the option (4)

Q. 6 A sinusoidal wave of wavelength 7.5 cm travels a distance of 1.2 cm along the x -direction in 0.3 sec . The crest P is
at x = 0 at t = 0sec and maximum displacement of the wave is 2 cm . Which equation correctly represents this
wave ?

Option 1:
y = 2 cos(0.83x − 3.35t)cm

Option 2:
y = 2 sin(0.83x − 3.5t)cm

75
 Option 3:
y = 2 cos(3.35x − 0.83t)cm

Option 4:
y = 2 cos(0.13x − 0.5t)cm

Correct Answer:
y = 2 cos(0.83x − 3.35t)cm

Solution:
distance
v =
time
12
v = = 4 cm/s
0.3
2π 2π 4π
k = = = = 0.83
λ 7.5 15
ω 4π
v = ⇒ ω = vk = 4 × = 3.35
k 15

So y = A cos(kx − ωt)

Hence, the answer is the option (1)

Q. 7 Given a charge q, current I and permeability of vacuum μ . Which of the following quantity has the dimension of
0

momentum ?

Option 1:
qI/μ 0

Option 2:
qμ 0 I

Option 3:
2
q μ0 I

Option 4:
qμ 0 /I

Correct Answer:
qμ 0 I

Solution:
q = AT

I = A

−2 −2
μ 0 = MLT A
y
x y z x −2 −2 z
P = q μ I = [AT] [MLT A ] [ A]
0

−1 y y x−2y −2y+z+x
MLT = M L T A

Now; y = 1

x − 2y = −1

− 2y + z = 0

∴ x = y = z = 1

76
Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 8 A solenoid having area A and length ' l ' is filled with a material having relative permeability 2 . The magnetic
energy stored in the solenoid is :

Option 1:
2
B Al

μ0

Option 2:
2
B Al

2μ 0

Option 3:
2
B Al

Option 4:
2
B Al

4μ 0

Correct Answer:
2
B Al

4μ 0

Solution:
2 2 2
U B B B
= ⇒ U = V = Aℓ
V 2μ r u 0 4μ 0 4μ 0

Hence, the answer is the option (4)

Q. 9 Two large plane parallel conducting plates are kept 10 cm apart as shown in figure. The potential difference
between them is V . The potential difference between the points A and B (shown in the figure) is :

Option 1:
1
V
4

Option 2:
2
V
5

Option 3:
3
V
4

Option 4:
1 V

Correct Answer:
2
V
5

Solution:

77
Using ΔV = E(Δd)

V = E(10)
V 2 V
V AB = E.4 = × 4 =
10 5

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 10 Identify the characteristics of an adiabatic process in a monoatomic gas.

(A) Internal energy is constant.
(B) Work done in the process is equal to the charge in internal energy.
(C) The product of temperature and volume is a constant.
(D) The product of pressure and volume is a constant.
(E) The work done to change the temperature from T to T is proportional to (T
1 2 2
− T1 )

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(A), (C), (D) only

Option 2:
(A), (C), (E) only

Option 3:
(B), (E) only

Option 4:
(B), (D) only

Correct Answer:
(B), (E) only

Solution:
Q = ΔU + W = 0 ⇒ −ΔU = W

WD = −nC v ΔT ⇒ |WD| = nC v ΔT ∝ T 2 − T 1

∴ B&E [Only possibility]

Hence, the answer is the option (3)

Q. 11 Assuming the validity of Bohr's atomic model for hydrogen like ions the radius of Li ++
ion in its ground state is
given by a , where X = ______ .
X
1
0

(Where a is the first Bohr's radius.)

0

78
 Option 1:
2

Option 2:
1

Option 3:
3

Option 4:
9

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
for Li and n = 1
2
n +2
r = r0 &z = 3
z
2
1 r0
∴ r = r0 = ∴ x = 3
3 3

Hence, the answer is the option (3)

Q. 12 Energy released when two deuterons ( 1H

2
)fuse to form a helium nucleus ( He ) is :
2
4

(Given : Binding energy per nucleon of 1H

2
= 1.1MeV and binding energy per nucleon of 2 He
4
= 7.0MeV )

Option 1:
8.1 MeV

Option 2:
5.9 MeV

Option 3:
23.6 MeV

Option 4:
26.8 MeV

Correct Answer:
23.6 MeV

Solution:
2 2 4
H + 1
H → 1He
1.1McV 7

7.0Mev

E B = BE reaclant − BE product

= 1.1 × 2 + 1.1 × 2 − 7 × 4 = −23.6MeV

= Q = 23.6MeV

Hence, the answer is the option (3)

79
 Q. 13 In the digital circuit shown in the figure, for the given inputs the P and Q values are :

Option 1:
P = 1, Q = 1

Option 2:
P = 0, Q = 0

Option 3:
P = 0, Q = 1

Option 4:
P = 1, Q = 0

Correct Answer:
P = 0, Q = 0

Solution:

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 14 Two identical objects are placed in front of convex mirror and concave mirror having same radii of curvature of 12
cm , at same distance of 18 cm from the respective mirrors. The ratio of sizes of the images formed by convex
mirror and by concave mirror is :

80
 Option 1:
1/2

Option 2:
2

Option 3:
3

Option 4:
1/3

Correct Answer:
1/2

Solution:
Using m = f

u−f

6 1
m1 = =
18−6 2

6 1 m2 1
m2 = = ∴ =
18+6 4 m1 2

Hence, the answer is option 1

Q. 15 A sportsman runs around a circular track of radius r such that he traverses the path ABAB. The distance
travelled and displacement, respectively, are

Option 1:
2r, 3πr

Option 2:
3πr, πr

Option 3:
πr, 3r

Option 4:
3πr, 2r

Correct Answer:
3πr, 2r

Solution:

81
1. From A to B :
- Half the circle
- Distance = πr
2. From B to A :
- Another half circle
- Distance = πr
3. From A to B again:
- Another half circle
- Distance = πr
4. Total Distance Travelled:
- πr + πr + πr = 3πr
5. Initial Position: A
6. Final Position: B
7. Shortest distance from A to B = Diameter = 2r
8. Displacement = 2r

Hence, the answer is the option (4)

Q. 16

A body of mass 1 kg is suspended with the help of two strings making angles as shown in figure. Magnitude of
tensions T and T , respectively, are (in N ):
1 2

Option 1:
5, 5√ 3

Option 2:
5√ 3, 5

Option 3:
5√ 3, 5√ 3

Option 4:
5,5

Correct Answer:
5√ 3, 5

Solution:

∘
T 1 = mg cos 30
∘
T 2 = mg sin 30

Hence, the answer is option 2

82
 Q. 17 A bi-convex lens has radius of curvature of both the surfaces same as 1/6 cm. If this lens is required to be
replaced by another convex lens having different radii of curvatures on both sides (R ≠ R ), without any change
1 2

in lens power then possible combination of R and R is :

1 2

Option 1:
cm and
1 1
cm
3 3

Option 2:
cm and
1 1
cm
5 7

Option 3:
cm and
1 1
cm
3 7

Option 4:
cm and
1 1
cm
6 9

Correct Answer:
cm and
1 1
cm
5 7

Solution:
This will happen when
1 1
=
f1 f2

1 1 2
(μ − 1) ( − ) = (μ − 1) ( )
R1 −R 2 R

1 1 2
+ =
R1 R2 R

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 18 If μ and ε are the permeability and permittivity of free space, respectively, then the dimension of ( 1
) is :
0 0
μ0 ε0

Option 1:
2
L/T

Option 2:
2 2
L /T

Option 3:
2
T /L

Option 4:
2 2
T /L

Correct Answer:
2 2
L /T

83
Solution:
Speed of light c has dimensions:
−1
[c] = [LT ]

Therefore:
2 2 −2
[c ] = [L T ]

Final Answer:
The dimension of ( 1

μ1 ε0
) is:

2 −2
[L T ]

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 19 Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Heat capacity of body (I) Jkg −1

(B) Specific heat capacity of body (II) JK −1

(C) Latent heat (III) Jkg −1

K
−1

(D)Thermal conductivity (IV) Jm −1

K
−1
s
−1

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(A) - (III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

Option 2:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Option 3:
(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Option 4:
(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

Correct Answer:
(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

Solution:

84
 ΔQ
′ −1
C = = JK
Δ T

ΔQ
−1 −1
S = = Jkg K
mΔ T

ΔQ −1
L = = Jkg
m

KAΔ T ΔQ( L)
−1 −1 −1
ΔQ = ⇒ K = = Jm K s
L AΔ T

Hence, the answer is the option (4)

Q. 20 Consider a circular loop that is uniformly charged and has a radius a√2. Find the position along the positive z-axis
of the cartesian coordinate system where the electric field is maximum if the ring was assumed to be placed in xy-
plane at the origin :

Option 1:
a

√2

Option 2:
a

Option 3:
a

Option 4:
0

Correct Answer:
a

Solution:
KQr
E =
3/2
2 2
(x + R )

dE
= 0
dx

R √ 2a
∴ x = = = a
√2 √2

Hence, the answer is option 3

85
 Q. 21

A wheel of radius 0.2 m rotates freely about its center when a string that is wrapped over its rim is pulled by force
of 10 N as shown in figure. The established torque produces an angular acceleration of 2rad/s . Moment of
2

inertia of the wheel is ______ kgm . 2

(Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s ) 2

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:

FR = Iα

FR 10 × 0.2
2
⇒ I = = = 1 kg − m
α 2

Hence, the answer is 1.

Q. 22 The internal energy of air in 4 m × 4 m × 3 m sized room at 1 atmospheric pressure will be _____ ×10 6
J .
(Consider air as diatomic molecule)

Correct Answer:
12

Solution:
To find the internal energy of gas in the room.

5RT
U = nC v T = n
2

5 5 5 6
= PV = × 10 × 48 = 12 × 10 J
2 2

Hence, the answer is 12.

Q. 23 A ray of light suffers minimum deviation when incident on a prism having angle of the prism equal to 60 . The ∘

refractive index of the prism material is √2. The angle of incidence (in degrees) is _____ .

86
 Correct Answer:
45

Solution:
A+δ m
sin ( )
2
∘ ∘
μ = , since A = 60 ∴ δm = 30
A
sin ( )
2

δ m = 2i − A[ as i = e]
∘
⇒ i = 45

Hence, the answer is option 1

Q. 24 The length of a light string is 1.4 m when the tension on it is 5 N . If the tension increases to 7 N , the length of the
string is 1.56 m . The original length of the string is _____ m.

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
T = K (ℓ − ℓ 0 )

⇒ 5 = K (1.4 − ℓ 0 )

⇒ 7 = K (1.56 − ℓ 0 )

5 7
⇒ =
1.4 − ℓ 0 1.56 − ℓ 0

∴ ℓ0 = 1 m

Hence, the answer is option 1

Q. 25 A satellite of mass 1000 kg is launched to revolve around the earth in an orbit at a height of 270 km from the
earth's surface. Kinetic energy of the satellite in this orbit is _____ ×10 J. 10

( Mass of earth = 6 × 10 kg, Radius of earth = 6.4 × 10 m, Gravitational constant =

24 6

6.67 × 10
−11
Nm kg ) 2 −2

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
1 1 GM e GM e m GM e m
2
KE = mv = m = =
2 2 r 2r 2 (R E + h)

−11 24 6
6.67 × 10 × 6 × 10 × 6.4 × 10 10
= = 3 × 10 J
6 5
2 (6.4 × 10 + 2.7 × 10 )

Hence, the answer is 3

87
Chemistry
Q. 1 When a concentrated solution of sulphanilic acid and 1-naphthylamine is treated with nitrous acid (273 K) and
acidified with acetic acid, the mass (g) of 0.1 mole of product formed is : (Given molar mass in g mol–1 H : 1, C : 12,
N : 14,O : 16, S : 32)

Option 1:
343

Option 2:
330

Option 3:
33

Option 4:
66

Correct Answer:
33

Solution:

Molar mass of product formed

= (16 × 12) + (14 × 3) + (16 × 3) + 32 + 13

= 327 g

Mass of 0.1 mol product

32.7 g ≈ 33 g

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

88
 Q. 2 The d-orbital electronic configuration of the complex among [Co(en) 3
]
3+
, [CoF 6 ]
3−
, [Mn(H 2
O) ]
2+
and
6

[Zn(H O) ]
2 6
that has the highest CFSE is :
2+

Option 1:
6 0
t e
2g g

Option 2:
6 4
t eg
2g

Option 3:
3 2
t gg
2g

Option 4:
4 2
t eg
2g

Correct Answer:
6 0
t eg
2g

Solution:
3+
[Co(en) 3 ] has highest CFSE

Co
3+
with SFL (en)
6 0
= t eg
2g

CFSE = (6 × (−0.4) + 0 × 0.6)Δ 0

= −2.4Δ 0

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 3 Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : Neopentane forms only one monosubstituted derivative.
Statement (II) : Melting point of neopentane is higher than n-pentane
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Option 3:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Option 4:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

89
 Correct Answer:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Solution:

neopentane has only one type of

hydrogen so form only one monosubstituted derivative.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 4 Which among the following molecules is (a) involved in sp3 d hybridization, (b) has different bond lengths and (c)
has lone pair of electrons on the central atom ?

Option 1:
PF5

Option 2:
XeF4

Option 3:
SF4

Option 4:
XeF2

Correct Answer:
SF4

Solution:

(S − F ) a > (S − F ) e

SF has 4 bond pairs of electrons and 1 lone pair of electrons.

4

Since, steric number is 5 ,

Hybridisation of SF = sp d
4
3

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 5 Formation of Na [Fe(CN) NOS], a purple coloured complex formed by addition of sodium nitroprusside in
4 5

sodium carbonate extract of salt indicates the presence of:

Option 1:
Sodium ion

90
 Option 2:
Sulphate ion

Option 3:
Sulphide ion

Option 4:
Sulphite ion

Correct Answer:
Sulphide ion
Solution:
Test for sulphide ion
2− 4+
S + Na 2 [Fe(CN) 5 NO] ⟶ [Fe(CN) 5 NOS]
Deep violet compound

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 6 In 3,3-dimethylhex-1-ene-4-yne, there are _______sp , _______ sp and _______ sp hybridised carbon atoms
3 2

respectively :

Option 1:
4, 2, 2

Option 2:
3, 3, 2

Option 3:
2, 4, 2

Option 4:
2, 2, 4

Correct Answer:
4, 2, 2

Solution:

3
sp C = 4

2
sp C = 2

spC = 2

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

91
 Q. 7 Which of the following statements are true?
(A) The subsidiary quantum number l describes the shape of the orbital occupied by the electron.

(B) is the boundary surface diagram of the 2p orbital.

x

(C) The + and - signs in the wave function of the 2p orbital refer to charge.
x

(D) The wave function of 2p orbital is zero everywhere in the xy plane.

x

Option 1:
(B) and (D) only

Option 2:
(A), (B) and (C) only

Option 3:
(C) and (D) only

Option 4:
(A) and (B) only

Correct Answer:
(A) and (B) only

Solution:
Subsidiary quantum number or azimuthal quantum number ( I ) describes shape of orbital.
The given surface diagram is of the 2p orbital.
x

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 8 The type of hybridization and the magnetic property of [MnCl 6]

3−
are :

Option 1:
2
d sp , paramagnetic with four unpaired electrons
3

Option 2:
d , paramagnetic with four unpaired electrons
3 2
sp

Option 3:
2
d sp , paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons
3

Option 4:
d , paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons
3 2
sp

Correct Answer:
d , paramagnetic with four unpaired electrons
3 2
sp

92
 Solution:
Cl with Mn
− 3+
is a weak field ligand
3+ 4 3 1
Mn ⇒ 3 d ⇒ t 2 ge g

Hybridisation = sp 3
d
2
with 4 unpaired electron and paramagnetic.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 9 Consider the following reactions. From these reactions which reaction will give carboxylic acid as a major product ?
+
(i) H /H 2 O

R − C ≡ N
− → (A)
mild condition

(i) CO 2

R − MgX
− → (B) +
(ii) H 3 O

(i) SnCl 2 /HCl

R − C ≡ N
− → (C) +
(ii) H 3 O

PCC

R ⋅ CH 2 ⋅ OH
− → (D)

(i) H 2 ∣Pd−BaSO 4

COCl
− → (E)
(ii) Br 2 water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A and D only

Option 2:
A, B and E only

Option 3:
B, C and E only

Option 4:
B and E only

Correct Answer:
B and E only

Solution:
+
(i) H /H 2 O

R − C ≡ N
− →(A)
mildcondition

(i) CO 2

R − MgX
− (B)
→ R − COOH
+
(ii) H 3 O

(i) SnCl 2 /HCl

R − C ≡ N
− (C)
→ R − CHO
+
(ii) H 3 O

PCC

− (D)
R ⋅ CH 2 ⋅ OH → R − CHO

93
 2
(i) H 2 ∣Pd −BaSO 4

−
COCl (E)
→ Ph − COOH
(ii) Br 2 water

Br 2 water oxidises aldehyde to carboxylic acid.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 10 Electronic configuration of four elements A, B, C and D are given below :

(A) 1s 2s 2p2 2 3

(B) 1s 2s 2p2 2 4

(C) 1 s 2 s 2p
2 2 5

(D) 1 s 2 s 2p
2 2 2

Which of the following is the correct order of increasing electronegativity (Pauling's scale) ?

Option 1:
A<D<B<C

Option 2:
A<C<B<D

Option 3:
A<B<C<D

Option 4:
D<A<B<C

Correct Answer:
D<A<B<C

Solution:
(A) 1s 2s 2p ⇒ N
2 2 3

(B) 1s 2s 2p ⇒ 0
2 2 4

(C) 1s 2s 2p ⇒ F
2 2 5

(D) 1 s 2 s 2p ⇒ C
2 2 2

Order of electronegativity

F > O > N > C

C > B > A > D

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

94
 Q. 11 Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(Purification technique) (Mixture of organic

compounds)

(A) Distillation (simple) (I) Diesel + Petrol

(B) Fractional distillation (II) Aniline + Water

(C) Distillation under reduced (III) Chloroform + Aniline

pressure

(D) Steam distillation (IV) Glycerol + Spent-lye

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

Option 2:
(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

Option 3:
(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Option 4:
(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Correct Answer:
(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Solution:
Boiling point of aniline is 547 K and B.P. of CHCl is 334 K . So, they are separated by simple distillation.
3

A–III (Simple distillation – Chloroform + Aniline)

B–I (Fractional distillation – Diesel + Petrol)
C–IV (Distillation under reduced pressure – Glycerol + Spent-lye)
D–II (Steam distillation – Aniline + Water)

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 12 ' x ' g of NaCl is added to water in a beaker with a lid. The temperature of the system is raised from 1 C to 25 C.
∘ ∘

Which out of the following plots, is best suited for the change in the molarity (M) of the solution with respect to
temperature ?
[Consider the solubility of NaCl remains unchanged over the temperature range]

95
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Volume is minimum at 4 ∘
C , so molarity will be maximum at 4 ∘
C .

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

96
 Q. 13 Arrange the following in order of magnitude of work done by the system / on the system at constant temperature :
(a) |w | for expansion in infinite stage.
reversible

(b) |w | for expansion in single stage.

irreversible

(c) |w | for compression in infinite stage.

reversible

(d) |W | for compression in single stage.

irreversible

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
a>b>c>d

Option 2:
d > c = a > b

Option 3:
c = a > d > b

Option 4:
a > c > b > d

Correct Answer:
d > c = a > b

Solution:
|W reversible expansion
| >∣ Wirreversible expansion ∣
|W reversible expansion
| = |W reversible compression
|

∣ Wirreversible compression |> |W reversible compression

|

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 14 Reactant A converts to product D through the given mechanism (with the net evolution of heat) :
A → B slow; ΔH = +ve

B → C fast; ΔH = −ve

C → D fast ; ΔH = −ve

Which of the following represents the above reaction mechanism?

Option 1:

97
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
As given net evolution of heat takes place.

A → D ΔH < 0

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

98
 Q. 15 The nature of oxide (TeO 2
) and hydride (TeH 2
) formed by Te , respectively are :

Option 1:
Oxidising and acidic

Option 2:
Reducing and basic

Option 3:
Reducing and acidic

Option 4:
Oxidising and basic

Correct Answer:
Oxidising and acidic

Solution:
TeO 2 is oxidising in nature TeH is reducing in nature and acidic in nature.
2

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 16 Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(Reaction) (Name of
reaction)

(A) (I) Lucas

reaction

(B) + −
Cu (II) Finkelstein
−
ArN 2 X → ArCl + N 2 ↑ +CuX
HK1
reaction

(C) Dry (III) Fittig

C 2 H 5 Br + NaI
− → C 2 H 5 I + NaBr
Nectance
reaction

(D) HCl (IV) Gatterman

CH 3 C(OH) (CH 3 )CH 3
− →
ZnCl 2
reaction
CH 3 C(Cl) (CH 3 )CH 3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

Option 2:
(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

99
 Option 3:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Option 4:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

Correct Answer:
(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Solution:
Fittig
(A) reaction

Cu
Gatterman
ArN X
− (B)
→ ArCl + N 2 ↑ +CuX
+

2
−
reaction
HK1

C 2 H 5 Br + NaI
− (C) Finkelstein
→ C 2 H 5 I + NaBr
Dry

reaction Nectance

Lucas
reaction
HCl

− CH C(OH) (CH )CH →

(D)
3 3 3
ZnCl 2

CH 3 C(Cl) (CH 3 )CH 3

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 17 Consider the following chemical equilibrium of the gas phase reaction at a constant temperature :
A(g) ⇌ B(g) + C(g)

If p being the total pressure, K is the pressure equilibrium constant and α is the degree of dissociation, then
p

which of the following is true at equilibrium?

Option 1:
If p value is extremely high compared to K p, α ≈ 1

Option 2:
When p increases α decreases

Option 3:
If k value is extremely high compared to p, α becomes much less than unity
p

Option 4:
When p increases α increases

Correct Answer:
When p increases α decreases

Solution:
According to Le-Chatelier's principle as pressure increases in above reaction the reaction moves in backward direction hence α
decreases.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

100
 Q. 18 Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of thermodynamic properties of Haber's process ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
N 2 ( g) + 3H 2 ( g) ⇌ 2NH 3 ( g)

101
 ΔS r = −ve

ΔH r = −ve

first decreases then constant

−ΔH
r
⇒
T

first decreases then constant

−ΔG
R
⇒
T

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 19 A tetrapeptide "x " on complete hydrolysis produced glycine (Gly), alanine (Ala), valine (Val), leucine (Leu) in
equimolar proportion each. The number of tetrapeptides (sequences) possible involving each of these amino acids
is

Option 1:
16

Option 2:
32

Option 3:
8

Option 4:
24

Correct Answer:
24

Solution:
Let

A = Gly

B = Ala

C = Val

D = Leu

Total 24 tetrapeptides are formed. The 24 tetrapeptides formed including all the four amino acids are

ABCD BACD CABD DABC

ABDC BADC CADB DACB

ACBD BDAC CBAD DBAC

ACDB BDCA CBDA DBCA

ADBC BCAD CDAB DCAB

ADCB BCDA CDBA DCBA



  
Total 24

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

102
 Q. 20 In Dumas' method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.5 gram of an organic compound gave 60 mL of nitrogen collected
at 300 K temperature and 715 mm Hg pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound
(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm Hg) is

Option 1:
1.257

Option 2:
20.87

Option 3:
18.67

Option 4:
12.57

Correct Answer:
12.57

Solution:
PN = P moist gas
− aqueous tension
2

= (715 − 15)mmHg

= 700 mmHg

V N 2 = 60 mL

= 0.060 L

T = 300 K

PV 700×0.06
nN = =
2 RT 760×0.0821×300

= 0.022 mol

Mass of N 2
= 0.0224 × 28 = 0.0628

0.0628
%N 2 = × 100 = 12.58%
0.5

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

103
 Q. 21 For the reaction A → B the following graph was obtained. The time required (in seconds) for the concentration of
A to reduce to 2.5 g L (if the initial concentration of A was 50 g L ) is
−1 −1
(Nearest integer)

Given : log 2 = 0.3010

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
The graph given is for 1 st
order reaction

2.303 [A 0 ]
k = log
t [A t ]

2.303 [50]
k = log
25 [10]

2.303
k = log 5
25

2.303 × 0.7 −1
= s
25

2.303 × 0.7 2.303 50

= = log
25 t 2.5
0.699 1
= log 20
25 t
1.301 × 25
t =
0.699

= 46.53 s

≈ 47 s

Q. 22 0.2 % (w/v) solution of NaOH is measured to have resistivity 870.0 m m. The molar conductivity of the solution will
be _______×102 mS dm2 mol–1 . (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
We have 0.2 g of NaOH in 100 mL solution

104
 0.2
M = × 1000
40 × 100

= 0.05M

1 −1
κ = = 1.15Sm
0.870
−2 −1
= 1.15 × 10 S cm

−2
κ × 1000 1.15 × 10 × 1000
∧m = =
m 0.05
2 −1
= 230 S cm mol

4 2 −1
= 23 × 10 m S cm mol

2 2 −1
= 23 × 10 m Sdm mol

Q. 23

Consider the above sequence of reactions. 151 g of 2-bromopentane is made to react. Yield of major product P is
80% whereas Q is 100%.

Mass of product Q obtained is g.

(Given molar mass in gmol H : 1, C : 12, O : 16, Br : 80)
−1

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:

Molecular mass of Q = 230 g mol −1

Mass of Q = 0.8 × 230 = 184 g

Q. 24 When 1 g each of compounds AB and AB are dissolved in 15 g of water separately, they increased the boiling
2

point of water by 2.7 K and 1.5 K respectively. The atomic mass of A (in amu) is _______ ×10 (Nearest integer)
−1

(Given : Molal boiling point elevation constant is 0.5 K kg mol )

−1

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
For AB

105
ΔT b = 2.7

−1
K b = 0.5 K kg mol

ΔT b
m = = 5.4 m
Kb

For AB 2

ΔT b = 1.5 K

1.5
m = = 5.4 m
0.5

Moles of AB = 0.081 mol

Moles of AB 2

= 0.045 mol

Molar mass of AB = 12.35 g/mol

Molar mass of AB = 22.22 g/mol
2

Let atomic mass of A = a, B = b

a + b = 12.35

a + 2b = 22.22

On solving a = 2.48
−1
= 24.8 × 10

Q. 25 The spin-only magnetic moment value of M ion formed among Ni, ZnMn and Cu that has the least enthalpy
n+-

of atomisation is ______ . (in nearest integer)

Here n is equal to the number of diamagnetic complexes among K [NiCl ], [Zn(H O) ]Cl , K [Mn(CN) ]
2 4 2 6 2 3 6

and [Cu(PPh ) I] 3 3

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
2+ 8 3
K 2 [NiCl 4 ] ⇒ Ni ⇒ 3 d ⇒ sp ⇒ Paramagnetic

2+ 10
[Zn(H 2 O) ]Cl 2 ⇒ Zn ⇒ 3 d ⇒ diamagnetic
6

3+ 4
K 3 [Mn(CN) 6 ] ⇒ Mn ⇒ 3 d ⇒ paramagnetic

+1 10
[Cu (PPh 3 )l) ⇒ Cu ⇒ 3 d ⇒ diamagnetic

n = 2

Zn has least enthalpy of atomisation

2+
Zn ⇒ μ = 0

106
Maths
Q. 1 If the image of the point P(1, 0, 3) in the line joining the points A(4, 7, 1) and B(3, 5, 3) is Q(α, β, γ), then
α + β + γ is equal to

Option 1:
47

Option 2:
46

Option 3:
18

Option 4:
13

Correct Answer:
46

Solution:
P(1, 0, 3)

A(4, 7, 1), B(3, 5, 3)

Line AB ⇒ x−3

1
=
y−5

2
=
z−3

−2
= λ

Let foot of perpendicular of P on AB be

R ≡ (λ + 3, 2λ + 5, −2λ + 3)

⇒ (λ + 3 − 1)(1) + (2λ + 5 − 0)(2) + (−2λ + 3 − 3)(−2) = 0

⇒ λ + 2 + 4λ + 10 + 4λ = 0

4
⇒ λ = −
3

5 7 17
⇒ R ≡ ( , , )
3 3 3

10 14 34 7 14 25
Q ≡ ( − 1, − 0, − 3) ≡ ( , , )
3 3 3 3 3 3

7+14+25 46
⇒ α + β + γ = =
3 3

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 2 Let f : [1, ∞) → [2, ∞) be a differentiable function, If 10 ∫

x
f (t)dt = 5xf (x) − x
5
− 9 for all x ≥ 1, then the
1

value of f (3) is :

Option 1:
18

107
 Option 2:
32

Option 3:
22

Option 4:
26

Correct Answer:
32
Solution:
d x d 5
10 ∫ f (t)dt = (5xf (x) − x − 9)
dx 1 dx

′ 4
⇒ 10f (x) = 5f (x) + 5xf (x) − 5x

4 ′
⇒ f (x) + x = xf (x)

dy
4
⇒ y + x = x
dx

dy 1 3
⇒ + y (− ) = x
dx x

1 1
∫ − dx 3 ∫ − dx
⇒ ye x = ∫ x e x + c

− ln |x| 3 − ln |x|
⇒ ye = ∫ x e + c

3
y x
⇒ = ∫ + c
|x| |x|

y 2
⇒ = ∫ x + c
x

3
y x
⇒ = + c
x 3

Put x = 1 in a given equation

⇒ 0 = 5f (1) − 1 − 9 ⇒ f (1) = 2

2 1 5
⇒ = + c ⇒ c =
1 3 3

f (3) 27 5
⇒ = +
3 3 3

⇒ f (3) = 32

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 3 The number of terms of an A.P. is even; the sum of all the odd terms is 24, the sum of all the even terms is 30, and
the last term exceeds the first by . Then the number of terms which are integers in the A.P. is :
21

Option 1:
4

Option 2:
10

108
 Option 3:
6

Option 4:
8

Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
a 2 + a 4 + … + a n = 30 … (1)

a 1 + a 3 + … + a n−1 = 24 … (2)

(1) - (2)

(a 2 − a 1 ) + (a 4 − a 3 ) … (a n − a n−1 ) = 6

n
⇒ d = 6 ⇒ nd = 12
2

21
a n − a 1 = (n − 1)d =
2

21 21
⇒ nd − d = ⇒ 12 − = d
2 2

3
⇒ d = ,n = 8
2

Sum of odd terms = 4

2
[2a + (4 − 1)3] = 24

3
⇒ a =
2

A.P. ⇒ 3

2
, 3,
9

2
, 6,
15

2
, 9,
21

2
, 12

no. of integer terms = 4

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 4 Let A = {1, 2, 3, … . , 10} and R be a relation on A such that R = {(a, b) : a = 2 b + 1}. Let (a , a ),
1 2

be a sequence of k elements of R such that the second entry of an ordered

(a 2 , a 3 ), (a 3 , a 4 ), … . , (a k , a k+1 )

pair is equal to the first entry of the next ordered pair. Then the largest integer k, for which such a sequence exists,
is equal to :

Option 1:
6

Option 2:
7

Option 3:
5

Option 4:
8

109
 Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
a = 2 b + 1

2 b = a − 1

R = {(3, 1), (5, 2), … , (99, 49)}

Let (2m + 1, m), (2λ − 1, λ) are such ordered pairs.

According to the condition

m = 2λ − 1 ⇒ m = odd number

⇒ 1
st
element of ordered pair (a, b)

a = 2(2λ − 1) + 1 = 4λ − 1

Hence a ∈ {3, 7, … , 99}

⇒ λ ∈ {1, 2, … , 25}

⇒ set of sequence
λ−2
{(4λ − 1, 2λ − 1), (2λ − 1, λ − 1), (λ − 1, ), … … . . }
2

element of each ordered pair =

r−2
nd λ−2
2 r−2
2

For maximum number of ordered pairs in such sequence

or 2; 1 ≤ λ ≤ 25
r−2
λ−2
r−2 = 1
2

λ = 2
r−1
or λ = 3.2 r−2

Case-I : λ = 2r − 1
2 3 4
λ = 2, 2 , 2 , 2

r = 2, 3, 4, 5

Hence maximum value of r is 5 when λ = 16

Case-II : λ = 3.2 r-2

λ = 3, 6, 12, 24

r = 2, 3, 4, 5

Hence maximum value of r is 5 when λ = 24

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 5 If the length of the minor axis of an ellipse is equal to one fourth of the distance between the foci, then the
eccentricity of the ellipse is :

110
 Option 1:
4

√ 17

Option 2:
√3

16

Option 3:
3

√ 19

Option 4:
√5

Correct Answer:
4

√ 17

Solution:
1
2 b = (2ae)
4

b e
=
a 4

2
b
e = √1 − 2
a

2
e
e = √1 −
16

2 1
e (1 + ) = 1
16

4
e =
√ 17

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 6 1
→ = −3^i + 2^j + 4k
The line L is parallel to the vector a ^
and passes through the point (7, 6, 2) and the line L is
2

→
parallel to the vector b = 2^i + ^j + 3k
^
and passes through the point (5, 3, 4). The shortest distance between the
lines L and L is :
1 2

Option 1:
23

√ 38

Option 2:
21

√ 57

Option 3:
23

√ 57

Option 4:
21

√ 38

111
 Correct Answer:
23

√ 38

Solution:
L 1 : (7^
i + 6^
j + 2k) + λ(−3^
i + 2^
j + 4k)

^ ^
L 2 : (5^
i + 3^
j + 4k) + λ(2i + j + 3k)

Distance between skew lines

^ ^
(2^
i+3^
j−2k)⋅(2^
i+17^
j−7k)
=
√ 342

69 69 23
= = =
√ 342 3√ 38 √ 38

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 7 Let (a, b) be the point of intersection of the curve x = 2y and the straight line y − 2x − 6 = 0 in the second
2

quadrant. Then the integral I = ∫ dx is equal to :

b 2
9x
x
a 1+5

Option 1:
24

Option 2:
27

Option 3:
18

Option 4:
21

Correct Answer:
24

Solution:
2
x = 2y&y = 2x + 6

2
x = 4x + 12

x = 6 if x = −2
2
x − 4x − 12 = 0 ⇒
y = 18 y = 2

∴ (6, 18)&(−2, 2)

Here (6, 18) Rejected because (a, b) lies in 2 nd

quadrant

∴ a = −2& b = 2

2 2 2 x 2
9x 9⋅5 ⋅x
∴ I = ∫ x
dx = ∫ x
dx
−2 1+5 −2 1+5

112
 2
2
∴ 2I = ∫ 9x dx
−2

2
2
= 18 ∫ x dx
0

2
3
x
= 18( )
3
0

2I = 48

∴ I = 24

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 8 If the system of equations

2x + λy + 3z = 5

3x + 2y − z = 7

4x + 5y + μz = 9

has infinitely many solutions, then (λ 2 2

+ μ ) is equal to :

Option 1:
22

Option 2:
18

Option 3:
26

Option 4:
30

Correct Answer:
26

Solution:
2 λ 3

Δ = 0 ⇒ 3 2 −1 = 0

4 5 μ

⇒ 2(2μ + 5) + λ(−4 − 3μ) + 3(7) = 0

⇒ 4μ − 3λμ − 4λ + 31 = 0 … (1)

2 λ 5

Δ3 = 0 ⇒ 3 2 7 = 0

4 5 9

⇒ 2(−17) + λ(1) + 5(7) = 0

⇒ λ = −1

113
from equation (1)

4μ + 3μ + 4 + 31 = 0 ⇒ μ = −5

2 2
∴ λ + μ = 26

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 9 If θ ∈ [− 7π
,
4π
, then the number of solutions of √3 cosec
]
2
, is equal to
θ − 2(√ 3 − 1) cosec θ − 4 = 0
6 3

Option 1:
6

Option 2:
8

Option 3:
10

Option 4:
7

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:
√
2(√ 3−1)± 4(3+1−2√ 3)+16√ 3
cosec θ =
2√ 3

√
2(√ 3−1)± 16+8√ 3
=
2√ 3

2(√ 3−1)±(2+2√ 3)
=
2√ 3

cosec θ = 2 or −2

√3

∴ sin θ =
1

2
or −√ 3

∴ sin θ =
1

2
has 3 solutions & also sin θ = −√ 3

has 3 solutions in [ −7π

6
,
4π

3
]

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

114
 Q. 10 Given three indentical bags each containing 10 balls, whose colours are as follows :

Red Blue Green

Bag I 3 2 5

Bag II 4 3 3

Bag III 5 1 4
A person chooses a bag at random and takes out a ball. If the ball is Red, the probability that it is from bag I is p
and if the balls is Green, the probability that it is from bag III is q , then the value of ( 1

p
+
1

q
) is :

Option 1:
6

Option 2:
9

Option 3:
7

Option 4:
8

Correct Answer:
7

Solution:

1 3
( )
BI 3 10 1
p = P( ) = 1 3 4 5
=
R ( + + ) 4
3 10 10 10

1 4
( )
B III 3 10 1
q = ( ) = 1 5 3 4
=
G ( + + ) 3
3 10 10 10

1 1
∴ + = 7
p q

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

115
 Q. 11 If the mean and the variance of 6, 4, a, 8, b, 12, 10, 13 are 9 and 9.25 respectively, then a + b + ab is equal to :

Option 1:
105

Option 2:
103

Option 3:
100

Option 4:
106

Correct Answer:
103

Solution:
∵ Mean = 9

∴ 53 + a + b = 72

⇒ a + b = 19

– 2

and
37 ∑x
2 2 2 1
∵ σ = (X) + σ =
4 N

2 2
37 529+a +b
⇒ 81 + =
4 8

2 2
⇒ 648 + 74 = 529 + a + b

2 2
⇒ a + b = 193

2 2
∵ a + b = 19 ⇒ a + b + 2ab = 361

⇒ 2ab = 168

⇒ ab = 84

∴ a + b + ab = 103

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 12 If the domain of the function

f (x) =
1

√ 10+3x−x 2
+
1
is (a, b), then (1 + a) 2
+ b
2
is equal to :
√ x+|x|

Option 1:
26

Option 2:
29

116
 Option 3:
25

Option 4:
30

Correct Answer:
26
Solution:
x + |x| > 0 ⇒ x ∈ (0, ∞) … (1)

& 10 + 3x − x 2
> 0

2
⇒ x − 3x − 10 < 0

⇒ xn(−2, 5) … (2)

from (1) & (2) x ∈ (0, 5)

∴ a = 0& b = 5

2 2
∴ (1 + a ) + b = 1 + 25 = 26

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 13 4∫
1
(
1
)dx − 3 log (√ 3) is equal to:
0 e
√ 3+x 2 +√ 1+x 2

Option 1:
2 + √ 2 + log e (1 + √ 2)

Option 2:
2 − √ 2 − log e (1 + √ 2)

Option 3:
2 + √ 2 − log e (1 + √ 2)

Option 4:
2 − √ 2 + log e (1 + √ 2)

Correct Answer:
2 − √ 2 − log e (1 + √ 2)

Solution:
1
1
4∫ dx − 3 ln √ 3
0 √ 3+x 2 +√ 1+x 2

1 √ 3+x 2 −√ 1+x 2 3
= 4∫ 2 2
dx − ln 3
0 (3+x )−(1−x ) 2

1 1
x 3 x 1 3
= 2 [{ √3 + x 2 + 2
ln (x + √ 3 + x )} −{ √1 + x 2 + 2
ln (x + √ 1 + x )} ] − ln 3
2 2 2 2 2
0 0

1 3 3 1 1 1 3
= 2 [{ √4 + ln(1 + √ 4)} − {0 + ln √ 3} − { √2 + ln(1 + √ 2)} + {0 + (0)}] − ln 3
2 2 2 2 2 2 2

117
 3 3 1 1 3
= 2 [1 + ln 3 − ln 3 − − ln(1 + √ 2)] − ln 3
2 4 √2 2 2

3 3
= 2 + 3 ln 3 − ln 3 − √ 2 − ln(1 + √ 2) − ln 3
2 2

= 2 − √ 2 − ln(1 + √ 2)

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 14 If lim x→0
cos(2x)+a cos(4x)−b
is finite, then (a + b) is equal to :
4
x

Option 1:
1

Option 2:
0

Option 3:
3

Option 4:
-1

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
lim x→0
cos 2x+a cos 4x−b

x
4
= finite
2 4 2 4
(2x) (2x) (4x) (4x)
{1− + ….}+a{1− + ….}−b
2 4 2 4
– – – –

L = 4
x

2 4 2 32 6
(1+a−b)−x (2+8a)+x ( + a)+x ()…
3 3
L = 4
x

∴ 1 + a − b = 0 and 2 + 8a = 0 ⇒ a = − 1

b = a + 1

1 3
= − + 1 =
4 4

1 3
∴ a + b = − +
4 4

1
a + b =
2

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 15 If ∑
10
(
10
r+1
−1
r ) ⋅
11
C r+1 =
α
11
−11
11

, then α is equal to:

r=0 10
10 10

118
 Option 1:
15

Option 2:
11

Option 3:
24

Option 4:
20

Correct Answer:
20

Solution:
r−1
10 10 −1 11
∑ ( r ) C r+1
r=0 10

10 1 11
= ∑ (10 − r ) C r+1
r=0 10

10 r+1
11 11 1
= 10 ∑ r=0 C r+1 − 10 ∑ ( C r+1 ( ) )
10

11 11 11
= 10 [ C1 + C2 + … . . + C 11 ]

1 2 11
11 1 11 1 11 1
−10 [ C1 ( ) + C2 ( ) + …..+ C 11 ( ) ]
10 10 10

11
11 1
= 10 [2 − 1] − 10 [(1 + ) − 1]
10

11
11 11
= 10(2) − 10 − 10 + 10
10

11 11
(20) −11
= 10
10

∴ α = 20

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 16 The number of ways, in which the letters A, B, C, D, E can be placed in the 8 boxes of the figure below so that no
row remains empty and at most one letter can be placed in a box, is :

Option 1:
5880

Option 2:
960

119
 Option 3:
840

Option 4:
5760

Correct Answer:
5760
Solution:

A, B, C, D, E these 5 objects can be occupy row-wise as f ollow

R1 3 1 2 2 1

R2 1 3 2 1 2

R3 1 1 1 2 2

3 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 3 3 2
(( C 3 C 1 C 1 + C1 C3 C1 ) + ( C2 C2 C1 + C2 C1 C2 + C 1 C 2 C 2 )) × 5!

= ((12) + (18 + 9 + 9)) × 5!

= (12 + 36) × 120

= 48 × 120 = 5760

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 17 Let the point P of the focal chord P Q of the parabola y2

= 16x be (1, −4). If the focus of the parabola divides
the chord PQ in the ratio m : n, gcd(m, n) = 1, then m 2
+ n
2
is equal to :

Option 1:
17

Option 2:
10

Option 3:
37

Option 4:
26

Correct Answer:
17

Solution:

120
2at 1 = −4

⇒ 2(4)t 1 = −4

1
⇒ t1 = −
2

∵ t 1 t 2 = −1

⇒ t2 = 2

2
∴ Q (at , 2at 2 ) = (16, 16)
2

Let S divide PQ internally in a λ : 1 ratio

16λ−4
∴ = 0
λ+1

1 m
λ = =
4 n

2 2
∴ m + n = 1 + 16 = 17

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 18 → = 2^i − 3^j + k, →b = 3^i + 2^j + 5k and a vector c→ be such that (a

Let a → − c→) × →b = −18^i − 3^j + 12k and
→→ → → → → →
a ⋅ c = 3 . If , then
b × c = d |a ⋅ d| is equal to :

Option 1:
18

Option 2:
12

Option 3:
9

Option 4:
15

Correct Answer:
15

Solution:
^ →
→ = 2^i − 3^j + k, ^
a b = 3^
i + 2^
j + 5k

121
→ × →b =
a

= −17^

→
→

→
i − 7^

→
→

b × c = −^

→ →
→

∣
⇒ b × c = (−18^

= (−18^
i − 3^

i + 4^

Option 1:
90

Option 2:
93

Option 3:
97

Option 4:
83
i

^
j + 13k

→
(a − c) × b = −18^

^
j − k

→
j

−3

→
k

→
^
i − 3j + 12k

i − 3^
→ →
⇒ (a × b) − (c × b) = −18^

→
i − 3^

j + 12k)
→
^ − (a × b)

^ − (−17i − 7^
j + 12k)
^
j + 12k

^
j + 13k)

∴ a ⋅ d = a ⋅ (b × c) = (2i − 3j + k) ⋅ (−^

= −2 − 12 − 1 = −15

→ →
∴ |a ⋅ d| = 15

Hence, the answer is option (15).

Q. 19

value of b + c is:

Correct Answer:
97

Solution:
x

−c
+
y

−c/b
= 1
2 2
i + 4^ ^
j − k)

Let the area of the triangle formed by a straight Line L : x + by + c = 0 with coordinate axes be 48 square units.
If the perpendicular drawn from the origin to the line L makes an angle of 45 with the positive x-axis, then the
∘

122
∣
∴

A
c

∴ b
b

4
area of triangle =
2

∵ −c = −

⇒ b = 1

Q. 20
2

Option 1:
12

Option 2:
20

Option 3:
76

Option 4:
= 96

+ c

Correct Answer:
12

Solution:
3

= 2 (2 A

A
4

5
− 2 A

= 2A

= 2A

= 8A

= 8A
2

3
c

= 97
∴ c

Hence, the answer is option (3).

2

− 4 A + 4I = 0

+ 4A − 4I

+ 4A

+ 4A − 8I

+ 4A
2

2
1

= 96

− 4A

+ 4 A − 4I) + 4 A

− 8A
c

b
2

= 48

Let A be a 3 × 3 real matrix such that A (A − 2I )− 4( A − I) = O, where I and O are the identity and null

2
− 4 A
2

matrices, respectively. If A = αA + βA + γI, where α, β and γ are real constants, then α + β + γ is equal to:
5 2

123
 2 2
= 8 (2 A + 4 A − 4I) + 4 A − 8 A

5 2
A = 20A + 24A − 32I

∴ α = 20, β = 24, γ = −32

∴ α + β + γ = 12

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 21 Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation dy

+ 2y sec
2
x = 2 sec
2
x + 3 tan x ⋅ sec
2
x such that
dx

y(0) = . Then 12 (y ( ) − e ) is equal to _________

5

4
π

4
−2

Correct Answer:
21

Solution:
I.F. = e Solution of diff. eq.
2
∫ 2 sec xdx

2 tan x 2 tan x 2 2
y ⋅ e = ∫ e (2 sec x + 3 tan x ⋅ sec x)dx

2 tan x 2 tan x 2 2 tan x 2

y ⋅ e = ∫ e ⋅ (2 sec x)dx + ∫ e ⋅ (3 tan x ⋅ sec x)dx

2 tan x 2 tan x 2 tan x 2

y ⋅ e = e ⋅ 2 tan x − ∫ e ⋅ 2 sec x × 2 tan xdx

2 tan x 2
+∫ e ⋅ 3 tan x ⋅ sec xdx

2 tan x 2 tan x 2 tan x 2

y ⋅ e = 2 tan x ⋅ e − ∫ e ⋅ tan x sec xdx

2 tan x 2 tan x
2 tan x 2 tan x tan x⋅e e
y ⋅ e = 2 tan x ⋅ e − + + C
2 4

tan x 1 −2 tan x
y = 2 tan x − + + Ce
2 4

5 π 7 −2
x = 0, y = c = 1y ( ) = + e
4 4 4

π −2 7
T hen 12 (y ( ) − e ) = 12 ( ) = 21
4 4

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 22 If the sum of the first 10 terms of the series 4.1

4 +
4.2
4 +
4.3
4 + … is m

n
, where gcd(m, n) = 1, then
1+4.1 1+4.2 1+4.3

m + n is equal to______.

Correct Answer:
441

Solution:
4.r
Tr = 4
1+4.r

124
 4. r
Tr =
2 2
(2r + 2r + 1) (2r − 2r + 1)

2 2
(2r + 2r + 1) − (2r − 2r + 1)
Tr =
2 2
(2r + 2r + 1) (2r − 2r + 1)

1 1
Tr = 2
− 2
2r −2r+1 2r +2r+1

1 1
T1 = −
1 5

1 1
T2 = −
5 13

1 1
T 10 = −
181 221

1 220 m
S 10 = 1 − = =
221 221 n

m + n = 441

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 23 If y = cos ( π

3
+ cos
−1 x

2
, then (x − y)
)
2
+ 3y
2
is equal to_______

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
−1 1 −1 x
y = cos (cos + cos )
2 2

2
1 x 1 x
y = × − √1 − √1 −
2 2 4 4

2
4y = x − √ 3√ 4 − x

2 2 2
3 (4 − x ) = x + 16y − 8xy

2 2 2
12 − 3x = x + 16y − 8xy

2 2
4x + 16y − 8xy = 12

2 2
x + 4y − 2xy = 3

2 2 2
x + y − 2xy − 3y = 3

2 2
(x − y) + 3y = 3

Hence, the answer is (3).

Q. 24 Let A(4, −2), B(1, 1) and C(9, −3) be the vertices of a triangle ABC . Then the maximum area of the
parallelogram AFDE, formed with vertices D, E and F on the sides BC, CA and AB of the triangle ABC respectively,
is________

125
= 6

−
Option 1:
3

Option 2:
-

Option 3:
-

Option 4:
-

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

Area of △ABC =

Q. 25
square units

Maximum area of AFDE =

Hence, the answer is (3).

Correct Answer:
7

Solution:

2(a−3)

2(a−1)
1

∣
4

9
−2

−3

2
1

× 6 = 3 sq. units

If the set of all a ∈ R − {1}, for which the roots of the equation (1 − a)x
(−∞, −α] ∪ [β, γ), then 2α + β + γ is equal to________

Both roots are positive

D ≥ 0

4(a − 3)

a
2
2
− 4 × 9(1 − a) ≥ 0

− 6a + 9 − 9 + 9a ≥ 0

+ 3a ≥ 0

a(a + 3) ≥ 0

a ∈ (−∞, −3] ∪ [0, ∞)

2a
> 0

> 0

a ∈ (−∞, 1) ∪ (3, ∞)
(i)

(ii)
2
+ 2(a − 3)x + 9 = 0 are positive is

126
f (0) = 9 > 0

Equation (i) ∩ (ii)

a ∈ (−∞, −3] ∪ [0, 1)

2α + β + γ − 6 + 0 + 1 = 7

Hence, the answer is (7).

127
 JEE Main 2025

3 April - Shift 1
rd

Question Paper with Solution

128
Physics
Q. 1 During the melting of a slab of ice at 273 K at atmospheric pressure :

Option 1:
Internal energy of ice-water system remains unchanged.

Option 2:
Positive work is done by the ice-water system on the atmosphere.

Option 3:
Internal energy of the ice-water system decreases.

Option 4:
Positive work is done on the ice-water system by the atmosphere.

Correct Answer:
Positive work is done on the ice-water system by the atmosphere.

Solution:
Volume decreases during melting of ice so positive work is done on ice water system by atmosphere

Heat absorbed by ice water so ΔQ is positive, work done by ice water system is negative

Hence by first law of thermodynamics

ΔU = ΔQ + ΔW = Positive

So internal energy increases

Hence, the answer is the option (4)

Q. 2 Consider a completely full cylindrical water tank of height 1.6 m and cross-sectional area 0.5 m . It
2

has a small hole in its side at a height 90 cm from the bottom. Assume, the cross-sectional area of
the hole to be negligibly small as compared to that of the water tank. If a load 50 kg is applied at
the top surface of the water in the tank then the velocity of the water coming out at the instant
when the hole is opened is: (g = 10 m/s ) 2

Option 1:
3 m/s

129
 Option 2:
5 m/s

Option 3:
2 m/s

Option 4:
4 m/s

Correct Answer:
4 m/s

Solution:

Apply Bernouli equation between points 1 \& 2

1 2
1 2
P1 + ρv 1 + ρgh = P 2 + ρv 2 + 0
2 2
mg 70 1
2
P0 + + ρg = P0 + ρv 2
A 100 2

5000 70 1
3 3 2
+ 10 × 10 = × 10 v 2
0.5 100 2
3
10
3 3 2
10 + 10 × 7 = v2
2
2
v 2 = 16

v 2 = 4 m/s

As the tank area is large v is negligible compared to v

1 2

Hence, the answer is the option (4)

130
 Q. 3 Choose the correct logic circuit for the given truth table having inputs A and B .

Inputs Output

A B Y

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 1

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
This behavior is the characteristic of an AND Gate, which is defined by the Boolean expression:

Y = A ⋅ B

131
Only option (2) matches with the truth table

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 4 The radiation pressure exerted by a 450 W light source on a perfectly reflecting surface placed at 2
m away from it, is :

Option 1:
1.5 × 10
−8
Pascals

Option 2:
0

Option 3:
6 × 10
−8
Pascals

Option 4:
3 × 10
−8
Pascals

Correct Answer:
6 × 10 Pascals
−8

Solution:
2I
P rad =
C

Where I = intensity at surface C = Speed of light

Power 450
I = = 2
Area 4πr

450 450
= =
4π×4 16π

2×450 150
P rad = 8
= 8
16π×3×10 8π×10

−8 −8
= 5.97 × 10 ≈ 6 × 10 Pascals

Hence, the answer is the option (3)

Q. 5 A wire of length 25 m and cross-sectional area 5 mm having resistivity of 2 × 10

2 −6
Ω m is bent
into a complete circle. The resistance between diametrically opposite points will be

Option 1:
12.5Ω

132
 Option 2:
50Ω

Option 3:
100Ω

Option 4:
2.5Ω

Correct Answer:
2.5Ω

Solution:

2 −6 2
L = 25 m, A = 5 mm = 5 × 10 m
−6
ρ = 2 × 10 Ω m
−6
ρL 2×10 ×25
R vire = = −6 = 10
A 5×10
R 10
R eq = = = 2.5Ω
4 4

Hence, the answer is the option (4)

Q. 6 Two blocks of masses m and M, (M > m), are placed on a frictionless table as shown in figure. A
massless spring with spring constant k is attached with the lower block. If the system is slightly
displaced and released then
( μ = coefficient of friction between the two blocks)

(A) The time period of small oscillation of the two blocks is T = 2π√
( m+M)

(B) The acceleration of the blocks is a = ( x = displacement of the blocks from the mean
kx

M+m

position)
(C) The magnitude of the frictional force on the upper block is
mμ|x|

M+m

(D) The maximum amplitude of the upper block, if it docs not slip, is
μ(M +m)g

(E) Maximum frictional force can be μ(M + m)g.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A, B, D Only

133
 Option 2:
B, C, D Only

Option 3:
C, D, E Only

Option 4:
A, B, C Only

Correct Answer:
A, B, D Only
Solution:
(A) As both blocks moving together so

m
Time period = 2π√ ; where m = M + m
K

M + m
T = 2π√
K

(B) Let block is displaced by x in (+ve) direction so force on block will be in(-ve) direction

F = −Kx

(M + m)a = −Kx

Kx
a = −
(M +m)

(C) As upper block is moving due to friction thus

mKx
f = ma =
(M+m)

(D) This option is like two block problem in friction for maximum amplitude, force on block is also maximum, for
which both blocks are moving together.

134
KA = (M + m)a

KA
a =
(M + m)

mKA
f = ma =
(M + m)

f max = f L = μmg

f = μmg

mKA
= μmg
(M + m)

μ(M + m)g
A =
K

(E) Maximum friction can be μmg as force is acting between blocks \& normal force here is mg.

Hence, the answer is the option (1)

Q. 7 Which of the following curves possibly represent one-dimensional motion of a particle ?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A, B and D only

Option 2:
A, B and C only

Option 3:
A and B only

Option 4:
A, C and D only

135
 Correct Answer:
A, B and D only
Solution:
For option (A)
ϕ = kt + C it can be 1D motion

eg → x = A sin ϕ(SHM)

For option (B)

v + x = constant yes 1D
2 2

For option (C)

time can't be negative Not possible
For option (D)
Possible
A, B & D only

Hence, the correct answer is option 1

Q. 8 A parallel plate capacitor is filled equally (half) with two dielectrics of dielectric constant ε and ε ,
1 2

as shown in figures. The distance between the plates is d and area of each plate is A. If capacitance
in first configuration and second configuration are C and C respectively, then
1 2
C1

C2
is :

Option 1:
2
ε1 ε
2
2
(ε 1 +ε 2 )

Option 2:
4ε 1 ε 2
2
(ε 1 +ε 2 )

136
 Option 3:
ε1 ε2

ε 1 +ε 2

Option 4:
ε 0 (ε 1 +ε 2 )

Correct Answer:
4ε 1 ε 2
2
(ε 1 +ε 2 )

Solution:

Area of plate is A . then

ε2 ε0 A 2ε 2 ε 0 A
C = =
d/2 d

′
ε1 ε0 A 2ε 1 ε 0 A
C = =
d/2 d

Let C
ε0 A
0
=
d

C = 2ε 2 C 0

′
C = 2ε 1 C 0

C & C are in series

′

′ 2
CC 4ε 2 ε 1 C
0
C1 = =
′
C + C 2C 0 (ε 2 + ε 1 )

2ε 2 ε 1 C 0
=
(ε 2 + ε 1 )

Here C
ε1 ε0 A ε1 C0
= =
2d 2

137
 ′ ε2 C0
C =
2

C&C
′
are inparallel
′ C0
C 2 = C + C = (ε 1 + ε 2 )
2

Thus C1

C2
=
2ε 2 ε 1 C 0

(ε 2 +ε 1 )
×
2

(ε 1 +ε 2 )C 0

4ε 2 ε 1
= 2
(ε 2 +ε 1 )

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 9 Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I LIST-II

A. Gravitational constant I. [LT

−2
]

B. Gravitational potential energy II. [L

2
T
−2
]

C. Gravitational potential III. [ML

2
T
−2
]

D. Acceleration due to gravity IV. [M

−1
L
−3
T
−2
]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Option 2:
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Option 3:
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Option 4:
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Correct Answer:
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Solution:
2

(A) G = Fr

m
2

138
 −2 2
[MLT ][L ] −1 3 −2
[G] = 2 = [M L T ](IV)
[M ]

(B) P.E. = mgh = [MLT L] = [ML −2 2

T
−2
] (III)
(C) Gravitational Potential = GM

−1 3 −2
[M L T ][M]
0 2 −2 2 −2
= = [M L T ] = [L T ]
[L]

(D) Acceleration due to gravity = [g] = [LT −2

] (I)

Hence, the answer is the option (1)

Q. 10 A force of 49 N acts tangentially at the highest point of a sphere (solid) of mass 20 kg , kept on a
rough horizontal plane. If the sphere rolls without slipping, then the acceleration of the center of
the sphere is

Option 1:
2
3.5 m/s

Option 2:
2
0.35 m/s

Option 3:
2
2.5 m/s

Option 4:
2
0.25 m/s

Correct Answer:
2
3.5 m/s

Solution:

Torque about bottom point

139
F × 2r = Iα

7
2
49 × 2r = mr α
5

14 = 4rα

As sphere rolls without slipping

a = rα

14 7
2
a = = = 3.5 m/s
4 2

Hence, the answer is the option (1)

Q. 11 A piston of mass M is hung from a massless spring whose restoring force law goes as F = −kx,
where k is the spring constant of appropriate dimension. The piston separates the vertical
chamber into two parts, where the bottom part is filled with ' n ' moles of an ideal gas. An external
work is done on the gas isothermally (at a constant temperature T) with the help of a heating
filament (with negligible volume) mounted in lower part of the chamber, so that the piston goes up
from a height L to L , the total energy delivered by the filament is (Assume spring to be in its
0 1

natural length before heating)

Option 1:
L1 k 3 3
3nRT ln ( ) + 2Mg (L 1 − L 0 ) + (L − L )
L0 3 1 0

Option 2:
2
L Mg
1 k 4 4
nRT ln ( 2
) + (L 1 − L 0 ) + (L − L )
L 2 4 1 0
0

Option 3:
L1 k 4 4
nRT ln ( ) + M g (L 1 − L 0 ) + (L − L )
L0 4 1 0

Option 4:
L1 3k 4 4
nRT ln ( ) + M g (L 1 − L 0 ) + (L − L )
L0 4 1 0

140
 Correct Answer:
L1 k 4 4
nRT ln ( ) + M g (L 1 − L 0 ) + (L 1 − L 0 )
L0 4

Solution:
Using WET
Total energy supplied = gravitational potential energy + spring potential energy + work done by gas
L1
3
Mg ( L 1 − L 0 ) + ∫ kx dx + nRT/n
L0

L1 A
[ ] + W ext = 0
L0 A

L1
K L1
4 3
[x ] + Mg ( L 1 − L 0 ) + ∫ kx dx + nRT/n
L0
4 L0

L1
[ ] + W ext = 0
L0

k 4 4
( L 1 − L 0 ) + Mg ( L 1 − L 0 ) + nRT/n
4

L1
[ ] + W ext = 0
L0

k 4 4
L1
W ext = ( L 1 − L 0 ) + Mg ( L 1 − L 0 ) + nRTℓn [ ]
4 L0

Hence, the answer is the option (3)

Q. 12 A gas is kept in a container having walls which are thermally non-conducting. Initially the gas has a
volume of 800 cm and temperature 27 C. The change in temperature when the gas is
3 ∘

adiabatically compressed to 200 cm is : 3

(Take γ = 1.5 : γ is the ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume)

Option 1:
327 K

Option 2:
600 K

Option 3:
522 K

Option 4:
300 K

Correct Answer:
300 K

141
Solution:
3 3
V 1 = 800 cm V 2 = 200 cm

T 1 = 300 K

for adiabatic
y−1
TV = const.

1.5−1 1.5−1
(300)(800) = T 2 (200)

0.5
800 1/2
2
T 2 = 300[ ] = 300 × (2 )
200

T 2 = 600 K

Δ T = 600 − 300 = 300 K

Hence, the answer is the option (4)

Q. 13 Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I LIST-II

A. 1
0
n +
235
92
U →
140

54
Xe +
94
38
1
Sr + 2 n
0
I. Chemical reaction

B. 2H 2 + O 2 → 2H 2 O II. Fusion with +ve Q

value

C. 2
1
H +
2
1
H →
3
2
He +
1
0
n III. Fission

D. 1
H +
3
H →
2
H +
2
H IV. Fusion with -ve Q
value
1 1 1 1

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Option 2:
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Option 3:
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Option 4:
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Correct Answer:
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

142
Solution:
1. Fission:
1 235 140 94 1
0
n + 92
U → Xe + 38
Sr + 2 0 n
54

This is nuclear fission, where Uranium-235 splits into smaller nuclei, releasing neutrons.
- Answer: III. Fission
2. Chemical Reaction:

2H 2 + O 2 → 2H 2 O

This is a chemical reaction, the combustion of hydrogen.

- Answer: I. Chemical reaction
3. Fusion with Positive Q value:
2 2 3 1
1
H + 1
H → 2
He + 0
n

This is nuclear fusion where Deuterium nuclei fuse to form Helium-3 and a neutron, releasing energy.
- Answer: II. Fusion with + ve Q value
4. Fusion with Negative Q value:
1 3 2 2
H + H → H + H
1 1 1 1

This is nuclear fusion, but with a negative Q value, indicating that the fusion requires more energy to occur
than it releases.
- Answer: IV. Fusion with -ve Q value

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

Q. 14 The electrostatic potential on the surface of uniformly charged spherical shell of radius
R = 10 cm is 120 V . The potential at the centre of shell, at a distance r = 5 cm from centre, and
at a distance r = 15 cm from the centre of the shell respectively, are :

Option 1:
120 V, 120 V, 80 V

Option 2:
40 V, 40 V, 80 V

Option 3:
0 V, 0 V, 80 V

143
 Option 4:
0 V, 120 V, 40 V

Correct Answer:
120 V, 120 V, 80 V

Solution:
Potential inside shell is equal to potential on surface
kQ
V in = V surf ice = = 120 V
R

at r = 15 cm
kQ 120×10
V = = = 80 V
r 15

Hence, the answer is the option (1)

Q. 15 The work function of a metal is 3 eV . The color of the visible light that is required to cause
emission of photoelectrons is

Option 1:
Green

Option 2:
Blue

Option 3:
Red

Option 4:
Yellow

Correct Answer:
Blue

Solution:
hc
(KE) max = − ϕ
λ

hc
> ϕ[ f or emission ]
λ

hc 1242
λ < ⇒ λ < nm
ϕ 3

Hence, the answer is the option (2)

144
 Q. 16 A particle is released from height S above the surface of the earth. At certain height its kinetic
energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of the earth and the speed
of the particle at that instant are respectively.

Option 1:
S 3gS
,√
2 2

Option 2:
S 3gS
,
2 2

Option 3:
S 3gS
,
4 2

Option 4:
S 3gS
,√
4 2

Correct Answer:
S 3gS
,√
4 2

Solution:
2
V = 0 + 2 g( S − x)

2
V = 2 g( S − x)

At B, Potential energy = mgx

1 2
mgx = 3 × mv
2
3
gx = × 2 g( S − x)
2

4x = S

S
x =
4

3 S 3gS
⇒ V = √2 g × = √
4 2

Hence, the answer is option 4

Q. 17 A person measures mass of 3 different particles as 435.42 g, 226.3 g and 0.125 g . According to
the rules for arithmetic operations with significant figures, the additions of the masses of 3
particles will be:

145
 Option 1:
661.845 g

Option 2:
662 g

Option 3:
661.8 g

Option 4:
661.84 g

Correct Answer:
661.8 g

Solution:
435.42 g + 226.3 g + 0.125 g = 661.845 g

Rounding to 1 decimal place:

661.845 g ≈ 661.8 g

Final Answer:
The sum of the masses is 661.8 g .

Hence, the answer is the option (3)

Q. 18 The radii of curvature for a thin convex lens are 10 cm and 15 cm respectively. The focal length of
the lens is 12 cm . The refractive index of the lens material is

Option 1:
1.2

Option 2:
1.4

Option 3:
1.5

Option 4:
1.8

146
 Correct Answer:
1.5
Solution:
1 1 1
= (μ − 1) ( − )
f R1 R2

1 1 1
= (μ − 1) ( − )
12 10 −15

1 3 + 2
= (μ − 1) ( )
12 30

3
μ =
2

Hence, the answer is the option (3)

Q. 19 The angle of projection of a particle is measured from the vertical axis as ϕ and the maximum
height reached by the particle is h . Here h as function of ϕ can be presented as
m m

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

147
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

2 2
u cos ϕ
H max −
2 g

Hence, the answer is option 3

Q. 20 Consider following statements for refraction of light through prism, when angle of deviation is
minimum.
(A) The refracted ray inside prism becomes parallel to the base.
(B) Larger angle prisms provide smaller angle of minimum deviation.
(C) Angle of incidence and angle of emergence becomes equal.
(D) There are always two sets of angle of incidence for which deviation will be same except at
minimum deviation setting.
(E) Angle of refraction becomes double of prism angle.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Option 1:
A, C and D Only

Option 2:
B, C and D Only

Option 3:
A, B and E Only

148
 Option 4:
B, D and E Only

Correct Answer:
A, C and D Only
Solution:
δ = I + e − A

For δmin
⇒ I = e

and refracted ray is parallel to base

A, C, D are correct

Hence, the answer is option 1

Q. 21 Three identical spheres of mass m, are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of length a.
When relcased, they interact only through gravitational force and collide after a time T = 4
seconds. If the sides of the triangle are increased to length 2 a and also the masses of the spheres
are made 2 m , then they will collide after _____ seconds.

Correct Answer:
8

Solution:
x y x
T ∝ m G a

y
x −1 3 −2 x
T ∝ M [M L T ] [L]

x−y 3y+z −2y

T ∝ M L T

x − y − 0 ⇒ x − y

1 1
− 2y − 1 ⇒ y = − ,x − −
2 2

⇒ 3y + z − 0

3
z = −3y −
2

Hence
−1/2 −1/2 3/2
T ∝ m G a
1/2
3
a
T ∝ ( )
m

1/2
3
2
T = 4 × ( ) = 8 s
2

Hence, the answer is option 1

149
 Q. 22 A 4.0 cm long straight wire carrying a current of 8A is placed perpendicular to an uniform magnetic
field of strength 0.15 T . The magnetic force on the wire is _____ mN .

Correct Answer:
48

Solution:
F = Iℓ B

4
= 8 × × 0.15
100
−3
= 48 × 10 N = 48mN

Hence, the answer is the option (1)

Q. 23 Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities 4 I and 9 I are superimposed. The
difference between the maximum and minimum intensities in the resulting interference pattern is
xI. The value of x is ______ .

Correct Answer:
24

Solution:
2

I max = (√ I 1 + √ I 2 )

2
= (√ 4I + √ 9I) = 25I

I min = (√ I 1 − √ I 2 )

2
= (√ 4I − √ 9I) = I

I max − I min − 24I

x = 24

Hence, the answer is option 1

150
 Q. 24 A loop ABCDA , carrying current I = 12 A, is placed in a plane, consists of two semi-circular
segments of radius R = 6π m and R = 4π m. The magnitude of the resultant magnetic field at
1 2

center O is k × 10 T. The value of k is ______.

−7

(Given μ − 4π × 10 TmA )
0
7 1

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
Magnetic field due to AB&CD = 0

B 0 = |B R 1 − B R 7 |

μ0 I μ0 I
= −
4R 2 4R 1
−7
4π × 10 × 12 1 1
= ( − )
4 4π 6π

1
−7 −7
= 12π × 10 ( ) = 1 × 10
12π

K = 1

Hence, the answer is 1.

Q. 25 In the figure shown below, a resistance of 150.4Ω is connected in series to an ammeter A of

resistance 240Ω. A shunt resistance of 10Ω is connected in parallel with the ammeter. The
reading of the ammeter is ______ mA .

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:

151
R eq = R 1 + R 2

240 × 10
R eq = 150.4 +
250

= 150.4 + 9.6 = 160Ω

IR 2
I1 =
240

I × 9.6
I1 =
240

20 9.6 1
−3
= × = = 5 × 10 A = 5 mA
160 2400 200

Hence, the answer is 5

Chemistry
Q. 1 Which of the following postulate of Bohr's model of hydrogen atom in not in agreement with
quantum mechanical model of an atom ?

Option 1:
An atom in a stationary state does not emit electromagnetic radiation as long as it stays in the same state

Option 2:
An atom can take only certain distinct energies E 1
, E2 , E3 , etc. These allowed states of constant energy are
called the stationary states of atom

Option 3:
When an electron makes a transition from a higher energy stationary state to a lower energy stationary
state, then it emits a photon of light

Option 4:
The electron in a H atom's stationary state moves in a circle around the nucleus

Correct Answer:
The electron in a H atom's stationary state moves in a circle around the nucleus

152
Solution:
The electron in a H -atom's stationary state moves in a spherical path.

Q. 2 Given below are two statements

Statement I : The N-N single bond is weaker and longer than that of P − P single bond
Statement II : Compounds of group 15 elements in +3 oxidation states readily undergo
disproportionation reactions.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Option 1:
Statement I is true but statement II is false

Option 2:
Both statement I and statement II are false

Option 3:
Statement I is false but statement II is true

Option 4:
Both statement I and statement II are true

Correct Answer:
Both statement I and statement II are false

Solution:
N̈ − N̈ single bond weaker than P̈ − P̈ due to more ℓp − ℓp repulsion.

Bond length ⇒ d p−p > d N −N( size ↑, B. L. ↑)

In group 15 elements only N & P show disproportionation in +3 oxidation state, As, Sb & Bi have almost inert for
disproportionation in +3 oxidation state.

So both statements are false.

Q. 3 Given below are two statements

Statement I : A catalyst cannot alter the equilibrium constant (KC) of the reaction, temperature
remaining constant
Statement II : A homogeneous catalyst can change the equilibrium composition of a system
temperature remaining constant
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Option 1:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true

153
 Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Option 3:
Both Statement I and Statement II is false

Option 4:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Correct Answer:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Solution:
A catalyst can change equilibrium composition if it is added at constant pressure, but it can not change the
equilibrium constant.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 4 The metal ions that have the calculated spin only magnetic moment value of 4.9 B.M. are
A. Cr2+

B. Fe2+

C. Fe3+

D. Co 2+

E. Mn 3+

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Option 1:
A, C and E only

Option 2:
A, D and E only

Option 3:
B and E only

Option 4:
A, B and E only

Correct Answer:
A, B and E only

Solution:

154
Given magnetic moment = 4.9 B. M.
We know M.M = √n(n + 2) B.M.
Where, n → No. of unpaired e −

4.9 = √ n(n + 2)

We get n = 4
(A) Cr ⇒ [Ar]3 d
24
2+ 4
(4 unpaired e )
−

(B) Fe ⇒ [Ar]3 d
26
2+ 6
(4 unpaired e )
−

(C) Fe ⇒ [Ar]3 d
26
3+ 5
(5 unpaired e )
−

(D) Co ⇒ [Ar]3 d
27
2+ 7
(3 unpaired e )
−

(E) Mn ⇒ [Ar]3 d
25
3+ 4
(4 unpaired e )

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 5 In a reaction A + B → C , initial concentrations of A and B are related as [A] = 8[B] . The
0 0

half-lives of A and B are 10 min and 40 min, respectively. If they start to disappear at the same
time, both following first-order kinetics, after how much time will the concentration of both the
reactants be the same?

Option 1:
60 min

Option 2:
80 min

Option 3:
20 min

Option 4:
40 min

Correct Answer:
40 min

Solution:

155
Given : [A] 0 = 8[ B] 0

[t 1/2 ] = 10 min.
A

[t 1/2 ] = 40 min.
B
s
I order kinetics

t =?

[ A] t = [B] t

− kA × t − kB × t

⇒ [A] 0 e = [B] 0 e

[A] 0
(k A −k B )t
⇒ = e
[ B] 0

(k A −k B )×t
⇒ 8 = e

⇒ ℓn8 = (k A − k B ) × t

1 1
ℓn8 = ℓn2 ( − ) × t
(ta 2 ) (ta 2 )
A B

3
t =
1 1
( − )
(t ) (t )
1/2 1/2
A B

3
t =
1 1
( − )
10 40

1 1 4 − 1 3
− = =
10 40 40 40

3
t = = 40 minutes
3

40

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 6 Which of the following is the correct structure of L-fructose?

Option 1:

156
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

157
 Q. 7 Identify the correct statements from the following

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Option 1:
C & D only

Option 2:
B & C only

Option 3:
A & B only

Option 4:
A, B & C only

Correct Answer:
A & B only

Solution:

A. = Metamer

B. = F.G. isomer

In option C, they are homologous to each other, and in option D, they are only organic molecules, not isomers.

158
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 8 Among 10 −9
g (each) of the following elements, which one will have the highest number of atoms?

Element : Pb, Po, Pr and Pt

Option 1:
Po

Option 2:
Pr

Option 3:
Pb

Option 4:
Pt

Correct Answer:
Pr

Solution:
Massing
No. of atoms = × NA
MolarMas (g/mol)

Therefore for the same Mass element having the least Molar mass will have the higher no. of atoms.
M P o = 209

M pr = 141

M Pb = 207

M Pt = 195

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 9 Which of the following statements are correct?
A. The process of the addition an electron to a neutral gaseous atom is always exothermic
B. The process of removing an electron from an isolated gaseous atom is always endothermic
C. The 1 ionization energy of the boron is less than that of the beryllium
st

D. The electronegativity of C is 2.5 in CH and CCl

4 4

E. Li is the most electropositive among elements of group I

Choose the correct answer from the options gives below

159
 Option 1:
B and C only

Option 2:
A, C and D only

Option 3:
B and D only

Option 4:
B, C and E only

Correct Answer:
B and C only

Solution:
(A) The process of adding an e to a neutral gaseous atom is not always exothermic; it may be exothermic or
−

endothermic.
(C) Be B
2 2 2 2 1
1 s 2 s 1 s 2 s 2p

The Be 2s subshell is fully filled

So, high energy is needed to remove e as compared to B.
−

(D) InCCl 4 → due to partially positive charge z ef f ↑, EN ↑

So, EN of C ⇒ CCl > CH 4 4

(E) Cs is the most electropositive.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 10 Which of the following properties will change when a system containing solution 1 becomes
solution 2 ?

160
 Option 1:
Molar heat capacity

Option 2:
Density

Option 3:
Concentration

Option 4:
Gibbs free energy

Correct Answer:
Gibbs free energy

Solution:
Both solutions have the same composition, which is 1 mole of 'x ' in 1' ℓ ' water, so all the intensive properties
will remain the same, but the total amount is greater in solution '1' compared to solution '2'. So extensive
properties will be different; hence, Gibbs free energy will be different.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 11 The number of molecules from below that cannot give an iodoform reaction is :
Ethanol, Isopropyl alcohol, bromoacetone, 2-Butanol, 2-Butanone, Butanal, 2-Pentanone, 3-
Pentanone, Pentanal and 3-Pentanol

Option 1:
5

Option 2:
4

Option 3:
3

Option 4:
2

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:

161
The following will not give an iodoform reaction/test.
Butanal
2-Pentanone
Pentanal
3-Pentanol

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 12 Identify [A], [B], and [C], respectively in the following reaction sequence :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

162
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 13 In the following reactions, which one is NOT correct?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

163
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 14 The correct order of the complexes [Co(NH 3
) (H 2 O)]
3+
(A), [Co(NH 3 ) ]
3+
,
(B)
5 6

[Co(CN) 6 ]
3−
(C) and [CoCl(NH 3)
)
2+ (D) in terms wavelength of light absorbed is :

Option 1:
D>A>B>C

Option 2:
C > B > D > A

Option 3:
D>C>B>A

Option 4:
C > B>A>D

Correct Answer:
D>A>B>C

Solution:

164
We know E = hv = hC

λ
1
E ∝
λ

Here all Co in +3 oxidation state.

So, as the ligand field strength ↑, CFSE ↑
Order of field strength of ligand :
− −
CN > NH 3 > H 2 O > Cl

CFSE order : C > B > A > D

Wavelength order : D > A > B > C

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 15 In the following system, PCl ( g) ⇌ PCl
5 3( g) + Cl 2 ( g) at equilibrium, upon addition of xenon
gas at constant T &p, the concentration of

Option 1:
PCl will increase
5

Option 2:
Cl will decrease
2

Option 3:
PCl 5 , PCl 3 &Cl 2 remain constant

Option 4:
PCl will increase
3

Correct Answer:
PCl will increase
3

Solution:
On addition of inert gas at constant P \& T, reaction moves in the direction of greater number of moles so it will
shift in forward direction, so [PCl ] decrease and [PCl ]& [Cl ] will increase.
5 3 2

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 16 2 moles each of ethylene glycol and glucose are dissolved in 500 g of water. The boiling point of
the resulting solution is
(Given : Ebullioscopic constant of water = 0.52 K kg mol ) −1

Option 1:
379.2 K

165
 Option 2:
377.3 K

Option 3:
375.3 K

Option 4:
277.3 K

Correct Answer:
377.3 K
Solution:
ΔT b = i 1 m 1 k b + i 2 m 2 k b

2 1 × 2
= 1 × × 0.52 + × 0.52 = 4.16
0.5 0.5

( Tb ) = 373.16 + 4.16 = 377.3 K.

splutioe

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 17 Which compound would give 3-methyl-6-oxoheptanal upon ozonolysis ?

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

166
 Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 18 Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I LIST-II
(Molecules/ion) (Hybridisation of central atom)

A. PF 5 I. dsp
2

B. SF 6 II. sp
3
d

C. Ni(CO) 4 III. sp
3
d
2

D. [PtCl 4 ]
2
IV. sp
3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Option 2:
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Option 3:
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Option 4:
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

167
 Correct Answer:
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Solution:
3
PF 5 : 5σ + 0ℓp → sp d

3 2
SF 6 : 6σ + 0ℓp → sp d

Ni(CO) 4 : Ni → 0

In presence of ligand field:-

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 19 The least acidic compound, among the following is

Option 1:
D

Option 2:
A

Option 3:
B

Option 4:
C

Correct Answer:
A

Solution:

168
The least acidic compound among the given options is Option A (ethyl salicylate), which is a phenol derivative
with an electron-donating ethoxy group. This group reduces the acidity of the phenol by destabilizing its
conjugate base through +I and resonance effects. In contrast, Option B contains a strongly electron-
withdrawing sulfonic acid group that increases acidity, Option C is a carboxylic acid (naturally more acidic than
phenol) and Option D is a terminal alkyne with an ester group that enhances its acidity. Therefore, due to the
presence of an electron-donating group and the inherently weak acidic nature of phenols.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 20 The correct order of limiting molar conductivity for cations in water at 298 K is

Option 1:
+ + + 2+ 2+
H > Na > K > Ca > Mg

Option 2:
+ 2+ 2+ + +
H > Ca > Mg > K > Na

Option 3:
2+ + 2+ + +
Mg > H > Ca > K > Na

Option 4:
+ + 2+ 2+ +
H > Na > Ca > Mg > K

Correct Answer:
+ 2+ 2+ + +
H > Ca > Mg > K > Na

Solution:
Limiting Molar Conductivities of Ions :
⊕
2 −1
H: 349.8Scm mol
+ 2 −1
Na : 50.11Scm mol
+ 2 −1
K : 73.52Scm mol
+2 2 −1
Ca : 119Scm mol
+2 2 −1
Mg : 106.12Scm mol

Therefore correct order of limiting molar conductivity of cations will be -H> Ca +2

> Mg
+2
> K
+
> Na
+

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

169
 Q. 21 During estimation of nitrogen by Dumas' method of compound X(0.42 g) :

______ mL of N gas will be liberated at STP. (nearest integer)

2

(Given molar mass in gmol : C : 12, H : 1, N : 14)

−1

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
M.wt. of given compound = 86

Applying POAC on ' N '

n x × 2 = n N2 × 2

0.42
= n N2
86

0.42
⇒ ( Volume ) N 2 at STP = × 22.4 L
86

= 0.1108 L = 110.8 mℓ

Hence, the answer is 110.8 ml.

Q. 22 0.5 g of an organic compound on combustion gave 1.46 g of CO and 0.9 g of H
2 . The
2O

percentage of carbon in the compound is ______(Nearest integer)

[Given : Molar mass (in gmol ) C : 12, H : 1, 0 : 16]
−1

Correct Answer:
-

170
Solution:

Organic → CO 2

Compound
Applying POAC on ' C '
(mole) of ' C ' in compound = n CO 2
× 1

So mass of 'C' in compound

1.46
= × 12
44

So, % of ' C ' in compound = 1.46

44
×
12

0.5
× 100 = 79.63

Hence, the answer is 79.63%.

Q. 23 The number of optical isomers exhibited by the iron complex (A) obtained from the following
reaction is______

FeCl 3 + KOH + H 2 C 2 O 4 → A

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
FeCl 3 + KOH + H 2 SO 4 → K 3 [Fe(C 2 O 4 ) ]
3

(A)
⇒ [Fe(C 2 O 4 ) ]
3
is [M(AA)
3−
3
] type complex.

So total optical isomers = 2

Hence, the answer is 2.

Q. 24 Given :
⊖ −1
ΔH [C( graphite )] = 710 kJ mol
sub

⊖ −1
Δ C−H H = 414 kJ mol

⊖ −1
Λ H−H H = 436 kJ mol

⊖ −1
Λ C−C H = 611 kJ mol

The ΔH for CH ⊖

f
2
= CH 2 is _______ kJmol −1
(nearest integer value)

Correct Answer:
-

171
Solution:

o o o o o
[ΔH f ] = 2 × [ΔH slb ] + 2 × ΔH H−H − 1 × ΔH C−C − 4 × ΔH C
C 2 H 4( s) Cf )

o
[ΔH ] = (2 × 710) + (2 × 436) − 611 − 4 × 414
f C 2 H 4(z)

o
[ΔH ] = 25 kJ/mol
f C2 H
4( s)

Hence, the answer is 25 kJ/mol.

Q. 25 Consider the following reactions

A + NaCl + H 2 SO 4 → CrO 2 Cl 2 + Side Products

Little

amount

CrO 2 Cl 2( Vapour )
+ NaOH → B + NaCl + H 2 O

+
B + H → C + H2 O

The number of terminal ' O ' present in the compound ' C ' is______ .

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
2−
Cr 2 O + NaCl + H 2 SO 4 → CrO 2 Cl 2
7

CrO 2 Cl 2 (Vapour) + NaOH →

Na 2 CrO 4 + NaCl + H 2 O
⊕
Na 2 CrO 4 + H → Na 2 Cr 2 O 7 + H 2 O

(C)

⊕ 2−
Na 2 Cr 2 O 7 → 2Na + Cr 2 O
7

No of terminal " O " = 6

172
Hence, the answer is 6.

Maths
Q. 1 Let A be a matrix of order 3 × 3 and |A| = 5. If |2 adj(3 A adj(2 A))| = 2 α
⋅ 3
β γ
⋅ 5 α, β, γ ∈ N

then α + β + γ is equal to

Option 1:
25

Option 2:
26

Option 3:
27

Option 4:
28

Correct Answer:
27

Solution:
|2 adj(3 A adj(2 A))|

3 2
2 ⋅ |3 A adj(2 A)|

2
3 3 2 2
2 ⋅ (3 ) ⋅ | A| ⋅ |adj(2 A)|

2
3 6 2 2
2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ | A| ⋅ (|2 A| )

2
2
3 6 2 3 2
2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ | A| [(2 ) ⋅ | A| ]

3 6 2 12 4
2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ | A| ⋅ 2 ⋅ | A|

15 6 6
2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ | A|

15 6 6 α β 7
2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 5 = 2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 5

α = 15, β = 6, γ = 6

α + β + γ = 27

Hence, the answer is option (3).

173
 Q. 2

Option 1:
8

Option 2:
16

Option 3:
12

Option 4:
6

L1 =

L2 =

2p − 3

q + 2
2

x − 6

=
Let a line passing through the point (4, 1, 0) intersect the line L

A (α, β, γ) and the line L

equal to

Correct Answer:
8

Solution:

x − 1
=

B(q + 6, q, 4 − q)

3p + 1

q − 1
y − 2

A(2p + 1, 3p + 2, 4p + 3)
3

=
=

z − 4

−1
z − 3

D.R. of P A = 2p − 3, 3P + 1, 4p + 3

D.R. of P B = q + 2, q − 1, 4 − q

4p + 3

4 − q

2pq − 2p − 3q + 3 = 3pq + 6p + q + 2

pq + pp + 4q − 1 = 0
4

… . (1)

12p − 3pq + 4 − q = 4pq + 3q − 4p − 3

7pq − 16p + 4q − 7 = 0

8p − 2pq − 12 + 3q = 4pq + 8p + 3q + 6

6pq = −18 ∴ Δpq = −3

= q
2

= p
: x − 6 = y = −z + 4

8p + 4q = 4

16p − 4q = −28
⇒ 2p + q = 1

− 21 − 16p + 4q − 7
1
;
x−1

⇒ 4p − q = −7
2
=

at the point B(a, b, c). Then

y−2

∣
=

a
z−3

b
at the point
1

c
is

174
∣
A(−1, −1, −1)

−1

x
1

9
0

−1

Option 1:
3

Option 2:
4

Option 3:
5

Option 4:
7
P
−1

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:

2
1

+ √ 3x − 16 = 0
=
B(9, 3, 1)

P n + √ 3P n−1 − 16P n−2 = 0

P 25 + √ 3P 24 − 16P 23 = 0

∴
P 25 + √ 3P 24

2P 23
= 8
0

−1

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 3
= α + β and Q
n
−1

−1

Let α and β be the roots of x

= γ n
0

−1

Pn = α
= 1(−1 + 9) = 8

n
2

+ β
+ √ 3x − 16 = 0

+ δ

n
n
, then 2P 23
, and γ and δ be the roots of x
P 25 +√ 3P 24
+
Q 24
is equal to
Q 25 −Q 23
2
. If
+ 3x − 1 = 0

175
Similary,x 2
+ 3x − 1 = 0 Qn = γ
n
+ δ
n

25 25 23 23
Q 25 − Q 23 = γ + δ − γ − δ

23 2 23 2
= γ (γ − 1) + δ (δ − 1)

23 23
= γ (−3γ) + δ (−3γ)

24 24
= −3 [γ + δ ]

= −3Q 24

Q 25 − Q 23
∴ = −3
Q 24

P 25 + √ 3P 24 Q 25 − Q 23
+ = 8 − 3 = 5
2P 23 Q 24

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 4 The sum of all rational terms in the expansion of (2 + √3) is 8

Option 1:
16923

Option 2:
3763

Option 3:
33845

Option 4:
18817

Correct Answer:
18817

Solution:
8
S = (2 + √ 3)

For the sum of rational terms

8 8 8 6 2 8 4 4
= C 0 (2) + C 2 (2) ⋅ (√ 3) + C 4 (2) (√ 3)

8 2 6 8 8
+ C 6 (2) (√ 3) + C 8 (√ 3)

8 6 4 2
=2 + 28 × 2 ⋅ 3 + 70 ⋅ 2 ⋅ 9 + 28.2 ⋅ 27 + 81

=256 + 5376 + 10080 + 3024 + 81

=18817

Hence, the answer is option (4).

176
 Q. 5 Let A = {−3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3,}. LetR be a relation on A defined by xRy if and only if
0 ≤ x + 2y ≤ 4 . Let l be the number of elements in R and m be the minimum number of
2

elements required to be added in R to make it a reflexive relation. then l + m is equal to

Option 1:
19

Option 2:
20

Option 3:
17

Option 4:
18

Correct Answer:
18

Solution:
A = {−3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3}

2
−2y ≤ x ≤ 4 − 2y

2
y = −3 6 ≤ x ≤ 10 ⇒ x ∈ {−3, 3}

2
y = −2 4 ≤ x ≤ 8 ⇒ x ∈ {−2, 2}

2
y = −1 2 ≤ x ≤ 6 ⇒ x ∈ {−2, 2}

2
y = 0 0 ≤ x ≤ 4 ⇒ x ∈ {−2, −1, 0, 1, 2}

2
y = 1 −2 ≤ x ≤ 2 ⇒ x ∈ {−1, 0, 1}

2
y = 2 −4 ≤ x ≤ 0 ⇒ x ∈ {0}

2
y = 3 −6 ≤ x ≤ −2 ⇒ No x-Exist

R = {(−3, −3)(−3, 3), (−2, −2)(−2, 2)(−1, −2)(−1, 2)

(0, −2)(0, −1)(0, 0)(0, 1)(0, 2)(1, −1)(1, 0)(1, 1)

(2, 0)}

∴ ℓ = 15

Hence, the answer is option (4).

To make it reflexive, we will add

{(−1, −1), (2, 2), (3, 3)} ∴ m = 3

∴ ℓ + m = 15 + 3 = 18

177
 Q. 6 A line passing through the point P(√5, √5) intersects the ellipse x
2

+
y
2

= 1 at A and B such
36 25

that (P A). (P B) is maximum. Then 5 (P A + P B ) is equal to :

2 2

Option 1:
218

Option 2:
377

Option 3:
290

Option 4:
338

Correct Answer:
338

Solution:
2

Given ellipse is
2
x y
+ = 1
36 25

Any point on line AB can be assumed as

Q(√ 5 + r cos θ, √ 5 + r sin θ)

Putting this in the equation of an ellipse, we get

2 2
25(√ 5 + r cos θ) + 36(√ 5 + r sin θ) = 900

Simplifying, we get
2 2 2
r (25 cos θ + 36 sin θ) + 2√ 5r(25 cos θ + 36 sin θ) − 595 = 0

|r| = PA, PB

Thus, PA.PB

595 595
= 2 2
= 2
.
25 cos θ+36 sin θ 25+11 sin θ

Thus,

178
 595 595
PA P B = =
2 2 2
25 cos θ + 36 sin θ 25 + 11 sin θ
2
= maximum, if sin θ = 0

This means line AB must be parallel to the x-axis

⇒ y A = y B = √5

Putting y = √5 in equation of ellipse, we get

2
x 1 2 4
+ = 1 ⇒ x = 36 ⋅
36 5 5

Hence,
2 2

2
12 12
2
PA + PB = (√ 5 − ) + (√ 5 + )
√5 √5

144 338
= 2 (5 + ) =
5 5

2 2
5 (PA + PB ) = 338

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 7 The sum 1 + 3 + 11 + 25 + 45 + 71+. . . . . . . . up to 20 terms is equal to

Option 1:
7240

Option 2:
7130

Option 3:
6982

Option 4:
8124

Correct Answer:
7240

Solution:
Given sum is

S n = 1 + 3 + 11 + 25 + 45 + 71 + … + T n

179
 Option 1:
5

Option 2:
4

Option 3:
3

Option 4:
7

Now,
⎪
First-order differences are in A.P.
Thus, we can assume that

T n = an

Solving ⎨ T
⎩
2

we get a = 3,

T n = 3n
2

2x−3
+ bn + c

T3
T1 = 1 = a + b + c

2
= 3 = 4a + 2b + c ⎬

= 11 = 9a + 3b + c

b = −7, c = 5

Hence, the required sum equals

n=20
∑ n=1 (3n
2
− 7n + 5) = 3 (

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 8
equal to

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
The given function is

f (x) = log e (
2x−3

5+4x

> 0 ⇒ x ∈ (−∞, −
5+4x
) + sin

For domain, the conditions are

⎭

Hence, the general term of the given series is

− 7n + 5

−1
(
⎫

20⋅21⋅41

4+3x

2−x

2x−3

5+4x

4
,

If the domain of the function f (x) = log

> 0

) ∪ [
) − 7(

and
3

2
20⋅21

, ∞)
2

4+3x

2−x
) + 5(20) = 7240

e
(

≤ 1
2x−3

5+4x
) + sin
−1
(
4+3x

2−x
) is [α, β), then α 2
+ 4β is

180
 6 + 2x 2 + 4x
⇒ ⋅ ≤ 0
2 − x 2 − x

1
⇒ x ∈ [−3, − ]
2

Hence, we get the domain of f as x ∈ [−3, − 5

4
)

This means that α = −3, β = − 5

Thus, α + 4β = 9 − 5 = 4
2

Hence, the answer is option (2).

Q. 9 If ∑ 9
(
r+3
) ⋅
9
C r = α(
3
)
9
− β, α, β ∈ N, then (α + β) is equal to :
2
r=1 r
2 2

Option 1:
27

Option 2:
9

Option 3:
81

Option 4:
18

Correct Answer:
81

Solution:
Given that
9 r+3 9
9 3
∑ ( r ) ⋅ C r = α( ) − β, α, β ∈ N
r=1 2 2

Now,

181
 9 9 9
r + 3 9
r 9
3 9
∑( ) ⋅ Cr = ∑ ( ) ⋅ Cr + ∑ ( ) ⋅ Cr
r r r
2 2 2
r=1 r=1 r=1

9 9 r
9
9 8 9
1 Cr 9
= ∑( ) ⋅ C r−1 + 3 ∑ Cr ( ) [U sin g = ]
r 8
2 2 C r−1 r
r=1 r=1

9 r−1 9 r
9 8
1 9
1
= ∑ C r−1 ( ) + 3 (∑ ( C r ( ) ) − 1)
2 2 2
r=1 r=0

8 9
9 1 1
= (1 + ) + 3 ((1 + ) − 1)
2 2 2

8 9 9
9 3 3 3
= ⋅ ( ) + 3( ) − 3 = 6 ⋅ ( ) − 3
2 2 2 2

Hence, α = 6, β = 3
Thus (α + β) = 81 2

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 10 The number of solutions of the equation 2x + 3 tan x = π, x ∈ [−2π, 2π] − {± π

2
,±
3π

2
} is

Option 1:
6

Option 2:
5

Option 3:
4

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
π 2x
tan x = −
3 3

The given equation has 5 solutions according to the graph.

182
 Q. 11

Option 1:
-1

Option 2:
28

Option 3:
27

Option 4:
1

dx

dx

dx
2
d y

2
d y
2

2
If y(x) =

Correct Answer:
-1

Solution:
C3 → C3 − C1

y(x) =
sin x

27

y(x) = −(1 + cos x)

dy
= sin x

= cos x

+ y = −1
cos x

28

∣
Hence, the answer is option (2).

sin x

27

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 12
cos x

1 + cos x

0
28

1
sin x + cos x + 1

27

1
,x ∈ R , then
2
d y

dx
2 + y is equal to :

Let g be a differentiable function such that ∫ g(t)dt = x − ∫ tg(t)dt, x ≥ 0 and let y = y(x)
satisfy the differential equation
then y ( ) is equal to
π

3
dy

dx
x

− y tan x = 2(x + 1) sec xg(x), x ∈ [0,

x

). If y(0) = 0,
π

183
 Option 1:
2π

3√ 3

Option 2:
4π

Option 3:
2π

Option 4:
4π

3√ 3

Correct Answer:
4π

Solution:
Diff. w.r.t. x

g(x) = 1 − xg(x)

1
g(x) =
1 + x

dy
so − y tan x = 2 sec x
dx

− ∫ tan dx log cos x

IF = e = e = cos x

Solution of D.E.

y cos x = ∫ 2dx + c

y cos x = 2x + c

y(0) = 0

y = 0

2x
y =
cos x

y = 2x sec x

π π 4π
y( ) = 2 ⋅ ⋅ 2 =
3 3 3

Hence, the answer is option (2).

184
 Q. 13 A line passes through the origin and makes equal angles with the positive coordinate axes. It
intersects the lines
L : 2x + y + 6 = 0 and L : 4x + 2y − p = 0, p > 0, at the points A and B, respectively. If
1 2

AB =
√2
9
and the foot of the perpendicular from the point A on the line L is M , then
2
AM

BM
is
equal to

Option 1:
5

Option 2:
4

Option 3:
2

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

Line is y = x

m 1 = 1, m 2 = −2

1 + 2
so tan θ =
1 − 2

AM
tan θ = = 3
BM

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 14 Let z ∈ C be such that

2
z +3i
. Then the sum of all possible values of z is
= 2 + 3i
2

z−2+i

185
 Option 1:
19 − 2i

Option 2:
−19 − 2i

Option 3:
19 + 2i

Option 4:
−19 + 2i

Correct Answer:
−19 − 2i

Solution:
2
z + 3i = z(2 + 3i) − 7 − 4i

2
z − z(2 + 3i) + 7 + 7i = 0

2 2 2
z 1 + z 2 = (z 1 + z 2 ) − 2z 1 z 2

= 4 − 9 + 12i − 14 − 14i

= −19 − 2i

Hence, the answer is option (2).

Q. 15 Let f (x) = ∫ 3 2
. If 5f (√2) = −4, then f (1) is equal to
x √ 3 − x dx

Option 1:
2√ 2
−
5

Option 2:
8√ 2
−
5

186
 Option 3:
4√ 2
−
5

Option 4:
6√ 2
−
5

Correct Answer:
6√ 2
−
5

Solution:
2 2
Let 3 − x = t

+ xdx = −tdt

2
f (x) = ∫ (3 − t ) ⋅ t(−tdt) + c

4 2
= ∫ (t − 3t )dt + c

5
t
3
= − t + c
5
5/2
2
(3 − x ) 3/2
2
f (x) = − (3 − x ) + c
5

1 4
f (√ 2) = − 1 + c = −
5 5

c = 0
5/2
2
3/2
f (1) = − 2
5

4
1/2
= 2 ( − 2)
5

−6√ 2
f (1) −
5

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 16 Let a , a , a , … be a G.P. of increasing positive numbers. If a

1 2 3 3 a5 = 729 and a 2 + a4 =
111

4
,
then 24 (a + a + a ) is equal to
1 2 3

Option 1:
131

Option 2:
130

187
 Option 3:
129

Option 4:
128

Correct Answer:
129

Solution:
Let the I term of G.P. be a \& common ratio be r
st

2 4
a 3 a 5 = ar ⋅ ar = 729

2 6
= a r = 729

3
= ar = 27 − − − − − (i)

3
111
a 2 + a 4 = ar + ar =
4
3
= ar = − − − − − (ii)
4

(i) ÷ (ii)
3
ar 27
=
ar 3/4

2
r = 36

r = 6

from (ii)
3 1
a(6) = ⇒ a =
4 8

Now, 24 (a 1
2 2
+ a 2 + a 3 ) = 24 (a + ar + a ) = 24a (1 + r + r ) = 24 ×
1

8
(1 + 6 + 36) = 3(43) = 129

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 17 Let the domain of the function f (x) = log 2

log 4 log 6 (3 + 4x − x )
2
be (a, b). If
, where [⋅] is the greatest integer
b−a
2
∫ [x ]dx = p − √ q − √ r, p, q, r ∈ N, gcd(p, q, r) = 1
0

function, then p + q + r is equal to

Option 1:
10

188
 Option 2:
8

Option 3:
11

Option 4:
9

Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
2
log log (3 + 4x − x ) > 0
4 6
2
log 6 (3 + 4x − x ) > 1

2
3 + 4x − x > 6

2
x − 4x + 3 < 0

(x − 1)(x − 3) < 0

x ∈ (1, 3)

so a = 1&b = 3

2
2
⇒ ∫ [x ]dx =?
0

1 √2 √3 √4

2 2 2 2
I = ∫ [x ]dx + ∫ [x ]dx + ∫ [x ]dx + ∫ [x ]dx
0 1 √2 √3

√2 √3 √4
= 0 + |x| + 2|x| + 3|x|
1 √2 √3

= (√ 2 − 1) + 2(√ 3 − √ 2) + 3(2 − √ 3)

= 5 − √ 2 − √ 3 ⇒ p + q + r = 10

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 18 The radius of the smallest circle which touches the parabolas y = x 2

+ 2 and x = y 2
+ 2 is

Option 1:
7√ 2

Option 2:
7√ 2

16

189
 Option 3:
7√ 2

Option 4:
7√ 2

Correct Answer:
7√ 2

Solution:
The given parabolas are symmetric about the line y = x.

Tangents at A \& B must be parallel to y = x line, so slope of the tangents = 1

dy dy
( ) = 1 = ( )
dx dx
min A min B

For point B, y = x 2
+ 2

dy
= 2x = 1
dx

1 9
x = ⇒ y =
2 4

1 9 9 1
∴ Point B = ( , ) ⇒ Point A = ( , )
2 4 4 2

2 2
1 9 9 1
AB = √ ( − ) + ( − )
2 4 4 2

98 7√ 2
= √ =
16 4

7√ 2
Radius =
8

Hence, the answer is option (4).

190
f (0

=
Q. 19

Option 1:
64

Option 2:
72

Option 3:
48

Option 4:
36

Correct Answer:
48

Solution:
f (0

So f (0

Now, e

e
a
−

f (0) = 1 + b

Also at x = 0;

c
1/3
) = e

) =

c
2/3

= 2 ⇒ c = 8

a
Let f (x) = ⎨1 + b

3
lim x→0

) =
2√ x+4

(x + c)

4
ax

(8)

= b + 1 = 3

⋅ b ⋅ c = 3 ⋅ 2 ⋅ 8 = 48

Hence, the answer is option (3).

x
= e

2/3
2

⎪
⎧(1 + ax)

be continuous at x = 0. Then e

= 3
(x+4)

(x+c)

3
1/2

1/3

2(2)

⋅ c
−
1/x

−2

−2

3
,

a
x < 0

x = 0

x > 0

bc is equal to

191
 Q. 20 Line L passes through the point (1, 2, 3) and is parallel to the z-axis. Line L passes through the
1 2

point (λ, 5, 6) and is parallel to the y-axis. Let for λ = λ , λ , λ < λ , the shortest distance
1 2 2 1

between the two lines be 3 . Then the square of the distance of the point (λ , λ , 7) from the line
1 2

L is1

Option 1:
40

Option 2:
32

Option 3:
25

Option 4:
37

Correct Answer:
25

Solution:
x − 1 y − 2 z − 3
L1 ≡ = =
0 0 1

x − λ y − 5 z − 6
L2 ≡ = =
0 1 0

λ − 1 3 3

0 0 1

0 1 0
SD =
^ ^ ^
i j k

0 0 1

0 1 0

= |λ − 1| = 3

λ = 4, −2

λ1 = 4

λ 2 = −2

Let foot of perpendicular from P(4, −2, 7) is Q(1, 2, t + 3)

So (3, −4, 4 − t) ⋅ (0, 0, 1) = 0

t = 4

So Q(1, 2, 7)

192
 2
PQ = 9 + 16

2
PQ = 25

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 21 All five letter words are made using all the letters A, B, C, D, E and arranged as in an English
dictionary with serial numbers. Let the word at serial number n be denoted by W . Let the
n

probability P (W ) of choosing the word W satisfy

n n

P ( W n ) = 2P ( W n−1 ), n > 1.

If P(CDBEA) = 2
β
2 −1
, α, β ∈ N , then α + β is equal to :

Correct Answer:
183

Solution:
Let P (W 1
) = x

120

∑ P (W i ) = 1

i=1

2 3 119
x + 2x + 2 x + 2 x + … + 2 x = 1

120
x (2 − 1) 1
= 1 ⇒ x = − − − − − −(i)
120
(2 − 1) 2 − 1

Rank of CDBEA

A … = ⌊4 = 24

B … = 4 = 24
–
CA …−… = ⌊3 = 6

C B ____ = 3 = 6
–
CDA −… = ⌊2 = 2

CDBAE = 1

CDBEA=1

64
63
So, P (W 64 ) = 2P (W 63 ) = … = 2 P (W 1 )

63
2
=
120
2 − 1

α + β = 63 + 120 = 183

Hence, the answer is (183).

193
 Q. 22 Let the product of the focal distances of the point P(4, 2√3) on the hyperbola H : x
2

−
y
2

= 1
2 2
a b

be 32 .
Let the length of the conjugate axis of H be p, and the length of its latus rectum be q. Then
p + q is equal to .......
2 2

Correct Answer:
120

Solution:
2 2
x y
− = 1 − − − − − (1)
2 2
a b

P(4, 2√ 3)

PS 1 ⋅ PS 2 = 32

|PS 1 − PS 2 | = 2a

P(4, 2√ 3) lies on H

16 12
∴ − = 1
2 2
a b
2 2 2 2
16 b − 12a = a b − − − − − −(2)

2 2
|PS 1 − PS 2 | = 4a

2 2 2
PS 1 + PS 2 − 2PS 1 ⋅ PS 2 = 4a

2 2 2
(ae − 4) + 12 + (ae + 4) + 12 − 64 = 4a

2 2 2
2a e − 8 = 4a

2 2 2
a + b − 4 = 2a

2 2
b − a = 4

(2) & (3) ⇒ 16 (a 2

+ 4) − 12a
2
= a
2
(a
2
+ 4)

2 2 4 2
⇒ 16a + 64 − 12a = a + 4a

4
⇒ a = 64

2
⇒ a = 8

2
∴ b = 12

4
2 2 2
4 b
p + q = 4 b +
a2

= 120

Hence, the answer is (120).

Q. 23 → → → → →
Let a = ^i + ^j + k,
^
b = 3^i + 2^
^
j − k, c = λ^ j + μk and d be a unit vector such that a × d = b × d
^ ^ ^ ^

→ →
and c ⋅ d
^ → is perpendicular to a
= 1, If c →, then |3λd^ + μc| is equal to ______ .
2

194
 Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
→ → → →
a × d − b × d = 0

→ → →
(a − b) × d = 0

→ → →
d = t(a − b)

→
d = t(−2^
i −^ ^
j + 2k)

→
|d| = 1

1
|t| =
3
→→
c ⋅ a = 0

λ + μ = 0

μ = −λ

→ →2
^ 2
c = λ(^
j − k), |c| = 2λ

→
^
c ⋅ d = 1

t(−2, −1, 2) ⋅ λ(0, 1, −1) = 1

−1 2
λt = ⇒ λ = 1
3
→2 2 2 2 →2 →
|3λ ^
d + μc| = 9λ | ^
d| + μ |c| + 6λμ( ^
d ⋅ c)

2 4
= 3λ + 2λ

= 5

Hence, the answer is (5).

Q. 24 If the number of seven-digit numbers, such that the sum of their digits is even, is m ⋅ n ⋅ 10 ;
n

m, n ∈ {1, 2, 3, … , 9}, then m + n is equal to________.

Correct Answer:
14

Solution:
Total 7-digit nos. = 9000000
7-digit nos. having the sum of digits
Even = 4500000
5
= 9.5 ⋅ 10

m = 9, n = 5

m + n = 14

Hence, the answer is (14).

195
 Q. 25 The area of the region bounded by the curve y = max{|x|, x|x − 2|}, then x-axis and the lines
x = −2 and x = 4 is equal to ________.

Correct Answer:
12

Solution:

1 1 1
Required Area = × 2 × 2 + × 3 × 3 + × 1 × 11
2 2 2

= 12

Hence, the answer is (12).

196
 JEE Main 2025

3 April - Shift 2
rd

Question Paper with Solution

197
Physics
Q. 1 A magnetic dipole experiences a torque of 80√3 N m when placed in uniform magnetic
field in such a way that dipole moment makes angle of 60 with magnetic field. The potential
∘

energy of the dipole is :

Option 1:
80 J

Option 2:
−40√ 3 J

Option 3:
-60 J

Option 4:
-80 J

Correct Answer:
-80 J

Solution:
τ = M B sin θ

v = −M B cos θ

v
= − cot θ
τ

1
v = −80√ 3 × = −80
√3

Hence, the answer is option 4

Q. 2 In the resonance experiment, two air columns (closed at one end) of 100 cm and 120 cm
long, give 15 beats per second when each one is sounding in the respective fundamental
modes. The velocity of sound in the air column is :

Option 1:
335 m/s

Option 2:
370 m/s

198
 Option 3:
340 m/s

Option 4:
360 m/s

Correct Answer:
360 m/s

Solution:
v
f0 =
4L

v 1 1
Δf = { − }
4 1 1.2

15 × 4 × 1.2
= v
0.2

360 = v

Hence, the answer is option 4

Q. 3 Two cylindrical vessels of equal cross sectional area of 2 m contain water upto height 10 m
2

and 6 m , respectively. If the vessels are connected at their bottom then the work done by
the force of gravity is :
(Density of water is 10 kg/m and g = 10 m/s )
3 3 2

Option 1:
5
1 × 10 J

Option 2:
4
4 × 10 J

Option 3:
4
6 × 10 J

Option 4:
8 × 10
4
J

Correct Answer:
8 × 10 J
4

Solution:

199
Effectively shaded portion has descended

|w| = ΔmgΔh

= (ρ2A)g × 2

3
= 10 × 2 × 40

4
= 8 × 10 J

Hence, the answer is option 4

Q. 4 Width of one of the two slits in a Young's double slit interference experiment is half of the
other slit. The ratio of the maximum to the minimum intensity in the interference pattern is :

Option 1:
(2√ 2 + 1) : (2√ 2 − 1)

Option 2:
(3 + 2√ 2) : (3 − 2√ 2)

Option 3:
9 : 1

Option 4:
3 : 1

Correct Answer:
9 : 1

Solution:
Amplitude ∝ width
2
⇒ Intensity ∝ width

2
√I 1 + √I 2
l 1 = I 1 l 2 = 4I ; ratio ( )
√I 1 − √I 2
2
1 + 2
Ratio = ( ) = 9
1 − 2

200
Hence, the answer is option 3

Q. 5 An ideal gas exists in a state with pressure P , volume V .It is isothermally expanded to 4
0 0

times of its initial volume (V ), then isobarically compressed to its original volume. Finally
0

the system is heated isochorically to bring it to its initial state. The amount of heat
exchanged in this process is :

Option 1:
P 0 V 0 (2 ln 2 − 0.75)

Option 2:
P 0 V 0 (ln 2 − 0.75)

Option 3:
P 0 V 0 (ln 2 − 0.25)

Option 4:
P 0 V 0 (2 ln 2 − 0.25)

Correct Answer:
P 0 V 0 (2 ln 2 − 0.75)

Solution:

ΔQ = Δv + ΔW

For cyclic process ΔQ = ΔW

W = W AB + W BC + W CA

4V 0 P0
= P 0 V 0 ln + (V 0 − 4V 0 ) + 0
V0 4

3
= P 0 V 0 ln 4 − P0 V0
4

= P 0 V 0 (2 ln 2 − 0.75)

Hence, the answer is option 1

201
 Q. 6 Two monochromatic light beams have intensities in the ratio 1:9. An interference pattern is
obtained by these beams. The ratio of the intensities of maximum to minimum is

Option 1:
8 : 1

Option 2:
9 : 1

Option 3:
3 : 1

Option 4:
4 : 1

Correct Answer:
4 : 1

Solution:
Maximum Intensity (constructive interference):
2 2
I max = (A 1 + A 2 ) = (1 + 3) = 16

Minimum Intensity (destructive interference):

2 2
I min = (A 1 − A 2 ) = (1 − 3) = 4

Final Answer:

I max 16
= = 4
I min 4

Hence, the answer is option 4

202
 Q. 7 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.

Assertion A : The Bohr model is applicable to hydrogen and hydrogen-like atoms only.
Reason R : The formulation of Bohr model does not include repulsive force between
electrons.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below :

Option 1:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Option 2:
A is false but R is true.

Option 3:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Option 4:
A is true but R is false.

Correct Answer:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Solution:
Assertion A :
True

The Bohr model is only applicable to hydrogen and hydrogen-like (single-electron) atoms such as He , +

Li
2+
, etc. This is because the model assumes a single electron orbiting a nucleus and does not account
for electron-electron interactions.

Reason R:
True
The Bohr model does not include electron-electron repulsion, which is why it fails for multi-electron
atoms (like helium with two electrons). The mutual repulsion between electrons changes energy levels,
which Bohr's formulation cannot predict accurately.

Hence, the answer is option 3

203
 Q. 8 Using a battery, a 100 pF capacitor is charged to 60 V and then the battery is removed. After
that, a second uncharged capacitor is connected to the first capacitor in parallel. If the final
voltage across the second capacitor is 20 V , its capacitance is : (in pF )

Option 1:
600

Option 2:
200

Option 3:
400

Option 4:
100

Correct Answer:
200

Solution:

i.e. Q = 60 × 100pC

When new capacitance C is connected

′

Then Q = (C + C )V ′

′
60 × 100 = (100 + C ) × 20

′
200 = C

Hence, the answer is option 2

Q. 9 A monochromatic light of frequency 5 × 10 Hz travelling through air, is incident on a

14

medium of refractive index ' 2 '. Wavelength of the refracted light will be :

Option 1:
300 nm

Option 2:
600 nm

204
 Option 3:
400 nm

Option 4:
500 nm

Correct Answer:
300 nm
Solution:
v = vλ

As μ = 2 therefore; speed c → C

8
C 3 × 10 8−15
λC = = = 3 × 10 m
14
2v 2 × 5 × 10
−7 9
= 3 × 10 × 10 nm = 300 nm

Q. 10

Consider two blocks A and B of masses m = 10 kg and m = 5 kg that are placed on a

1 2

frictionless table. The block A moves with a constant speed v = 3 m/s towards the block B
kept at rest. A spring with spring constant k = 3000 N/m is attached with the block B as
shown in the figure. After the collision, suppose that the blocks A and B, along with the
spring in constant compression state, move together, then the compression in the spring is,
(Neglect the mass of the spring)

Option 1:
0.2 m

Option 2:
0.4 m

Option 3:
0.1 m

Option 4:
0.3 m

205
COLM

2
Correct Answer:
0.1 m
Solution:

kx

1500x

1500x

x =
2
=
2

10

Option 1:
6

Option 2:
18

Option 3:
12

Option 4:
24
=

1500

Correct Answer:
24

Solution:
=

∣
10 × 3 + 50 × 0 = 15V C

V C = 2 m/s

COME
1

= |30 − 45|

15

= 0.1 m

Hence, the answer is option 3

Q. 11
2
(m + m)v C −

2
× 15 × 2
2
−
1

2
2
mv 0

× 10 × 3
2

A particle is projected with velocity u so that its horizontal range is three times the maximum
height attained by it. The horizontal range of the projectile is given as
is :
(Given ' g ' is the acceleration due to gravity).
nu

25g
2

, where value of n

206
R = 3H

2 2 2
u sin 2θ 3u sin θ
=
g 2g

3
2 sin θ cos θ = sin θ sin θ
2
4
= tan θ
3
∘
θ = 53

2 2
u 4 3 24 u
R = × 2 × × =
g 5 5 25 g

Hence, the answer is option 4

Q. 12 A solid steel ball of diameter 3.6 mm acquired terminal velocity 2.45 × 10 m/s while
−2

falling under gravity through an oil of density 925 kg m . Take density of steel as
−3

7825 kg m and g as 9.8 m/s . The viscosity of the oil in SI unit is

−3 2

Option 1:
2.18

Option 2:
2.38

Option 3:
1.68

Option 4:
1.99

Correct Answer:
1.68

Solution:
2
2 r g(σ − ρ)
v =
9 η

−6
2 1.8 × 1.8 × 10 × 10
η = × {7825 − 925}
−2
9 2.45 × 10

≈ 2

Hence, the answer is option 3

207
Q. 13 The truth table corresponding to the circuit given below is

Option 1:
A B C

0 0 0

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 1 1

Option 2:
A B C

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 1

Option 3:
A B C

0 0 1

1 0 0

0 1 0

1 1 0

208
 Option 4:
A B C

0 0 1

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 0

Correct Answer:
A B C

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 1

Solution:
Logic : C = (A + B)

A = A ⋅ A + A ⋅ B

= A + A ⋅ B

= A(1 + B)

C = A

Hence, the answer is option 2

Q. 14 A particle moves along the x-axis and has its displacement x varying with time t according to
the equation
2 2
x = c 0 (t − 2) + c(t − 2)

where c and c are constants of appropriate dimensions. Then, which of the following
0

statements is correct?

209
 Option 1:
the acceleration of the particle is 2c 0

Option 2:
the acceleration of the particle is 2 c

Option 3:
the initial velocity of the particle is 4 c

Option 4:
the acceleration of the particle is 2 (c + c 0
)

Correct Answer:
the acceleration of the particle is 2 (c + c 0)

Solution:
2 2
x = C 0 (t − 2) + C (t + 4 − 2t)

V = C 0 (2t) + C(2t − 2)

at t = 0

v = −2C

a = 2C 0 + 2C

Hence, the answer is option 4

Q. 15 An electric bulb rated as 100 W − 220 V is connected to an ac source of rms voltage 220 V .
The peak value of current through the bulb is :

Option 1:
0.64 A

Option 2:
0.45 A

Option 3:
2.2 A

Option 4:
0.32 A

Correct Answer:
0.64 A

210
Solution:
2
V 220 × 220
RB = = = 484
P 100

V rms 220 10 5
I rms = = = =
R 484 22 11

5√ 2 7.07
I0 = ≈ ≈ 0.64
11 11

Hence, the answer is option 1

Q. 16 Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I LIST-II

A. Boltzmann constant I. ML
2
T
−1

B. Coefficient of viscosity II. MLT

−3
K
−1

C. Planck's constant III. ML

2
T
−2
K
−1

D. Thermal conductivity IV. ML

−1
T
−1

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Option 2:
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Option 3:
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Option 4:
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Correct Answer:
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Solution:

211
 2 −2 −1
kt = Energy ⇒ k = ML T K

A → III

−2
MLT
F = 6πηru ⇒ η =
−1
LLT
−1 −1
η = ML T

B → IV

2 −1
E = hv = h = ML T

C → I

2 −3
kAΔT ML T −3 −1
H = = k = = MLT K
I LK

D → II

Hence, the answer is option 1

Q. 17 Pressure of an ideal gas, contained in a closed vessel, is increased by 0.4% when heated by
1 C. Its initial temperature must be :
∘

Option 1:
∘
25 C

Option 2:
2500 K

Option 3:
250 K

Option 4:
∘
250 C

Correct Answer:
250 K

Solution:
For constant volume

P
= constant
T

ΔP ΔT
=
P T

0.4 1
=
100 T

100
T = = 250 K
0.4

212
Hence, the answer is option 3

Q. 18 A motor operating on 100 V draws a current of 1 A . If the efficiency of the motor is 91.6%,
then the loss of power in units of cal/s is

Option 1:
4

Option 2:
8.4

Option 3:
2

Option 4:
6.2

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
P 0 = 100 × 1 = 100 W

8.4
Loss = (1 − η)p 0 = × 100 = 8.4 J
100

8.4
Loss = cal = 2
4.2

Hence, the answer is option 3

Q. 19 A block of mass 1 kg , moving along x with speed v = 10 m/s enters a rough region
i

ranging from x = 0.1 m to x = 1.9 m. The retarding force acting on the block in this range
is F = −kxN, with k = 10 N/m. Then the final speed of the block as it crosses rough
r

region is

Option 1:
10 m/s

Option 2:
4 m/s

213
 Option 3:
6 m/s

Option 4:
8 m/s

Correct Answer:
8 m/s

Solution:
W = Δk so |W f | = loss in KE

1 1
2 2 2 2
k ((1.9) − (0.1) ) = × 1 {10 − v }
2 2
2
10 × 1.8 × 2 = 100 − v

2
v = 64

v = 8 m/s

Hence, the answer is option 4

Q. 20 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : If oxygen ion (O ) and Hydrogen ion (H )enter normal to the magnetic
−2 +

field with equal momentum, then the path of O ion has a smaller curvature than that of
−2

H .
+

Reason R: A proton with same linear momentum as an electron will form a path of smaller
radius of curvature on entering a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Option 1:
A is true but R is false

Option 2:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Option 3:
A is false but R is true

Option 4:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer:
A is true but R is false

214
Solution:
mv
R =
qB

(A) mv, B are same for O 2−

&H
+
therefore R ∝ 1

|q|
therefore (A) is correct
(B) R = mv

qB
; mv, q, B are same both therefore (R) is incorrect

Hence, the correct option is 1

Q. 21 Light from a point source in air falls on a spherical glass surface (refractive index, μ = 1.5
and radius of curvature = 50 cm ). The image is formed at a distance of 200 cm from the
glass surface inside the glass. The magnitude of distance of the light source from the glass
surface is ______ m.

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:

V = 200 cm

μ2 μ1 μ2 − μ1
− =
v u R

1.5 1 1.5 − 1 1
− = =
200 u 50 100

1 15 1 15 − 20 −5
= − = =
u 2000 100 2000 2000

u = −400 cm = −4 m

Hence, the correct option is 1

Q. 22 The excess pressure inside a soap bubble A in air is half the excess pressure inside another
soap bubble B in air. If the volume of the bubble A is n times the volume of the bubble B,
then, the value of n is _____ .

Correct Answer:
8

215
Solution:
2s 1 2s
=
r1 2 r2

r 1 = 2r 2

4 3
πr
3 1
Ratio = = 8
4 3
πr
3 2

Hence, the correct option is 1

Q. 23 Two cells of emf 1 V and 2 V and internal resistance 2Ω and 1Ω, respectively, are connected
in series with an external resistance of 6Ω. The total current in the circuit is I . Now the 1

same two cells in parallel configuration are connected to same external resistance. In this
case, the total current drawn is I . The value of ( 2
I1

I2
) is x

3
. The value of x is _____ .

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
ε1 + ε2 1 + 2 3 1
I1 = = = =
r1 + r2 + R 2 + 1 + 6 9 3
ε1 ε1
1 2
+ + 5 × 2 × 3 1
r1 r2 2 1
I2 = = = =
1 1 1 1

+ 2
+
1 2 × 3 × 20 4
r1 r2 r
1
r
2
+ R
r +r
1 2

I1 1 4 4
= × =
I2 3 1 3

Hence, the answer is 4.

Q. 24 An electron in the hydrogen atom initially in the fourth excited state makes a transition to
n energy state by emitting a photon of energy 2.86 eV . The integer value of n will be
th

______ .

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:

216
E n = 13.6 (

2.86 = 13.6 −

n
n
1
2.86

13.6

⇒ n = 2
2
= 0.25

= 4
+

∣
n

1
1

25

Hence, the answer is 2.

Q. 25

Correct Answer:
15

Solution:
ΔC

% error
=
Δp
2
1

25
−

=
+
1

n
2
2

2
)

n
2

A physical quantity C is related to four other quantities p, q, r and s as follows

C =

p
+ 2
pq

3
r √ s

respectively.

q
2

The percentage errors in the measurement of p, q, r and s are 1%, 2%3% and 2%

The percentage error in the measurement of C will be _____%.

Δq

= 1 + 2 × 2 + 3 × 3 +

= 1 + 4 + 9 + 1

= 15

Hence, the answer is 15.

+
3Δr

r
+
1 Δs

2
s

× 2

217
Chemistry
Q. 1 40 mL of a mixture of CH COOH and HCl (aqueous solution) is titrated against 0.1 M
3

NaOH solution conductometrically. Which of the following statement is correct?

Option 1:
The concentration of CH 3 COOH in the original mixture is 0.005 M

Option 2:
The concentration of HCl in the original mixture is 0.005 M

Option 3:
CH 3 COOH is neutralised first followed by neutralisation of HCl

Option 4:
Point ' C ' indicates the complete neutralisation HCl

Correct Answer:
The concentration of HCl in the original mixture is 0.005 M

Solution:
CH 3 COOH + NaOH → CH 3 COONa + H 2 O

HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H 2 O

At first NaOH reacts with HCl , replacing fast moving H ions by slow moving Na ions, hence
+ +

conductivity decreases.
At point B , eq. of HCl = eq. of NaOH
Hence, [HCl] = 2×0.1

42
= 0.005M

Q. 2 10 mL of 2 M NaOH solution is added to 20 mL of 1 M HCl solution kept in a beaker. Now, 10

mL of this mixture is poured into a volumetric flask of 100 mL containing 2 moles of HCl and
made the volume upto the mark with distilled water. The solution in this flask is :

218
 Option 1:
0.2 M NaCl solution

Option 2:
20 M HCl solution

Option 3:
10 M HCl solution

Option 4:
Neutral solution

Correct Answer:
20 M HCl solution

Solution:
10 mL of 2 M NaOH reacts with 20 mL of 1 M HCl to give completely neutralised 30 mL of NaCl(20 m
mole) solution.

10 mL of this solution has 20

30
× 10 =
20

3
m mol of NaCl

In Final 100 mL solution :

2
[HCl] = × 1000 = 20M
100

20 1
[NaCl] = = M
3 × 100 15

Q. 3 Fat soluble vitamins are :

A. Vitamin B 1

C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin B 12

E. Vitamin K

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below :

Option 1:
C & D Only

Option 2:
A & B Only

219
 Option 3:
B & C Only

Option 4:
C & E Only

Correct Answer:
C & E Only
Solution:
Fat soluble vitamins are : A, D, E and K.

Q. 4 Match the LIST-I with LIST-II.

LIST-I LIST-II
(Family) (Symbol of Element)

A. Pnicogen (group 15) I. Ts

B. Chalcogen II. Og

C. Halogen III. Lv

D. Noble gas IV. Mc

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Option 2:
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Option 3:
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Option 4:
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Correct Answer:
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Solution:

220
 A. Pnictogen (group 15) IV. Mc
B. Chalcogen III. Lv
C. Halogen I. Ts
D. Noble gas II. Og
Q. 5 For electron in ' 2 s ' and ' 2 p ' orbitals, the orbital angular momentum values, respectively
are :

Option 1:
√2 and 0
h

2π

Option 2:
h

2π
and √2 h

2π

Option 3:
0 and √6 2π
h

Option 4:
0 and √2 2π
h

Correct Answer:
0 and √2 2π
h

Solution:
Orbital angular momentum = 2π
h
√ (I + 1)

For 2s;

1 = 0

Orbital angular momentum = 0

For 2p;

h √ 2h h
I = 1 ⇒ √ I (I + 1) = =
2π 2π
(√ 2)π

Q. 6 Compounds that should not be used as primary standards in titrimetric analysis are :
A. Na Cr O 2 2 7

B. Oxalic acid
C. NaOH
D. FeSO ⋅ 6H O 4 2

E. Sodium tetraborate

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

221
 Option 1:
B and D Only

Option 2:
D and E Only

Option 3:
C, D and E Only

Option 4:
A, C and D Only

Correct Answer:
A, C and D Only

Solution:
Compounds like NaOH, FeSO ⋅ 6H O, Na Cr O are not suitable as primary standards in titrimetric
4 2 2 2 7

analysis because they are hydroscopic, unstable or difficult to obtain in a pure state.

Q. 7 The major product (P) in the following reaction is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

222
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Q. 8 In the following series of reactions identify the major products A & B respectively.

Option 1:

223
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

224
 Q. 9 The standard cell potential (E ) of a fuel cell based on the oxidation of methanol in air
⊖

cell

that has been used to power television relay station is measured as 1.21 V . The standard
half cell reduction potential for O 2
(E
O

O 2 /H 2 O
) is 1.229 V .

Choose the correct statement:

Option 1:
The standard half cell reduction potential for the reduction of CO 2
(E
0

CO 2 /CH 3 OH
) is 19 mV

Option 2:
Oxygen is formed at the anode.

Option 3:
Reactants are fed at one go to each electrode.

Option 4:
Reduction of methanol takes place at the cathode.

Correct Answer:
The standard half cell reduction potential for the reduction of CO 2 (E
0

CO 2 /CH 3 OH
) is 19 mV

Solution:

225
Fuel cell reaction
3
CH 3 OH(I) + O 2 ( g) → CO 2 ( g) + 2H 2 O(I)
2

Here O reduces to H
2 2O and CH 3 OH oxidises to CO . 2

Hence,
∘ ∘ ∘
E cell = E − E
O 2 /H 2 O CO 2 /CH 3 OH

∘
1.21 = 1.229 − E CO
2 /CH 3 OH

∘
E = 0.019 V
CO 2 /CH 3 OH

Q. 10 Identify the diamagnetic octahedral complex ions from below ;

A. [Mn(CN) ] 6
3−

B. [Co(NH ) ] 3
6
3+

C. [Fe(CN) ] 6
4−

D. [Co(H O) F ] 2 3 3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
B and D Only

Option 2:
A and D Only

Option 3:
A and C Only

Option 4:
B and C Only

Correct Answer:
B and C Only

Solution:
3− 3+ 0 4 0
[Mn(CN) 6 ] : Mn : [Ar]4 s 3 d : t2 g
4 e9

Octahedral, paramagnetic
3+ 3+ 0 6 6 0
[Co(NH 3 ) ] : Co : [Ar]4 s 3 d : t2 g e9
6

Octahedral, diamagnetic

226
 4− 2+ 0 6 6 0
[Fe(CN) 6 ] : Fe : [Ar]4 s 3 d : t2 g
eg

Octahedral, diamagnetic
3+ 0 6 2
[Co(H 2 O) F 3 ] : Co : [Ar]4 s 3 d : t2 g
4 e9
3

Octahedral, paramagnetic

Q. 11 In Dumas' method for estimation of nitrogen 0.4 g of an organic compound gave 60 mL of

nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm Hg pressure. The percentage
composition of nitrogen in the compound is
(Given : Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mmHg )

Option 1:
15.71%

Option 2:
20.95%

Option 3:
17.46%

Option 4:
7.85%

Correct Answer:
15.71%

Solution:
PN = 715 − 15 = 700 mmHg
2

PV 700 × 60
n N2 = =
RT 760 × 1000 × 0.0821 × 300

−3
n N 2 = 2.24 × 10

−3
2.24 × 10 × 28
% N2 = × 100
0.4

= 15.71%

Q. 12 Mass of magnesium required to produce 220 mL of hydrogen gas at STP on reaction with
excess of dil. HCl is
Given : Molar mass of Mg is 24 g mol . −1

227
 Option 1:
235.7 g

Option 2:
0.24 mg

Option 3:
236 mg

Option 4:
2.444 g

Correct Answer:
236 mg

Solution:
Mg + 2HCl ⟶ MgCl 2 + H2
220 mL

Moles of H 2
=
220

22400
moles

Mass of Mg = 220

22400
× 24 = 0.236 g = 236mg

Q. 13 Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Wet cotton clothes made of cellulose based carbohydrate takes comparatively
longer time to get dried than wet nylon polymer based clothes.

Statement II : Intermolecular hydrogen bonding with water molecule is more in nylon-based

clothes than in the case of cotton clothes.

In the light of above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below

Option 1:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Option 2:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Option 3:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false

228
 Correct Answer:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Solution:
Wet cellulose-based cotton clothes take longer time to dry than wet nylon-based clothes due to more
number of H-bonds between cellulose and water molecules. So, Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is
incorrect.

Q. 14 Given below are two statements :

Statement I : CrO is a stronger oxidizing agent than MoO
3 3

Statement II : Cr(VI) is more stable than Mo(VI)

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below

Option 1:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Option 2:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Option 3:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Correct Answer:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Solution:
Oxidising strength : CrO 3
> MoO 3

Stability : Cr < Mo
6+ 6+

Q. 15 Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Hyperconjugation is not a permanent effect.
Statement II : In general, greater the number of alkyl groups attached to a positively charged
C -atom, greater is the hyperconjugation interaction and stabilization of the cation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below

229
 Option 1:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Option 3:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Correct Answer:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Solution:
Hyperconjugation is a permanent effect.
With increase in number of α − H which increases with number of alkyl groups attached to positively
charged C, hyperconjugation increases.

Q. 16 Given below are two statements :

Statement I : When a system containing ice in equilibrium with water (liquid) is heated, heat
is absorbed by the system and there is no change in the temperature of the system until
whole ice gets melted.
Statement II : At melting point of ice, there is absorption of heat in order to overcome
intermolecular forces of attraction within the molecules of water in ice and kinetic energy of
molecules is not increased at melting point.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:

Option 1:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Option 3:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Option 4:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true

230
 Correct Answer:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Solution:
H 2 O( s) ⇌ H 2 O(l)

In phase transition, heat provided is used to change solid ice to liquid water at constant temperature,
hence there is no change in temperature and kinetic energy.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 17 The sequence from the following that would result in giving predominantly 3, 4, 5 -
Tribromoaniline is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

231
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 18 The correct orders among the following are

Atomic radius : B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
Electronegativity : Al < Ga < In < Tl < B
Density : Tl < In < Ga < Al < B
1st Ionisation Energy : In < Al < Ga < Tl < B
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
B and D Only

Option 2:
A and C Only

232
 Option 3:
C and D Only

Option 4:
A and B Only

Correct Answer:
B and D Only
Solution:
EN : B > Tl > In > Ga > Al

(2.0)(1.8)(1.7)(1.6)(1.5)

IE 1 : B > Tl > Ga > Al > In

(801)(589)(579)(577)(558)(inkJ/mol)

Density : TI > In > Ga > Al > B

(11.85)(7.31)(5.9)(2.7)(2.35)( in g/ml)

Atomic radius: B < Ga < Al < In < TI

(85)(135)(143)(167)(170)( in pm)

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 19 What is the correct IUPAC name of

Option 1:
3-Bromo-2-hydroxy-5-nitrobenzoic acid

Option 2:
3-Bromo-4-hydroxy-1-nitrobenzoic acid

Option 3:
2-Hydroxy-3-bromo-5-nitrobenzoic acid

Option 4:
5-Nitro-3-bromo-2-hydroxybenzoic acid

233
 Correct Answer:
3-Bromo-2-hydroxy-5-nitrobenzoic acid
Solution:

3-Bromo-2-hydroxy-5-nitrobenzoic acid

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 20 Consider the following statements related to temperature dependence of rate constants.

Identify the correct statements,

A. The Arrhenius equation holds true only for an elementary homogenous reaction.
B. The unit of A is same as that of k in Arrhenius equation.
C. At a given temperature, a low activation energy means a fast reaction.
D. A and Ea as used in Arrhenius equation depend on temperature.
E. When Ea >> RT. A and Ea become interdependent.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A, C and D Only

Option 2:
B, D and E Only

Option 3:
B and C Only

Option 4:
A and B Only

Correct Answer:
B and C Only

Solution:

234
 −E a /RT
k = Ae

If E ↓: k ↑
a

k and A has same units.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 21 X g of nitrobenzene on nitration gave 4.2 g of m -dinitrobenzene.

X = ___________ g. (nearest integer)
[Given : molar mass (in gmol ) C : 12, H : 1, O : 16, N : 14]
−1

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:

X 4.2
=
123 168

X = 3.075 g

Hence, the answer is 3.075

Q. 22

–
(0.1 mol) C v = 1.50R A perfect gas having (independent of temperature) undergoes the
above transformation from point 1 to point 4 . If each step is reversible, the total work done (
w ) while going from point 1 to point 4 is (−) J (nearest integer) [ Given :
R = 0.082 L atm K
−1
mol
−1
]

Option 1:
-

235
 Option 2:
-

Option 3:
-

Option 4:
-

Correct Answer:
-
Solution:
|w| = area under the curve

|w| = 3 × (2000 − 1000)

= 3000 mL atm

= 3 L atm

|w| = 3 × 101.3 J

= 303.9 J

Hence, the answer is 303.9

Q. 23 A sample of n -octane (1.14 g) was completely burnt in excess of oxygen in a bomb

calorimeter, whose heat capacity is 5 kJ K . As a result of combustion reaction, the
−1

temperature of the calorimeter is increased by 5 K . The magnitude of the heat of

combustion of octane at constant volume is _________ kJmol (nearest integer).
−1

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Q = CΔT = 5 × 5 = 25 kJ

25
−1
QV = × 114 = 2500 kJ mol
1.14

Hence, the answer is 2500KJ mol-1.

Q. 24 Among, Sc, Mn, Co and Cu , identify the element with highest enthalpy of atomisation. The
spin only magnetic moment value of that element in its +2 oxidation state is ___________ BM
(in nearest integer).

236
 Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Enthalpy of atomisation of : Sc = 326 kJ/mol, Mn =
281 kJ/mol, Co = 425 kJ/mol, Cu = 338 kJ/mol

2+ 7
Co : [Ar]4 s 0 3 d :

μ = √ 3(3 + 2) = √ 15 = 3.87

Hence, the answer is 3.87.

Q. 25 The total number of structural isomers possible for the substituted benzene derivatives with
the molecular formula C H is __________ .
9 12

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Degree of unsaturation = 2×9+2−12

2
= 4

Hence, the answer is 8.

Maths
Q. 1 Let f : R → R be a function defined by f (x) = ∥x + 2| − 2|x∥. If m is the number of
points of local minima and n is the number of points of local maxima of f , then m + n is:

Option 1:
5

237
 4

⎪
Option 2:
3

Option 3:
2

Option 4:

Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
⎧|−x − 2 + 2x|

f (x) = ⎨ |x + 2 + 2x|
⎩

⎩
|x + 2 − 2x|

⎧|−x − 2 + 2x|

f (x) = ⎨|x + 2 + 2x|

|x + 2 − 2x|

⎧ |x − 2|

f (x) = ⎨|3x + 2|

|2 − x|

2 − x

−3x − 2

f (x) = ⎨ 3x + 2

2 − x

x − 2

No. of maxima = 1

No. of minima = 2

m = 2

n = 1

m + n = 3
x ≤ −2

−2 < x ≤ 0

Hence, the answer is (2).

x > 0

x ≤ −2

−2 < x ≤ −

−
2

3
x ≤ −2

−2 ≤ x ≤ 0

x ≥ 0

x ≤ −2

−2 ≤ x ≤ 0

x ≥ 0

< x ≤ 0

0 < x < 2

x ≥ 2
2

238
 Q. 2 Each of the angles β and γ that a given line makes with the positive y - and z-axes,
respectively, is half of the angle that this line makes with the positive x -axes. Then the sum
of all possible values of the angle β is

Option 1:
3π

Option 2:
π

Option 3:
π

Option 4:
3π

Correct Answer:
3π

Solution:
α
β = γ =
2
2 2 2
cos α + cos β ± cos y = 1

2 2 2
cos 2β + cos β + cos β = 1

2
2 2
(2 cos β − 1) + (2 cos β − 1) = 0

2 2
(2 cos β − 1) [(2 cos β − 1 + 1] = 0

1
2 2
cos β = or cos β = 0
2
π π
∴ β = ,
4 2
π π 3π
∴ sum = + =
4 2 4

Hence, the answer is option (1).

239
 Q. 3 If the four distinct points (4, 6), (−1, 5), (0, 0) and (k, 3k) lie on a circle of radius r , then
10k + r is equal to
2

Option 1:
32

Option 2:
33

Option 3:
34

Option 4:
35

Correct Answer:
35

Solution:

2r = √ 52

2
4r = 52
2
2r = 26

2
r = 13

Eq
n
of circle is

x(x − 4) + y(y − 6) = 0

k(k − 4) + 3k(3k − 6) = 0

2 2
k − 4k + 9k − 18k = 0

2
10k = 22k

10k = 22

2
∴ 10k + r = 35

Hence, the answer is option (4).

240
 Q. 4 Let the Mean and Variance of five observations x = 1, x = 3, x = a, x = 7 and
1 2 3 4

x = b, a > b, be 5 and 10 respectively. Then the Variance of the observations

5

n + x , n = 1, 2, … … … 5 is
n

Option 1:
17

Option 2:
16.4

Option 3:
17.4

Option 4:
16

Correct Answer:
16

Solution:
1 + 3 + a + 7 + b
5 =
5

⇒ a + b = 14

2 2
1 + 9 + a + 49 − b 2
− (5) = 10
5
2 2
a + b = 116

⇒ a = 10, b = 4

New digits: 2, 5, 13, 11, 9

4 + 26 + 169 + 121 + 81
Var = − 64
5

Var = 16

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 5 Consider the lines x(3λ + 1) + y(7λ + 2) = 17λ + 5, λ being a parameter, all passing
through a point P . One of these lines (say L) is farthest from the origin. If the distance of L
from the point (3, 6) is d, then the value of d is
2

241
 Option 1:
20

Option 2:
30

Option 3:
10

Option 4:
15

Correct Answer:
20

Solution:
x(3λ + 1) + y(7λ + 2) = 17λ + 5

(x + 2y − 5) + λ(3x + 7y − 17) = 0

L 1 + λL 2 = 0

⇒ P is intersection of L 1 &L 2 i.e. (1, 2)

y − 2 = m(x − 1)

mx − y + 2 − m = 0

2 − m
Distance f rom origin = = max
√1 + m 2

2y − 4 = −x + 1

For m = − 1

−1
∴ L = y − 2 = (x − 1)
2

L : x + 2y − 5 = 0

Now, d = 3+12−5

√5
=
10

√5

2 100
d = = 20
5

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 6 Let A = {−2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3}. let R be a relation on A defined by xRy if and only if
y = max{x, 1}. Let l be the number of elements in R. Let m and n be the minimum

number of elements required to be added in R to make it a reflexive and symmetric

relations, respectively. Then l + m + n is equal to

242
 Option 1:
12

Option 2:
11

Option 3:
13

Option 4:
14

Correct Answer:
12

Solution:
A = {−2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3}

xRy ⇔ y = max{x, 1}

∴ R = {(−2, 1), (−1, 1), (0, 1), (1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3)}

I = 6

Elements to be added to make it reflexive:

(−2, −2), (−1, −1), (0, 0)

∴ m = 3

Elements to be added to make it symmetric:

(1, −2), (1, −1), (1, 0)

∴ n = 3

I + m + n = 12

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 7 Let the equation x(x + 2)(12 − k) = 2 have equal roots. Then the distance of the point
) from the line 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 is
k
(k,
2

Option 1:
15

243
 Option 2:
5√ 3

Option 3:
15√ 5

Option 4:
12

Correct Answer:
15

Solution:
2
2
x + 2x − = 0
12 − k

D = 0

−2
4 − 4( ) = 0
12 − k

2
1 + = 0
12 − k

⇒ k = 14

Point (14, 7)

3(14) + 4(7) + 5
Distance =
5

d = 15

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 8 Line L of slope 2 and line L of slope intersect at the origin O . In the first quadrant,
1 2
1

P ,P ,….P
1 2
are 12 points on line L and Q , Q , … . . Q are 9 points on line L .
12 1 1 2 9 2

Then the total number of triangles that can be formed having vertices at three of the 22
points O, P , P , … P , Q , Q , … Q , is:
1 2 12 1 2 9

Option 1:
1080

244
 Option 2:
1134

Option 3:
1026

Option 4:
1188

Correct Answer:
1134
Solution:
Total triangles

(2 points as y = , 1 point on y = )
x

2
x

+2 ( points and y = , 1 point on y = 2x )

x

+(1 point on y = 2x, 1) point on y = and origin) x

9 12 9 12 9 12 1
= C2 , C1 + C1 C2 + C1 ⋅ C1 ⋅ C1

= 1134

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 9 The integral ∫
π 8xdx
2 2
is equal to
0 4 cos x+sin x

Option 1:
2
2π

Option 2:
2
4π

245
 Option 3:
2
π

Option 4:
2
3π

Correct Answer:
2
2π

Solution:
π
8x
I = ∫ dx … (1)
2 2
0 4 cos x + sin x
π
8(π − x)
I = ∫ dx
2 2
0 4 cos (π − x) + sin (π − x)
π
8(π − x)
I = ∫ dx … (2)
2 2
0 4 cos x + sin x

Adding (1) and (2)

π
1
2I = 8π ∫ dx
2 2
0 4 cos x + sin x
π 2
sec x
I = 4π × 2 ∫ dx
2
0 4 tan x

Put tan x = t

2
sec xdx = dt
∞
dt
I = 8π ∫
2
0
4 + t

∞
1 −1
t
I = 8π (tan )
2 2
0

π
I = 4π ( )
2
2
I = 2π

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 10 Let f be a function such that f (x) + 3f ( 24

x
. Then f (3) + f (8) is equal to
) = 4x, x ≠ 0

246
 Option 1:
11

Option 2:
10

Option 3:
12

Option 4:
13

Correct Answer:
11

Solution:
24
f (x) + 3f ( ) = 4x, x ≠ 0. . . . . (1)
x

24
replace x by
x

24 24 24 96
f ( ) + 3f ( ) = 4( ) = … (2)
24
x x x
x

3 × (2) − (1)

96.3 36 x
⇒ 8f (x) = − 4x ⇒ f (x) = −
x x 2

3 36
f (3) + f (8) = (12 − ) + ( − 4)
2 8
36 12
= 8 + − = 11
8 8

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 11 The area of the region {(x, y) : |x − y| ≤ y ≤ 4√x} is

Option 1:
512

Option 2:
1024

247
 Option 3:
512

Option 4:
2048

Correct Answer:
1024

Solution:
|x − y| ≤ y ≤ 4√ x

64
x
Area = ∫ (4√ x − )dx
0
2

64
3/2 2
4x x
= − ]
3
4
2 0

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 12 If the domain of the function

2
f (x) = log 7 (1 − log 4 (x − 9x + 18)) is (α, β) ∪ (γ, δ),

then α + β + γ + δ is equal to

Option 1:
18

Option 2:
16

Option 3:
15

248
 Option 4:
17

Correct Answer:
18
Solution:
2
1 − log 4 (x − 9x + 18) > 0

2
log 4 (x − 9x + 18) < 1

2
x − 9x + 18 < 4

2
x − 9x + 14 < 0

x ∈ (2, 7)

2
x − 9x + 18 > 0

x ∈ (−∞, 3) ∪ (6, ∞)

x ∈ (2, 3) ∪ (6, 7)

α + β + γ + δ = 18

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 13 If the probability that the random variable X takes the value x is given by
P(X = x) = k(x + 1)3
−x
, x = 0, 1, 2, 3 … …., where k is a constant, then P(X ≥ 3) is
equal to

Option 1:
7

27

Option 2:
4

Option 3:
8

27

249
 Option 4:
1

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
k 2k 3k
s = + + + …
0 2
3 3 3

s k 2k
= + + …
3 3 32

s k k
s − = k + + + …
2
3 3 3

2s 1 1
= k (1 + + + …)
3 3 32

2s 1 3k
= k × =
1
3 1 − 2
3

9k
s = = 1 (Total probability)
4
4
k =
9

P (x ≥ 3) = 1 − (P (x = 0) + P (x = 1) + P (x = 2))

2k 3k
= 1 − (k + + )
3 32

= 1 − 2k

4
= 1 − 2 ×
9

1
=
9

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 14 Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation dy

+ 3 (tan
2
x)y + 3y = sec
2
x ,
dx

+ e . Then y ( ) is equal to
1 3 π
y(0) =
3 4

Option 1:
2

250
 Option 2:
4

Option 3:
4 3
+ e
3

Option 4:
2 3
+ e
3

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
dy 2 2
+ 3 (tan x)y + 3y = sec x
dx

dy 2 2
⇒ + 3 sec xy = sec x
dx
2
∫ 3 sec xdx
I.F = e

= e
3 tan x
Also f (0) = 1

3
+ e
3
.
tan x 3 tan x 2
y ⋅ e = ∫ e ⋅ sec xdx + c

3 tan x
3 tan x
e
y ⋅ e = + c
3
1
3
Also f (0) = + e
3

1 3
1
⇒ ( + e ) = + c
3 3

3
⇒ c = e

3 tan x
3 tan x
e 3
∴ y ⋅ e = + e
3
π
Put x =
4
3
e 4
3 3
ye = + e ⇒ y =
3 3

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 15 If z 1, z2 , z3 ∈ C are the vertices of an equilateral triangle, whose centroid is z , then

0

) is equal to
3 2
∑ k=1 (z k − z 0

251
 Option 1:
0

Option 2:
1

Option 3:
i

Option 4:
-i

Correct Answer:
0

Solution:

z0 = z1 + z2 + z3

2 2 2 2
∑ (z k − z 0 ) = (z 1 − z 0 ) + (z 2 − z 0 ) + (z 3 − z 0 )

k=1

Let is origin ⇒
0 1
, 2
, 3
lies on a circle having |z 0
− zi | = R

i2π/3 i4π/3 i6π/3

∴ z 1 = Re z 2 = Re z 3 = Re

2 2 2 2 i4π/3 i8π/3 i12π/3

⇒ z1 + z2 + z3 = R [e + e + e ]

= 0

3
2
∴ ∑ (z k − z 0 ) = 0

k=1

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 16 The number of solutions of equation (4 − √3) sin x

] is
2 4 5π
−2√ 3 cos x = − , x ∈ [−2π,
2
1+√ 3

Option 1:
4

252
 Option 2:
3

Option 3:
6

Option 4:
5

Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
2
−4
(4 − √ 3) sin x − 2√ 3 cos x =
(1 + √ 3)

2 2
Let sin x = t ⇒ cos x = 1 − t

−4
2
(4 − √ 3)t − 2√ 3 (1 − t ) =
(1 + √ 3)

2
4
⇒ 2√ 3t + (4 − √ 3)t − 2√ 3 + = 0
1 + √3

(−2√ 3 − 2)
2
2√ 3t + (4 − √ 3)t + = 0
(1 + √ 3)

2
2√ 3t + (4 − √ 3)t − 2 = 0

(√ 3 − 4) ± √ 19 − 8√ 3 + 8(2√ 3)
⇒ t =
4√ 3

(√ 3 − 4) ± √ 19 + 8√ 3 (√ 3 − 4) ± (√ 3 + 4)
t = =
4√ 3 4√ 3

2√ 3 −8
= ( ) or
4√ 3 4√ 3

1 −2 1
⇒ sin x = or < −1 ⇒ only sin x =
2 √3 2

5π
⇒ 5 solutions in x ∈ [−2π, ]
2

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

253
 Q. 17 Let C be the circle of minimum area enclosing the ellipse E : x
+
2
y
2

= 1 with eccentricity
2 2
a b
1

2
and foci (±2, 0). Let P QR be a variable triangle, whose vertex P is on the circle C and the
side QR of length 29 is parallel to the major axis of E and contains the point of intersection of
E with the negative y-axis. Then the maximum area of the triangle P QR is :

Option 1:
6(3 + √ 2)

Option 2:
8(3 + √ 2)

Option 3:
62 + √ 3

Option 4:
8(2 + √ 3)

Correct Answer:
8(2 + √ 3)

Solution:

1
Area = × (a + b) ⋅ 2a = a(a + b)
2

Since, e = 1

2
ae = 2

⇒ a = 4, b = 2√ 3

⇒ Area = 4(4 + 2√ 3)

= 8(2 + √ 3)

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

254
 Q. 18 The shortest distance between the curves y 2
= 8x and x 2
+ y
2
+ 12y + 35 = 0 is :

Option 1:
2√ 3 − 1

Option 2:
√2

Option 3:
3√ 2 − 1

Option 4:
2√ 2 − 1

Correct Answer:
2√ 2 − 1

Solution:
Equation of normal: y = mx − 2am − am 3
(a = 2) y = mx − 4m − 2m
3

centre of circle: c(0, −6), radius = 1

3
− 6 = −4m − 2m

⇒ m = 1

2
P (am , −2am)

= P (2, −4)

Shortest distance: CP - r

= √4 + 4 − 1

= 2√ 2 − 1

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 19 The distance of the point (7, 10, 11) from the line x−4
=
y−4
=
z−2
along the line
1 0 3

x−9

2
=
y−13

3
=
z−17

6
is

255
 Option 1:
18

Option 2:
14

Option 3:
12

Option 4:
16

Correct Answer:
14

Solution:
Equation of line passing through P (7, 10, 11) along the line x−9

2
=
y−13

3
=
z−17

6
is
x−7 y−10 z−11
= = = λ
2 3 6

Let the point on the line be

Q(2λ + 7, 3λ + 10, 6λ + 11)

Q lies on line x−4

1
=
y−4

0
=
z−2

3λ + 10 = 4 ⇒ λ = −2

∴ Q(3, 4, −1)

P Q = √ 16 + 36 + 144 = 14

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 20 The sum 1 + 1+3

2!
+
1+3+5

3!
+
1+3+5+7

4!
+ … upto ∞ terms, is equal to

Option 1:
6e

Option 2:
4e

256
 Option 3:
3e

Option 4:
2e

Correct Answer:
2e

Solution:
2
r r (r − 1) + 1 1 1
Tr = = = = +
r! (r − 1)! (r − 1)! (r − 2)! (r − 1)!
∞ ∞
1 1
∑ Tr = ∑ + = e + e = 2e
(r − 2)! (r − 1)!
r=1 r=1

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 21 ⎡
λ 2 3
⎤
Let I be the identity matrix of order 3 × 3 and for the matrix A = 4 5 6 , |A| = −1

⎣ ⎦
7 −1 2

. Let B be the inverse of the matrix adj (A adj (A 2

. Then |(λB + 1)| is equal to _______.
))

Correct Answer:
38

Solution:

257
Adj (A ) = (adj A)

= A(|A|A

⇒ B = (adj (A

⇒ B = −A

|A| = −1 =

|3B + η| =

=
|A − 3I |

−1

⇒∣ 3B + η = 38

Correct Answer:
239

Solution:

∣
B = [adj (A adj (A ))]

−1

−1
)

I − 3A

=
2

Let f (x) = (1 + x + x ) = ∑ a
The sum of odd coefficients: S

S odd =
f (1) − f (−1)

f (1) = (1 + 1 + 1)

f (−1) = (1 − 1 + 1)

S odd = ∑ ar =

Now for a
odd r

2
2

2
= |A|

−1

7
2

−1
2

))

−1

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 22 Let (1 + x + x

= a
−1

−1

−1

2
(A

Subtracting 11a from above will give the answer

3
10

10
= 3

10

2
− 1
−1

= ( (A

2
= −1 ⇒ λ = 3

10

= (1)
10
)

(a 1 + a 3 + a 5 + … . +a 19 ) − 11a 2
−1

10

odd
) = A

|A| I − 3A

10
2
⇒ A adj (A ) = A adj(A) ⋅ (adj A)

2 −1

−1

|A|

= 38
−1

) A)
−1

−1

= a0 + a1 x + a2 x

20

r=0

= 1
1
r
x
r
=

=
A

−1
−1

|A − 3| ∣

2
|A|

+ a 3 + a 5 + ⋯ +a 19
= −A
−1

. If
+ … . +a 20 x
20

= 121k, then k is equal to _____.

258
 3 10
3 3 (1−x )
2 1−x 1−x
1 + x + x = ⇒ f (x) = ( ) = 10
1−x 1−x (1−x)

Now use:
10
10 10
3 k 3k
(1 − x ) = ∑(−1) ( )x
k
x=0

−10
r + 9 r
(1 − x) = ∑( )x
9
r=0

So
10 k 10 3k ∞ r+9 r
f (x) = (∑ (−1) ( )x ) ⋅ (∑ ( )x )
k=0 k r=0 9

Only the term with x from the first sum (i.e., k = 0 ) can contribute to x , since all other k ≥ 1 gives
0 2

3k 3
x ≥ x

From (1 − x ) : the x term is ( ) = 1

10 10
3 0

From (1 − x) −10
: the coefficient of x is
2

2+9 11
( ) = ( ) = 55
9 9

Hence, a 2 = 1.55 = 55

10
3 − 1
Now, Sodd − 11a 2 = − 11 ⋅ 55 = 121k
2
10
3 = 59049

So:
59049−1 59048
S = − 605 = − 605
2 2

= 29524 − 605 = 28919

So:
28919
121k = 28919 ⇒ k = = 239
121

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 23 1

If Lim x→0
(
tan x

x
) x2
= p , then 96 log c
p is equal to ______.

Correct Answer:
32

259
Solution:
1
tan x 2
lim x→0 ( ) x
= p
x

∵ Form: 1 ∞

tan x 1
lim x→0 ( −1)
⇒ p = e x x2

tan x−x
lim x→0 ( )
3
= e x

3
x 2 5
x+ + x +…−x 1
3 15
lim x→0 ( )=e 3
3
x

= e

1
⇒ log e p =
3

⇒ 96 log e p = 32

Hence, the answer is 32.

Q. 24 ^ →
→ →
→ = ^i + 2^j + k,
Let a b = 3^ j + 3k, c = 2^
i − 3^
^
j + 2k and d be a vector such that
i −^
^

→ → → → → → → →
b × d = c × d and a ⋅ d = 4. Then |(a × d)| is equal to ______.
2

Correct Answer:
128

Solution:
→b × d→ = c→ × d→ ⇒ (→b − c→) × d→ = 0
⇒
→ →) is parallel to d→
(b − c

⇒
→
d = λ(^
i − 2^
^
j + k)

∵ → →
a ⋅ d = 4

⇒ λ − 4λ + λ = 4

⇒ λ = −2 ⇒ d = −2^
i + 4^ ^
j − 2k →
^ ^ ^
i j k

→
a × d =
→ 1 2 1 = −8^
i + 0^
^
j + 8k

−2 4 −2

→
|a × d|
→ 2
= 128

Hence, the answer is 128.

260
 Q. 25 If the equation of the hyperbola with foci (4, 2) and (8, 2) is 3x 2
− y
2
− αx + βy + γ = 0 ,
then α + β + γ is equal to ________.

Correct Answer:
141

Solution:

2 2

Given
(x−6) (y−2)

2
− 2
= 1
a b

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
⇒ b x − a y − 12xb + 4ya + 36b − 4a − a b = 0

Comparing
2 2
b 2
b
= 3 ⇒ e = 1 +
a2 a2
2
⇒ e = 4

⇒ e = 2

Similarly, 2ae = 4

⇒a = 1 ⇒ b = √ 3

2 2
(x − 6) (y − 2)
− = 1
1 3
2 2
⇒3x − y − 36x + 4y + 108 − 4 − 3 = 0

2 2
⇒3x − y − 36x + 4y + 101 = 0

⇒α = 36, β = 4, γ = 101

⇒α + β + γ = 141

Hence, the answer is 141.

261
 JEE Main 2025

4 April - Shift 1
th

Question Paper with Solution

262
Physics
Q. 1 The mean free path and the average speed of oxygen molecules at 300 K and 1 atm are
m and 600 m/s, respectively. Find the frequency of its collisions.
−7
3 × 10

Option 1:
10
2 × 10 /s

Option 2:
5
9 × 10 /s

Option 3:
9
2 × 10 /s

Option 4:
8
5 × 10 /s

Correct Answer:
9
2 × 10 /s

Solution:
1 V avg
Frequency = =
T λ
600
9 −1
= = 2 × 10 sec
3 × 157

Hence, the answer is the option 3.

Q. 2 A small mirror of mass m is suspended by a massless thread of length l. Then the small
angle through which the thread will be deflected when a short pulse of laser of energy E
falls normal on the mirror
(c = speed of light in vacuum and g = acceleration due to gravity)

263
 Option 1:
3E
θ =
4mc√ gll

Option 2:
E
θ =
mc√ gl

Option 3:
E
θ =
2mc√ gl

Option 4:
2E
θ =
mc√ gl

Correct Answer:
2E
θ =
mc√ gl

Solution:

Force due to beam assuming complete reflection F = 2P

C
=
2

C
dE

dt
;P is power
So change in momentum of mirror.
2 2E
m( V − 0) = ∫ Fdt = ∫ dE =
C C

Now using work energy theorem ....(1)

W g = Δk

1
2
− mgℓ(1 − cos θ) = 0 − mv
2
2
2
θ v
gℓ (2 sin ) =
2 2

264
as θ is small
2 2
θ 1 4E
gℓ2( ) = 2 2
2 2 m c

(from eq. (1))

2
2
4E
gℓθ =
2 2
m c
2E
θ =
mc√ gℓ

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

Q. 3 Two liquids A and B have θ and θ as contact angles in a capillary tube. If

A B

K = cos θ / cos θ , then identify the correct statement:

A B

Option 1:
K is negative, then liquid A and liquid B have convex meniscus.

Option 2:
K is negative, then liquid A and liquid B have concave meniscus.

Option 3:
K is negative, then liquid A has concave meniscus and liquid B has convex meniscus

Option 4:
K is zero, then liquid A has convex meniscus and liquid B has concave meniscus.

Correct Answer:
K is negative, then liquid A has concave meniscus and liquid B has convex meniscus

Solution:
cos θ A
k =
cos θ B

It is negative when cos θ A

& cos θ B are of opposite sign.

Hence, the answer is the option 3.

265
 Q. 4 Which of the following are correct expression for torque acting on a body?
→ →
A. τ→ = r × L
→ →
B. τ→ = (r × p)
d

dt
→
→
C. τ→ = r × dp

dt

D. τ→ = I α
→
→ →
E. τ→ = r × F
→ →
( r = position vector; p = linear momentum;
→
L = → = angular acceleration;
angular momentum; α
→
I =moment of inertia; F = force; t = time)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
B, D and E Only

Option 2:
C and D Only

Option 3:
B, C, D and E Only

Option 4:
A, B, D and E Only

Correct Answer:
B, C, D and E Only

Solution:
Conceptual

Hence, the answer is the option 3.

Q. 5 In a Young's double slit experiment, the slits are separated by 0.2 mm. If the slits separation
is increased to 0.4 mm, the percentage change of the fringe width is:

266
 Option 1:
0%

Option 2:
100%

Option 3:
50%

Option 4:
25%

Correct Answer:
50%

Solution:
Dλ 1
β = ∝
d d

If d is doubled then β is half so 50% decrement.

Hence, the answer is the option 3.

Q. 6 An alternating current is represented by the equation,

i = 100√ 2 sin(100πt) ampere. The RMS value of current and the frequency of the given

alternating current are

Option 1:
100√ 2 A, 100 Hz

Option 2:
100
A, 100 Hz
√2

Option 3:
100 A, 50 Hz

267
 Option 4:
50√ 2 A, 50 Hz

Correct Answer:
100 A, 50 Hz

Solution:
i0
ir = = 100 A
√2

w 100π
f = = = 50 Hz
2π 2π

Hence, the answer is the option 3.

Q. 7 Consider the sound wave travelling in ideal gases of He, CH , and CO . All the gases have
4 2

the same ratio , where P is the pressure and ρ is the density. The ratio of the speed of
P

sound through the gases v : v

He CH 4 : v
CO 2 is given by

Option 1:
7 5 4
√ : √ : √
5 3 3

Option 2:
5 4 7
√ : √ : √
3 3 5

Option 3:
5 4 4
√ : √ : √
3 3 3

Option 4:
4 5 7
√ : √ : √
3 3 5

Correct Answer:
5 4 4
√ : √ : √
3 3 3

Solution:

268
 γp 2
v sound = √ ⇒ γ = 1 +
ρ f

5 4
γ Hc = ; γ CH 4 = γ CO 2 ≈ 1.33 = ( Experimental data )
3 3

Hence, the answer is the option 3.

Q. 8 In an electromagnetic system, the quantity representing the ratio of electric flux and
magnetic flux has dimension of M L T A , where value of ' Q ' and ' R ' are
P Q R S

Option 1:
(3, −5)

Option 2:
(−2, 2)

Option 3:
(−2, 1)

Option 4:
(1, −1)

Correct Answer:
(1, −1)

Solution:
ϕE EA E
= =
ϕM BA B
−2
MℓT
B =
−1
ATLT
−3 −1
E ML A
−1
So [ ] = = LT
−2 −1
B MT A

Or

E
−1
E = c ⋅ B(c = Speed of light ) [ ] = LT
B

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

269
 Q. 9 When an object is placed 40 cm away from a spherical mirror an image of magnification 1
is
2

produced. To obtain an image with magnification of , the object is to be moved:

1

Option 1:
40 cm away from the mirror.

Option 2:
80 cm away from the mirror.

Option 3:
20 cm towards the mirror.

Option 4:
20 cm away from the mirror.

Correct Answer:
40 cm away from the mirror.

Solution:
1 f
m = =
2 f − u

1 f
=
2 f − (−40)

f + 40 = 2f ⇒ f = 40 cm

1 40
now m = =
3 40 − u

40 − u = 120 ⇒ u = −80

Hence, the answer is the option 1.

270
 Q. 10 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R

Assertion A: In photoelectric effect, on increasing the intensity of incident light the stopping
potential increases.

Reason R : Increase in intensity of light increases the rate of photoelectrons emitted,

provided the frequency of incident light is greater than threshold frequency.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below

Option 1:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Option 2:
A is false but R is true

Option 3:
A is true but R is false

Option 4:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer:
A is false but R is true

Solution:
hv−ϕ
Vs =
e

so stopping potential doesn't depend on Intensity

ηhv
I =
A

On increasing intensity no. of photons per sec. n increases so the no. of electrons.

Hence, the answer is the option 2.

271
 Q. 11 → →
If L and P represent the angular momentum and linear momentum respectively of a
→
particle of mass ' m ' having position vector r = a(^i cos ωt + ^j sin ωt). The direction of force
is

Option 1:
→
Opposite to the direction of r

Option 2:
→
Opposite to the direction of L

Option 3:
→
Opposite to the direction of P

Option 4:
→ →
Opposite to the direction of L × P

Correct Answer:
→
Opposite to the direction of r

Solution:
→ = −ω r→
a
2

→ →
∴ F opposite to r−

Hence, the answer is the option 1.

Q. 12 A body of mass m is suspended by two strings making angles θ and θ with the horizontal
1 2

ceiling with tensions T and T simultaneously. T and T are related by T = √3T . the
1 2 1 2 1 2

angles θ and θ are

1 2

272
 Option 1:
∘
θ 1 = 30 θ 2 = 60
∘
with T 2
=
3mg

Option 2:
∘
θ 1 = 60 θ 2 = 30
∘
with T 2
=
mg

Option 3:
∘
θ 1 = 45 θ 2 = 45
∘
with T 2
=
3mg

Option 4:
with T
∘ ∘ 4mg
θ 1 = 30 θ 2 = 60 2 =
5

Correct Answer:
with T
∘ ∘ mg
θ 1 = 60 θ 2 = 30 2 =
2

Solution:

T 1 sin θ 1 + T 2 sin θ 2 = mg& T 1 = √ 3 T 2

⇒ T 2 [√ 3 sin θ 1 + sin θ 2 ] = mg

∘ ∘
f or θ 1 = 60 &θ 2 = 30

mg
T2 =
2

Hence, the answer is the option 2.

Q. 13 Current passing through a wire as function of time is given as I (t) = 0.02t + 0.01 A. The
charge that will flow through the wire from t = 1 s to t = 2 s is :

Option 1:
0.06 C

273
 Option 2:
0.02 C

Option 3:
0.07 C

Option 4:
0.04 C

Correct Answer:
0.04 C
Solution:
q = ∫ idt

= ∫ (0.02t + 0.01)dt
0

2
2
t
q = [0.02 + 0.01t]
2
1

= 0.01(3) + 0.01(1) = 0.04C

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

Q. 14 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A : The kinetic energy needed to project a body of mass m from earth surface to
infinity is mgR, where R is the radius of earth.
1

Reason R : The maximum potential energy of a body is zero when it is projected to infinity
from earth surface.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below

Option 1:
A False but R is true

Option 2:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

274
 Option 3:
A is true but R is false

Option 4:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer:
A False but R is true

Solution:
1 2Gm
KE = m( ) = mgR
2 R

Assertion wrong
at ∞

U = 0

∴ Reason correct.

Hence, the answer is the option 1.

–
–
–
Q. 15
Y = ABC + AC The Boolean expression can be realised with which of the following gate
configurations.
A. One 3 -input AND gate, 3 NOT gates and one 2 input OR gate, One 2-input AND gate,
B. One 3-input AND gate, 1 NOT gate, One 2input NOR gate and one 2 -input OR gate
C. 3-input OR gate, 3 NOT gates and one 2-input AND gate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Option 1:
B, C Only

Option 2:
A,B Only

Option 3:
A, B, C Only

Option 4:
A. C Only

Correct Answer:
A,B Only

275
 Solution:

–
–
–
∵ A ⋅ C + A + C ≡ NOR gate

Hence, the answer is the option 2.

Q. 16 In an experiment with a closed organ pipe, it is filled with water by ( 1

5
) th of its volume. The
frequency of the fundamental note will change by

Option 1:
25%

Option 2:
20%

Option 3:
−20%

Option 4:
−25%

Correct Answer:
25%

Solution:

276
λ 1 = 4ℓ

v
f1 =
4ℓ

16ℓ
λ2 =
5

5 V
f2 =
16ℓ
V 1
Δf ( )
ℓ 16
= × 100 = 25%
V
f
4ℓ

Hence, the answer is the option 1.

Q. 17 Two simple pendulums having lengths l and l with negligible string mass undergo angular
1 2

displacements θ and θ , from their mean positions, respectively. If the angular

1 2

accelerations of both pendulums are same, then which expression is correct?

Option 1:
2 2
θ1 l2 = θ2 l1

Option 2:
θ1 l1 = θ2 l2

Option 3:
2 2
θ1 l = θ2 l
1 2

277
 Option 4:
θ1 l2 = θ2 l1

Correct Answer:
θ1 l2 = θ2 l1

Solution:
g
ω = √
ℓ
2
α = −ω θ

g g
∴ θ1 = θ2
ℓ1 ℓ2

⇒ θ1 ℓ2 = θ2 ℓ2

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

Q. 18 Two infinite identical charged sheets and a charged spherical body of charge density ' ρ ' are
arranged as shown in figure. Then the correct relation between the electrical fields at
A, B, C and D points is :

Option 1:
→ → → →
EA = EB ; EC = ED

Option 2:
→ → → →
EA > EB ; EC = ED

Option 3:
→ → → →
EC ≠ ED ; EA > EB

Option 4:
→ → → →
EA = EB ; EC > ED

Correct Answer:
→ → → →
EC ≠ ED ; EA > EB

278
Solution:
Conceptual

EC ≠ ED

EA > EB

Hence, the answer is the option 3.

Q. 19 Two small spherical balls of mass 10 g each with charges −2μC and 2μC, are attached to
two ends of very light rigid rod of length 20 cm . The arrangement is now placed near an
infinite nonconducting charge sheet with uniform charge density of 100μC/m such that
2

length of rod makes an angle of 30 with electric field generated by charge sheet. Net torque
∘

acting on the rod is:

(Take ε : 8.85 × 10 C /Nm )
0
−12 2 2

Option 1:
112 Nm

Option 2:
1.12 Nm

Option 3:
2.24 Nm

Option 4:
11.2 Nm

Correct Answer:
1.12 Nm

Solution:

279
 σ
E =
2ε 0

τ = PE sin θ

−6
−6
2 100 × 10 1
= [(2 × 10 )( )] [ ]( )
−12
10 2 × 8.85 × 10 2

10
= = 1.12Nm
8.85

Hence, the answer is the option 2.

Q. 20 Considering the Bohr model of hydrogen like atoms, the ratio of the ratio of the radius 5 th

orbit of the electron in Li and He is

2+ +

Option 1:
3

Option 2:
4

Option 3:
9

Option 4:
2

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:

280
 2
n
r = r ⋅
2
2+
f or Li

25
r5 = r ⋅
3
+
f or He

25
r5 = r ⋅
2
r Li 2+ 2
∴ =
r He ∗ 3

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

Q. 21 A circular ring and a solid sphere having same radius roll down on an inclined plane from
rest without slipping. The ratio of their velocities when reached at the bottom of the plane is
√
x

5
where x=_________.

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
Applying Mechanical Energy conservation :

ki + Ui = kf + Uf

2
1 k
2
⇒ 0 + Mgh = mv (1 + ) + 0
2
2 R

2gh
⇒ V = √
2
k
1 + 2
R

So Ratio of velocities

2
V Ring 1 + 7
5
√
= = √
V solids sphere
1 + 1 10

x = 3.5 Rounding of f x = 4

Hence, the answer is 4.

281
 Q. 22 Two slabs with square cross section of different materials (1, 2) with equal sides (l) and
thickness d and d such that d = 2 d and l > d . Considering lower edges of these
1 2 2 1 2

slabs are fixed to the floor, we apply equal shearing force on the narrow faces. The angle of
deformation is θ = 2θ . If the shear moduli of material 1 is 4 × 10 N/m , then shear
2 1
9 2

moduli of material 2 is x × 10 N/m , where value of x is________.

9 2

Option 1:
1

Option 2:
---

Option 3:
---

Option 4:
---

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
Deformation angle

2θ 1 = θ 2

σ1 σ2
⇒ 2 =
η1 η2

F F
⇒ 2( ) =
ℓd 1 η 1 ℓd 2 η 2

η1 9
⇒ η2 = = 1 × 10 ⇒ x = 1
4

Hence, the answer is 1.

282
 Q. 23 Distance between object and its image (magnified by − ) is 30 cm . The focal length of the
1

mirror used is ( )cm, where magnitude of value of x is ________.

x

Correct Answer:
45

Solution:
1
M = −
3

−V −1 U
− = ⇒ V =
−U 3 3

Distance b/w object and image :

U − V = 30
μ
U − = 30
3

⇒ U = 45 V = 15

1 1 1 1 1
= + = − −
f V U 15 45

45
⇒ F =
4

x = 45

Hence, the answer is 45.

283
 Q. 24 Four capacitor each of capacitance 16μ F are connected as shown in the figure. The
capacitance between points A and B is : ________ (in μF ).

Correct Answer:
64

Solution:

C eq = 4C = 64

Hence, the answer is 64.

284
 Q. 25 Conductor wire ABCDE with each arm 10 cm in length is placed in magnetic field of 1

√2

Tesla, perpendicular to its plane. When conductor is pulled towards right with constant
velocity of 10 cm/s, induced emf between points A and E is ________mV.

B =
1

√2
Tesla

Correct Answer:
10

Solution:

As field is uniform we can replace the bent wire with straight wire from A to B.

So EMF :

ε = Bvℓ AB

1 10 cm ∘
= × × 2 (10 sin 45 )cm
√2 5

ε = 10mV

Hence, the answer is 10.

285
Chemistry
Q. 1 XY is the membrane / partition between two chambers 1 and 2 containing sugar solutions
of concentration c and c (c > c )molL . For the reverse osmosis to take place identify
1 2 1 2
−1

the correct condition

(Here p and p are pressures applied on chamber 1 and 2)
1 2

(A) Membrane/Partition ; Cellophane, p > π

1

(B) Membrane/Partition ; Porous. p > π

2

(C) Membrane/Partition ; Parchment paper, p 1 > π

(D) Membrane/Partition : Cellophane, p > π

2

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

Option 1:
B and D only

Option 2:
A and D only

Option 3:
A and C only

Option 4:
C only

Correct Answer:
A and C only

Solution:

286
Normal osmosis occurs from (2) to (1)
For reverse osmosis from (1) to (2)
Pressure : P > π
1

∴ Answer [A & C] only

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 2 Let us consider a reversible reaction at temperature, T .

In this reaction, both ΔH and ΔS were observed to have positive values. If the equilibrium
temperature is Te , then the reaction becomes spontaneous at :

Option 1:
T = Te

Option 2:
Te > T

Option 3:
T > Te

Option 4:
Te = 5 T

Correct Answer:
T > Te

Solution:
For reaction to be spontaneous according to 2 nd
law:

ΔG < 0

⇒ ΔH − TΔ S < 0

ΔH
⇒ T > ( ) = Te
Δ S

⇒ T > Te

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

287
 Q. 3 Which of the following molecules(s) show/s paramagnetic behavior ?
(A) O2

(B) N2

(C) F
2

(D) S
2

(E) Cl2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
B only

Option 2:
A & C only

Option 3:
A & E only

Option 4:
A & D only

Correct Answer:
A & D only

Solution:
No. of umpaired e −

(A) O 2
2
(B) N 2 0
(C) F 2
0
(D) S 2 2
(E) Cl 2
0
If species contain unpaired electron than it is paramagnetic.
So A & D are paramagnetic.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 4 Aldol condensation is a popular and classical method to prepare α, β-unsaturated carbonyl

compounds. This reaction can be both intermolecular and intramolecular. Predict which one
of the following is not a product of intramolecular aldol condensation?

288
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

289
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 5 One mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and reversibly from 10dm to 20dm at
3 3

300 K. ΔU, q and work done in the process respectively are :

Given : R = 8.3JK and mol

−1 −1

In 10 = 2.3
log 2 = 0.30

log 3 = 0.48

Option 1:
0, 21.84 kJ, −1.26 kJ

Option 2:
0, −17.18 kJ, 1.718 J

Option 3:
0, 21.84 kJ, 21, 84 kJ

Option 4:
0, 178 kJ, −1.718 kJ

Correct Answer:
0, 178 kJ, −1.718 kJ

Solution:

290
 ⟶
−
(10 L, 300 K) → (20 L, 300 K)
n=1

V2
− q = w = −nRT ln
V1

20
= −8.3 × 300 × ln ( )
10

= −1.718 kJ

⇒ q = 1.718 kJ

w = −1.718 kJ

ΔU = 0(∵ Δ T = 0)

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 6 Which one of the following complexes will have Δ 0 = 0 and μ = 5.96 B.M.?

Option 1:
4−
[Fe(CN) 6 ]

Option 2:
3+
[CO(NH 3 ) ]
6

Option 3:
4−
[FeF 6 ]

Option 4:
4−
[Mn(SCN) 6 ]

Correct Answer:
4−
[Mn(SCN) 6 ]

Solution:
(1) [Co(NH 3
) ]
6
3+
Co
3+ 6
⇒ 3 d 4 s
0

NH 3 is strong field ligand

= [−0.4 × 6 + 0.6 × (0)]Δ 0 = −2.4Δ 0

4−
[Mn(SCN) 6 ]
(2) 2+ 5 0
Mn ⇒ 3 d 4 s

291
μ = √ 35 B.M. = 5.96 B.M.

CFSE = (−0.4 × 3 + 0.6 × 2)Δ 0

So Δ 0 = 0

(3) [Fe(CN) 6 ]
−4
Fe
2+ 6
⇒ 3 d 4 s
0

μ = √ 24 B.M. = 4.89 B. M.

CFSE = (−0.4 × 4 + 0.6 × 2)Δ 0 = −1.2Δ 0

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 7 For A + B ⇌ 2AB
2 2

E for forward and backward reaction are 180 and 200 kJ mol respectively
−1
a

If catalyst lowers E for both reaction by 100 kJ mol . Which of the following statement is
a
−1

correct?

Option 1:
Catalyst does not alter the Gibbs energy change of a reaction.

Option 2:
Catalyst can cause non-spontaneous reactions to occur.

Option 3:
The enthalpy change for the reaction is +20 kJ mol . −1

Option 4:
The enthalpy change for the catalysed reaction is different from that of uncatalysed reaction.

Correct Answer:
Catalyst does not alter the Gibbs energy change of a reaction.

Solution:

292
A2 + B 2 ⇌ 2AB

−1
E f = 180 kJ mol

−1
E b = 200 kJ mol

−1
ΔH = E f − E b = −20 kJ mol

In presence of catalyst :
−1
E f = 180 − 100 = 80 kJ mol

−1
E b = 200 − 100 = 100 kJ mol

Catalyst does not change ΔH or ΔG of a reaction.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 8 Rate law for a reaction between A and B is given by

n m
R = k[ A] [ B]

If concentration of A is doubled and concentration of B is halved from their initial value, the
ratio of new rate of reaction to the initial rate of reaction ( r2

r1
) is

Option 1:
(n−m)
2

Option 2:
(n − m)

Option 3:
(m + n)

Option 4:
1
m+n
2

Correct Answer:
(n−m)
2

Solution:
n m
r 1 = k[A] [B]

Now A is doubled & B is halved in concentration

m
[B]
n n
⇒ r 2 = k2 [A] ⋅
m
2
r2 (n−m)
Now = 2
r1

293
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 9 Number of stereoisomers possible for the complexes, [CrCl 3

(py) 3 ] and [CrCl 2
(ox) 2 ]
3−

are respectively
(py = pyridine,ox = oxalate )

Option 1:
3&3

Option 2:
2&2

Option 3:
2&3

Option 4:
1&2

Correct Answer:
2&3

Solution:

Geometrical isomer = 2(1 cis + 1 trans )

Optical isomer = 3(2 optically active + 1 optically

inactive )

Stereoisomer = 3

294
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 10 The major product (A) formed in the following reaction sequence is

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

295
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

296
 Q. 11 On charging the lead storage battery, the oxidation state of lead changes from x to y at
1 1

the anode and from x to y at the cathode. The values of x , y , x , y are respectively :
2 2 1 1 2 2

Option 1:
+4,+2,0,+2

Option 2:
+2,0,+2,+4

Option 3:
0,+2,+4,+2

Option 4:
+2,0,0,+4

Correct Answer:
+2,0,+2,+4

Solution:
For charging of lead storage battery cell reaction is
2PbSO 4 ( s) + 2H 2 O(l) → Pb(s) + PbO 2 ( s) + 2H 2 SO 4 (aq) At anode PbSO reduced back to Pb
4

and at cathode PbSO oxidised back to PbO .

4 2

∵ x 1 = +2, y 1 = 0

x 2 = +2, y 2 = 4

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Given below are two statements : Q. 12

Statement I : Nitrogen forms oxides with +1 to +5 oxidation states due to the formation of
pπ − pπ bond with oxygen .
–
Statement II : Nitrogen does not form halides with +5 oxidation state due to the absence of
d-orbital in it.
In the light of given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Option 1:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false

297
 Option 3:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Correct Answer:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Solution:
In oxide of nitrogen it can achieve +5 oxidation state because it can form pπ − pπ bond with oxygen
e.g. N O
2 5

Nitrogen cannot form halide in +5 oxidation state because it does not contain d-orbital.
e.g. NX does not exist
5

X = halide

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 13 Benzene is treated with oleum to produce compound (X) which when further heated with
molten sodium hydroxide followed by acidification produces compound (Y).The compound Y
is treated with zinc metal to produce compound (Z).

Identify the structure of compound (Z) from the following option.

Option 1:

Option 2:

298
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 14 Identify the pair of reactants that upon reaction, with elimination of HCl will give rise to the
dipeptide Gly-Ala.

Option 1:

299
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

300
 Q. 15 Given below are the pairs of group 13 elements showing their relation in terms of atomic
radius.

(B < Al), (Al < Ga), (Ga < In) and (In < Tl)

Identify the elements present in the incorrect pair and in that pair find out the element ( X )
that has higher ionic radius (M ) that the other one. The atomic number of the element
3+

(X) is

Option 1:
31

Option 2:
49

Option 3:
13

Option 4:
81

Correct Answer:
31

Solution:
Size order

Al > Ga

3+ 3+
Al < Ga

Atomic number of Ga is 31

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 16 An organic compound (X) with molecular formula C H O is not readily oxidised. On

3 6

reduction it gives (C H O(Y) which reacts with HBr to give a bromide ( Z ) which is
3 8

converted to Grignard reagent. This Grinard reagent on reaction with (X) followed by
hydrolysis give 2,3-dimethylbutan-2-ol. Compounds (X), (Y) and (Z) respectively are :

Option 1:
CH 3 COCH 3 , CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH, CH 3 CH(Br)CH 3

301
 Option 2:
CH 3 COCH 3 , CH 3 CH(OH)CH 3 , CH 3 CH(Br)CH 3

Option 3:
CH 3 CH 2 CHO, CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH, CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Br

Option 4:
CH 3 CH 2 CHO, CH 3 CH = CH 2 , CH 3 CH(Br)CH 3

Correct Answer:
CH 3 COCH 3 , CH 3 CH(OH)CH 3 , CH 3 CH(Br)CH 3

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 17 Predict the major product of the following reaction sequence :-

302
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

303
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 18 Given below are two statements.

Statement I : The dipole moment of

is greater than

Statement II : C 1
–C 2 bond length of

is greater than C 1
–C 2

bond length of

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:

Option 1:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Option 3:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true

304
 Correct Answer:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Solution:

More charges and more distance between charges than other compound so more dipole moment.
Statement-I is true.
Statement - II :

C1 − C2 bond has partial double bond character that means lesser bond length than C 1
− C2 bond of
other compound.
Statement-II is false.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 19 Pair of transition metal ions having the same number of unpaired electrons is :

Option 1:
2+ 2+
V , Co

Option 2:
2+ 2+
Ti , Co

Option 3:
3+ 2+
Fe , Cr

Option 4:
3+ 2+
Ti , Mn

Correct Answer:
2+ 2+
V , Co

305
Solution:
Configuration No. of unpaired e −

(1) V
3+
⇒
3
[Ar]3 d 4 s
0
3
Co
2+
⇒
7
[Ar]3 d 4 s
0
3
(2) Ti
2+
⇒
2
[Ar]3 d 4 s
0
2
Co
2+
⇒
7
[Ar]3 d 4 s
0
3
(3) Fe
3+
⇒
5
[Ar]3 d 4 s
0
5
Cr
2+
⇒
4
[Ar]3 d 4 s
0
4
(4) Ti
3+
⇒
1
[Ar]3 d 4 s
0
1
Mn
2+
⇒
5
[Ar]3 d 4 s
0
5
So V 2+
&Co
2+
same number of unpaired electron.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 20 Which one of the following about an electron occupying the 1 s orbital in a hydrogen atom is
incorrect ? (Bohr's radius is represented by a )
0

Option 1:
The probability density of finding the electron is maximum at the nucleus

Option 2:
The electron can be found at a distance 2a from the nucleus
0

Option 3:
The 1s orbital is spherically symmetrical

Option 4:
The total energy of the electron is maximum when it is at a distance a0 from the nucleus

Correct Answer:
The total energy of the electron is maximum when it is at a distance a0 from the nucleus

Solution:

1. Ψ = Probability density is maximum at nucleus.

2

2. Electron can exist upto infinity from nucleus.

3. True
4. Energy of electron is maximum at infinite distance from nucleus.

306
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 21 In Dumas’ method for estimation of nitrogen 1g of an organic compound gave 150 mL of

nitrogen collected at 300K temperature and 900 mm Hg pressure. The percentage
composition of nitrogen in the compound is _____ % (nearest integer).
(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15mm Hg)

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Partial pressure of N 2 = (900 − 15) = 885 mmHg

885

Mole of N
( ×0.15)
760
2 = = 0.0071moles
(0.0821×300)

% of nitrogen in organic compound

(0.0071 × 28)
= × 10
1

= 19.85%

Hence, the answer is 19.85%

Q. 22 KM nO 4 acts as an oxidising agent in acidic medium. ‘X’ is the difference between the
oxidation states of Mn in reactant and product. ‘Y’ is the number of ‘d’ electrons present in
the brown red precipitate formed at the end of the acetate ion test with neutral ferric
chloride. The value of X + Y is _________.

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
X is difference in oxidation state.
7–2=5
So X = 5

307
 ⊖ 3+
6CH 3 COO + Fe + H2 O
⊕ ⊕
→ [Fe 3 (OH 2 )(CH 3 COO) ] + 2H
6

⊕
[Fe 3 (OH) 2 (CH 3 COO) 6 ] + 4H 2 O

⊕
→ [Fe(OH) 2 (CH 3 COO] + CH 3 COOH + H

Brown red ppt

Fe
3+ 5
⇒ 3 d 4 s
0
contains 5 d electrons
So Y = 5

X + Y = 5 + 5 = 10

Hence, the correct answer is 10.

Q. 23 Fortification of food with iron is done using FeSO ⋅ 7H O. The mass in grams of the
4 2

FeSO ⋅ 7H O required to achieve 12 ppm of iron in 150 kg of wheat is _________ (Nearest

4 2

integer)
[Given : Molar mass of Fe, S and O respectively are 56,32 and 16 g mol ]
−1

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Let mass of iron = w g
w 6
⇒ × 10 = 12
3
150 × 10
−3
⇒ w = 150 × 12 × 10 = 1.8gm

Let mass of FeSO 4 ⋅ 7H 2 O = w 1 gm

1.8 w1
⇒ Moles of Fe = = ( )
56 56 + 96 + 7 × 18

⇒ w 1 = 8.935gm

Hence, the answer is 8.935gm

Q. 24 The pH of a 0.01 M weak acid HX (K = 4 × 10 ) is found to be 5 . Now the acid solution

a
−10

is diluted with excess of water so that the pH of the solution changes to 6 . The new
concentration of the diluted weak acid is given as x × 10 M. The value of x is ___________
−4

(nearest integer)

308
 Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Given

Initial pH = 5 → [H +
] = 10
−5
M

Final pH = 6 → [H +
] = 10
−6
M

−10
K a = 4 × 10

Use the weak acid formula:

+ 2

+ [H ]
[H ] = √K a ⋅ C ⇒ C =
Ka

Substitute values:
2
−6
(10 ) −12
10 −3 −4
C = −10 = −10 = 2.5 × 10 = 25 × 10
4×10 4×10

Hence, the answer is 25 x 10-4

Q. 25 The total number of hydrogen bonds of a DNA-double Helix strand whose one strand has
the following sequence of bases is _________.
5’ – G – G-C-A-A-A-T-C-G-G-C-T-A-3’

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Two nucleic acid chains are wound about each other and held together by H bonds between pair of
bases.
Adenine from two hydrogen bonds with thymine and Guanine form three hydrogen bond with cytosine.
5' G–G–C–A–A–A–T–C–G–G–C–T–A–3'
In given DNA strand total seven guanine and cytosine bases which form total 21 H-bonds and six adenine
and thymine base which will form total 12 H-bonds with other DNA strand.
Total no. of H bonds = 7 × 3 + 6 × 2 = 33
Ans. 33

Hence, the answer is 33.

309
Maths
Q. 1 Let f , g : (1, ∞) → R be defined as f (x) = and g(x) =
2x+3

5x+2
2−3x

1−x
. If the range of the
function f ∘ g : [2, 4] → R is [α, β], then is equal to
1

β−α

Option 1:
68

Option 2:
29

Option 3:
2

Option 4:
56

Correct Answer:
56

Solution:
f og(x) = f (g(x))

2−3x
2 − 3x 2( ) + 3
1−x
= f ( ) =
2−3x
1 − x 5( ) + 2
1−x

4 − 6x + 3 − 3x 7 − 9x
= = ( )
10 − 15x + 2 − 2x 12 − 17x

12 − 7x ≠ 0
∴ [
12
x ≠
17

7−9(2) −11 1
⎡f og(2) = 12−17(2)
=
−22
=
2

7−9(4) −29 29
⎣f og(4) = = =
12−17(4) −56 56

Range of fog : [α, β] = [ 1

2
,
29

56
]

29 1 29 − 28 1
∴ (β − α) = − = =
56 2 56 56
1
= 56
(β − α)

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

310
 Q. 2 Consider the sets A = {(x, y) ∈ R × R : x 2
+ y
2
= 25} ,
B = {(x, y) ∈ R × R : x
2
+ 9y
2
, and
= 144}, C = {(x, y) ∈ Z × Z : x
2
+ y
2
≤ 4}

D = A ∩ B. The total number of one-to-one functions from the set D to the set C is:

Option 1:
15120

Option 2:
19320

Option 3:
17160

Option 4:
18290

Correct Answer:
17160

Solution:
2 2
A: x + y = 25 . . . . . . . (1)

2 2
x y
B : + = 1 . . . . . . . (2)
144 16
2 2
C : x + y ≤ 4 . . . . . . . (3)

Solve (1) \& (2)

2 2
x + 9 (25 − x ) = 144

2
− 8x = 144 − 225 = −81

9
x = ±
2√ 2

By(1) ⇒ y = ±√ 25 − x
2

81 √ 119
= ±√ 25 − = ±
8 2√ 2

∴ D = A ∩ B =

9 √ 119 9 √ 119 −9 √ 119 −9 −√ 119

{( , ), ( ,− ), ( , ), ( , )}
2√ 2 2√ 2 2√ 2 2√ 2 2√ 2 2√ 2 2√ 2 2√ 2

No. of elements in set D = 4

311
 2 2
∵ C = {(x, y) ∈ Z × Z : x + y ≤ 4}

= {(0, 2), (2, 0), (0, −2), (−2, 0), (1, 1), (−1, −1),

(1, −1), (−1, 1), (1, 0), (0, 1), (−1, 0), (0, −1),

(0, 0)}

No. of elements in set C = 13

Total no. of one-one functions from
Set D to sec C ⇒ 13 × 12 × 11 × 10 = 17160

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 3 Let A = {1, 6, 11, 16, …} and B = {9, 16, 23, 30, …} be the sets consisting of the first
2025 terms of two arithmetic progressions. Then n(A ∪ B) is

Option 1:
3814

Option 2:
4027

Option 3:
3761

Option 4:
4003

Correct Answer:
3761

Solution:

312
A = {1, 6, 11, 16, 21, 26, 31, 36, 41, 46, 51, 56, 61,

66, 71, 76, 81, 86, 91, … …}

B = {9, 16, 23, 30, 37, 44, 51, 58, 65, 72, 79, 86,

93, 100, … …}

A ∩ B = {16, 51, 86, … . }

For set ' A ' ⇒ T 2025 = 1 + (2025 − 1)(5) = 10121

For set 'B' ⇒ T 2025 = 9 + (2025 − 1)(7) = 14177

So, f or (A ∩ B) ⇒ T n = 16 + (n − 1)(35) ≤ 10121

10121−16
(n − 1) ≤ = 288.71
35

n ≤ 289.71 ⇒ n = 289

∴ n( A ∪ B) = n( A) + n( B) − n( A ∩ B)

= 2025 + 2025 − 289 = 3761

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 4 For an integer n ≥ 2, if the arithmetic mean of all coefficients in the binomial expansion of
(x + y)
2n−3
is 16 , then the distance of the point P (2n − 1, n − 4n) from the line
2

x + y = 8 is:

Option 1:
√2

Option 2:
2√ 2

Option 3:
5√ 2

Option 4:
3√ 2

Correct Answer:
3√ 2

Solution:
(2n − 3 + 1)
No. of terms in (x + y) (2n−3)
⇒ [
(2n − 2)

∴ sum of all coefficients = 2 2n−3

(Put x = y = 1 )
∴ Arithmetic mean of all coefficients

313
= (

⇒ 2

∴ PM =
2

2n − 2

2n−3

∴ P (2n − 1, n

x + y = 8

Option 1:
129

182

Option 2:
103

182

Option 3:
17

26

Option 4:
19

26

∣
2n−3

Correct Answer:
129

182

Solution:
) = 16

5
= 2 (n − 1) ⇒ n = 5

√2
2

9 + 5 − 8
− 4n) = (9, 5)

3 engineering +1 doctor +8 Prof →

=

3 engineering +2 doctors +7 Prof →

4 engineering +1 doctor +7 Prof →
4 engineering +2 doctors +6 Prof →
6

√2

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 5
=
3 × 2

4
√2

C3 ⋅
4

C4 ⋅
4
C3

C4
.

.
2

2
= 3√ 2

The probability of forming a 12-person committee from 4 engineers, 2 doctors, and 10

professors containing at least 3 engineers and at least 1 doctor is:

C1 ⋅

C2 ⋅

C1 ⋅

C2 ⋅
10

10

10

10
C 8 = 360

C 7 = 480

C 7 = 240

C 6 = 210

314
 Total = 1290
Required probability = 1290
16
C 12

1290
=
1820

129
=
182

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 6 Let the shortest distance between the lines x−3

=
y−α
=
z−3
and x+3
=
y+7
=
z−β
be
3 −1 1 −3 2 4

3√ 30. Then the positive value of 5α + β is

Option 1:
42

Option 2:
46

Option 3:
48

Option 4:
40

Correct Answer:
46

Solution:
A(3, α, 3)&B(−3, −7, β)

−→
^
BA = 6^
i + (α + 7)^
j + (3 − β)k

^
i ^
j ^
k
→ →
p × q = 3 −1 1

−3 2 4

− →
→ →
|BA ⋅ (p × q)|
= 3√ 30
→ →
|p × q|

2
36 + 15(α + 7) − 3(3 − β) = (3√ 30)

36 + 15α + 105 − 9 + 3β = 270

15α + 3β = 138

315
5α + β = 46

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 7 If lim x→1
+
(x−1)(6+λ cos(x−1))+μ sin(1−x)
, where λ, μ ∈ R, then λ + μ is equal to
= −1
3
(x−1)

Option 1:
18

Option 2:
20

Option 3:
19

Option 4:
17

Correct Answer:
18

Solution:
Put x = 1 + h

h(6 + λ cosh) − μ sinh

lim = −1
3
h→0 h
2 3
h h
h (6 + λ (1 − )) − μ (h − )
2! 3!

lim = −1
3
h→0 h

λ μ
6 + λ − μ = 0 and − + = −1
2 6

λ + μ = 18

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 8 Let f : [0, ∞) → R be differentiable function such that f (x) = 1 − 2x + ∫

x
e
x−t
f (t)dt
0

for all x ∈ [0, ∞).

Then the area of the region bounded by y = f (x) and the coordinate axes is

Option 1:
√5

316
 Option 2:
1

Option 3:
√2

Option 4:
2

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
x
x −t
y = 1 − 2x + e ∫ e f (t)dt
0
x
dy −x x x −t
= −2 + e ⋅ e f (x) + e ∫ e f (t)dt
dx 0

dy
= −2 + y + y + 2x − 1
dx

dy
− 2y = (2x − 3)
dx

−2x −2x
ye = ∫ (2x − 3)dx ⋅ e

−(2x − 3)
−2x −2x −2x
ye = e + ∫ e dx
2

−(2x − 3) 1
−2x −2x −2x
ye = e − e + c
2 2

3 1
f (0) = 1 ⇒ c = 1 − + = 0
2 2

(2x − 3) 1
y = − −
2 2

y = −x + 1

x + y = 1

1 1
area = (1)(1) =
2 2

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 9 Let A and B be two distinct points on the line L : = = . Both A and B are at a
x−6 y−7 z−7

3 2 −2

distance 2√17 from the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (1, 2, 3) on the line
−
−→ →
L. If O is the origin, then OA ⋅ OB is equal to:

317
 Option 1:
49

Option 2:
47

Option 3:
21

Option 4:
62

Correct Answer:
47

Solution:

−→ →
PQ ⋅ b = 0

⇒ 3(3λ + 5) + 2(2λ + 5) − 2(−2λ + 4)

⇒ 17λ = −17 ⇒ λ = −1

Q(3, 5, 9)

Let A(3μ + 6, 2μ + 7, −2μ + 7)

2 2 2
(3μ + 3) + (2μ + 2) + (−2μ − 2) = 68

2
⇒ μ + 2μ − 3 = 0μ = −3 or μ = 1

A(−3, 1, 13) and B(9, 9, 5)

−
−→ →
OA ⋅ OB = −27 + 9 + 65 = 47

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 10 Let f : R → R be a continuous function satisfying f (0) = 1 and f (2x) − f (x) = x for all
. If lim )} = G(x), then ∑ G (r ) is equal to
x 10 2
x ∈ R n→∞ {f (x) − f ( n r=1
2

Option 1:
540

318
 Option 2:
385

Option 3:
420

Option 4:
215

Correct Answer:
385
Solution:
f (2x) − f (x) = x

x x
f (x) − f ( ) =
2 2
x x x
f ( ) − f ( ) =
2 4 4
x x x
f ( ) − f ( ) =
4 8 8

x x x
f ( ) − f ( ) =
n−1 n n
2 2 2

n+1
x 1
f (x) − f ( ) = 2x (1 − ( ) )
n
2 2

n+1
x 1
f (x) + x − f ( ) = 2x (1 − ( ) )
n
2 2

n+1
x 1
lim (f (x) − f ( )) = lim (2x (1 − ( ) ) − x)
n
n→∞ 2 n→∞ 2

G(x) = x

10 10

2 2
∑ G (r ) = ∑ r = 385

r=1 r=1

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

319
 Q. 11 1 + 3 + 5
2
+ 7 + 9
2
+ … up to 40 terms is equal to

Option 1:
43890

Option 2:
41880

Option 3:
33980

Option 4:
40870

Correct Answer:
41880

Solution:
(1
2
+ 5
2
+ 9
2
+ … . . upto 20 terms ) + (3 + 7 + 11+ ... up to 20 terms)
20 20

2
= ∑(4r − 3) + ∑(4r − 1)

r=1 r=1

20

2
= ∑(4r − 3) + (4r − 1)

r=1

20

2
= 4 ∑ (4r − 5r + 2)

r=1

20 2 20 20
= 16 ∑ r − 20 ∑ r + 8∑ 1 = 41880
r=1 r=1 r=1

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 12 In the expansion of (√2 + 3 1

)
n

,n ∈ N, if the ratio of 15 th
term from the beginning to
3
√3

the 15 th
term from the end is 1

6
, then the value of n
C3 is:

Option 1:
4060

Option 2:
1040

320
 Option 3:
2300

Option 4:
4960

Correct Answer:
2300
Solution:
r
n−r
1
n 1/3
T r+1 = C r (2 ) ( )
1/3
3

r = 14

14
n−14
1
n 1/3
T 15 = C 14 (2 ) ( )
1/3
3

′
T 15 = 15
th
term from last is (n − 13) th
term from beginning.
n−14
14
′
1
n 1/3
T 15 = C n−14 (2 ) ( )
1/3
3
14
n−14
n 1/3 1
C 14 (2 ) ( )
T 15 3
1/3
1
⇒ = =
′ n−14
T 14
1
6
15 n 1/3
C n−14 (2 ) ( 1/3
)
3

n−28 n−28
1
1/3 1/3
= (2 ) (3 ) =
6
n−28
−1
= 6 3
= 6
n
= n = 25

So, n
C3 =
25
C 3 = 2300

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 13 Considering the principal values of the inverse trigonometric functions,

, is equal to
−1 √3 1 1 1
sin ( x + √ 1 − x 2 ), − < x <
2 2 2 √2

Option 1:
π −1
+ sin x
4

Option 2:
π −1
+ sin x
6

321
 Option 3:
−5π −1
− sin x
6

Option 4:
5π −1
− sin x
6

Correct Answer:
π −1
+ sin x
6

Solution:
√3 1 −1 1
−1
sin ( x + √ 1 − x 2 ), < x <
2 2 2 √2

−1
−π π
⇒ Let sin (x) = θ < θ <
6 4

⇒ x = sin θ, then

√3 1
−1
⇒ sin ( sin θ + cos θ)
2 2

−1
π π
⇒ sin (sin (θ + )) = θ +
6 6
π
−1
⇒ sin (x) +
6

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 14 →
Consider two vectors u = 3^i − ^j and v = 2^i + ^j − λk,
^
→
λ > 0. The angle between them is
→ →
given by cos . Let v→ = v→ → , where v→ is parallel to u and v is perpendicular to
−1 √5
( ) 1
+ v2 1 2
2√ 7

2
→ →
. Then the value v→ is equal to
2
u 1 + v2

Option 1:
23

Option 2:
14

Option 3:
25

Option 4:
10

322
→

→
⇒

⇒
14

⇒ λ

→2

∣
Correct Answer:

Solution:
u = 3^
i −^

→ →

→2
→
j, v = 2^

u ⋅ v

→→
|u||v|

→
v = v1 + v2

→2

→2
i +^

√ 10√ 5 + λ 2
2

→ →
^
j − λk,

= cos θ

⇒∣ v = v + v + 2v 1 ⋅ v 2
1

⇒ 14 = v 1 + v 2 + 0

⇒
→2
v1 +
→2
v1
2

= 14
=
√5

2√ 7

= 9 ⇒ λ = 3(∵ λ > 0)

→2

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 15

Option 1:
5

Option 2:
√5

Option 3:
√ 20

Option 4:
20
→
(∵ v 1 ⊥ v 2 )

Let the three sides of a triangle be on the lines 4x − 7y + 10 = 0, x + y = 5, and

7x + 4y = 15. Then the distance of its orthocentre from the orthocentre of the triangle

formed by the lines x = 0, y = 0 and x + y = 1 is

Correct Answer:
√5

Solution:

323
Since the triangle is a right angle, the orthocentre will be at the right angle vertex

7x + 4y = 15
> P.O.I B ≡ (1, 2)
7x + 7y + 10 = 0

distance between P and B = √5

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 16 x −x

The value of ∫ is equal to

1 (1+√ |x|−x)e +(√ |x|−x)e

x −x
dx
−1 e +e

Option 1:
2√ 2
3 −
3

Option 2:
2√ 2
2 +
3

Option 3:
2√ 2
1 −
3

Option 4:
2√ 2
1 +
3

Correct Answer:
2√ 2
1 +
3

324
Solution:
1 −x −(−x)
(1 + √ |−x| − (−x))e + (√ |−x| − (−x))e
I = ∫ dx
−x −(−x)
−1 e + e

1 −x x
(1 + √ |x| + x)e + (√ |x| + x)e
⇒ I = ∫ dx
x x
−1
e + e

1 x −x
(1 + √ |x| + x + √ |x| − x) (e + e )
⇒ 2I = ∫ dx
x −x
−1
(e + e )

⇒ 2I = ∫ (1 + √ |x| + x + √ |x| − x)dx

−1

⇒ 2I = 2 ∫ (1 + √ |x| + x + √ |x| − x)dx

0

⇒ 2I = 2 ∫ (1 + √ 2x + √ 0)dx
0

1
1
2√ 2 3/2
⇒ I = ∫ (1 + √ 2x)dx = [x + x ]
0
3
0

2√ 2
⇒ I = + 1
3

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 17 The length of the latus-rectum of the ellipse, whose foci are (2, 5) and (2, −3) and
eccentricity is , is 4

Option 1:
6

Option 2:
50

Option 3:
10

Option 4:
18

Correct Answer:
18

325
Solution:
2be = 8
be = 4

4
b( ) = 4 ⇒ b = 5
5

2 2 2
∵ c = b − a

2
16 = 25 − a ⇒ a = 3

2
2a 18
L.R. = =
b 5

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 18 Consider the equation x + 4x − n = 0, where n ∈ [20, 100] is a natural number. Then the
2

number of all distinct values of n, for which the given equation has integral roots, is equal to

Option 1:
7

Option 2:
8

Option 3:
6

Option 4:
5

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:

326
 2
x + 4x + 4 = n + 4

2
(x + 2) = n + 4

x = −2 ± √ n + 4

∵ 20 ≤ n ≤ 100

√ 24 ≤ √ n + 4 ≤ √ 104

⇒ √ n + 4 ∈ {5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

∴ '6' integral values of ' n ' are possible

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 19 A box contains 10 pens, of which 3 are defective. A sample of 2 pens is drawn at random,
and let X denote the number of defective pens. Then the variance of X is

Option 1:
11

15

Option 2:
28

75

Option 3:
2

15

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
28

75

Solution:
x x=0 x=1 x=2
7 7 3 3
C2 C1 C1 C2
P(x) 10 10 10
C2 C2 C2

7 2 3
μ = Σx i P (x i ) = 0 + + =
15 15 5

2
28
Variance (x) = ΣP i (x i − μ) =
75

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 20 If 10 sin 4
θ + 15 cos
4
θ = 6, then the value of 27 cosec
6
θ+8 sec
8
6
θ
is:
16 sec θ

327
 Option 1:
2

Option 2:
3

Option 3:
3

Option 4:
1

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
2 2
2 2
10(sin θ) + 15(1 − sin θ) = 6

2 2 2
Let sin θ = t ⇒ 10t + 15(1 − t) = 16

2 2
10t + 15 − 30t + 15t = 6

2
25t − 30t + 9 = 0

2
(5t − 3) = 0

2
3 2
2
sin θ = and cos θ =
5 5
125 125
27 × + 8 + 250 2
27 8
= =
4
5 125 × 5 5
16( )
2

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 21 If the area of the region {(x, y) : |x − 5| ≤ y ≤ 4√x} is A , then 3 A is equal to _______ .

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:

328
A = ∫

A = [

A =

A =

⇒
8

3
368

Option 1:
-

Option 2:
-

Option 3:
-

Option 4:
-
25

4x

3
3

2
3/2

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
4√xdx −

(125 − 1) − 208

∵ A is orthogonal matrix

∴ A

= 2( A

= 2 A
T

A
= A

3
= A

= I

let B = (A + I)

3
−1
25

⇒ 3A = 368

Hence, the answer is (368).

Q. 22
Let A =

−1

+ 3 A) − 6 A
3

⎢⎥
⎡

⎣
1

− 8 − 200
× 4 × 4 −

cos θ

sin θ

(∵ A

+ (A − I)
2
0

= A

3
1

− sin θ

cos θ

diagonal elements of the matrix (A + I)

− 6 A
)
× 20 × 20

0
⎤
. If for some θ ∈ (0, π), A
⎦

3
+ (A − I)
3
2

− 6 A
= A
T
, then the sum of the

is equal to __________.

329
B = 2I =

Option 1:
-

Option 2:
-

Option 3:
-

Option 4:
-

⎢⎥
⎡

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Let z = x + iy

A : |z − 2 − i| = 3
2

Then ∑
0

Hence, the answer is (6).

Q. 23

|(x − 2) + (y − 1)i| = 3

(x − 2)
2
+ (y − 1)

B = Re(z − iz) = 2

Re((x + y) + i(y − x)) = 2

x + y = 2
0

z∈S

On solving (1) and (2) we get

⎤

Now the sum of diagonal elements = 2 + 2 + 2 = 6

Let A = {z ∈ C : |z − 2 − i| = 3}, B = {z ∈ C
|z| is equal to ___________.

= 9
2

. . . . . . . (2)
. . . . . . (1)
: Re(z − iz) = 2} and S .
= A ∩ B

330
 3 ± √ 17 1 ∓ √ 17
x = ,y =
2 2

2
1
∑ |z| = [2 × 26 + 2 × 18]
4
z∈ s

88
⇒ = 22
4

Hence, the answer is (22).

Q. 24 Let C be the circle x + (y − 1) = 2, E and E be two ellipses whose centres lie at the
2 2
1 2

origin and major axes lie on x -axis and y -axis respectively.

Let the straight line x + y = 3 touch the curves C , E and E at P (x , y ), Q (x

1 2 1 1 2, y2 ) and
R (x , y ) respectively. Given that P is the mid-point of the line segment QR and
3 3

PQ = , the value of 9 (x y + x y + x y ) is equal to __________ .

2√ 2

3
1 1 2 2 3 3

Option 1:
-

Option 2:
-

Option 3:
-

Option 4:
-

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
2

Let E :
2
x y
1 2
+ 2
= 1, (a > b)
a b

2 2
x y
E2 : 2 + 2 = 1, (c < d)
c d

2 2
C : x + (y − 1) = 2

Equation of tangent at P (x 1, y1 )

xx 1 + y (y 1 − 1) = (y 1 + 1)

comparing with x + y = 3 we get P(1, 2)

∵ Now parametric equation of x + y = 3

331
(x−1) (y−2) 2√ 2 2√ 2
= = ± (∵ PQ = )
−1 1 3 3
( ) ( )
√2 √2

On solving we get Q ( , ), R ( 5

3
4

3
1

3
,
8

3
)

So, 9 (x y + x y + x y )
1 1 2 2 3 3

5 4 1 8
9 (2 + × + × )
3 3 3 3

⇒ 46

Hence, the answer is (46).

Q. 25 Let m and n be the number of points at which the function

}, x ∈ R, is not differentiable and not continuous,
3 5 21
f (x) = max {x, x , x , … … , x

respectively. Then m + n is equal to ___________ .

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
⎧ x, x < −1

21
x , −1 ≤ x < 0
f (x) = ⎨
x, 0 ≤ x < 1
⎩
21
x , x ≥ 1

f (x) is continuous everywhere.

∴ n = 0

⎧ 1, x < −1

20
21x , −1 ≤ x < 0
′
f (x) = ⎨
1, 0 < x < 1
⎩
20
21x , x ≥ 1

∴ f (x) is non-differentiable at x = −1, 0, 1

∴ m = 3

m + n = 3

Hence, the answer is (3).

332
 JEE Main 2025

4 April - Shift 2
th

Question Paper with Solution

333
Physics
Q. 1 A metallic ring is uniformly charged as shown in figure. AC and BD are two mutually
perpendicular diameters. Electric field due to arc AB at ' O ' is ' E in magnitude. What
would be the magnitude of electric field at ' O ' due to arc ABC ?

Option 1:
√ 2E

Option 2:
Zero

Option 3:
2E

Option 4:
E/2

Correct Answer:
√ 2E

Solution:

Hence, the answer is the option 1.

334
 Q. 2 A finite size object is placed normal to the principal axis at a distance of 30 cm from a convex
mirror of focal length 30 cm . A plane mirror is now placed in such a way that the image
produced by both the mirrors coincide with each other. The distance between the two
mirrors is :

Option 1:
7.5 cm

Option 2:
22.5 cm

Option 3:
45 cm

Option 4:
15 cm

Correct Answer:
7.5 cm

Solution:

1 1 1
+ =
v u f

1 1 1
+ =
v −30 30

v = 15

Distance = 7.5 cm

335
 Q. 3 Displacement of a wave is expressed as x(t) = 5 cos (628t + π
. The wavelength of the
)m
2

wave when its velocity is 300 m/s is :

(π = 3.14)

Option 1:
0.5 m

Option 2:
5m

Option 3:
3m

Option 4:
0.33 m

Correct Answer:
3m

Solution:
π
x = 5 cos (628t + )
2

2πf = 628

6.28f = 628

f = 100H 2

v 300
λ = = = 3 m
f 100

Q. 4 In an electromagnetic system, a quantity defined as the ratio of electric dipole moment and
magnetic dipole moment has dimension of [M L T A ]. The value of P and Q are :
P Q R S

Option 1:
1, –1

Option 2:
–1, 0

Option 3:
0, –1

336
 Option 4:
–1, 1

Correct Answer:
0, –1
Solution:
1 PE
E =
3
4πε 0 r

μ0 Pm
B =
3
4π r

E 1 PE
= ⋅
B μ0 ε0 Pm

PE
−1 1
L T =
Pm

Q. 5 Consider a n-type semiconductor in which n and n are number of electrons and holes,
e h

respectively.
(A) Holes are minority carriers
(B) The dopant is a pentavalent atom
(C) n n ≠ n (where n is number of electrons or holes in semiconductor when it is
e h
2
i i

intrinsic form)
(D) n n ≥ n e h
2
i

(E) The holes are not generated due to the donors

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1:
(A), (B), (C) only

Option 2:
(A), (B), (E) only

Option 3:

(A), (C), (E) only

Option 4:
(A), (C), (D) only

Correct Answer:
(A), (B), (E) only

337
Solution:
ne nh = n
2
i
always holds true so option C, D are incorrect.

Q. 6 The displacement x versus time graph is shown below.

(A) The average velocity during 0 to 3 s is 10 m/s

(B) The average velocity during 3 to 5 s is 0 m/s
(C) The instantaneous velocity at t = 2 s is 5 m/s
(D) The average velocity during 5 to 7 s and instantaneous velocity at t = 6.5 s are equal
(E) The average velocity from t = 0 to t = 9 s is zero

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Option 1:
(B), (D), (E) only

Option 2:
(B), (C), (D) only

Option 3:
(A), (D), (E) only

Option 4:
(B), (C), (E) only

Correct Answer:
(B), (C), (E) only

Solution:
5
V avg t = 0 to t = 3 ⇒
3
0
V avg t = 3 to t = 5 ⇒ = 0
2

V at t = 2 is equal to slope = 5

From t = 5 to t = 7sec slope is not constant so avg velocity is not equal to instantaneous velocity.

338
 Q. 7 For the determination of refractive index of glass slab, a travelling microscope is used whose
main scale contains 300 equal divisions equals to 15 cm . The vernier scale attached to the
microscope has 25 divisions equals to 24 divisions of main scale. The least count (LC) of the
travelling microscope is (in cm)

Option 1:
0.0005

Option 2:
0.001

Option 3:
0.002

Option 4:
0.0025

Correct Answer:
0.002

Solution:
15
MSD = = 0.05 cm
300

25VSD = 24MSD

24
1VSD = MSD
25

LC = 1MSD − 1VSD

24
= (1 − )MSD
25

1
= × 0.05 cm
25

= 0.002 cm

339
 Q. 8 An object is kept at rest at a distance of 3R above the earth's surface where R is earth's
radius. The minimum speed with which it must be projected so that it does not return to
earth is
(Assume M = mass of earth, G = Universal gravitational constant)

Option 1:
2GM
√
R

Option 2:
GM
√
2R

Option 3:
GM
√
R

Option 4:
3GM
√
R

Correct Answer:
GM
√
2R

Solution:

KE i + PE i = KE g + PE g

1 2
GMm
mv − = 0 + 0
2 4R

GM 1
2
v =
R 2

GM
v = √
2R

340
 Q. 9 A wheel is rolling on a plane surface. The speed of a particle on the highest point of the rim
is 8 m/s. The speed of the particle on the rim of the wheel at the same level as the centre of
wheel, will be

Option 1:
8√ 2 m/s

Option 2:
4√ 2 m/s

Option 3:
8 m/s

Option 4:
4 m/s

Correct Answer:
4√ 2 m/s

Solution:

V + ωR = 8

2V = 8

V = 4

V P = √ 2V

= 4√ 2

341
 Q. 10 Two polarisers P and P are placed in such a way that the intensity of the transmitted light
1 2

will be zero. A third polariser P is inserted in between P and P , at particular angle

3 1 2

between P and P . The transmitted intensity of the light passing the through all three
2 3

polarisers is maximum. The angle between the polarisers P and P is

2 3

Option 1:
π

Option 2:
π

Option 3:
π

Option 4:
π

Correct Answer:
π

Solution:
2
I = l 0 cos θ

Angle between P and P is 90

1 2
∘

2 2
I = I 0 cos θ ⋅ cos (90 − θ)

2 2
I = I 0 cos θ ⋅ sin θ

I will be maximum at θ = 45 ∘

342
 Q. 11 Match List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II

(A) Isobaric (I) ΔQ = ΔW

(B) Isochoric (II) ΔQ = ΔU

(C) Adiabatic (III) ΔQ = zero

(D) Isothermal (IV) ΔQ = ΔU + P ΔV

ΔQ = Heat supplied
ΔW = Work done by the system

ΔU = Change in internal energy

P = Pressure of the system

ΔV = Change in volume of the system

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Option 2:
(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

Option 3:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

Option 4:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

Correct Answer:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

Solution:
ΔQ = ΔU + ∫ P dV
Isobaric ⇒
ΔQ = ΔU + P ΔV

Isochoric ⇒ ΔQ = ΔU

Adiabatic ⇒ ΔQ = 0

Isothermal ⇒ ΔQ = ΔW

343
 Q. 12 Consider a rectangular sheet of solid material of length / = 9 cm and width d = 4 cm. The
coefficient of linear expansion is α = 3.1 × 10 K at room temperature and one
−5 −1

atmospheric pressure. The mass of sheet m = 0.1 kg and the specific heat capacity
C = 900 J kg
v
−1
K
−1
. If the amount of heat supplied to the material is 8.1 × 10 J then
2

change in area of the rectangular sheet is

Option 1:
−7 2
4.0 × 10 m

Option 2:
−6 2
2.0 × 10 m

Option 3:
−7 2
6.0 × 10 m

Option 4:
−7 2
3.0 × 10 m

Correct Answer:
−6 2
2.0 × 10 m

Solution:
Q = mcΔT

2
8.1 × 10 = 900 × 0.1 × ΔT

ΔT = 9 K

ΔA = A ⋅ 2 ∝ ΔT

−5 −4
= 36 × 2 × 3.1 × 10 × 9 × 10

−6 2
= 2 × 10 m

Q. 13 A radioactive material P first decays into Q and then Q decays to non-radioactive material
R. Which of the following figure represents time dependent mass of P , Q and R ?

344
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
P → Q → R

Final mass of R will be equal to initial mass of P and mass of P is continuously decreasing with time

345
 Q. 14 Given below are two statements :
Statement (I): The dimensions of Planck's constant and angular momentum are same.
Statement (II) : In Bohr's model electron revolve around the nucleus only in those orbits for
which angular momentum is integral multiple of Planck's constant.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below.

Option 1:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Option 3:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Option 4:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Solution:
hv = E

2 −2
[h]T = ML T

2 −1
[h] = ML T

L = mvr

−1 2 −1
[ L] = M L T L = ML T

nh
mvr =
2π

Angular momentum is integral multiple of h

2π

Q. 15 There are n number of identical electric bulbs, each is designed to draw a power p
independently from the mains supply. They are now joined in series across the mains
supply. The total power drawn by the combination is

346
 Option 1:
p

Option 2:
np

Option 3:
p

Option 4:
p
2
n

Correct Answer:
p

Solution:
2
v
= p
R

R eq = nR

2 2
v v p
′
p = = ⇒
R eq nR n

Q. 16 Three parallel plate capacitors C , C and C each of capacitance 5μ F are connected as

1 2 3

shown in figure. The effective capacitance between points A and B, when the space
between the parallel plates of C capacitor is filled with a dielectric medium having dielectric
1

constant of 4 , is:

347
 Option 1:
30μ F

Option 2:
9μ F

Option 3:
22.5μ F

Option 4:
7.5μ F

Correct Answer:
9μ F

Solution:

KC ⋅ C
C eq = ( ) + C
KC + C

K
= ( )C + C
K + 1

4
= × 5 + 5 = 9μ F
5

Q. 17 A cylindrical rod of length 1 m and radius 4 cm is mounted vertically. It is subjected to a

shear force of 10 N at the top. Considering infinitesimally small displacement in the upper
5

edge, the angular displacement θ of the rod axis from its original position would be (shear
moduli, G = 10 N/m )
10 2

Option 1:
1

4π

348
 Option 2:
1

40π

Option 3:
1

2π

Option 4:
1

160π

Correct Answer:
1

40π

Solution:

F
= ηθ
A
5
10
= θ
−4 10
π16 × 10 × 10

Q. 18 From the combination of resistors with resistances values R = R = R = 5Ω and

1 2 3

R = 10Ω, which of the following combination is the best circuit to get an equivalent
4

resistance of 60Ω ?

Option 1:

349
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
R 1 = R 2 = R 3 = 5Ω and R 4
= 10Ω

(1)

15×10
R eq = = 6Ω
250

350
(2)

R eq = 2.5Ω

Q. 19 A block of mass 25 kg is pulled along a horizontal surface by a force at an angle 45 with the
∘

horizontal. The friction coefficient between the block and the surface is 0.25 . The block
travels at a uniform velocity. The work done by the applied force during a displacement of 5
m of the block is :

Option 1:
735 J

Option 2:
490 J

Option 3:
970 J

Option 4:
245 J

Correct Answer:
245 J

Solution:

351
 F
f =
√2

F F
μ (mg − ) =
√2 √2

1 F F
(245 − ) =
4 √2 √2

F
245 = 5
√2

F
= 45
√2

F
W = × 5
√2

= 245 J

Q. 20 There are two vessels filled with an ideal gas where volume of one is double the volume of
other. The large vessel contains the gas at 8 kPa at 1000 K while the smaller vessel contains
the gas at 7 kPa at 500 K . If the vessels are connected to each other by a thin tube allowing
the gas to flow and the temperature of both vessels is maintained at 600 K , at steady state
the pressure in the vessels will be (in kPa ).

Option 1:
18

Option 2:
6

Option 3:
24

Option 4:
4.4

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:

352
PV P1 V1 P2 V2
= +
T T1 T2

P .3V 8 × 2 V 7 × V
= +
600 1000 500

P = 6kPa

Q. 21 An inductor of self inductance 1 H is connected in series with a resistor of 100π ohm and an
ac supply of 100π volt, 50 Hz . Maximum current flowing in the circuit is ______ A.

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
X L = 2π × 50 × 1 = 100πΩ

Z = 100π√ 2Ω

100π√ 2
i max = = 1 A
100π√ 2

Q. 22 A particle of charge 1.6μC and mass 16μ g is present in a strong magnetic field of 6.28 T .
The particle is then fired perpendicular to magnetic field. The time required for the particle
to return to original location for the first time is ______ s. (π = 3.14)

Correct Answer:
0.1

Solution:
2B
w =
m
−9
2πm 2 × 3.14 × 16 × 10
T = =
−6
qB 1.6 × 10 × 6.28

T = 0.01sec

Answer is not integer

353
 Q. 23 If an optical medium possesses a relative permeability of and relative permittivity of
10

π
1

0.0885
, then the velocity of light is greater in vacuum than that in this medium by _____ times.
−7 −12
(μ 0 = 4π × 10 H/m, ∈ 0 = 8.85 × 10 F/m,

8
c = 3 × 10 m/s)

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:
10 1
μr = ϵr =
π 0.0885

1
c =
√μ 0 ϵ 0
1 1
v = = c
√μ r μ 0 ∈ r ∈ 0 √μ r ∈ r
c
v ≈
6

c ≃ 6v

Q. 24 A solid sphere with uniform density and radius R is rotating initially with constant angular
velocity ( ω ) about its diameter. After some time during the rotation its starts loosing mass
1

at a uniform rate, with no change in its shape. The angular velocity of the sphere when its
radius become R/2 is xω1. The value of x is ______ .

Correct Answer:
32

Solution:
Angular momentum will remain conserve.

I1 ω1 = I2 ω2

2
2 2 M R
2
M R ω1 = ( )( ) ω2
5 5 8 2

32ω 1 = ω 2

= 32

354
 Q. 25 In a Young's double slit experiment, two slits are located 1.5 mm apart. The distance of
screen from slits is 2 m and the wavelength of the source is 400 nm . If the 20 maxima of the
double slit pattern are contained within the central maximum of the single slit diffraction
pattern, then the width of each slit is x × 10 cm, where x-value is ______.
−3

Correct Answer:
15

Solution:
d = 1.5 mm

D = 2 m

λ = 400 nm

20λD 2λ
=
d a

d 1.5
a = = mm
10D 10
−3
150 × 10 cm
=
10
−3
= 15 × 10 cm

Chemistry
Q. 1 The correct order of basicity for the following molecules is :

Option 1:
P>Q>R

Option 2:
R>P>Q

Option 3:
Q>P>R

355
 Option 4:
R>Q>P

Correct Answer:
R>Q>P
Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 2 The incorrect relationship in the following pairs in relation to ionisation enthalpies is :

Option 1:
+ +
Mn < Cr

Option 2:
+ 2+
Mn < Mn

Option 3:
2+ 3+
Fe < Fe

Option 4:
2+ 2+
Mn < Fe

Correct Answer:
2+ 2+
Mn < Fe

Solution:
2+ 5
Mn : [Ar]3 d

Half filled stability

More 1 E than Fe 2+

2+ 6
Fe : [Ar]3 d

356
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 3 Which among the following compounds give yellow solid when reacted with NaOI/NaOH ?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(B), (C) and (E) Only

Option 2:
(A) and (C) Only

Option 3:
(C) and (D) Only

Option 4:
(A), (C) and (D) Only

Correct Answer:
(A) and (C) Only

Solution:

357
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 4 A dipeptide, " x " on complete hydrolysis gives " y " and " z ". " y " on treatment with aq.
HNO 2 produces lactic acid. On the other hand " z " on heating gives the following cyclic
molecule.

Based on the information given, the dipeptide X is:

Option 1:
valine-glycine

Option 2:
alanine-glycine

Option 3:
valine-leucine

Option 4:
alanine-alanine

Correct Answer:
alanine-glycine

Solution:

358
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 5 In which pairs, the first ion is more stable than the second?

Option 1:
(B) & (D) only

359
 Option 2:
(A) & (B) only

Option 3:
(B) & (C) only

Option 4:
(A) & (C) only

Correct Answer:
(A) & (B) only
Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

360
 Q. 6 Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : Alcohols are formed when alkyl chlorides are treated with aqueous
potassium hydroxide by elimination reaction.

Statement (II) : In alcoholic potassium hydroxide, alkyl chlorides form alkenes by

abstracting the hydrogen from the β-carbon.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :

Option 1:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Option 2:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Option 3:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Correct Answer:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Solution:
Statement (I) :
(aq,KOH)

R − Cl
− → R − OH ( S N reaction)

Statement (II) :

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

361
 Q. 7 Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : Molal depression constant K is given by , where symbols have their
M 1 RT f

r
ΔS f us

usual meaning.
Statement (II) : K for benzene is less than the K for water.
f f

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :

Option 1:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Option 3:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Option 4:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Solution:
Statement-I
2

Molar depression constant k

M i RT
f

f
=
ΔH f ius

M 1 RT f
kf =
ΔH f is
[ ]
Tf

M 1 RT f
kf =
Δ S f us

Hence statement-I is correct

but k for benzene = 5.12
∘
C
f
molal

k for water = 1.86 Hence statement- II is incorrect

∘
C
r
molal

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

362
 Q. 8 The IUPAC name of the following compound is -

Option 1:
4-Hydroxyhept-1-en-6-yne

Option 2:
4- Hydroxyhept-6-en-1-yne

Option 3:
Hept-6-en-1-yn-4-ol

Option 4:
Hept-1-en-6-yn-4-ol

Correct Answer:
Hept-1-en-6-yn-4-ol

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

363
 Q. 9 Match List-I with List-II -

List-I List-II
(Separation of) (Separation
Technique)

(A) Aniline from aniline-water mixture (I) Simple distillation

(B) Glycerol from spent-lye in the soap (II) Fractional distillation

industry

(C) Different fractions of crude oil in the (III) Distillation at reduced

petroleum industry pressure

(D) Chloroform- Aniline mixture (IV) Steam distillation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Option 2:
(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

Option 3:
(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Option 4:
(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

Correct Answer:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Solution:
(A) Aniline −H O : Steam Distillation
2

(B) Glycerol from spent-lye in soap industry

- Distillation under reduced pressure
(C) Different fraction of crude oil in petroleum industry - Fractional distillation
(D) CHCl - Aniline - Simple distillation
3

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

364
 Q. 10 A toxic compound “A” when reacted with NaCN in aqueous acidic medium yields an edible
cooking component and food preservative ‘B’. “B” i converted to “C” by diborane and can be
used as an additive to petrol to reduce emission. “C” upon reaction with oleum at 140°C
yields an inhalable anesthetic “D”. Identify “A”, “B”, “C” and “D”, respectively.

Option 1:
Methanol; formaldehyde; methyl chloride; chloroform

Option 2:
Ethanol; acetonitrile; ethylamine; ethylene

Option 3:
Methanol; acetic acid; ethanol; diethyl ether

Option 4:
Acetaldehyde;2- hydroxypropanoic acid propanoic acid; dipropyl ether

Correct Answer:
Methanol; acetic acid; ethanol; diethyl ether

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

365
 Q. 11 The correct order of [FeF ] , [CoF ] , [Ni(CO) ] and [Ni(CN)
6
3
6
3
4 4
]
2−
complex species
based on the number of unpaired electrons present is :

Option 1:
3− 3− 2−
[FeF 6 ] > [CoF 6 ] > [Ni(CN) 4 ] > [Ni(CO) 4 ]

Option 2:
2 3 3
[Ni(CN) 4 ] > [FeF 6 ] > [CoF 6 ] > [Ni(CO) 4 ]

Option 3:
3− 3− 2−
[CoF 6 ] > [FeF 6 ] > [Ni(CO) 4 ] > [Ni(CN) 4 ]

Option 4:
3− 3− 2−
[FeF 6 ] > [CoF 6 ] > [Ni(CN) 4 ] = [Ni(CO) 4 ]

Correct Answer:
3− 3− 2−
[FeF 6 ] > [CoF 6 ] > [Ni(CN) 4 ] = [Ni(CO) 4 ]

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

366
 Q. 12 Consider the given data :
(a) HCl(g) + 10H O(l) → HCl.10H
2 2
O

−1
ΔH = 69.01 kJ mol

(b) HCl(g) + 40H 2

O(l) → HCl.40H 2 O

−1
ΔH = −72.79 kJ mol

Choose the correct statement :

Option 1:
Dissolution of gas in water is an endothermic process

Option 2:
The heat of solution depends on the amount of solvent.

Option 3:
The heat of dilution for the HCl (HCl ⋅ 10H 2
O to HCl.40H 2
O ) is 3.78 kJ mol .
−1

Option 4:
The heat of formation of HCl solution is represented by both (a) and (b)

Correct Answer:
The heat of solution depends on the amount of solvent.

Solution:
From the given information
ΔH is negative so it means dissolution of gas HCl(g) is exothermic.

HCl( g) + 10H 2 O(l) → HCl ⋅ 10H 2 O ....(1)

kJ
ΔH 1 = −69.01
mol .......(2)
HCl( g) + 40H 2 O(l) → HCl ⋅ 40H 2 O

kJ
ΔH 2 = −72.79
mol

Hence heat of solution depends upon amount of solvent

By equation......... (2) - equation .....(1)

HCl.10H 2 O + 30H 2 O(ℓ) → HCl.40H 2 O

So Heat of dilution = −72.79 − (−69.01)

367
 kJ
= −3.78
mol

Hence option (3) is incorrect.

For heat of formation reactant should be in elemental form hence option (4) is incorrect

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 13 Consider the ground state of chromium atom (Z = 24). How many electrons are with
Azimuthal quantum number l = 1 and l = 2 respectively ?

Option 1:
12 and 4

Option 2:
16 and 4

Option 3:
12 and 5

Option 4:
16 and 5

Correct Answer:
12 and 5

Solution:
2 2 6 2 6 5 1
Cr : 1 s 2 s 2p 3 s 3p 3 d 4 s

ℓ = 1 ℓ = 1 ℓ = 2

electrons having ℓ = 1 ⇒ 12

electrons having ℓ = 2 ⇒ 5

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

368
 Q. 14 Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : The first ionisation enthalpy of group 14 elements is higher than the
corresponding elements of group 13.
Statement (II) : Melting points and boiling points of group 13 elements are in general much
higher than those the corresponding elements of group 14.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :

Option 1:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Option 2:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Option 3:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Solution:
Statement 1 is correct since left to right 1 E increases in general in periodic table.
Statement 2 is incorrect since M.P. of group 14 elements is more than group 13 elements.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

369
 Q. 15 Consider the following plots of log of rate constant k(log k) vs for three different
1

reactions. The correct order of activation energies of these reactions is

Option 1:
Ea 2 > Ea 1 > Ea 3

Option 2:
Ea 1 > Ea 3 > Ea 2

Option 3:
Ea 1 > Ea 2 > Ea 3

Option 4:
Ea 3 > Ea 2 > Ea 1

Correct Answer:
Ea 2 > Ea 1 > Ea 3

Solution:
−EaRT
K = A

Ea
log k = log A −
2.303RT

For graph between logk with 1

Ea
∣ Slope of curve =
2.303R

From given graph

Magnitude of slope ⇒ (2) > (1) > (3)
Hence Ea > Ea > Ea
2 1 3

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

370
 Q. 16 ' X ' is the number of electrons in t orbitals of the most stable complex ion among
28

[Fe(NH ) ] 3 , [Fe (Cl )] , [Fe(C O ) ] and [Fe(H O) ] . The nature of oxide of

6
3+
6
3−
2 4 3
3−
2 6
3+

vanadium of the type V O is: 2 x

Option 1:
Acidic

Option 2:
Neutral

Option 3:
Basic

Option 4:
Amphoteric

Correct Answer:
Amphoteric

Solution:
Most stable is [Fe(C 2 O4 )
3
]
3−
due to Chelation effect.

3−
[Fe(C 2 O 4 ) 3 ] : [Ar]

V2 O5 is amphoteric.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4)

Q. 17 The elements of Group 13 with the highest and lowest first ionization enthalpies are,
respectively:

Option 1:
B & Ga

371
 Option 2:
B & Tl

Option 3:
Tl & B

Option 4:
B & In

Correct Answer:
B & In
Solution:
IE order

B > Tℓ > Ga > Al > In

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 18 Consider the following molecule ( X ).

The structure of X is

Option 1:

372
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

373
 Q. 19 Given below are two statements:
Statement (I) : for ℓF , all three possible structures may be drawn as follows.
∙∙
∙∙ 3

Statement (II) : Structure III is most stable, as the orbitals having the lone pairs are axial,
where the ℓp − bp repulsion is minimum.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:

Option 1:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Option 2:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

Option 3:
Both Statement I and statement II are correct.

Option 4:
Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect.

Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

Solution:
Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect since in sp 3
d hybridization, a lone pair cannot occupy an axial position.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

374
 Q. 20 Half life of zero order reaction A → product is 1 hour, when initial concentration of reaction
is 2.0 mol L . The time required to decrease concentration of A from 0.50 to
−1

0.25 mol L
−1
is:

Option 1:
0.5 hour

Option 2:
4 hour

Option 3:
15 min

Option 4:
60 min

Correct Answer:
15 min

Solution:
For zero order reaction

A0
Half lif e =
2k
2
60 min =
2k

1
k = M/min
60

Now

A t = A o − kt

Ao − A1
t =
k

0.5 − 0.25
=
1/60

0.25 × 60

t = 15 min

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

375
 Q. 21 Sea water, which can be considered as a 6 molar (6M) solution of NaCl , has a density of
2 g mL . The concentration of dissolved oxygen (O ) in sea water is 5.8 ppm . Then the
−1
2

concentration of dissolved oxygen (O ) in sea water, is x × 10 m.

2
−4

x = ________.(Nearest integer)

Given: Molar mass of NaCl is 58.5 g mol −1

Molar mass of O is 32 g mol

2
−1

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Sea water is 6 Molar in NaCl, So 1000ml of sea

water contains 6 mol of NaCl.

mass of solution = Volume × density

= 1000 × 2

mass of solution = 2000 g

mass of O 2
6
ppm = × 10
2000
−3
mass of O 2 = 5.8 × 2 × 10

−2
= 1.16 × 10 g

−2
1.16 × 10 /32
molality f or O 2 = × 1000
(2000 − 6 × 58.5)

1.16 × 10
=
32 × 1649

= 0.000219

−4
= 2.19 × 10

Correct answer ⇒ 2

Hence, the answer is 2.

Q. 22 The amount of calcium oxide produced on heating 150 kg limestone ( 75% pure) is ______ kg.
(Nearest integer)
Given : Molar mass (in gmol ) of Ca − 40, O − 16, C − 12
−1

Correct Answer:
-

376
Solution:
CaCO 3 → CaO + CO 2

150 × 75
mass of CaCO 3 = = 112.5 kg
100

= 112500 g

n CaCO 3 = 1125

Somoles of CaO = 1125

1125 × 56
mass of CaO = = 63 kg
1000

Correct answer ⇒ 63

Hence, the answer is 63 kg.

Q. 23 A metal complex with a formula MCℓ ⋅ 3NH is involved in sp d hybridisation. It upon

4 3
3 2

reaction with excess of AgNO solution gives ' x ' moles of AgCl . Consider ' x ' is equal to
3

the number of lone pairs of electron present in central atom of BrF . Then the number of
5

geometrical isomers exhibited by the complex is ______ .

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:

1 lone pair hence 1 mole AgCl .

Complex is [M(NH 3)
3
Cl 3 ]Cl .

It shows 2 geometrical isomers ( Ma 3 b5 type ) facial (fac) & meridional (Mer)

Hence, the answer is 2.

Q. 24 The molar conductance of an infinitely dilute solution of ammonium chloride was found to
be 185 S cm mol and the ionic conductance of hydroxyl and chloride ions are 170 and
2 −1

70 S cm mol , respectively. If molar conductance of 0.02 M solution of ammonium

1

hydroxide is 85.5 S cm mol , its degree of dissociation is given by x × 10 . The value of

2 −1 −1

x is _______ (Nearest integer)

377
 Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
′′
λ of NH 4 Cl = 185
m
∘ ∘
(λ m ) + (λ m ) − = 185
NH 4 Cl

∘ 2 −1
(λ m ) = 185 − 70 = 115Scm mol
NH 4

∘ ∘ ∘
(λ ) = (λ ) ∘ + (λ ) −
m NH 4 OH m NH m OH
4

= 115 + 170

0 2 −1
(λ m ) = 285Scm mol
NH 4 OH

(λ m ) NH
4 OH
degree of dissociation =
∘
(λ m )
NH 4 OH

85.5
=
285

= 0.3

−1
= 3 × 10

Hence, the answer is 3.

Q. 25 x mg of Mg(OH) ( molar mass = 58) is required to be dissolved in 1.0 L of water to

2

produce a pH of 10.0 at 298 K . The value of x is ______ mg. (Nearest integer)

(Given : Mg(OH) is assumed to dissociate completely in H O )
2 2

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
pH = 10

pOH = 4

− −4
[OH ] = 10

no. of moles of OH −
= 10
−4

−4
10
−5
no. of moles of Mg(OH) 2 = = 5 × 10
2
−5 3
mass of Mg(OH) 2 = 5 × 10 × 58 × 10 mg

= 2.9

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

378
Maths
Q. 1 Let a > 0. If the function f (x) = 6x − 45ax + 108a x + 1 attains its local maximum and
3 2 2

minimum values at the points x and x respectively such that x x = 54 , then

1 2 1 2

a + x + x is equal to :-
1 2

Option 1:
15

Option 2:
18

Option 3:
24

Option 4:
13

Correct Answer:
18

Solution:
′ 2 2
f (x) = 18x − 90ax + 108a = 0

x = 2a&x = 3a

x 1 = 2a x 2 = 3a

x 1 x 2 = 54

2
6a = 54

a = 3

a + x1 + x2

3 + 2 × 3 + 3 × 3 = 18

Hence, the answer is option (2).

Q. 2 Let f be a differentiable function on R such that f (2) 1, f (2) = 4. Let

′

= e . Then the number of times the curve

3/x α
lim (f (2 + x))
x→0

y = 4x − 4x − 4(α − 7)x − α meets x -axis is :-

3 2

Option 1:
2

379
 Option 2:
1

Option 3:
0

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
3 (f (2+x)−1)3
lim x→0
lim (f (2 + x)) x
= e x

x→0

′
3f (2) 12 a
e = (e) = (e) ⇒ a = 12

3 2
y = 4x − 4x − 4(a − 7)x − a

3 2
y = 4x − 4x − 20x − 12

roots x = −1, −1, 3

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 3 The sum of the infinite series

cot
−1
(
7

4
) + cot
−1
(
19

4
) + cot
−1
(
39

4
) + cot
−1
(
67

4
. is :-
) + ….

Option 1:
π −1 1
+ tan ( )
2 2

Option 2:
π −1 1
− cot ( )
2 2

Option 3:
π −1 1
+ cot ( )
2 2

Option 4:
π −1 1
− tan ( )
2 2

Correct Answer:
π −1 1
− tan ( )
2 2

380
Solution:
4
−1
T n = tan ( )
2
4n + 3

1 1
(n + ) − (n − )
−1 2 2
T n = tan ( )
1 1
1 + (n + ) (n − )
2 2

−1
1 −1
1
T n = tan (n + ) − tan (n − )
2 2

−1
1 −1
1
T 1 + T 2 + … + T n = tan (n + ) − tan ( )
2 2

π 1
−1
S∞ = − tan ( )
2 2

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 4 Let A = {−3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3} and R be a relation on A defined by xRy if and only if
2x − y ∈ {0, 1}. Let l be the number of elements in R. Let m and n be the minimum

number of elements required to be added in R to make it reflexive and symmetric relations,

respectively. Then l + mn is equal to :-

Option 1:
18

Option 2:
17

Option 3:
15

Option 4:
16

Correct Answer:
17

Solution:
2x − y = 0

{0, 0}{−1, −2}{1, 2}

2x − y = 1

{0, −1}{1, 1}{2, 3}{−1, −3}

Total (0, 0)(−1, −2), (1, 2)(0, −1), (1, 1)(2, 3)(−1, −3)
Reflexive m = 5 &ℓ = 7

381
Symm. n = 5 ℓ + m + n = 17

Hence, the answer is option (2).

Q. 5 Let the product of ω 1

= (8 + i) sin θ + (7 + 4i) cos θ and
be α + iβ, i = √−1. Let p and q be the maximum
ω 2 = (1 + 8i) sin θ + (4 + 7i) cos θ

and the minimum values of α + β respectively.

Option 1:
140

Option 2:
130

Option 3:
160

Option 4:
150

Correct Answer:
130

Solution:
ω 1 = (8 sin θ + 7 cos θ) + i(sin θ + 4 cos θ)

ω 2 = (sin θ + 4 cos θ) + i(8 sin θ + 7 cos θ)

2
ω 1 ω 2 = 8 sin θ + 7 sin θ cos θ + 32 sin θ cos θ+

2 2
28 cos θ − 8 sin θ − 32 sin θ cos θ − 7 sin θ cos θ

2 2
− 28 cos θ + i (sin θ + 4 sin θ cos θ + 4 sin θ cos θ

2 2
+ 16 cos θ + 64 sin θ + 56 sin θ cos θ + 56 sin θ

2
cos θ + 49 cos θ)

2 2
ω 1 ω 2 = 0 + i (65 sin θ + 120 sin θ cos θ + 65 cos θ)

α + β = 65 + 60 sin 2q

α + β| = 125
max

α + β| = 5
min

Ans. = 125 + 5 = 130

Hence, the answer is option (2).

382
 Q. 6 Let the values of p, for which the shortest distance between the lines x+1
=
y
=
z
and
3 4 5

→
r = (p^
i + 2^
^
j + k) + λ(2^
i + 3^
^
j + 4k) is 1

√6
, be a, b, (a < b). Then the length of the latus
2

rectum of the ellipse is :-

2
x y
2
+ 2
= 1
a b

Option 1:
9

Option 2:
3

Option 3:
2

Option 4:
18

Correct Answer:
2

–
Solution:
– – –
|(a−b)|⋅(p×q)
shortest distance =
– –
|p×q|

where
– ^
a = −^
i + 0^
j + 0k

–
b = p i + 2^ ^
j + k

–
–
p = 3^
i + 4^ ^ − b = (−1 − p)^
j + 5k i − 2^ ^
j − k

– ^
q = 2^
i + 3^
j + 4k

1 |−1 − p + 4 − 1|
=
16 √6

| − p + 2| = 1

p = 3 & q = 1

2 2
x y
+ = 1
2 3
l 3
2
2a 2 × 1 2
L. R = = =
b 3 3

Hence, the answer is option (3).

383
 Q. 7 The axis of a parabola is the line y = x and its vertex and focus are in the first quadrant at
distances √2 and 2√2 units from the origin, respectively. If the point (1, k) lies on the
parabola, then a possible value of k is :-

Option 1:
4

Option 2:
9

Option 3:
3

Option 4:
8

Correct Answer:
9

Solution:

Directrix x + y = 0

PS = PM

(1 + K)
√ (1 − 2) 2 + (K − 2) 2 =
√2

2 2
2 K + 8 − 8 K + 2 = K + 1 + 2 K

2
K − 10 K + 9 = 0

K = 9

Hence, the answer is option (2).

384
 Q. 8 Let the domains of the functions
2
f (x) = log 4 log 3 log 7 (8 − log 2 (x + 4x + 5)) and

7x + 10
−1
g(x) = sin ( ) be (α, β) and [γ, δ],
x − 2

respectively. Then α 2
+ β
2
+ γ
2
+ δ
2
is equal to :-

Option 1:
15

Option 2:
13

Option 3:
16

Option 4:
14

Correct Answer:
15

Solution:
2
log 3 (log 7 (8 − log 2 (x + 4x + 5))) > 0

2
log 2 (x + 4x + 5) < 1

2
x + 4x + 3 < 0

⇒ x ∈ (−3, −1)

7x + 10
− 1 ≤ ≤ 1
x − 2

⇒ x ∈ [−2, −1]

α = −3, β = −1, γ = −2, δ = −1

2 2 2 2
α + β + γ + δ = 15

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 9 A line passing through the point A(−2, 0), touches the parabola P : y = x − 2 at the
2

point B in the first quadrant. The area, of the region bounded by the line AB, parabola P
and the x-axis, is :-

385
 Option 1:
-

Option 2:
-

Option 3:
-

Option 4:
-

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Tangent

y = m(x + 2)

2
y = x − 2

2
(m(n + 2)) = n − 2

2 2 2 2
m x + (4m − 1)x + (4m + 2) = 0

D = 0

2
2 2 2
(4m − 1) − 4m (4m + 2) = 0

1
m =
4
1
y = (n + 2)
4

and point of tangency (6, 2)

2
2
Area A = ∫ ((y + 2) − (4y − 2))dy
0

386
 8
A =
3

Hence, the answer is ( ).8

Q. 10 Let the sum of the focal distances of the point P(4, 3) on the hyperbola H : x
2

−
y
2

= 1
2 2
a b

be 8√ . If for H , the length of the latus rectum is l and the product of the focal distances
5

of the point P is m , then 9l 2

+ 6 m is equal to :-

Option 1:
184

Option 2:
186

Option 3:
185

Option 4:
187

Correct Answer:
185

Solution:

387
 5
ex + a + ex − a = 8√
3

5
2ex = 8√
3

5
2e × 4 = 8√
3

5
e = √
3

2
⎛ √5 ⎞
2 2
b = a ( ) − 1
⎝ 3 ⎠

2
2 2
b = a
3

16 9
− = 1
2 2
a b

2
2 2
and b = a
3

2
5 2
5
⇒ a = b =
2 3

Now,
2
2 b
ℓ =
a
4
2
4 b
ℓ =
2
a
25
2
9ℓ = 36 × × 2
9 × 5
2
9ℓ = 40

m = (ex + a)(ex − a)

2 2 2
m = e x − a

5 5 145
= × 16 − =
3 2 6

= 6 m = 145

2
9ℓ + 6 m

40 + 145 = 185

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 11 ⎡
1 0 0
⎤
Let the matrix A = 1 0 1 satisfy A n
= A
n−2
+ A −
2

⎣ ⎦
0 1 0

I for n ≥ 3. Then the sum of all the elements of A 50

is :-

388
 Option 1:
53

Option 2:
52

Option 3:
39

Option 4:
44

Correct Answer:
53

Solution:
50 48 2
A = A + A − I

46 2
= A + 2( A − I)

44 2
= A + 3( A − I)

2 2
= A + 24 ( A − I)

2
= 25 A − 24I

1 0 0 1 0 0
⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤

= 25 1 1 0 − 24 0 1 0

⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
1 0 1 0 0 1

1 0 0
⎡ ⎤
= 25 1 0

⎣ ⎦
25 0 1

Sum = 53

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 12 If the sum of the first 20 terms of the series

4.1 4.2 4.3 4.4
2 4
+ 2 4
+ 2 4
+ 2 4
+ ….
4+3.1 +1 4+3.2 +2 4+3.3 +3 4+3.4 +4

is m

n
, where m and n are coprime, then m + n is equal to :-

Option 1:
423

389
 Option 2:
420

Option 3:
421

Option 4:
422

Correct Answer:
421
Solution:
20
4r
∑
2 4
4 + 3r + r
r=1

20
4r
∑
2 2
(r + r + 2) (r − r + 2)
r=1

20
1 1
2∑( − )
r2 − r + 2 r2 + r + 2
r=1

1 1
2( − )
2 4

1 1
−
4 8
1 1
−
8 14

1 1
( − )
382 422

1 1
= 2( − )
2 422

420 210
= =
422 211

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 13 If 1 2
⋅ (
15
C1 ) + 2
2
⋅ (
15
C2 ) + 3
2
⋅ (
15
C 3 ) + … . +15
2
⋅ (
15
C 15 ) =

2
m
⋅ 3
n
⋅ 5
k
, where m, n, k ∈ N, then m + n + k is equal to :-

Option 1:
19

390
 Option 2:
21

Option 3:
18

Option 4:
20

Correct Answer:
19
Solution:
15 15

2 15 14
∑r ( C r ) ⇒ 15 ∑ r C r−1

r=1 r=1

15

14
15 ∑(r − 1 + 1) C r−1

r=1

15 15

13 14
15 ⋅ 14 ∑ C r−2 + 15 ∑ C r−1

r=1 r=1

13 14
15 ⋅ 14 ⋅ 2 + 15 ⋅ 2

1 13
3 ⋅ 2 (70 + 10)

1 13
3 ⋅ 2 ⋅ 80

1 1 17
3 ⋅ 5 ⋅ 2

m = 17 n = 1 k = 1

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 14 Let for two distinct values of p the lines y = x + p touch the ellipse E :
x
2

+
y
2

= 1 at the
2 2
4 3

points A and B. Let the line y = x intersect E at the points C and D. Then the area of the
quadrilateral ABCD is equal to

Option 1:
36

Option 2:
24

Option 3:
48

391
 Option 4:
20

Correct Answer:
24
Solution:
Point of contact are (
Point D is (

Area of ABD =

= 12
12

Area of ABCD is = 24

Option 1:
600

Option 2:
450

Option 3:
630

Option 4:
540
,
12

2
)

Hence, the answer is option (2).

Q. 15

∣−

16

12
5

5
∓a
2

√ a 2 m 2 +b 2

16

5
m

−9

12

5
,

1
±b
2

√ a 2 m 2 +b 2

1
) A(
−16

5
,

Consider two sets A and B, each containing three numbers in A.P. Let the sum and the
9

product of the elements of A be 36 and p respectively and the sum and the product of the
)B (

elements of B be 36 and q respectively. Let d and D be the common differences of AP's in A

and B respectively such that D = d + 3, d > 0. If

Correct Answer:
540

Solution:
= , then p − q is equal to
16

p+q

p−q
,
−9

5
)

19

392
Let A(a − d, a, a + d) B(b − D, b, b + D)

a = 12 b = 12

2
p = 12 (144 − d )

2
q = 12 (144 − D )

p + q 19
=
p − q 5

p 24 12
= =
q 14 7

2
144 − d 12
=
2
144 − (d + 6d + 9) 7

2 2
1008 − 7d = −12d − 72d + 1620

2
5d + 72d − 612 = 0

d = 6

D = 9

2 3
p − q = 12 (D − d )

= 12(81 − 36)

= 12(45)

= 540

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 16 If a curve y = y(x) passes through the point (1, ) and satisfies the differential equation
π

= x , x ≥ 1, then at x = 2, the value of cosy is:

4 x dx 5
(7x cot y − e cosec y)
dy

Option 1:
2
2e −e

64

Option 2:
2
2e +e

64

Option 3:
2
2e −e

128

Option 4:
2
2e +e

128

Correct Answer:
2
2e −e

128

393
Solution:
x
dy 7 cot y e cosec y
= −
5
dx x x
x
dy 7 cot y e
= −
5
dx sin y ⋅ x sin yx
x
dy 7 −e
sin y − cos y ⋅ =
5
dx x x

let − cos y = t

dy dt
sin y =
dx dx
x
dt 7t −e
+ =
5
dx x x
7
I.F. = x

7 2 x
t. x = −∫ x e dx

7 2 x x
cos yx = x e − 2∫ x dx

7 2 x x x
cos yx = x e − 2xe + 2e + c

π
x = 1, y = , c = −e
2
2
2e − e
cos y =
128

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 17 The centre of a circle C is at the centre of the ellipse E : +

x
2 y
2

= 1, a > b. Let C pass

2 2
a b

through the foci F and F of E such that the circle C and the ellipse E intersect at four
1 2

points. Let P be one of these four points. If the area of the triangle PF F is 30 and the
1 2

length of the major axis of E is 17 , then the distance between the foci of E is :

Option 1:
26

Option 2:
13

Option 3:
12

Option 4:
13

394
 Correct Answer:
13
Solution:

1
PF 1 ⋅ PF 2 = 30
2

PF 1 + PF 2 = 17

PF 1 = 12PF 2 = 5

F 1 F 2 = 13

Hence, the answer is option (2).

Q. 18 Let f (x) + 2f ( 1

x
) = x
2
and
+ 5

) = x, x > 0. If α = ∫ , and β = ∫ , then the value of

1 2 2
2g(x) − 3g ( f (x)dx g(x)dx
2 1 1

9α + β is:

Option 1:
1

Option 2:
0

Option 3:
10

Option 4:
11

Correct Answer:
11

Solution:

395
 1
2
f (x) + 2f ( ) = x + 5
x

1 1
f ( ) + 2f (x) = + 5
2
x x
2
2 x 5
f (x) = − +
2
3x 3 3
2 2
2 x 5
α = ∫ ( − + )dx
2
1
3x 3 3

2
3
2 x 5x
(− − + )
3x 9 3
1

1 8 10 2 1 5
− − + + + −
3 9 3 3 9 3

7 11
α = 2 − =
9 9

1
2g(x) − 3g ( ) = x
2

1 1
g( ) = −
2 2

x 3
g(x) = −
2 4
2
x 3
β = ∫ ( − )dx
1
2 4

2
2
x 3x 3 1 3
( − ) = 1 − − + = 0
4 4 2 4 4
1

9α + β = 11

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 19 Let A be the point of intersection of the lines L : = = 1 and

x−7 y−5 z−3

1 0 −1

L : 2
=
x−1

3
= . Let B and C be the point on the lines L and L respectively
y+3

4
z+7

5
1 2

such that AB = AC = √15. Then the square of the area of the triangle ABC is :

Option 1:
54

Option 2:
63

396
=

=
Option 3:
57

Option 4:
60

Solution:
L1 :

cos θ =

10

= 3√ 6
2
x−7

∴ sin θ =

Area

( Area )

Q. 20
1

∣
Correct Answer:
54

=
=

2
1

2√ 6
y−5

5
0

3 + 0 − 5

√ 2 × √ 50
=

ab sin θ

× √ 15 × √ 15 ×

2
= 9 × 6 = 54

Hence, the answer is option (1).

z−3

−1
; L2 :

2√ 6

5
x−1

3
=
y+3

4
=
z+7

Let the mean and the standard deviation of the observation 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 7, a, b be 4 and √2
respectively. Then the mean deviation about the mode of these observations is :

397
 Option 1:
1

Option 2:
3

Option 3:
2

Option 4:
1

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
24 + a + b
= 4
8

a + b = 8

2 2
4 + 1 + 1 + 0 + 1 + 9 + (a − 4) + (b − 4)
2 =
8
2 2
16 = 48 + a + b − 8a − 8b

2 2
a + b = 32

32 = 2ab

ab = 16

a = 4b = 4

mode = 4

2 + 1 + 1 + 0 + 1 + 3 + 0 + 0
mean deviation = = 1
8

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 21 If α is a root of the equation x 2

+ x + 1 = 0 and ∑ n
(α
k
+
1
)
2
, then n is equal
= 20
k=1 k
α

to ______

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:

398
α = ω

k
1 2k
1
∴ (ω + ) = ω + + 2
k 2k
ω ω
2k k 3k
= ω + ω + 2 ∵ ω = 1

2k k
∴ ∑ (ω + ω + 2) = 20

k=1

2 4 6 2n 2 3
⇒ (ω + ω + ω + … + ω ) + (ω + ω + ω + …+
n
ω ) + 2n = 20

Now if n = 3m, m ∈ I
Then 0 + 0 + 2n = 20 ⇒ n = 10 (not satisfy) if n = 3m + 1, then
2
ω + ω + 2n = 20

21
− 1 + 2n = 20 ⇒ n = (not possible)
2

if n = 3m + 2,

8 10 4 5
(ω + ω ) + (ω + ω ) + 2n = 20

2 2
⇒ (ω + ω) + (ω + ω ) + 2n = 20

2n = 22

n = 11 satisf y n = 3 m + 2

∴ n = 11

Hence, the answer is (11).

Q. 22 2
(√ 1+x +x)
10

If ∫ 9
dx =
1

m
2
((√ 1 + x + x)
2
(n√ 1 + x − x)) + C where C
2
(√ 1+x −x)

is the constant of integration and m, n ∈ N, then m + n is equal to

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
rationalise

399
 10 9
2 2
(√ 1 + x + x) (√ 1 + x + x)

⇒ ∫ × dx
9 9
2 2
(√ 1 + x − x) (√ 1 + x + x)

19
2
(√ 1 + x + x)

⇒ ∫ dx
1

Put √1 + x 2
+ x = t

x
( + 1)dx = dt
√ 1+x 2

dt
dx = √1 + x 2
t

Now as √ 1 + x + x = t
2

1
so √ 1 + x − x =
2

1 1
∴ √1 + x =
2
(t + )
2 t

dt 1 1
19
Thus I = ∫ t ⋅ ⋅ (t + )
t 2 t

1
19 17
⇒ ∫ (t + t )dt
2
20 18
1 t t
= ( + ) + C
2 20 18

19
t 10
= [9t + ] + C
360 t

19
t 1 1
= [9 (t + ) + ] + C
360 t t

19
2
(√ 1 + x + x)

[9 (2√ 1 + x ) + (√ 1 + x − x)] + C
2 2
⇒
360
19
2
(√ 1 + x + x)

[19√ 1 + x − x] + C
2
⇒
360

∴ m = 360, n = 19

∴ m + n = 379

Hence, the answer is (379).

400
 Q. 23 A card from a pack of 52 cards is lost. From the remaining 51 cards, n cards are drawn and
are found to be spades. If the probability of the lost card to be a spade is , the n is equal
11

50

to

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
n cards are drawn \& are found all spades, thus
remaining spades = 13 − x
remaining total cards = 52 − x
Now given that P( lost card is spade ) = 11

50

i.e.
13−n
C1 11
52−n
=
C1 50

50(13 − n) = 11(52 − n)

39n = 78

n = 2

Hence, the answer is (2).

Q. 24 Let m and n, (m < n) be two 2-digit numbers. Then the total numbers of pairs (m, n), such
that gcd(m, n) = 6, is ______

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Let m = 6a, n = 6 b

m < n ⇒ a < b

where a & b are co-prime numbers also since m \& n are 2 digit nos, so

10 ≤ m ≤ 99 & 10 ≤ n ≤ 99

i.e. 2 ≤ a ≤ 16&2 ≤ b ≤ 16
( ∵ a is integer)

Now
2 ≤ a < b ≤ 16 & a& b are co-prime

401
 If a = 2, b = 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15

a = 3, b = 4, 5, 7, 8, 10, 11, 13, 14, 16

a = 4, b = 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15

a = 5, b = 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 16

a = 6, b = 7, 11, 13

a = 7, b = 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 15, 16

a = 8, b = 9, 11, 13, 15

a = 9, b = 10, 11, 13, 14, 16

a = 10, b = 11, 13

a = 11, b = 12, 13, 14, 15, 16

a = 12, b = 13

a = 13, b = 14, 15, 16

a = 14, b = 15

a = 15, b = 16

64 ordered pairs

Hence, the answer is (64).

Q. 25 Let the three sides of a triangle ABC be given by the vectors 2^i − ^j + k,
^ ^i − 3^ ^ and
j − 5k

3^
i − 4^ ^. Let G be the centroid of the triangle ABC . Then
j − 4k

−
−
−→ → →
6 (|AG|
2
+ |BG|
2 2
+ |CG| ) is equal to ______

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:

By given data

−
−
−→ → →
AB + AC = CB

→ →
Let pv of A are O then

402
−→ → →
AB = B − A

→ = 2^i − ^j + k
i.e. pv of B− ^

−→ → →
CA = A − C

i.e. pv of C→ = −(^
i − 3^
^
j − 5k)

Now pv of centroid
→ → → →
→ A + B + C 0 + (2, −1, 1) + (−1, 3, 5)
(G)− = =
3 3
→ 1
G = (^
i + 2^ ^
j + 6k)
3

− → 1
Now AG = (^
i + 2^ ^
j + 6k)
3

− → 1
2
⇒ |AG| = × 41
9

−→ 1 2
^
BG = ( − 2)^
i + ( + 1)^
j + (2 − 1)k
3 3

− → 59
2
⇒ |BG| =
9

−→ 1 2
^ ^ ^
CG = ( + 1)i + ( − 3)j + (2 − 5)k
3 3

− → 146
2
⇒ |CG| =
9

Now

−
−
− → → → 41 59 146
2 2 2
6 [|AG| + |BG| + |CG| ] = 6 × [ + + ]
9 9 9

246
= 6 × = 164
9

Hence, the answer is (164).

403
 JEE Main 2025

7 April - Shift 1
th

Question Paper with Solution

404
Physics
Q. 1 Two harmonic waves moving in the same direction superimpose to form a wave
x = a cos(1.5t) cos(50.5t) where t is in seconds. Find the period with which they beat

(close to the nearest integer)

Option 1:
6s

Option 2:
4s

Option 3:
1s

Option 4:
2s

Correct Answer:
2s

Solution:
The given equation can be written as
a a
x = cos[1.5 + 50.5]t + cos[50.5 − 1.5]
2 2
a a
x = cos[52t] + cos[49t]
2 2

Here, 2πf 1 &2πf 2 = 49

52 49
f1 = , f2 =
2π 2π

3
∴ f Beat = f1 − f2 = Hz
2π
1 2π
∴ T Beat = = sec
f Beat 3

= 2.09sec ≈ 2sec

Hence, the answer is 2.

405
 Q. 2 Two plane-polarised light waves combine at a certain point, whose electric field components
are

E 1 = E 0 sin ωt

π
E 2 = E 0 sin (ωt + )
3

Find the amplitude of the resultant wave.

Option 1:
0.9 E

Option 2:
E0

Option 3:
1.7E 0

Option 4:
3.4E 0

Correct Answer:
1.7E 0

Solution:
2 2
π
E = √ (E 0 ) + (E 0 ) + 2 (E 0 ) (E 0 ) cos
3

2 2
E = √ 2E + E = √ 3E 0 = 1.73E 0
0 0

Hence, the answer is option (3).

406
 Q. 3 A wire of resistance R is bent into a triangular pyramid as shown in figure with each
segment having same length. The resistance between points A and B is R/n. The value of n
is :

Option 1:
16

Option 2:
14

Option 3:
10

Option 4:
12

Correct Answer:
12

Solution:
As r = R

(As balanced wheat stone bridge is formed)

Now, Equivalent resistance between A and B can be written as

407
 1 1 1 1 2
= + + =
R AB 2r 2r r r

R
R AB =
12

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 4 Uniform magnetic fields of different strengths ( B and B ), both normal to the plane of the
1 2

paper exist as shown in the figure. A charged particle of mass m and charge q , at the
interface at an instant, moves into the region 2 with velocity v and returns to the interface. It
continues to move into region 1 and finally reaches the interface. What is the displacement
of the particle during this movement along the interface ?

(Consider the velocity of the particle to be normal to the magnetic field and B 2 > B1 )

Option 1:
mv B2
(1 − ) × 2
qB B1
1

Option 2:
mv B1
(1 − )
qB 1 B2

Option 3:
mv B2
(1 − )
qB B1
1

Option 4:
mv B1
(1 − ) × 2
qB B2
1

Correct Answer:
mv B1
(1 − ) × 2
qB B2
1

Solution:
→ →
As v is ⊥ to B, so the charge particle will move in a circular path, whose radius is given by
mv
R =
qB

408
Starting point → A
Ending point → C
∴ Net displacement = AC

AC = CD − AD

2mv 2mv
AC = −
qB 1 qB 2

2mv B1
AC = [1 − ]
qB 1 B2

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 5 If ϵ denotes the permittivity of free space and Φ is the flux of the electric field through the
0 E

area bounded by the closed surface, then dimension of (ϵ are that of :

dϕ E
0
)
dt

Option 1:
Electric field

Option 2:
Electric potential

Option 3:
Electric charge

Option 4:
Electric current

Correct Answer:
Electric current

Solution:
We know that the formula for displacement current is given by
dϕ ε
id = ε 0
dt

Hence, the answer is option (4).

409
 Q. 6 A rod of length 5 L is bent right angle keeping one side length as 2 L .

The position of the centre of mass of the system: (Consider L = 10 cm )

Option 1:
2^
i + 3^
j

Option 2:
3^
i + 7^
j

Option 3:
5^
i + 8^
j

Option 4:
4^
i + 9^
j

Correct Answer:
4^
i + 9^
j

Solution:

2 m(10) + 3 m(0)
x com = = 4 cm
5 m

2 m(0) + 3 m(15)
y com = = 9 cm
5 m
→
^ ^
r com = 4i + 9j

Hence, the answer is option (4).

410
 Q. 7 The percentage increase in magnetic field (B) when space within a current carrying solenoid
is filled with magnesium (magnetic susceptibility χ = 1.2 × 10 ) is :
mg
−5

Option 1:
6 −3
× 10 %
5

Option 2:
5 −5
× 10 %
6

Option 3:
5 −4
× 10 %
6

Option 4:
5 −5
× 10 %
3

Correct Answer:
6 −3
× 10 %
5

Solution:
% change in B =
B new −B old
× 100%
B old

μni − μ 0 ni (μ − μ 0 )
= × 100% = × 100%
μ 0 ni μ0

(μ 0 μ r − μ 0 )
= × 100%
μ0

= (μ r − 1) × 100%

= χ n × 100%

−3
= 1.2 × 10 %

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 8 A lens having refractive index 1.6 has focal length of 12 cm , when it is in air. Find the focal
length of the lens when it is placed in water.
(Take the refractive index of water as 1.28 )

Option 1:
355 mm

411
 Option 2:
288 mm

Option 3:
555 mm

Option 4:
655 mm

Correct Answer:
288 mm
Solution:
As we know,

1 μL 1 1
= [ − 1] [ − ]
f μm R1 R2

For air μ m
= 1

1 1 1
= [1.6 − 1] [ − ]
12 R1 R2

1 6 1 1
= [ − ]
12 10 R1 R2

1 1 10
[ − ] =
R1 R2 72

For water

1 1.6 10 32 10
= [ − 1] [ ] = ×
f 1.28 72 128 72

1 1 10
= ×
f 4 72

f = 28.8 cm

f = 288 mm

Hence, the answer is option (2).

412
 Q. 9 An ac current is represented as
π
i = 5√ 2 + 10 cos (650πt + )Amp
6

The r.m.s value of the current is

Option 1:
50 Amp

Option 2:
100 Amp

Option 3:
10 Amp

Option 4:
5√ 2Amp

Correct Answer:
10 Amp

Solution:
π
i = 5√ 2 + 10 cos (650πt + )
6

2 2
π
i = 50 + 100 cos (650πt + )
6
π
+ (2)(5√ 2)(10) cos (650πt + )
6
100
2
⟨i ⟩ = 50 + + 0
2
2
⟨i ⟩ = 100

⟨i⟩ = 10Amp

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 10 Two thin convex lenses of focal lengths 30 cm and 10 cm are placed coaxially, 10 cm apart.
The power of this combination is :

Option 1:
5D

413
 Option 2:
1D

Option 3:
20 D

Option 4:
10 D

Correct Answer:
10 D
Solution:
f 1 = 30 cm, f 2 = 10 cm
1

f eq
=
1

f1
+
1

f2
−
d

f1 f2
,d = distance between lens
1 1 1 0.1
= + −
f eq 0.3 0.1 (0.3)(0.1)

1 1
=
f eq 0.1

Power = 1

f eq
= 10D

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 11 In the following circuit, the reading of the ammeter will be (Take Zener breakdown voltage
= 4 V )

Option 1:
24 mA

Option 2:
80 mA

Option 3:
10 mA

Option 4:
60 mA

414
 Correct Answer:
10 mA
Solution:

400 4 48
V1 = × 12 V = × 12 = V
100+400 5 5

here, V > V , (V = Zener Voltage )

1 z z

So, Zener breakdown will be take place

So, voltage across 400Ω will be 4 V
4 1
I = A = = 10 mA
400 100 A

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 12 Two projectiles are fired from ground with same initial speeds from same point at angles
(45 + α) and (45 − α) with horizontal direction. The ratio of their times of flights is
∘ ∘

Option 1:
1

Option 2:
1−tan α

1+tan α

Option 3:
1+sin 2α

1−sin 2α

Option 4:
1+tan α

1−tan α

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
θ 1 = 45 + α; θ 2 = 45 − α

Time of flight, T = 2v sin θ

T1 sin(45+α)
=
T2 sin(45−α)

415
 1 1
cos α+ sin α
T1 √2 √2
= 1 1
T2
cos α− sin α
√2 √2

T1 cos α+sin α 1+tan α

= =
T2 cos α−sin α 1−tan α

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 13 Match the List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

A. Triatomic rigid gas I. Cp

=
5

Cv 3

B. Diatomic non-rigid gas II. CP

=
7

Cv 5

C. Monoatomic gas III. Cp

=
4

Cv 3

D. Diatomic rigid gas IV. Cp

=
9

Cv 7

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Option 2:
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Option 3:
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Option 4:
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Correct Answer:
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Solution:
2
γ = 1 +
f

f = 6 , Triatomic rigid gas

f = 7 , Diatomic non-rigid gas
f = 5, Diatomic rigid gas

f = 3, monoatomic rigid gas

416
γ = 1 +
2

6
=(Triatomic)
4

γ = 1 + =
2

7
(Diatomic, non-rigid)
9

( Diatomic, rigid )
2 7
γ = 1 + =
5 5

γ = 1 + =
2

3
(Monoatomic, rigid)
5

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 14 A cubic block of mass m is sliding down on an inclined plane at 60 with an acceleration of

∘

, the value of coefficient of kinetic friction is

g

Option 1:
√3 − 1

Option 2:
√3

Option 3:
√2

Option 4:
√3
1 −
2

Correct Answer:
√3 − 1

Solution:

∘ ∘
mg sin 60 − μmg cos 60 = ma

g
g sin 60 − μg cos 60 =
2

√3 μ 1
− =
2 2 2

μ = √3 − 1

Hence, the answer is option (1).

417
 Q. 15 In a hydrogen like ion, the energy difference between the 2 nd
excitation energy state and
ground is 108.8 eV . The atomic number of the ion is

Option 1:
4

Option 2:
2

Option 3:
1

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
1 1
2
ΔE = 13.6z [ − ]
2 2
n n
1 2

1 1
2
(13.6)z [ − ] = 108.8
1 9

(13.6)(8)
2
(z ) = 108.8
9

z = 3

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 16 For a hydrogen atom, the ratio of the largest wavelength of the Lyman series to that of the
Balmer series is.

Option 1:
5 : 36

Option 2:
5 : 27

418
 Option 3:
3 : 4

Option 4:
27 : 5

Correct Answer:
5 : 27

Solution:
Lyman

1 1 1 3R
= R[ − ] =
λ1 1 4 4

4
λ1 =
3R

and Balmer

1 1 1 5R
= R[ − ] =
λ2 4 9 36

36
λ2 =
5R

Then, λ1

λ2
=
5

27

Hence, the answer is option (2).

Q. 17 A particle of charge q, mass m and kinetic energy E enters in magnetic field perpendicular to
its velocity and undergoes a circular arc of radius(r). Which of the following curves
represents the variation of r with E ?

419
 Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

420
 2
mv
= qvB
r

mv = qBr

1 2
E = mv
2
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 q B r q B r
E = m( ) =
2
2 m 2 m

2 2
q B
2
E = ( )r
2m

2
r ∝ E

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 18 →
An object of mass 1000 g experiences a time-dependent force F = (2t^i + 3t 2^
j)N . The
power generated by the force at time t is :

Option 1:
2 3
(2t + 3t )W

Option 2:
2 3
(2t + 18t )W

Option 3:
3 5
(3t + 5t )W

Option 4:
3 5
(2t + 3t )W

Correct Answer:
3 5
(2t + 3t )W

Solution:
→
F = (2t^
i + 3t^
j)N

421
m = 1000gm = 1 kg

→ →
→
F = ma, a = 2t^
i + 3t ^
2
j

→
dv ^ 2^
= 2ti + 3t j
dt

→
v = t ^
2 3
i + t j

→ →
Power, P = F ⋅ V

^ + 3t 2^
P = (2tt
2
j) ⋅ (t ^
3
i + t ^j)

3 5
P = (2t + 3t )W

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 19 Two wires A and B are made of same material having ratio of lengths LA
=
1
and their
LB 3

diameters ratio dA

dB
= 2. If both the wires are stretched using same force, what would be the

ratio of their respective elongations?

Option 1:
1 : 6

Option 2:
1 : 12

Option 3:
3 : 4

Option 4:
1 : 3

Correct Answer:
1 : 12

Solution:

422
LA 1 dA
= and = 2
LB 3 dB

FA LA FB LB
Δ LA = and ΔL B =
AA YA AB YB

Given, F A = FB and Y A = YB

FA LA

ΔL A AA YA LA AB
= = ( )( )
FB LB
ΔL B LB AA
AB YB

π 2 2
ΔL A LA dB LA dB
4
= ( )( ) = ( )( )
π 2
Δ LB LB dA LB dA
4

2
Δ LA 1 1 1
= ( )( ) =
Δ LB 3 2 12

Hence, the answer is option (2).

Q. 20 Two charges q and q are separated by a distance of 30 cm . A third charge q initially at '
1 2 3

C as shown in the figure, is moved along the circular path of radius 40 cm from C to D . If
′

the difference in potential energy due to movement of q from C to D is given by , the

q3 K
3
4πϵ 0

value of K is :

Option 1:
8q 2

Option 2:
6q 2

Option 3:
8q 1

Option 4:
6q 1

Correct Answer:
8q 2

Solution:

423
Potential at C
kq kq
1 2
VC = +
0.4 0.5

Potential at D

kq 1 kq 2
VD = +
0.4 0.1

kq 2 kq 2
ΔU = (V D − V C ) (q 3 ) = ( − ) (q 3 )
0.1 0.5

8q 2 q 3
ΔU = 8kq 2 q 3 =
4πε 0

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 21 A,B and C are disc, solid sphere and spherical shell respectively with same radii and masses.
These masses are placed as shown in figure.

The moment of inertia of the given system about PQ is I , where I is the moment of
x

15

inertia of the disc about its diameter. The value of x is _____ .

Correct Answer:
199

Solution:

424
All bodies have same mass and same radius.
A → Disc

B → Solid sphere
C → Spherical shell

2
MR
and, I =
4
2
MR 2 2 2
2 2 2
I PQ = + ( MR + MR ) + ( MR + MR )
4 5 3

2 2 2 2 2
15MR + 24MR + 60MR + 40MR + 60MR
I PQ =
60
2
199 2
199 MR
I PQ = MR = ( )
60 15 4

199
= I
15

Hence, the answer is 199.

Q. 22 For ac circuit shown in figure, R = 100kΩ and C = 100pF and the phase difference
between V and (V − V ) is 90 . The input signal frequency is 10 rad/sec, where ' x ' is
in B A
∘ x

_____

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
Input Voltage

425
 ∘ ∘
θ + θ = 90 ; θ = 45

XC
tan θ =
R
1
XC = R ⇒ = R
WC

1 1
W = =
3 −12
RC 100 × 10 × 100 × 10
12
10
5
= = 10
7
10

Hence, the answer is 5

Q. 23 A container contains a liquid with refractive index of 1.2 up to a height of 60 cm and another
liquid having refractive index 1.6 is added to height H above first liquid. If viewed from
above, the apparent shift in the position of bottom of container is 40 cm . The value of H is
_____ cm .
(Consider liquids are immisible)

Correct Answer:
80

Solution:

y = apparent depth of bottom

y H 60
= +
1 1.6 1.2

426
Shift = 40

H + 60 − y = 40

H 60
H + 60 − − = 40
1.6 1.2
6
H = 30
16

H = 80 cm

Hence, the answer is 80.

Q. 24 A wire of length 10 cm and diameter 0.5 mm is used in a bulb. The temperature of the wire is
1727 C and power radiated by the wire is 94.2 W . Its emissivity is where x = _____
∘ x

(Given σ = 6.0 × 10 W m K −8 −2 −4
, π = 3.14 and assume that the emissivity of wire
material is same at all wavelength. )

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
∘
L = 10 cm, d = 0.5 mm, T = 1727 C = 2000 K

Power, P = 94.2 W
4
P = εσAT

−8 4
94.2 = ε × (6 × 10 )(πdL)(2000)

−8 −3
94.2 = ε × (6 × 10 )(3.14)(0.5) (10 )

−2 4
(10 × 10 )(2000)

94.2 5
ε = =
(94.2)(16) 8

Hence, the answer is 5.

427
 Q. 25 An ideal gas has undergone the cyclic process as shown in the figure. Work done by the gas
in the entire cycle is _____ ×10 J.
−1

(Take π = 3.14 )

Correct Answer:
314

Solution:

Area of circle, W =
π

4
d1 d2

π
3 −6
W = (500 − 300) × 10 (350 − 150) × 10
4

W = 31.4 Joule

−1
W = 314 × 10 Joule

Hence, the answer is 314.

Chemistry
Q. 1 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Ozonolysis followed by treatment with Zn, H O of cis-2-butene gives ethanal.
2

Statement II : The production obtained by ozonolysis followed by treatment with Zn, H O2

of 3, 6-dimethyloct-4-ene has no chiral carbon atom.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below :

428
 Option 1:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Option 2:
Statement I is false but Statement II are true

Option 3:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Correct Answer:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Solution:

St-I : Correct statement

St-II : Incorrect statement because the product has a chiral center.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

429
 Q. 2 Which of the following amine (s) show (s) positive carbylamines test ?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A and E Only

Option 2:
C Only

Option 3:
A and C Only

Option 4:
B, C and D Only

Correct Answer:
A and C Only

Solution:
Only 1 or primary amines gives positive carbylamines test.
∘

Option (A) and (C) are primary amine and given

⊕ve carbyl amine test

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

430
 Q. 3 Reaction A(g) → 2 B( g) + C(g) is a first order reaction. It was started with pure A

t/min Pressure of system

at time t/mm Hg

10 160

∞ 240
Which of the following option is incorrect ?

Option 1:
Initial pressure of A is 80 mm Hg

Option 2:
The reaction never goes to completion

Option 3:
Rate constant of the reaction is 1.693 min −1

Option 4:
Partial pressure of A after 10 minute is 40 mm Hgc

Correct Answer:
Rate constant of the reaction is 1.693 min −1

Solution:
A(g) ⟶ 2 B( g) + C(g)

t = 0 P0

t → ∞ 0 2P 0 P0

P ∞ = 3P 0 = 240

P 0 = 80 mm of Hg

P∞ − P0
Kt = ln ( )
P ∞ − Pt

240 − 80
K × 10 = ln ( )
240 − 160

ℓn2 −1
K = = 0.0693 min
10

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

431
 Q. 4 Total enthalpy change for freezing of 1 mol of water at 10 ∘
C to ice at −10 ∘
C is
(Given : Δ H = xkJ/mol
f us

−1 −1
C p [H 2 O(l)] = y J mol K

−1 −1
C p [H 2 O( s)] = z J mol K

Option 1:
−x − 10y − 10z

Option 2:
−10(100x + y + z)

Option 3:
10(100x + y + z)

Option 4:
x − 10y − 10z

Correct Answer:
−10(100x + y + z)

Solution:

∘ ∘
ΔH = 1 × y(0 − 10) − x × 1000 + 1 × z (−10 − 0 )

ΔH = −10(100x + y + z) Joule.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 5 An aqueous solution of HCl with pH 1.0 is diluted by adding an equal volume of water
(ignoring dissociation of water). The pH of HCl solution would
(Given log 2 = 0.30 )

432
 Option 1:
reduce to 0.5

Option 2:
increase to 1.3

Option 3:
remain same

Option 4:
increase to 2

Correct Answer:
increase to 1.3

Solution:
+ −1
HCl (aq) pH = 1; [H ] = 10

If equal volume of water is added concentration will become half

−1
10
+
[H ] =
sol
2

pH = 1.3

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 6 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Dimethyl ether is completely soluble in water. However, diethyl ether is soluble
in water to a very small extent.

Statement II : Sodium metal can be used to dry diethyl ether and not ethyl alcohol.In the
light of given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Option 1:
Statement I is false but Statement II are true

Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Option 3:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

433
 Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Correct Answer:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Solution:
St-I - St-I is correct because both given ether are soluble in water → Di ethyl ether and butan-1-ol are
miscible to almost same extent, i.e., 7.5 and 9 gm per 100 ml water due to H -bonding

St-II : - St. II is also correct because sodium metal is not used with ethyl alcohol as H gas release with
2

ethyl alcohol.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 7

Which of the following statements are correct, if the threshold frequency of caesium is
Hz ?
14
5.16 × 10

A. When Cs is placed inside a vacuum chamber with an ammeter connected to it and yellow
light is focused on Cs the ammeter shows the presence of current.
B. When the brightness of the yellow light is dimmed, the value of the current in the
ammeter is reduced.
C. When a red light is used instead to the yellow light, the current produced is higher with
respect to the yellow light.
D. When a blue light is used, the ammeter shows the formation of current.
E. When a white light is used, the ammeter shows formation of current.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A, D and E Only

Option 2:
B, C and D Only

Option 3:
A, C, D and E Only

434
 Option 4:
A, B, D and E Only

Correct Answer:
A, B, D and E Only
Solution:
C 3 × 10
λ = =
14
v 5.16 × 10

λ = 581.39 nm

*λ Photon
is near & below yellow light it can show photoelectric effect.
* If intensity of light decreases photocurrent decreases.
* Red light will not produce photoelectric effect.
*v Blue
> v yellow
so photoelectric current will be produced.
* White light contain all frequencies so it will show photo electric current.
Correct statements are ABD&E.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 8 Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name of given organic compound (X) ?

Option 1:
2-Bromo-2-methylbut-2-ene

Option 2:
3-Bromo-3-methylprop-2-ene

Option 3:
1-Bromo-2-methylbut-2-ene

Option 4:
4-Bromo-3-methylbut-2-ene

Correct Answer:
1-Bromo-2-methylbut-2-ene

435
Solution:

1-Bromo-2-methyl but-2-ene

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 9 At the sea level, the dry air mass percentage composition is given as nitrogen gas : 70.0,
oxygen gas : 27.0 and argon gas : 3.0. If total pressure is 1.15 atm , then calculate the ratio of
followings respectively :
(i) partial pressure of nitrogen gas to partial pressure of oxygen gas
(ii) partial pressure of oxygen gas to partial pressure of argon gas
(Given : Molar mass of N, O and Ar are 14, 16, and 40 g mol respectively)
1

Option 1:
4.26, 19.3

Option 2:
2.59, 11.85

Option 3:
5.46, 17.8

Option 4:
2.96, 11.2

Correct Answer:
2.96, 11.2

Solution:
PN x N ⋅P T nN

Po 2
2
=
2

x O ⋅P T
=
nO
2
{using Dalton's law of partial pressure}
2 2

70/28
= = 2.96
27/32

PO nO 27/32
i 3
= = = 11.25
P Ar n Ar 3/40

436
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).
Q. 10 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Mohr's salt is composed of only three types of ions-ferrous, ammonium, and
sulphate.
Statement II : If the molar conductance at infinite dilution of ferrous, ammonium and
sulphate ions are x , x and x S cm mol , respectively then the molar conductance for
1 2 3
2 −1

Mohr's salt solution at infinite dilution would be given by x + x + 2x

1 2 3

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
:

Option 1:
Both statements I and Statement II are false

Option 2:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Option 3:
Statement I is true but Statement II are false

Option 4:
Both statements I and Statement II are true

Correct Answer:
Statement I is true but Statement II are false

Solution:
Mohr's salt : FeSO ⋅ (NH
4 4)
2
SO 4 ⋅ 6H 2 O

Using Kohlrousch law

∗
λ m ( Mohr's salt ) = x 1 + 2x 2 + 2x 3

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 11 The number of valence electrons present in the metal among Cr, Co, Fe and Ni which has
the lowest enthalpy of atomisation is

Option 1:
8

437
 Option 2:
9

Option 3:
6

Option 4:
10

Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Out of Cr, Co, Fe and Ni
Chromium has the lowest heat of atomization.
5 1
Cr = [Ar]3 d 4 s

∵ Total six valence e in Cr .−

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 12 When a salt is treated with a sodium hydroxide solution, it gives gas X. On passing gas X
through reagent Y, a brown-colored precipitate is formed. X and Y, respectively, are

Option 1:
X = NH 3 and Y = HgO

Option 2:
X = NH 3 and Y = K 2
HgI 4 + KOH

Option 3:
X = NH 4 Cl and Y = KOH

Option 4:
X = HCl and Y = NH 4
Cl

Correct Answer:
X = NH and Y = K
3 2
HgI 4 + KOH

Solution:
+
NH + NaOH ⟶ H 2 O + NH 3 ↑
4

438
NH 3 is identify by K 2
[HgI 4 ] + KOH

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 13 The group 14 elements A and B have the first ionisation enthalpy values of 708 and
715 kJ mol respectively. The above values are lowest among their group members. The
−1

nature of their ions A B respectively is

2+ 4+

Option 1:
both reducing

Option 2:
both oxidising

Option 3:
reducing and oxidising

Option 4:
oxidising and reducing

Correct Answer:
reducing and oxidising

Solution:
As per given information of ionisation energy

A = Sn& B = Pb

A
+2
= Sn
2+
= Reducing agent
= Oxidising agent
+4 +4
B = Pb

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 14 The first transition series metal ' M ' has the highest enthalpy of atomisation in its series.
One of its aquated ion (M ) exists in green colour. The nature of the oxide formed by the
n

above M ion is :
n−

439
 Option 1:
neutral

Option 2:
acidic

Option 3:
basic

Option 4:
amphoteric

Correct Answer:
basic

Solution:
* In 3d series Vanadium has highest enthalpy of atomization and colour of V +3
is green.
* Oxide form by V is V O (Basic oxide)
+3
2 3

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 15 Which of the following compounds is least likely to give effervescence of CO in presence of
2

aq. NaHCO ? 3

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

440
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Concept - Those compounds which are more acidic than H 2
CO 3 can gives effervescence of CO with aq.
2

NaHCO . 3

Release CO 2
↑ gas with aq. NaHCO 3

⇒ [ A.S. ] Comp. > [ A.S. ] H

2 CO 3

→ Option 1,2 and 3 gives effervescence of CO gas with NaHCO

2 3

→ Option (4) Not gives CO gas with NaHCO .

2 3

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 16 Match the LIST - I with LIST - II.

LIST - I LIST - II
Molecule/ion Bond pair : lone pair
(on the central atom)

A. ICl
−

2
I. 4:2

B. H2 O II. 4:1

C. SO 2 III. 2:3

D. XeF 4 IV. 2:2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

441
 Option 1:
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Option 2:
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Option 3:
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Option 4:
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Correct Answer:
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Solution:

(A) B.P : L.P = 2 : 3

(B) B.P : L.P = 2 : 2

(C) B.P : L.P = 4 : 1

(D) B.P : L.P = 4 : 2

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

442
Q. 17 A person's wound was exposed to some bacteria and then bacteria growth started to
happen at the same place. The wound was later treated with some antibacterial medicine
and the rate of bacterial decay (r) was found to be proportional with the square of the
existing number of bacteria at any instance. Which of the following set of graphs correctly
represents the 'before' and 'after' situation of the application of the medicine?

[Given : N = No. of bacteria, t = time, bacterial growth follows It st

order kinetics.]

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

443
 Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
*Before applying medicine

dA
= K[ A] (First order growth) (Rate law)
dt

A N Kt
= = e
A0 N0

*After applying medicine

Active Bacteria → Inactive Bacteria
(A) (I)

dA 2
r = − = K[A]
dt

(Rate law)
y = Kx
2
Parabola

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 18 Given below are two statements :

Statement I: D-(+)-glucose + D-( + ) f ructose &

− → sucrose
−H 2 O
sucrose
Hydrolysis

−→ D-(+)-glucose + D-(+) fructose

Statement II : Invert sugar is formed during sucrose hydrolysis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below -

444
 Option 1:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Option 2:
Statement I is false but Statement II are true.

Option 3:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Correct Answer:
Statement I is false but Statement II are true.

Solution:
On hydrolysis of sucrose gives D − (+)-glucose and D-(-)-fructose while in St. (1) D-(+)-fructose is given
evince St-(1) is incorrect.
St. II - It is correct because sucrose on hydrolysis gives invert sugar

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 19 An octahedral complex having molecular composition Co. 5NH . Cl . SO has two isomers
3
2
4

A and B . The solution of A gives a white precipitate with AgNO solution and the solution
3

of B gives white precipitate with BaCl solution. The type of isomerism exhibited by the
2

complex is,

Option 1:
Co-ordinate isomerism

Option 2:
Linkage isomerism

Option 3:
Ionisation isomerism

Option 4:
Geometrical isomerism

Correct Answer:
Ionisation isomerism

Solution:

445
(A) complex is [Co(NH 3
)
5
(SO 4 )]Cl

(B) complex is [Co(NH 3

) Cl]SO 4
5

Both (A) and (B) are Ionisation isomers.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 20 The reactions which cannot be applied to prepare an alkene by elimination, are

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

Option 1:
B & E Only

Option 2:
B, C & D Only

Option 3:
A, C & D Only

446
 Option 4:
B & D Only

Correct Answer:
B & D Only
Solution:

Option (B) and (D) reaction are not able to form alkene as a product.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 21 An organic compound weighing 500 mg , produced 220 mg of CO . on complete
2

combustion. The percentage composition of carbon in the compound is________%. (nearest

integer)
(Given molar mass in gmol of C : 12, O : 16 )
−1

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:

447
 CuO

− Organic compound
→ CO 2 + H 2 O
Δ

moles
−3
220×10 −3
n CO 2 = = 5 × 10
44
−3
m C = 5 × 10 × 12

m carbon =
−3
5×10 ×12
% −3
× 100 = 12%
500×10

Correct

Hence, the answer is 12.

Q. 22 Thyroxine, the hormone has given below structure

The percentage of iodine in thyroxine is ___________ %. (nearest integer)

(Given molar mass in gmol C : 12. H : 1, O : 16, N : 14, I : 127)
−1

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:

→ Molecular formula of Thyroxine ⇒ C 15 H 11 O 4 NI 4

→ Molecular mass of Thyroxine -

C → 15 × 12 = 180

H → 11 × 1 = 11

O → 16 × 4 = 64

N → 14 × 1 = 14

I → 127 × 4 = 508

→ Molecular mass of Thyroxine ⇒ 777

448
 508
→ % of Iodine = × 100
777

= 65.38%

Nearest integer = 65

Hence, the answer is 65.

Q. 23 1 Faraday electricity was passed through Cu (1.5 M, 1 L)/Cu and 0.1 Faraday was
2+

passed through Ag (0.2M, 1 L)/Ag electrolytic cells. After this the two cells were
+

connected as shown below to make an electrochemical cell. The emf of the cell thus formed
at 298 K is -

0
Given: E 2+ = 0.34 V
Cu /Cu

0
E + = 0.8 V
Ag /Ag

2.303RT
= 0.06 V
F

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
+2 −
* Cu + 2e ⟶ Cu

(1 f araday = charge on 1 mole electron)

t = 0 1.5 1 mole

t = t 1 − 0.5 mole

+2
[Cu ] = 1M af ter electrolysis

−
∗ Ag ⊕ +e ⟶ Ag

t = 0 0.2 0.1 mole

t = t 0.1 − −

+
[Ag ] = 0.1 M af ter electrolysis

449
Cell Cu (s) + 2Ag
+

(aq)
→ Cu
+2

(aq)
+ 2Ag (s)

reaction
+2
0.06 [Cu ]
∘
E = E − log
2
n +
[Ag ]

0.06 1
E = (0.8 − 0.34) − log = 0.4 V
2
2 (0.1)

Correct answer = 400 mV

Hence, the answer is 400 mV.

Q. 24 The percentage dissociation of a salt (MX 3
) solution at given temperature (van't Hoff factor
i = 2) is__________% (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
+3 ∘
MX 3 → M + 3X

i = 1 + (n − 1)α

i = 1 + (4 − 1)α = 2

1
α = = 33.33% ≈ 33%
3

Hence, the answer is 33%.

Q. 25 The number of paramagnetic complex among
3
[FeF 6 ] , [Fe(CN) 6 ]
3−
, [Mn(CN) 6 ]
3−
, [Co(C 2 O 4 ) ]
3
3−
, [MnCl 6]
3−
and [CoF 6]
3−
, which
involved d 2
sp
3
hybridization is ____________

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
[FeF 6 ]
3−
Paramagnetic sp
3
d
2

[Fe(CN) 6 ]
3−
Paramagnetic 2
d sp
3

[Mn(CN) 6 ]
3−
Paramagnetic 2
d sp
3

[Co(C 2 O 4 ) ]
3
3−
Paramagnetic 2
d sp
3

450
[MnCl 6 ]
3−
Paramagnetic sp
3
d
2

[CoF 6 ]
3−
Paramagnetic sp
3
d
2

Only [Fe(CN) 6]
3−
and [Mn(CN) ] are paramagnetic and d
6
3− 2
sp
3
hybridisation of metal.

Hence, the answer is 2.

Maths
Q. 1 tan(5(x)
1
3 ) log (1+3x )
2

is equal to
e

lim x→0 + 4
2
−1 5(x) 3
(tan 3√x) (e −1)

Option 1:
1

15

Option 2:
1

Option 3:
1

Option 4:
5

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
1
3 2
tan(5(x) ) log (1+3x )
e

lim x→0 + 4
2
−1 5(x) 3
(tan 3√x) (e −1)

1/3 2 2 4/3 1/3 2

tan (5x ) (3√ x) ℓ (1 + 3x ) 5x 5x ⋅ 3x
lim ( ) ⋅ ( )( )( ) ×
2 2 4
+ 1/3 5x 3 4/3
x→0 5x −1 3x e − 1 5x ⋅ 9x
= (tan 3√x)

1
=
3

451
Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 2 If the shortest distance between the lines x−1

=
y−2
=
z−3
and x
=
y
=
z−5
is 5
,
2 3 4 1 α 1 √6

then the sum of all possible values of α is

Option 1:
3

Option 2:
3
−
2

Option 3:
3

Option 4:
-3

Correct Answer:
-3

Solution:

452
−

S.D. =
→
BA ⋅ n

→
|n|
=
L1 :

L1 :

→
x =

(^

6 (64a

⇒ 116α

∣
x − 1

i + 2^
x

α1 + α2 =

Q. 3
2

→
|n|

⇒ 6(13 − 8α)

Option 1:
21.1

Option 2:
19.8

Option 3:
22.1

Option 4:
20.9
^
i
2

→
^ ⋅ n
j − 2k)
^
j

1
=

α
=
y − 2

=^

116

Hence, the answer is option (4).

3

z − 5

1
=

i(3 − 4α) − ^

→
z − 3

= 25 ((4α − 3)

− 280α + 169) = 25 (20α

2
+ 348α − 164 = 0

−348
= −3
4

^
j(−2) + k(2α − 3)

2
+ (2α − 3)

2
2

− 36α + 34)
+ 16)

Let x = −1 and x = 2 be the critical points of the function

f (x) = x + ax + b log |x| + 1, x ≠ 0. Let m and M respectively be the absolute

is equal to
3

(Take log 2 = 0.7 ):

e
2
e

minimum and the absolute maximum values of f in the interval [−2, − ]. Then |M + m|
1

453
 Correct Answer:
21.1

Solution:
2 2
f (x) = x + ax + b ln |x| + 1, x ≠ 0

b
2
f (x) = 3x + 2ax +
x
′
f (−1) = 3 − 2a − b = 0

b
′
f (−2) = 12 + 4a − = 0
2

−9
a = , b = 12
2
2
12 3(x + 1)(x + 2)
2
f (x) = 3x − 9x + =
x x

Max. at n = −1

9
2 2
f (x) = x − x + 12 ln |x| + 1
2
9 9
f (−1) = −1 − + 1 = −
2 2

M = −4.5

Min. value at x = −2
f (−2) = −8 − 18 + 12 ln 2 + 1

m = −25 + 12 ln 2 = −16.6

|M + m| = 21.1

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 4 The remainder when ((64) (64)

)
(64)
is divided by 7 is equal to

Option 1:
4

Option 2:
1

Option 3:
3

Option 4:
6

454
 Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Let N = ((64)
64
64
)

2
64
N = (64)
2
64 2
N = (1 + 63) , let 64 = n

Expanding by binomial
n n n 2
N = (1 + 63) = 1 + C 1 63 + C 2 (63) + ……

= 1 + 63λ = 1 + 7(9λ)

Remainder when divided by 7 is 1.

Hence, the answer is option (2).

Q. 5 Let P be the parabola, whose focus is (−2, 1) and directrix is 2x + y + 2 = 0. Then the sum
of the ordinates of the points on P , whose abscissa is -2 , is

Option 1:
3

Option 2:
5

Option 3:
1

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
Equation of a parabola

455
 2
2x+y+2
2 2
(x + 2) + (y − 1) = ( )
√5

2 2 2
5 [(x + 2) + (y − 1) ] = (2x + y + 2)

2 2
Put x = −2, 5(y − 1) = (y − 2)

2 2
5 (y − 2y + 1) = y − 4y + 4

3
2
⇒ 4y − 6y + 1 = 0 ⇒ y 1 + y 2 =
2

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 6 Let y = y(x) be the solution curve of the differential equation

2 x x 3
x (x + e )dy + (e (x − 2)y − x )dx = 0, x > 0

passing through the point (1, 0). Then y(2) is equal to :

Option 1:
4
2
4−e

Option 2:
2
2
2+e

Option 3:
2
2
2−e

Option 4:
4
2
4+e

456
 Correct Answer:
4
2
4+e

Solution:
2 x x 3
x (x + e )dy + (e (x − 2)y − x )dx = 0

dy
2 x x 3
x (x + e ) + e (x − 2)y = x
dx
x 2
dy e (x − 2) x
+ y =
2 x 2 x
dx x (x + e ) x + e

x 1 2
e ( )dx
2 x2 x2
e (x−2) ∫ dx
∫ dx e
x

x(x 2 +e 2 ) (1+ )
x2
I.F. = e = e
x 2 x x
e x e − e 2x
Let 1 + = t ⇒ dx = dt
2 4
x x
x x
ln(1+
e
) e
2
⇒ I.F. e x
= 1 +
2
x
x 2 2 x
e x x + e
Now y (1 + ) = ∫ ⋅ dx + C
2 2 x 2
x x + e x
x
e
y (1 + ) = x + C
x2

Passing through (1, 0)

⇒ C = −1

x − 1
y = x
e
1 + 2
x

1 4
y(2) = =
2 2
e
1 + 4 + e
4

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 7 From a group of 7 batsmen and 6 bowlers, 10 players are to be chosen for a team, which
should include at least 4 batsmen and at least 4 bowlers. One batsman and one bowler who
are the captain and vice-captain, respectively, of the team should be included. Then the total
number of ways such a selection can be made is

Option 1:
165

457
 Option 2:
155

Option 3:
145

Option 4:
135

Correct Answer:
155

Solution:
7 Batsmen & 6 Bowlers
To select 10 players, including at least
4 Batsmen & 4 Bowlers
Captain & vice-captain have already been selected
No. of ways = C × C + C × C + C ×
6
5
5
3
6
4
5
4
6
3
5
C5

= 6 × 10 + 15 × 5 + 20 × 1

= 60 + 75 + 20 = 155

Hence, the answer is option (2).

Q. 8 If for θ ∈ [− , the points (x, y) = (3 tan (θ + ), 2 tan (θ +

π
, 0]
π π
)) lie on
3 3 6

xy + αx + βy + γ = 0, then α + β + γ is equal to :
2 2 2

Option 1:
80

Option 2:
72

Option 3:
96

458
 Option 4:
75

Correct Answer:
75
Solution:
tan θ + √ 3
x = 3( )
1 − √ 3 tan θ

x − √ 3 tan θ = 3 tan θ + 3√ 3

x − 3√ 3
tan θ = ⋯ (1)
3 + √ 3x

1
⎛ tan θ + ⎞
√3
2 = y
tan θ
⎝ 1 − ⎠
√3

2(√ 3 tan θ + 1) = y(√ 3 − tan θ) … .

using (1) and (2)

x − 3√ 3 (x − 3√ 3)
2( + 1) = y (√ 3 − )
√3 + x √ 3(√ 3 + x)

2√ 3(x − 3√ 3 + x + √ 3) = y(3(√ 3 + x) − x + 3√ 3)

4√ 3x − 12 = y(2x + 6√ 3)

xy − 2√ 3x + 3√ 3y − 6 = 0

⇒ α = −2√ 3, β = 3√ 3, γ = −6

2 2 2
α + β + γ = 12 + 27 + 36 = 75

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 9 Let C be the circle in the third quadrant of radius 3 that touches both coordinate axes. Let
1

C be the circle with centre (1, 3) that touches C externally at the point (α, β). If
2 1

, gcd(m, n) = 1, then m + n is equal to :

2 m
(β − α) =
n

Option 1:
9

Option 2:
13

459
 Option 3:
22

Option 4:
31

Correct Answer:
22
Solution:
2 2 2
C 1 : (x + 3) + (y + 3) = 3

Let C and C has centres A (−3

1 2 1 − 3) and B(1, 3)

AB = √ 16 + 36 = 2√ 13

r1 = 3 and r 2
= 2√ 13 − 3

r 1 (1)+r 2 (−3) r 1 (3)+r 2 (−3)

P(α, β), α = ,β =
r 1 +r 2 r 1 +r 2

3−3(2√ 13−3) 18−6√ 13

α = ,β = ,
2√ 13 2√ 13

2
6
(β − α) = ( )
2√ 13
2
6
2
(β − α) = ( ) , m + n = 22
2√ 13

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 10 The integral ∫
π (x+3) sin x
dx is equal to :
2
0 1+3 cos x

460
 Option 1:
π
(π + 1)
√3

Option 2:
π
(π + 2)
√3

Option 3:
π
(π + 6)
3√ 3

Option 4:
π
(π + 4)
2√ 3

Correct Answer:
π
(π + 6)
3√ 3

Solution:
π
(x + 3) sin x
I = ∫ dx
2
0
1 + 3 cos x
π
(π − x + 3) sin x
I = ∫ dx
0
(1 + 3 cos 2 x)

π π/2
(π + 6) sin x ⋅ dx (π + 6) sin x
2I = ∫ = 2∫
2 2
0
(1 + 3 cos x) 0
(1 + 3 cos x)

π/2
(π + 6) sin x ⋅ dx π
I = ∫ = (π + 6)
2
0
(1 + 3 cos x) 3√ 3

√ 3 cos x = t

√ 3 sin x = dt

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 11 Among the statements

(S1): The set {z ∈ C − {−i} : |z| = 1 and is purely real} contains exactly two
z−i

z+i

elements, and (S2) : The set {z ∈ C − {−1} : |z| = 1 and is purely imaginary }
z−1

z+1

contains infinitely many elements.

461
 Option 1:
both are incorrect

Option 2:
only (S1) is correct

Option 3:
only (S2) is correct

Option 4:
both are correct

Correct Answer:
only (S2) is correct

Solution:
z − i z̄ + i
S 1 : |z| = 1, =
z + i z̄ − i

⇒ (z − i)(z̄ − i) = (z + i)(z̄ + i)

2 2
|z| − i(z + z̄) − 1 = |z| + i(z + z̄) − 1

i(z + z̄) = 0

z + z̄ = 2 cos θ = 0 ⇒ cos θ = 0

z = 0 + 0i, |z| ≠ 1

z − 1 z̄ − 1
S1 : + = 0
z + 1 z̄ + 1

(z − 1)(z̄ + 1) + (z + 1)(z̄ − 1) = 0

2 2
⇒ |z| + (z − z̄) − 1 + |z| + (z − z̄) − 1 = 0

2
|z| = 1

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 12 The mean and standard deviation of 100 observations are 40 and 5.1, respectively. By
mistake, one observation is taken as 50 instead of 40. If the correct mean and the correct
standard deviation are μ and σ respectively, then 10(μ + σ) is equal to

462
 Option 1:
445

Option 2:
451

Option 3:
447

Option 4:
449

Correct Answer:
449

Solution:
100(40) − 50 + 40
Actual means = μ =
100

1
μ = 40 − = 39.9
10

Incorrect variance
2
∑x
2 i – 2
(5.1) = − (x)
100
2 2 2
∑ x i = 100 × (40 ) + 100(5.1)

2 4 2
∑ x i = 16 × 10 + (5.1) × 100 = 162601

2 2 2
∑x − 50 + 40
2 i 2
σ = − (μ)
100
2 2
σ = 1617.01 − (39.9) = 25

σ = 5

10(μ + σ) = 10(39.9 + 5)

= 10 × 44.9 = 449

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

463
 Q. 13 Let x , x , x , x be in a geometric progression. If 2, 7, 9, 5 are subtracted respectively
1 2 3 4

from x , x , x , x then the resulting numbers are in an arithmetic progression. Then the
1 2 3 4

value of (x x x x ) is :
1

24
1 2 3 4

Option 1:
72

Option 2:
18

Option 3:
36

Option 4:
216

Correct Answer:
216

Solution:
x1 , x2 , x3 , x4 → G.P.

Let a, ar, ar , ar → G.P.

2 3

Now a-2, ar −7, ar − 9, ar 2 3

− 5 → A.P.
2
2(ar − 7) = a − 2 + ar − 9.

2 3
2 (ar − 9) = ar − 7 + ar − 5.

Solving r = 2, a = −3
4 6
∴ Product = x1 , x2 , x3 , x4 = a r = (81 × 64)/24 = 216

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 14 Let the set of all values of p ∈ R, for which both the roots of the equation
x − (p + 2)x + (2p + 9) = 0 are negative real numbers, be the interval (α, β]. Then
2

β − 2α is equal to

464
 Option 1:
0

Option 2:
9

Option 3:
5

Option 4:
20

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
Using the location of roots :

(i) D ≥ 0
(ii)−b

2a
< 0

(iii) a. f (0) > 0

2
(p + 2) − 4(2p + 9) ≥ 0

(p + 4)(p − 8) ≥ 0 p + 2 < 0 2p + 9 > 0

Intersection p ∈ (− 9

2
, −4]

∴ β − 2α = −4 + 9 = 5

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 15 Let A be a 3 × 3 matrix such that |adj(adj(adj A))| = 81. If

2
(n−1) 2
(3n −5n−4)
S = {n ∈ Z : (| adj(adj A)|) 2 = |A| }

then ∑ is equal to
2
(n +n)
A
n∈S

465
 Option 1:
866

Option 2:
750

Option 3:
820

Option 4:
732

Correct Answer:
732

Solution:
| adj(adj)(adjA)| = 81

4
⇒ | adj A| = 81

⇒ | adj A| = 3

2
⇒ | A| = 3

⇒ | A| = √ 3
2
(n−1)
2
4 2 3n −5n−4
(| A| ) = |A|

2 2
⇒ 2(n − 1) = 3n − 5n − 4

2 2
⇒ 2n − 4n + 2 = 3n − 5n − 4

2
⇒ n − n − 6 = 0

⇒ (n − 3)(n + 2) = 0

⇒ n = 3, −2
2
n +n
∑ A

n∈S

2 12
= A + A

= 3 + 36 = 3 + 729 = 732

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 16 If the area of the region bounded by the curves y = 4 − x

2

and y = x−4
is equal to α,
4 2

then 6α equals

466
 Option 1:
250

Option 2:
210

Option 3:
240

Option 4:
220

Correct Answer:
250

Solution:

4 2
x x − 4
Area = ∫ {(4 − ) − ( )}dx
−6
4 2

4 2
x x − 6
= ∫ {− − }dx
−6
4 2

3 2
x x 4
125
α = − − + 6x| =
−6
12 4 3

∴ 6α = 250

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

467
 Q. 17 Let the system of equations :

2x + 3y + 5z = 9

7x + 3y − 2z = 8

12x + 3y − (4 + λ)z = 16 − μ

have infinitely many solutions. Then the radius of the circle centred at (λ, μ) and touching
the line 4x = 3y is

Option 1:
17

Option 2:
7

Option 3:
7

Option 4:
21

Correct Answer:
7

Solution:

468
∣2

12

16 − μ

20 − 27

5
3

Option 1:
(4, 22, 7)

Option 2:
(5, 4, 3)

Option 3:
3

(10, −29, −50)

Option 4:
(7, 15, 13)

Correct Answer:
(7, 15, 13)

Solution:
−2

−(λ + 4)
5

−2

−9

length of

x−3

1
7

=
= 0

⇒ 12(−21) − 3(−39) − (λ + 4)(−15) = 0

⇒ −252 + 117 + 15(1 + 4) = 0

⇒ 15λ + 177 − 252 = 0

⇒ 15λ − 75 = 0 ⇒ λ = 5

3 5

= 0 ⇒

⇒ 7 − 7(μ − 8) = 0 ⇒ 1 − (μ − 8) = 0 ⇒ μ = 9

⇒ centre of circle (5, 9)

radius =

y−4

2
=
⊥

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 18
1

μ − 8

16 − μ
0

3
7

−9

f rom centre (5, 9) =

= 0

Let the line L pass through (1, 1, 1) and intersect the lines x−1

2
=
y+1

Then, which of the following points lies on the line L ?

z

1
=
z−1

4
and

469
Dr's of AC ⇒ 2λ, 3λ − 2, 4λ
Dr's of BC ⇒ μ + 2, 2μ + 3, μ − 1
μ+2 2μ+3 μ−1
⇒ = =
2λ 3λ−2 4λ

⇒ 2(μ + 2) = μ − 1 ⇒ μ = −5

⇒ Dr's of BC ⇒ 3, 7, 6
⇒ equation of L ⇒
x−1 y−1 z−1
= =
3 7 6

(7, 15, 13) satisfies.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 19 Let the angle θ, 0 < θ < π

between two unit vectors a
^ and ^
b be sin
−1
(
√ 65
. If the vector
)
2 9

→ → →
a + 6^
c = 3^ b + 9(^ ^
a × b) , then the value of 9(c ⋅ ^ ^ is
a) − 3(c ⋅ b)

Option 1:
31

Option 2:
27

Option 3:
29

Option 4:
24

Correct Answer:
29

Solution:

470
 → →
→ → →
c = 3a + 6 b + 9(a × b)

−1 √ 65 √ 65 4
sin ( ) ⇒ sin θ = ⇒ cos θ =
9 9 9

→→ →2 → → 6⋅4 51
c ⋅ a = 3|a| + 6a ⋅ b = 3 + =
9 9

→ →
→ →
→ 2
c ⋅ a = 3a ⋅ b + 6| b| =
3⋅4

9
+ 6 =
22

→→ → →
∴ 9(c ⋅ a) − 3(c ⋅ b) = 51 − 22 = 29

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 20 Let ABC be the triangle such that the equations of lines AB and AC are 3y − x = 2 and
x + y = 2, respectively, and the points B and C lie on the x-axis. If P is the orthocentre of

the triangle ABC, then the area of the triangle PBC is equal to

Option 1:
4

Option 2:
10

Option 3:
8

Option 4:
6

Correct Answer:
6

Solution:

Equation of Altitude AP : x = 1
Equation of Altitude BP : y − 0 = 1(x + 2)

471
⇒ x = 1&

x − y + 2 = 0

P (1, 3)

Area of △P BC =
1

2
× 4 × 3 = 6

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 21 The number of points of discontinuity of the function f (x) = [ x

2

,
] − [√x], x ∈ [0, 4]
2

where [⋅] denotes the greatest integer function is

Correct Answer:
8

Solution:
Check for [ and [√x] becomes integers. {0, 1, √2, 2, √6, √8, √10, √12, √14, 4} Continuous at
2
x
]
2

, continuous at 4 , occurs at x = √2
2
+ − x
0 [ ] = [√x]
2

⇒ Not continuous

∴ function is discontinuous at 8 points.

Hence, the answer is 8 points.

Q. 22 The number of relations on the set A = {1, 2, 3} containing at most 6 elements including
(1, 2), which are reflexive and transitive but not symmetric, is ______

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
A = {1, 2, 3}

(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2) ∈ R

The remaining elements are

(2, 1), (2, 3), (1, 3), (3, 1), (3, 2)

(1) If the relation contains exactly 4 elements, = 1 way

(2) If the relation contains exactly 5 elements

472
It can be (1, 3), (3, 2) ⇒ 2 ways
(3) If a relation contains exactly 6 elements

It can be

((2, 3), (1, 3)), ((1, 3), (3, 2)), ((3, 1), (3, 2))

⇒ 3 ways.

Total = 6 ways

Hence, the answer is 6 ways.

Q. 23 Consider the hyperbolax

2

−
y
2

= 1 having one of its focus at P(−3, 0). If the latus

2 2
a b

rectum through its other focus subtends a right angle at P and a b = α√2 − β, α, β ∈ N
2 2

Correct Answer:
1944

Solution:
f l ≡ (−ae, 0) ≡ P(−3, 0)

⇒ ae = 3

2
b /a
∘
tan 45 =
2ae
2
b
2ae =
a
2
b = 6a

Also a 2
e
2
= a
2
+ b
2

473
∣
9 = a

a
2
2

= 6(135√ 2 − 189)
+ 6a

+ 6a − 9 = 0

a = −3 ± 3√ 2 = −3(1 ± √ 2)

∴ a b
2 2
= a

α = 810 and β = 1134

∴ α + β = 1944
2

Hence, the answer is 1944.

Q. 24

Correct Answer:
36

Solution:
a

b c
d
⋅ 6a = 6a
3

The number of singular matrices of order 2, whose elements are from the set {2, 3, 6, 9} is

= ad − bc ⇒ ad = bc

Case-I Exactly 1 no. is used ⇒ All singular = C

Case-II Exactly 2 no. is used ⇒ C × 2 × 2

Case-IV Exactly 4 No. is used

ad = bc

⇒ 2 × 9 = 3 × 6

−
9 −

Total = 36
2
⇒
4

Hence, the answer is 36.

Q. 25

Correct Answer:
13

Solution:
C 1 × 21
4

Case-III Exactly 3 no is used. None will be singular

2
4
1

For n ≥ 2, let S denote the set of all subsets of {1, 2 … … , n} with no two consecutive
n

numbers. For example {1, 3, 5} ∈ S , but {1, 2, 4} ∉ S . Then n ( S ) is equal to _____.

6 6 5

474
A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5 … . . . n}

No. of subsets having r elements such that no two are consecutive is = n−r+1
Cr

for n = 5, no. of ways = C 6r

r

Subsets having no element = 1

Subsets having exactly 1 element = C = 5
5
1

Subsets having exactly 2 element = C = 6

4
2

Subsets having exactly 3 element = C = 1

3
3

⇒ 5 + 6 + 1 + 1 = 13

Hence, the answer is 13.

475
 JEE Main 2025

7 April - Shift 2
th

Question Paper with Solution

476
Physics
Q. 1 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The outer body of an air craft is made of metal which protects persons sitting
inside from lightning-strikes.
Reason (R) : The electric field inside the cavity enclosed by a conductor is zero.
In the light of the above statements, chose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :

Option 1:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Option 2:
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Option 3:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

Option 4:
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Correct Answer:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Solution:
The outer body of air craft made with metal to provide electrostatic shield, such that electric field inside
craft remain zero for any charge on outer surface.

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 2 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The density of the copper ( Cu) nucleus is greater than that of the carbon
64
29

C) nucleus.
12
(
6

Reason ( R ) : The nucleus of mass number A has a radius proportional to A . 1/3

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :

477
 Option 1:
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Option 2:
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Option 3:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Option 4:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Correct Answer:
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Solution:
Density of nucleus independent on mass number
(A) and radius is proportional to A so Assertion
1/3

(A) is incorrect but Reason (R) is correct.

Hence, the answer is option (2).

Q. 3
The unit of √ 2I

ϵ0 c
is :
( I = intensity of an electromagnetic wave, c : speed of light)

Option 1:
Vm

Option 2:
NC

Option 3:
Nm

Option 4:
−1
NC

Correct Answer:
−1
NC

Solution:

478
For √ 2l

E⋅c

Unit of I ⇒ S⋅ m
J
2

Unit of C ⇒ m/s
Unit of ⇒ C m N , 2 −2 −1

C ⇒ Amp. Sec. N = kg ⋅ m/s

2

Putting = N

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 4
The dimension of √ is equal to that of :
μ0

ϵ0

(μ 0
= Vacuum permeability and ϵ 0
= Vacuum permittivity)

Option 1:
Voltage

Option 2:
Capacitance

Option 3:
Inductance

Option 4:
Resistance

Correct Answer:
Resistance

Solution:
−2 −2
[μ 0 ] = [MLT A ]

−1 −3 4 2
[ε 0 ] = [M L T A ]

μ0 −2
2 −3
[√ ] = [ML T A ] ≃ [R]
ε0

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 5 A photo-emissive substance is illuminated with a radiation of wavelength λ so that it 1

releases electrons with de-Broglie wavelength λ The longest wavelength of radiation that
e

can emit photoelectron is λ . Expression for de-Broglie wavelength is given by :

0

( m : mass of the electron, h : Planck's constant and c: speed of light)

479
 Option 1:
h
λe =
√ 1 1
2mc( − )
λ λ
i 0

Option 2:
hλ 0
λe = √
2mc

Option 3:
h
λe =
1 1
√ 2mc( − )
λ λ
i 0

Option 4:
hλ i
λe = √
2mc

Correct Answer:
h
λe = √
1 1
2mc( − )
λ λ
i 0

Solution:
hc
= ϕ + KE
λi
2
hc h 1
ϕ = , KE = ( ) ⋅
λ0 λe 2m

2
hc hc h 1
= + ( ) ⋅
λi λ0 λe 2m
2
λe 1
( ) =
h 1 1
2mhc ( − )
λi λ0


h
λe =
1 1
⎷ 2mc ( − )
λi λ0

Hence, the answer is option (1).

480
 Q. 6 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The radius vector from the Sun to a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal
intervals of time and thus areal velocity of planet is constant.

Reason (R) : For a central force field the angular momentum is a constant.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :

Option 1:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Option 2:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Option 3:
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Option 4:
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Correct Answer:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Solution:
From Kepler's 2 nd
law
dA L
= = constant
dt 2m

and angular momentum for central force is constant.

so, both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explain (A)

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 7 The helium and argon are put in the flask at the same room temperature ( 300 K ). The ratio
of average kinetic energies (per molecule) of helium and argon is :
(Give : Molar mass of helium = 4 g/mol, Molar mass of argon = 40 g/mol )

Option 1:
1 : 10

481
 Option 2:
10 : 1

Option 3:
1 : √ 10

Option 4:
1 : 1

Correct Answer:
1 : 1

Solution:
Average K.E. = 3

2
RT , is not depends on molar/molecular mass.
so,
(K.E.) He
= 1
(K.E.) Ar

Hence, the answer is option (4).

Q. 8 A capillary tube of radius 0.1 mm is partly dipped in water (surface tension 70dyn/cm and
glass water contact angle ≃ 0 ) with 30 inclined with vertical. The length of water risen in
∘ ∘

the capillary is _____ cm .

(Take g = 9.8 m/s ) 2

Option 1:
82

Option 2:
57

Option 3:
71

Option 4:
68

Correct Answer:
82

Solution:

482
 2T cos θ
h =
ρgr

100
=
7

h 100
′
h = =
∘
cos θ 7 cos 30

200
′
h = ≈ 16.49
7√ 3

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 9 A mirror is used to produce an image with magnification of . If the distance between object
1

and its image is 40 cm , then the focal length of the mirror is ______ .

Option 1:
10 cm

Option 2:
12.7 cm

Option 3:
10.7 cm

Option 4:
15 cm

Correct Answer:
10.7 cm

Solution:
v 1
here =
u 4

u = 4v

and u + v = 40

so u = 32, v = 8

1 1 1
= +
f v u

F = 10.66 cm ≈ 10.7 cm

Hence, the answer is option (3).

483
 Q. 10 A dipole with two electric charges of 2μC magnitude each, with separation distance 0.5μ m,
is placed between the plates of a capacitor such that its axis is parallel to an electric field
established between the plates when a potential difference of 5 V is applied. Separation
between the plates is 0.5 mm . If the dipole is rotated by 30 from the axis, it tends to
∘

realign in the direction due to a torque. The value of torque is :

Option 1:
−9
5 × 10 Nm

Option 2:
−3
5 × 10 Nm

Option 3:
−12
2.5 × 10 Nm

Option 4:
−9
2.5 × 10 Nm

Correct Answer:
−9
5 × 10 Nm

Solution:
5 4
E = = 10 N/C
−3
0.5 × 10
−12
P = 10 C ⋅ m

U = P E sin θ

−9
= 5 × 10 N. m

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 11 Consider the following logic circuit.

The output is Y = 0 when :

484
 Option 1:
A = 1 and B = 1

Option 2:
A = 0 and B = 1

Option 3:
A = 1 and B = 0

Option 4:
A = 0 and B = 0

Correct Answer:
A = 1 and B = 1

Solution:

–
Y = A ⋅ B

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 12 Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Mass density (I) [ML

2
T
−3
]

(B) Impulse (II) [MLT

−1
]

(C) Power (III) [ML

2
T ]
0

(D) Moment of inertia (IV) [ML

−3
T ]
0

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

485
 Option 1:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

Option 2:
(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Option 3:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

Option 4:
(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

Correct Answer:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

Solution:
kg
−3 0
ρ = ⇒ [ML T ]
3
m
−1
I = F ⋅ Δt ⇒ [MLT ]

w 2 −3
P = ⇒ [ML T ]
t
2
MR
2 0
I = ⇒ [ML T ]
n

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 13 The equation of a wave travelling on a string is y = sin[20πx + 10πt], where x and t are
distance and time in SI units. The minimum distance between two points having the same
oscillating speed is:

Option 1:
5.0 cm

Option 2:
20 cm

Option 3:
10 cm

Option 4:
2.5 cm

486
 Correct Answer:
5.0 cm
Solution:
2π
k = 20π =
λ

λ = 10 cm

Minimum distance = λ

2
= 5 cm

Hence, the answer is option (1).

Q. 14 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)

Assertion (A) : Refractive index of glass is higher than that of air.

Reason (R) : Optical density of a medium is directly proportionate to its mass density which
results in a proportionate refractive index.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :

Option 1:
(A) is not correct but ( R ) is correct

Option 2:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Option 3:
(A) is correct but ( R ) is not correct

Option 4:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Correct Answer:
(A) is correct but ( R ) is not correct

Solution:
Speed of light v = c

for air v ≈ c
for glass v < c
so μ > μ
g s

and opted density ( μ ) does not depends on density of medium

so A is correct but R is incorrect

487
Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 15 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R).
Assertion (A) : Magnetic monopoles do not exist.
Reason (R) : Magnetic field lines are continuous and form closed loops.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :

Option 1:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Option 2:
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

Option 3:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Option 4:
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Correct Answer:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Solution:
The magnet does not exist in form of monopole and magnetic lines never intersect, continuous and form
a closed loop. Line initiates from north pole and end to south outside while inside vice versa.

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 16 Which one of the following forces cannot be expressed in terms of potential energy?

Option 1:
Coulomb's force

Option 2:
Gravitational force

Option 3:
Frictional force

488
 Option 4:
Restoring force

Correct Answer:
Frictional force
Solution:
Potential energy can be expressed for conservative force, so it can not be expressed for friction because
it is non-conservative force.

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 17 Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Isothermal (I) ΔW( work done ) = 0

(B) Adiabatic (II) ΔQ( supplied heat ) = 0

(C) Isobaric (III) ΔU (change in internal energy) ≠ 0

(D) Isochoric (IV) ΔU = 0

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1:
(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

Option 2:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

Option 3:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

Option 4:
(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

Correct Answer:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

Solution:
For isothermal,

489
T = constant, ΔT = 0, ΔU = nC v ΔT = 0 ...(IV)

For Adiabatic,

ΔQ = 0, ΔW = −ΔU ...(II)

For Isobaric,

p = constant, ΔU = nc, ΔT ≠ 0,

ΔQ ≠ 0, ΔW ≠ 0 ...(III)

For Isochoric,

v = constant, ΔW = 0, ΔQ = ΔU ≠ 0 ...(I)

Hence, the answer is option (3).

Q. 18 A helicopter flying horizontally with a speed of 360 km/h at an altitude of 2 km , drops an

object at an instant. The object hits the ground at a point O , 20 s after it is dropped.
Displacement of ' O ' from the position of helicopter where the object was released is :
(use acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s and neglect air resistance)
2

Option 1:
2√ 5 km

Option 2:
4 km

Option 3:
7.2 km

Option 4:
2√ 2 km

Correct Answer:
2√ 2 km

Solution:

490
Displacement = 2√2 km

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

Q. 19 An object with mass 500 g moves along x -axis with speed v = 4√x m/s. The force acting
on the object is:

Option 1:
8N

Option 2:
5N

Option 3:
6N

Option 4:
4N

Correct Answer:
4N

Solution:
dx
= 4√x
dt
2
x = 4t

dx
v = = 8t
dt
2
a = 8 m/s

F = ma = 4 N

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

491
 Q. 20 A transparent block A having refractive index μ = 1.25 is surrounded by another medium of
refractive index μ = 1.0 as shown in figure. A light ray is incident on the flat face of the
block with incident angle θ as shown in figure. What is the maximum value of θ for which
light suffers total internal reflection at the top surface of the block ?

Option 1:
−1
tan (4/3)

Option 2:
−1
tan (3/4)

Option 3:
−1
sin (3/4)

Option 4:
−1
cos (3/4)

Correct Answer:
−1
sin (3/4)

Solution:
At 1 refractions
st

5
1 × sin θ = sin α
4

4
sin α = sin θ. . . . (i)
5

At point of TIR

492
5
sin (θ c ) = 1
4

4
sin(90 − α) =
5

4
cos α =
5

3
sin α = . . . (ii)
5

From (i) and (ii)

−1 3
α = sin ( )
4

Hence, the answer is the option 3.

Q. 21 A parallel plate capacitor has charge 5 × 10 C. A dielectric slab is inserted between the
−6

plates and almost fills the space between the plates. If the induced charge on one face of the
slab is 4 × 10 C then the dielectric constant of the slab is ______ .
−6

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
E net = E 0 − E in

1
E in = E 0 (1 − )
k

1
Q in = Q 0 (1 − )
k

−6 −6
1
4 × 10 = 5 × 10 (1 − )
k

k = 5

Hence, the answer is 5.

Q. 22 An inductor of reactance 100Ω, a capacitor of reactance 50Ω, and a resistor of resistance

50Ω are connected in series with an AC source of 10 V , 50 Hz . Average power dissipated by

the circuit is
______ W.

493
 Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
I0 V0
P = cos ϕ
2

R 2
, Z = √ R + (X L − X C )
2
cos ϕ = = 50√ 2Ω
Z
1
cos ϕ =
2

P = 1 W

Hence, the answer is 1.

Q. 23 Two cylindrical rods A and B made of different materials, are joined in a straight line. The
ratio of lengths, radii and thermal conductivities of these rods are :
= 2 and . The free ends of rods A and B are maintained at
LA 1 rA KA 1
= , =
LB 2 rB KB 2

400 K, 200 K, respectively. The temperature of rods interface is

_____ K , when equilibrium is established.

Correct Answer:
360

Solution:
2 2
K A πr (400 − T ) K B πr (T − 200)
A B
=
LA LB
2
KA rA LA
( ) (400 − T ) = (T − 200)
KB rB LB

T = 360K

Hence, the answer is 360.

Q. 24 →
The electric field in a region is given by E = (2^i + 4^j + 6k)
^
× 10 N/C. The flux of the field
3

through a rectangular surface parallel to x − z plane is 6.0Nm C . The area of the surface
2 −1

is ______ cm .
2

Correct Answer:
15

494
Solution:
E→ = (2^i + 4^j + 6k)
^ × 10 3
N/C

→ →
ϕ = E ⋅ S

3
= [(2^
i + 4^
j + 6k) − (a^
j)] × 10

3
6 = A4 × 10

6
A = ms
3
4 × 10

= 15 cm

Hence, the answer is 15.

Q. 25 M and R be the mass and radius of a disc. A small disc of radius R/3 is removed from the
bigger disc as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of remaining part of bigger disc about
an axis AB passing through the centre O and perpendicular to the plane of disc is M R .
4

x
2

The value of x is ______ .

Correct Answer:
9

Solution:
m1 = M

2
MR
I0 =
2
2
R
2
m( ) MR
3
I0 = =
2 81 × 2
2
2 2
MR MR M 2R
(I net ) = { + × ( ) }
O
2 81 × 2 9 3

4 2
= MR
9

495
Hence, the answer is 9.

Chemistry
Q. 1 Given below are two statements :
Statement (I) : On hydrolysis, oligo peptides give rise to fewer number of α-amino acids
while proteins give rise to a large number of β-amino acids.
Statement (II) : Natural proteins are denatured by acids which convert the water soluble
form of fibrous proteins to their water insoluble form.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :

Option 1:
Both statement I and statement II are correct

Option 2:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Option 3:
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

Option 4:
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Correct Answer:
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

Solution:
Protein give rise to alpha amino acid, incorrect statement.
Natural proteins are denatured by acid. Due to this, globules unfold and helices get uncoiled incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 2 Mixture of 1 g each of chlorobenzene, aniline and benzoic acid is dissolved in 50 mL ethyl
acetate and placed in a separating funnel, 5 M NaOH ( 30 mL ) was added in the same
funnel. The funnel was shaken vigorously and then kept aside. The ethyl acetate layer in the
funnel contains :

Option 1:
benzoic acid

496
 Option 2:
benzoic acid and aniline

Option 3:
benzoic acid and chlorobenzene

Option 4:
chlorobenzene and aniline

Correct Answer:
chlorobenzene and aniline
Solution:
NaOH and benzoic acid will react to form salt. Aniline being a base and chlorobenzene will remain in the
ethyl acetate layer.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 3 The hydration energies of K and Cl are -x and -y kJ/mol respectively. If lattice energy of
+ −

KCl is -z kJ/mol, then the heat of solution of KCl is :

Option 1:
+x − y − z

Option 2:
x + y + z

Option 3:
z − (x + y)

Option 4:
−z − (x + y)

Correct Answer:
z − (x + y)

Solution:
ΔH solution = (−ΔH L.E. ) + ΔH hydration

= −(−z) + (−x − y)

= z − (x + y)

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

497
 Q. 4 A(g) → B(g) + C(g) is a first order reaction.

Time T ∞

P system Pt P∞

The reaction was started with reactant A only. Which of the following expression is correct
for rate constant k ?

Option 1:
1 2(p ∞ −P t )
k = ln
t Pt

Option 2:
1 p∞
k = ln
t Pt

Option 3:
1 p∞
k = ln
t 2(p ∞ −P t )

Option 4:
1 p∞
k = ln
t (p ∞ −P t )

Correct Answer:
1 p∞
k = ln
t 2(p ∞ −P t )

Solution:
A(g) ⟶ B(g) +

t = 0 p0 0 0

t = t p0 − p p p

t = ∞ 0 p0 p0

t = t pt = p0 + p
At
t = ∞ 2p 0 = p ∞

For first order reaction

1 (p 0 ) p∞ p∞
A
k = ln p0 − p = − pt +
t (p t ) 2 2
A

1 p0
= ln = p∞ − pt
t p 0 −p

1 p∞
= ln
t 2(p ∞ −p t )

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

498
 Q. 5 " P " is an optically active compound with molecular formula C H O. When " P " is treated
6 12

with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine, it gives a positive test. However, in presence of Tollens

reagent, "P" gives a negative test. Predict the structure of "P".

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
P gives negative test with Tollen’s reagent, so it is not an aldehyde.
Also P is optically active.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

499
 Q. 6 Choose the incorrect trend in the atomic radii ( r ) of the elements :

Option 1:
r Br < r K

Option 2:
r Mg > r Al

Option 3:
r Rb < r Cs

Option 4:
r At < r Cs

Correct Answer:
r Mg > r Al

Solution:
r Mg > r Al due to lower effective nuclear charge.

Magnesium has a larger atomic radius than aluminum, measuring about 160 pm for magnesium
compared to about 143 pm for aluminum. This is primarily due to the effects of electronic configuration
and effective nuclear charge.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

500
Q. 7 Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
Conversion Reagents,
Conditions used

(A) (I) Warm, H 2

O

(B) (II) (a) NaOH, 368 K;

(b) H O
3
+

(C) (III) (a) NaOH, 443 K;

(b) H O
3
+

(D) (IV) (a) NaOH, 623 K, 300

atm ;
(b) H O
3
+

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

Option 2:
(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Option 3:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Option 4:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Correct Answer:
(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

501
Solution:
Presence of EWG at ortho and para-position of chlorobenzene will increase rate of aromatic nucleophilic
substitution due to stable intermediate.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q. 8 The correct statement amongst the following is :

Option 1:
The term 'standard state' implies that the temperature is 0 ∘
C

Option 2:
The standard state of pure gas is the pure gas at a pressure of 1 bar and temperature 273 K

Option 3:
Δf H
θ
298
is zero for O(g)

Option 4:
Δf H
θ
298
is zero for O 2( g)

Correct Answer:
Δf H is zero for O
θ
298 2
( g)

Solution:
Δ H
f
0
for O is zero and not for O.
298 2

The standard enthalpy of formation of any element in its most stable form is zero, regardless of
temperature (though typically reported at 298 K ).

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 9 Liquid A and B form an ideal solution. The vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B are 350
and 750 mm Hg respectively at the same temperature. If x and x are the mole fraction of
A B

A and B in solution while yA and y are the mole fraction of A and B in vapour phase then
B

Option 1:
xA yA
<
xB yB

Option 2:
xA yA
=
xB yB

502
 Option 3:
xA yA
>
xB yB

Option 4:
(x A − y A ) < (x B − y B )

Correct Answer:
xA yA
>
xB yB

Solution:
0 0
P = 350 mmHg P = 750 mmHg
A B

350x A 350x B
yA = yB =
PT PT

yA 350x A
=
yB 750x B
yA xA
⇒ <
yB xB

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 10 ' X ' is the number of acidic oxides among VO , V O , CrO , V O and Mn O . The
2 2 3 3 2 5 2 7

primary valency of cobalt in [Co(H NCH CH NH ) ] (SO ) is Y . The value of X + Y is

2 2 2 2
3 2
4
3

Option 1:
5

Option 2:
4

Option 3:
2

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
5

Solution:
Among VO 2
, V 2 O 3 , V 2 O 5 , CrO 3 and Mn 2
O7 , only CrO 3
&Mn 2 O 7 is acidic X = 2

Primary valency of cobalt in [Co(H 2

NCH 2 CH 2 NH 2 ) ]
3 2
(SO 4 ) is 3 as cobalt have +3 charge

503
Y = 3

X + Y = 5

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 11 The descending order of basicity of following amines is :

(A)

(D) CH NH
3 2

(E) (CH ) NH
3 2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
B>E>D>A>C

Option 2:
E>D>B>A>C

Option 3:
E>D>A>B>C

Option 4:
E>A>D>C>B

Correct Answer:
E>D>B>A>C

Solution:

504
E>D>B>A>C

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 12 Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
Complex Primary valency and
Secondary valency

(A) [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl (I) 3 6

(B) [Pt(NH 3 ) Cl (NO 2 )]

2
(II) 3 4

(C) Hg [Co(SCN) 4 ] (III) 2 6

(D) [Mg(EDTA)]
2−
(IV) 2 4

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

Option 2:
(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

505
 Option 3:
(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

Option 4:
(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

Correct Answer:
(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Solution:
P.V S.V
(A) [Co(en) Cl ]Cl
2 2 3 6
(B) [Pt(NH ) Cl (NO
3 2 2
)] 2 4
(C) Hg [Co(SCN) ] 4 3 4
(D) [Mg(EDTA)]
2−
2 6
(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 13 Match List-I with List-II

List - I List - II

(A) Solution of chloroform and (I) Minimum boiling

acetone azeotrope

(B) Solution of ethanol and water (II) Dimerizes

(C) Solution of benzene and (III) Maximum boiling

toluene azeotrope

(D) Solution of acetic acid in (IV) ΔV mix = 0

benzene
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Option 2:
(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

Option 3:
(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

506
 Option 4:
(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

Correct Answer:
(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Solution:
Acetone + chloroform shows negative deviation and forms maximum boiling point azeotrope. Ethanol
and water show positive deviation and form minimum boiling point azeotrope.

Benzene + toluene ⇒ Ideal solution

Hence, ΔV = 0
mix

Acetic acid will dimerise in benzene.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 14 In SO 2
, NO
−

2
and N the hybridizations at the central atom are respectively :
−

Option 1:
2
sp , sp
2
and sp

Option 2:
sp , sp and sp
2

Option 3:
2
sp , sp
2
and sp 2

Option 4:
sp, sp and sp
2

Correct Answer:
sp , sp and sp
2 2

Solution:
SO 2 ⇒ 2σbond +1 l.p. ⇒ sp hybridisation 2

⇒ 2σ bond +1 l.p. ⇒ sp hybridisation

− 2
NO
2

⇒ 2σ bond ⇒ sp hybridisation
−
N
3

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

507
 Q. 15 The number of unpaired electrons responsible for the paramagnetic nature of the following
complex species are respectively :
3− 3− 3− 3−
[Fe(CN) 6 ] , [FeF 6 ] , [CoF 6 ] , [Mn(CN) 6 ]

Option 1:
1, 5, 4, 2

Option 2:
1, 5, 5, 2

Option 3:
1, 1, 4, 2

Option 4:
1, 4, 4, 2

Correct Answer:
1, 5, 4, 2

Solution:
3− 3+ 5 5 0
[Fe(CN) 6 ] ⇒ Fe ,d ,t eg
2 g

⇒ 1 unpaired electron

[FeF 6 ]
3−
⇒ Fe
3+ 5
,d ,t
3
2 g
e
2
g
⇒ 5 unpaired electrons [CoF 6
]
3−
⇒ Co
3+ 6
,d ,t
4
2 g
e
2
g
⇒ 4 unpaired
electrons

[Mn(CN) 6 ]
3−
⇒Mn
3+ 4
, d ,t 2
4
g
0
eg C .

⇒ 2 unpaired electron

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

508
 Q. 16 The number of optically active products obtained from the complete ozonolysis of the given
compound is :

Option 1:
2

Option 2:
0

Option 3:
1

Option 4:
4

Correct Answer:
0

Solution:
[Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]
3+
⇒ Co
3+
,d ,t
6 6

2 g
0
eg ⇒ diamagnetic [Co(C O ) ] ⇒ Co , d , t
2 4 3
3− 3+ 6 6

2 g
0
eg ⇒

diamagnetic [MnCl 6
]
3−
⇒ Mn
3+
,d
4 3
,t
2 g
e ⇒ 4 unpaired electron, paramagnetic
1
g

[CoF 6 ]
3−
⇒ Co
3+
,d ,t
6 4
2 g
2
eg ⇒ 4 unpaired electron, paramagnetic
⇒ 1 unpaired electron, paramagnetic
3− 3+ 5 5 0
[Fe(CN) 6 ] ⇒ Fe ,d , t eg
2 g

[FeF 6 ]
3−
⇒ Fe
3+
,d ,t
5 3

2 g
2
eg ⇒ 5 unpaired electron

509
 Q. 17 Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : is more polar than

Statement (II) : Boiling point of is lower than but it is

more polar than

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is

Option 1:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

Option 2:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Option 3:
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

Option 4:
Both statement I and statement II are correct

Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

Solution:

is more polar than because

C – Cl bond is more polar than C – Br bond.

510
Boiling point of is less than that of because of non-polar nature and hence

lower intermolecular forces. is non-polar.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 18 The extra stability of half-filled subshell is due to
(A) Symmetrical distribution of electrons
(B) Smaller coulombic repulsion energy
(C) The presence of electrons with the same spin in non-degenerate orbitals
(D) Larger exchange energy
(E) Relatively smaller shielding of electrons by one another

Identify the correct statements

Option 1:
(B), (D) and (E) only

Option 2:
(A), (B), (D) and (E) only

Option 3:
(B), (C) and (D) only

Option 4:
(A), (B) and (D) only

Correct Answer:
(A), (B), (D) and (E) only

Solution:
The extra stability of a half-filled subshell is due to the symmetrical distribution of electrons, smaller
coulombic repulsion, larger exchange energy, and smaller shielding of electrons.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

511
 Q. 19 The correct statements from the following are :
(A) Tl is a powerful oxidising agent
3+

(B) Al does not get reduced easily

3+

(C) Both Al and Tl are very stable in solution

3+ 3+

(D) Tl is more stable than Tl

+ 3+

(E) Al and Tl are highly stable

3+ +

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

Option 2:
(A), (B), (D) and (E) only

Option 3:
(B), (D) and (E) only

Option 4:
(A), (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer:
(A), (B), (D) and (E) only

Solution:
Tl is a powerful oxidizing agent as Tl is more stable Tl
3+ + 3+
is not stable in solution due to inert pair
effect.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

512
 Q. 20 Given below are two statements :
1 M aqueous solution of each of Cu(NO ) , AgNO 3 2 3
, Hg 2 (NO 3 ) ; Mg(NO 3 )
2 2
are
electrolysed using inert electrodes,
Given : E 0
= 0.80 V, E
∗
Ag /Ag
= 0.79 V, E
0

Hg
2+
/Hg
0

Cu
2+
/Cu
= 0.24 V and
2

0
E 2+
= −2.37 V
Mg /Mg

Statement (I) : With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode
will be Ag, Hg and Cu

Statement (II) : Magnesium will not be deposited at cathode instead oxygen gas will be
evolved at the cathode.

In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below

Option 1:
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

Option 2:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

Option 3:
Both statement I and statement II are correct

Option 4:
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Correct Answer:
Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

Solution:
Due to higher SRP, Ag will deposit first followed by Hg and Cu . Magnesium will not deposit, rather H 2
O

will get reduced due to higher SRP and H gas will be produced.
2

− − ∘
2H 2 O + 2e ⇌ H 2 + 2OH E = −0.827 V

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

513
 Q. 21 Only litre buffer solution was prepared by adding 0.10 mol each of NH and NH
3 4
Cl in
deionised water.

The change in pH on addition of 0.05 mol of HCl to the above solution is_______×10 ,
−2

(Nearest integer) (Given : pK of NH = 4.745 and log 3 = 0.477 )

b 3 10

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Initially

[NH 4 Cl] 0.1

pOH = pK b + log = pK b + log
[NH 3 ] 0.1

pOH = pK b

pH = 14 − pOH ⇒ pH = 9.255

When 0.05 mol HCl is added

+ +
NH 3 +H ⇌ NH
4

0.1 0.05

0.05 0 0.15

0.15
pOH = pK b + log = 5.222
0.05

pH = 8.778

Change in pH = 0.477 or 47.7 × 10 −2

Hence, the answer is 0.477.

Q. 22 In Dumas' method 292 mg of an organic compound released 50 mL of nitrogen gas (N ) at 2

300 K temperature and 715 mm Hg pressure. The percentage composition of ' N ' in the
organic compound is % (Nearest integer)

(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mmHg )

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:

514
 273 × (715 − 15) × 50
V N 2 at ST P =
300 × 760

= 41.9 mL

41.9
M N2 = × 28 = 0.052 g
22400

0.052 g
% N = × 100 = 17.94%
0.292

Hence, the answer is 17.94%.

Q. 23 Butane reacts with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water following the equation
given below
13
C 4 H 10 ( g) + O 2 ( g) → 4CO 2 ( g) + 5H 2 O(l)
2

If 174.0 kg of butane is mixed with 320.0 kg of O , the volume of water formed in litres
2

is__________ (Nearest integer)

[Given : (a) Molar mass of C, H, O are 12, 1, 16 g mol respectively, (b) Density of water
−1

−1
= 1 g mL ]

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
13
C 4 H 10 ( g) + O 2 ⟶ 4CO 2 ( g) + 5H 2 O(I)
2

Moles of C
174 kg 3
4 H 10 = = 3 × 10 moles
50 g

moles of O
320 kg
2 =
32 g

3
= 10 × 10 moles

1 mole C H ⇒4 moles O
10
13

2
2

3 × 10 moles C H
3 13 3
⇒ × 3 × 10
4 10 moleO 2
2

O2 is limiting reagent

Moles of H O formed =
2
10

13
× 5 × 2 × 10
3

Volume of H O formed =
2
10

13
× 5 × 2 × 18 L = 138.46 L

Hence, the answer is 138.46L.

515
 Q. 24 The number of paramagnetic metal complex species among
[Co(NH ) ]
3
,
6
3+
[Co(C O ) ]
2 4, [MnCl ] , [Mn(CN) ] , [CoF
3
3−
6
3−
6
3−
6
]
3−
, [Fe(CN) 6 ]
3−

and [FeF ] with same number of unpaired electrons is___________.

6
3−

Correct Answer:
-

Q. 25 Identify the structure of the final product (D) in the following sequence of the reactions :

Total number of sp hybridised carbon atoms in product D is.

2

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:

Number of sp hybridised carbon = 7

2

Hence, the answer is 7.

516
Maths
Q. 1 If the orthocentre of the triangle formed by the lines y = x + 1, y = 4x − 8 and
y = mx + c is at (3, −1), then m − c is :

Option 1:
0

Option 2:
-2

Option 3:
4

Option 4:
2

Correct Answer:
0

Solution:
y = x + 1

y = 4x − 8

CR ⊥ y = x + 1

⇒ CR : x + y − 2 = 0

K + 8
+ K − 2 = 0 ⇒ K = 0
4

Line AC : y = 0

517
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 2 → → → →
→ and →b be the vectors of the same magnitude such that
Let a . Then
|a+b|+|a−b|
= √2 + 1
→+→b|−|a
|a →−→b|
→ → 2

is :
|a+b|

→|
|a
2

Option 1:
2 + 4√ 2

Option 2:
1 + √2

Option 3:
2 + √2

Option 4:
4 + 2√ 2

Correct Answer:
2 + √2

Solution:
→ + →b|
|a √2 + 2
→ →
= → →
Let |a| = |b| = k, cos θ = a ∧ b

→
|a − b|
→ √2

→2 → 2
(√ 2|a + b|) = (√ 2 + 2) |a − b|
2
→ →
2 2 2
2 (k + k + 2k cos θ) = (6 + 4√ 2)

(1 + cos θ) = (3 + 2√ 2)(1 − cos θ)

1 + cos θ
= 3 + 2√ 2
1 − cos θ

1 4 + 2√ 2
=
cos θ 2 + 2√ 2

1 + √2
cos θ =
2 + √2

518
 → → 2

Now
|a+b| 2 2 2
k +k +2 cos θk
=
→|
|a
2 k
2

2 + 2√ 2
= 2 + 2 cos θ = 2 +
2 + √2

6 + 4√ 2
=
2 + √2

= 2 + √2

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 3 Let

A = {(α, β) ∈ R × R : |α − 1| ≤ 4 and |β − 5| ≤ 6}

and
2 2
B = {(α, β) ∈ R × R : 16(α − 2) + 9(β − 6) ≤ 144}.

Then

Option 1:
B ⊂ A

Option 2:
A ∪ B = {(x, y) : −4 ≤ x ≤ 4, −1 ≤ y ≤ 11}

Option 3:
neither A ⊂ B nor B ⊂ A

Option 4:
A ⊂ B

Correct Answer:
B ⊂ A

Solution:
Set A: For α

− 4 ≤ α − 1 ≤ 4

⇒ −3 ≤ α ≤ 5

519
For β

− 6 ≤ β − 5 ≤ 6

⇒ −1 ≤ β ≤ 11

Set B :
2 2
(α−2) (β−6)
+ ≤ 1
9 16

Clearly B ⊂ A

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 4 If the range of the function f (x) = 2

5−x
, x ≠ 1, 2, is (−∞, α] ∪ [β, ∞), then α 2
+ β
2

x −3x+2

is equal to :

Option 1:
190

Option 2:
192

Option 3:
188

Option 4:
194

Correct Answer:
194

Solution:

520
 5 − x
y =
2
x − 3x + 2
2
x y − 3xy + 2y = 5 − x

2
x y + x(1 − 3y) + 2y − 5 = 0

For x to be real

D > 0

2
(1 − 3y) − 4y(2y − 5) > 0

2 2
1 + 9y − 6y − 8y + 20y > 0

2
y + 14y + 1 > 0

y ∈ (−∞, α) ∪ (β, ∞)

α + β = −14

2 2 2
α + β = (α + β) − 2αβ

= 194

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 5 A bag contains 19 unbiased coins and one coin with head on both sides. One coin drawn at
random is tossed and head turns up. If the probability that the drawn coin was unbiased, is
, gcd(m, n) = 1, then n − m is equal to :
m 2 2

Option 1:
80

Option 2:
60

Option 3:
72

Option 4:
64

Correct Answer:
80

Solution:
Let U : let unbiased coin is drawn H : head turns up

521
 P (U ) ⋅ P (H /U )
⇒ P (U /H ) =
P (U )P (H /U ) + P (Ū ) ⋅ P (H /U )

19 1
⋅ 19 m
20 2
= = ( ) =
19 1 1 2
⋅ + ⋅ ( ) 21 n
20 2 20 2

2 2 2 2
n − m = 21 − 19 = (21 + 19)(21 − 19) = 80

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 6 Let a random variable X take values 0, 1, 2, 3 with

P(X = 0) = P(X = 1) = p, P(X = 2) = P(X = 3) and E (X 2
. Then the
) = 2E(X)

value of 8p − 1 is :

Option 1:
0

Option 2:
2

Option 3:
1

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
P (X = 0) = P (X = 1) = p and P (X = 2) = P (X = 3) = q

2p + 2q = 1

1
⇒ p + q =
2
2
E (X ) = 2E(x)

2 2 2 2
P (0 ) + p(1) + q(2) + q(3)

= 2(p(0) + p(1) + q(2) + q(3))

⇒ p = 3q

For (1) and (2)

522
 1 3
q = and p =
8 8

8p − 1 = 2

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 7 If the area of the region {(x, y) : 1 + x 2

≤ y ≤ min{x + 7, 11 − 3x}} is A, then 3 A is
equal to

Option 1:
50

Option 2:
49

Option 3:
46

Option 4:
47

Correct Answer:
50

Solution:

1 2

2 2
A = ∫ ((x + 7) − (x + 1))dx + ∫ ((1 − 3x) − (x + 1))dx
−2 1

50
=
3

∴ 3A = 50

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

523
 Q. 8 Let f : R → R be a polynomial function of degree four having extreme values at x = 4
and x = 5.
If lim = 5, then f (2) is equal to :
f (x)
x→0 2
x

Option 1:
12

Option 2:
10

Option 3:
8

Option 4:
14

Correct Answer:
10

Solution:
4 3 2
f (x) = ax + bx + cx + dx + e

f (4) = 0, f (5) = 0

Also lim
f (x)
x→0 2
= 5
x

4 3 2
ax +bx +cx +dx+e
⇒ lim x→0 ( 2
) = 5
x

⇒ d = e = 0

and c = 5
4 3 2
∴ f (x) = ax + bx + 5x

3 2
f (x) = 4ax + 3bx + 10x

f (4) = 256a + 48b + 40 = 0

f (5) = 500a + 75b + 50 = 0

Solving equations (i) and (ii)

524
 1 −3
We get a = ,b =
8 2

1 3
4 3 2
∴ f (x) = x − x + 5x
8 2

16 3 3 2
f (2) = − (2) + 5(2)
8 2

f (2) = 2 − 12 + 20

f (2) = 10

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 9 The number of solutions of the equation

θ 5θ 5θ
3
cos 2θ cos + cos = 2 cos
2 2 2
π π
in [− , ] is :
2 2

Option 1:
7

Option 2:
5

Option 3:
6

Option 4:
9

Correct Answer:
7

Solution:

525
 θ 5θ 5θ
3
2(cos 2θ) ⋅ (cos ) + 2 cos = 4 cos ( )
2 2 2

5θ 3θ 5θ
⇒ cos ( ) + cos + 2 cos ( )
2 2 2

15θ 5θ
= (cos + 3 cos )
2 2

3θ 15θ
⇒ cos ( ) + cos ( )
2 2

3θ 15θ
⇒ cos ( ) − cos = 0
2 2

9θ 6θ
⇒ 2 sin ( ) sin ( ) = 0, 3θ = 2nπ
2 2

9θ 2ηπ
∴ = ηπ → θ =
2 9

2ηπ
⇒ θ =
3

4π 3π 2π 2π 3π 4π
∴ θ = − ,− ,− , 0, , ,
9 9 9 9 9 9

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 10 Let a be the n
n
th
term of an A. P.
If S = a + a
n 1 2 + a 3 + … + a n = 700, a 6 = 7 and S 7 , then a is equal to :
= 7 n

Option 1:
56

Option 2:
65

Option 3:
64

Option 4:
70

Correct Answer:
64

Solution:

526
a 6 = 7 = a + 5d = 7

7
S7 = (2a + 6d) = 7(a + 3d) = 7
2

⇒ a + 3d = 1

Using (i) \& (ii)

⇒ 2d = 6 ⇒ d = 3, a 1 = −8

n
Sn = (2a + (n − 1)d) = 700
2
n
= (−16 + (n − 1)3) = 700
2

= n(3n − 19) = 1400, n > 0 ⇒ n = 25

⇒ a 25 = (−8) + 24 ⋅ (3) = 72 − 8 = 64

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 11 If the locus of z ∈ C , such that

z−1 z̄−1
Re ( ) + Re ( ) = 2
2z+i 2z̄−i

is a circle of radius r and center (a, b) then 15ab

r
2
is equal to :

Option 1:
24

Option 2:
12

Option 3:
18

Option 4:
16

Correct Answer:
18

Solution:

527
Re(z) + Re(z̄) = 2

⇒ Re(z) = 1

x + iy − 1
⇒ Re ( ) = 1
2x + i(2y + 1)

(x − 1) + iy
⇒ Re ( ) = 1
2x + i(2y + 1)

((x − 1) + iy)(2x − i(2y + 1))

⇒ Re = 1
(2x + i(2y + 1))(2x − i(2y + 1))

2 2
2x − 2x + 2y + y
⇒ = 1
2 2
4x + (2y + 1)

3 1
2 2
⇒ x + y + x + y + = 0
2 2

1 −3
Centre (a, b) = (− , )
2 4

√5
Radius =
4

15ab 3 16
= 15 ⋅ × = 18
2
r 8 5

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 12 Let the length of a latus rectum of an ellipse +

x
2 y
2

= 1 be 10 . If its eccentricity is the

2 2
a b

minimum value of the function f (t) = t + t + , t ∈ R, then a + b is equal to :

2 11

12
2 2

Option 1:
125

Option 2:
126

Option 3:
120

Option 4:
115

Correct Answer:
126

Solution:
2
2b 2
= 10 ⇒ b = 5a
a

528
e = f (t)|

⇒ √1 −

⇒ 1 −

⇒ 5a =

Hence, a
3 − 6 + 11

Option 1:
24

Option 2:
36

Option 3:
30

Option 4:
18
12

Correct Answer:
24

Solution:
Given:

(x

′
y −
2

2x
2
x +1
b

2
min

5a

+ b

′
b

+ 1)y − 2xy = (x

Divide by x 2
=

+ 1

y = (x

Integrating factor: μ(x) =

= t

2
2
=

9
2

⇒
+ t +

12

⇒ a = 9; So, b

= 81 + 45 = 126

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 13

:
2
′
b

+ 1) cos x
=

4
11

12

+ 2x

x +1
2
1
∣
5

9
t=

⇒ b

Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation

(x + 1)y − 2xy = (x + 2x + 1) cos x, y(0) = 1. Then ∫

2
1

4
=

= 45

4
2

+ 1) cos x,
1

=
−

5a
1

2
2
+
11

12

y(0) = 1
3

−3
y(x)dx is :

529
 d y y 2
( 2 ) = cos x ⇒ 2 = sin x + C ⇒ y = (x + 1)(sin x + C)
dx x +1 x +1

Using y(0) = 1, we get C = 1

So,
2
y(x) = (x + 1)(sin x + 1)

Now,
3 3 2
∫ y(x)dx = ∫ (x + 1)(sin x + 1)dx
−3 −3

Split:
(x
2
+ 1) sin x is odd ⇒ integral = 0
+ 1) is even
2
(x

3 3
2 2
∫ (x + 1)dx = 2 ∫ (x + 1)dx
−3 0

3
3
x
= 2[ + x]
3
0

= 2(9 + 3)

= 24

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 14 If the equation of the line passing through the point (0, − 1

, 0) and perpendicular to the
2

→
lines ^ ^ ^
r = λ(i + aj + bk) and
→
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
r = (i − j − 6k) + μ(−bi + aj + 5k)

is , then a + b + c + d is equal to :
x−1 y+4 z−c
= =
−2 d −4

Option 1:
10

Option 2:
14

Option 3:
13

Option 4:
12

530
 Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
Direction ratios of the given line are −2, d, and -4

⇒ −2 + ad − 4b = 0

and 2b + ad − 20 = 0
subtracting equations (i) and (ii)

6b − 18 = 0

b = 3

also, line passes through the point (0, −1

2
, 0)

1
0 − 1 − + 4 0 − c
2
⇒ = =
−2 d −4

⇒ d = 7, c = 2

From equation (i)

− 2 + 7a − 12 = 0

⇒ a = 2

a + b + c + d = 14

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 15 Let p be the number of all triangles that can be formed by joining the vertices of a regular
polygon P of n sides and q be the number of all quadrilaterals that can be formed by joining
2

the vertices of P. If p + q = 126, then the eccentricity of the ellipse = 1 is :

2 y
x
+
16 n

Option 1:
3

Option 2:
1

531
 Option 3:
√7

Option 4:
1

√2

Correct Answer:
1

√2

Solution:
n(n − 1)(n − 2)
n
P = C3 =
6

n(n − 1)(n − 2)(n − 3)

n
q = C4 =
24

p + q = 126

2 2
∴ (n − n) (n − n − 2) = 3024

2
Let m = n − n

m(m − 2) = 3024

2
m − 2m − 3024 = 0

m = 56

2
or n − n = 56

n = 8
2

Eqn. of ellipse,
2 2
x y b 1
∴ + = 1 e = √1 − 2
=
6 8 a √2

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 16 Consider the lines L : x − 1 = y − 2 = z and L : x − 2 = y = z − 1. Let the feet of the

1 2

perpendiculars from the point P(5, 1, −3) on the lines L and L be Q and R respectively. If
1 2

the area of the triangle PQR is A , then 4 A is equal to : 2

Option 1:
139

Option 2:
147

Option 3:
151

532
 Option 4:
143

Correct Answer:
147
Solution:
P (5, 1, −3)

L1 : x − 1 = y − 2 = z = λ

L2 : x − 2 = y = z − 1 = μ

Any point of L is Q(λ + 1, λ + 2, λ)

1

Any point of L is R(μ + 2, μ, μ + 1)

2

Now P Q < λ − 4, λ + 1, λ + 3⟩. ⟨1, 1, 1⟩ = 0

λ − 4 + λ + 1 + λ + 3 = 0

3λ = 0

⇒ λ = 0

∴ Q(1, 2, 0)

Also, P R < μ − 3, μ − 1, μ + 4 >. < 1, 1, 1 >= 0

μ − 3 + μ − 1 + μ + 4 = 0

⇒ μ = 0

R(2, 0, 1)

^ ^ ^
i j k
−
− 1 → → 1
Area = |P Q × P R| = 4 −1 −3||
2 2
3 1 −4

1 1 7√ 3
= |7^
i + 7^ ^ =
j + 7k| × 7 × √3 =
2 2 2

7√ 3
∵ A =
2

2 2
⇒ 4A = (7√ 3)

= 49 × 3

= 147

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 17 The number of real roots of the equation x|x − 2| + 3|x − 3| + 1 = 0 is :

533
 Option 1:
4

Option 2:
2

Option 3:
1

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
x|x − 2| + 3|x − 3| + 1 = 0

Case I: x < 2

− x(x − 2) − 3(x − 3) + 1 = 0

2
− x + 2x − 3x + 9 + 1 = 0

2
x + x − 10 = 0

−1 − √ 41 −1 + √ 41
x = or (rejected)
2 2

1 sol . n

Case II: 2 ≤ x < 3

x(x − 2) − 3(x − 3) + 1 = 0

2
x − 5x + 8 = 0

No solution
Case III: x ≥ 3

x(x − 2) + 3(x − 3) + 1 = 0

2
x + x − 8 = 0

−1 ± √ 33 n
x = ( no sol )
2

−1 − √ 41
∴ x = is the only solution
2

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

534
 Q. 18 Let e and e be the eccentricities of the ellipse x
2

+
y
2

= 1 and the hyperbola

1 2 2
b 25
2

, respectively. If b < 5 and e , then the eccentricity of the ellipse having

2
x y
− 2 = 1 1 e2 = 1
16 b

its axes along the coordinate axes and passing through all four foci (two of the ellipse and
two of the hyperbola) is :

Option 1:
4

Option 2:
3

Option 3:
√7

Option 4:
√3

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

535
 2 2 2
b b b
2 2 2
e1 : 1 − ⇒ e 1 e 2 = 1 = (1 − ) (1 + ) = 1
25 25 16

2
2
b
e : (1 + )
2
16

4
−b 2
−1 1
+ b [ + ] = 0
400 25 16

2
b 9 2
4 5
⇒ = ⇒ b = 9 ⇒ e1 = , e2 =
400 400 5 4
4
F 1 F 2 = 2be = (2)(5) ( ) = 8
5

5
F 3 F 4 = 2ae = 2(4) ⋅ ( ) = 10
4

2
8 6 3
⇒ eccentricity = √1 − ( ) = =
10 10 5

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 19 Let the system of equations

x + 5y − z = 1

4x + 3y − 3z = 7

24x + y + λz = μ

λ, μ ∈ R , have infinitely many solutions. Then the number of the solutions of this system, If
x, y, z are integers and satisfy 7 ≤ x + y + z ≤ 77, is

Option 1:
3

Option 2:
6

Option 3:
5

Option 4:
4

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

536
Δ =

μ =

∣1

24

⇒ λ = −17

Δ1 =

540

12
1

μ
5

= 45

∴ x + 5y − z = 1

4x + 3y − 3z = 7
−1

−3

−17

24x + y − 17z = 45

z = x + 5y − 1
λ

= (3λ + 3) − 5(4λ + 72) − (4 − 72)

= −17λ − 289 = 0

−1

−3

= (−51 + 3) − 5(−119 + 3μ) − (7 − 3μ)

= 540 − 12μ

∴ 4x + 3y − 3x − 15y + 3 = 7

⇒ x − 12y = 4

⇒ x = 4 + 12y

∴ z = 4 + 12y + 5y − 1

= 3 + 17y

∴ (x, y, z) ≡ (4 + 12k, k, 3 + 17k)(∵

7 ≤ 7 + 30k ≤ 77

0 ≤ 30k < 70

0 ≤ k ≤ 2 ⋅ 3

⇒ k = 0, 1, 2 Three solutions possible

Q. 20

Option 1:
760

Option 2:
755
Assume y = k)

If the sum of the second, fourth and sixth terms of a G.P. of positive terms is 21 and the sum
of its eighth, tenth and twelfth terms is 15309 , then the sum of its first nine terms is :

537
 Option 3:
750

Option 4:
757

Correct Answer:
757
Solution:
3 5
ar + ar + ar = 21

7 6 11
ar + ar + ar = 15309

(ii)/(i)
7
r
= 729 ⇒ r = 3 (r > 0)
r

Using (i)

a(3 + 27 + 243) = 21

21 1
⇒ a = =
273 13
1 9
(3 − 1)
13
S9 =
3 − 1

1
9
= (3 − 1)
26

1
3 6 3
= (3 − 1) (3 + 1 + 3 )
27
6 3
= 3 + 3 + 1

= 757

Q. 21 If the function f (x) =

tan(tan x)−sin(sin x)
is continuous at x = 0, then f (0) is equal to
tan x−sin x

________.

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:

538
 tan(tan x) − sin(sin x)
lim f (x) = lim
x→0 x→0 (tan x − sin x)

tan(tan x) − tan x + sin x − sin(sin x) + (tan x − sin x)

= lim
x→0 tan x − sin x
3 3
tan(tan x) − tan x tan x sin x − sin(sin x) sin x
= 1 + lim (( ) + ( ) )
3 3 3
x→0 tan x x sin x x

3
x

tan x − sin x
2
1 1 x x 1
= 1 + ( + ) × lim ( ) cos x ⋅ ( ) = 1 + ⋅ 2 = 2
6 3 x→0 1 − cos x sin x 2

Q. 22 1 1
) (23√ 3x
−24 −26
If ∫ ( + + x )dx
3
x x

α α+1

β γ α
= − (3x + x ) + C, x > 0, (α, β, γ ∈ Z),
3(α + 1)

where C is the constant of integration, then α + β+ γ is equal to ______ .

Correct Answer:
19

Solution:
1

23
1 1 3 1
I = ∫ ( + )( + ) dx
3 26
x x x 24 x
1

23
1 1 3 1
= ∫ ( + )( + ) dx
2 4 3
x x x x

3 1 3 3
Put + = t ⇒ (− − )dx = dt
3 2 4
x x x x
1

1 1 1 t 23 + 1
⇒ I = − ∫ f 23
dt = − + C
1
3 3 + 1
23

1 23 −1 −3
24

23
= − × (3x + x ) + C
3 24

⇒α = 23, β = −1, β = −3

⇒α + β + γ = 19

539
 Q. 23 For t > −1, let α and β be the roots of the equation
t t

.
1 1 1
2
((t + 2) 7
− 1)x + ((t + 2) 6
− 1)x + ((t + 2) 21
− 1) = 0

If lim t→−1
+ αt = a and lim t→1
+ , then 72(a + b) is equal to ______ .
βt = b
2

Correct Answer:
98

Solution:
1/6
(t+2) −1
α + β = 1/7
(t+2) −1

1/21
(t + 2) − 1
αβ =
1/7
(t + 2) − 1

1
− −7
6
lim (α + β) = = = a + b
1
t→−1 6
7

21
7 1
lim (αβ) = = = = ab
1
t→−1 21 3
7

2
49
⇒ (a + b) =
36
2
⇒ 72(a + b) = 98

Q. 24 Let the lengths of the transverse and conjugate axes of a hyperbola in standard form be 2a
and 2b, respectively, and one focus and the corresponding directrix of this hyperbola be
(−5, 0) and 5x + 9 = 0, respectively. If the product of the focal distances of a point

(α, 2√ 5) on the hyperbola is p, then 4 p is equal to _____ .

Correct Answer:
189

Solution:
2

Equation of hyperbola is
2 y
x
− = 1 2 2
a b

Directrix: x = and corresponding foci (−5, 0)

−9

540
 a 9
⇒ − = − and − ae = −5
e 5

2
9e 25 5
⇒ = 5 ⇒ e = √ = ⇒ a = 3
5 9 3

2 2 2
25
∴ b = a (e − 1) = 9 ( − 1) = 16
9

Hyperbola
2 y
x
− = 1
9 16

(α, 2√ 5) lie on it

2
α 20 2 36 81
⇒ − = 1 ⇒ α = × 9 =
9 16 16 4

Product for distance of (x 1

y1 ) from the two foci

= (ex 1 + a) |ex 1 − a|

2 2 2
= e x1 − a

For (α, 2√5) ⇒ P =

25

9
⋅
81

4
− 9 =
189

4P = 189

Q. 25 The sum of the series

20 20 20
2 × 1 × C4 − 3 × 2 × C5 + 4 × 3 × C 6 − 5 × 4×

20
C 7 + … + 18 × 17 ×
20
C 20 , is equal to

Correct Answer:
34

Solution:
20 20 20 20 2 20 3
(1 + x) = C0 + C1 x + C2 x + C3 x

20 4 20 5 20 20
+ C4 x + C5 x + ….+ C 20 x

20
(1 + x) 1 20
20 20
= + + C2 + C3 x
2 2
x x x
20 2 20 3 20 18
+ C4 x + C5 x + ….+ C 20 x

d.w.r. to x

541
 2 19 20
x ⋅ 20(1 + x) + (1 + x) ⋅ 2x −2 20 20
= − + C3
4 3 2
x x x
20 20 2 20 17
+ 2 ⋅ C4 x + 3 ⋅ C5 x + … + 18 C 20 x

19
2x(1 + x) (11x + 1) −2 20 20
= − + C3
4
x x3 x2
20 20 2 20 17
+ 2 ⋅ C4 x + 3 ⋅ C5 x + … + 18 C 20 x

Differentiate w.r. to x
3 19 3 18 19 2
2 [x (1 + x) ⋅ 11 + x (11x + 1) ⋅ 19(1 + x) − (1 + x) (11x + 1) ⋅ 3x ]

6
x
6 40
20 20 20 16
= + + 2 ⋅ 1 ⋅ C4 + 3 ⋅ 2 C 5 x + … + 18 ⋅ 17 C 20 x
4 3
x x

Put x = −1 in above equation

⇒ 0 = 6 − 40 + R ⇒ R = 34

542
 JEE Main 2025

8 April - Shift 2
th

Question Paper with Solution

543
Physics
Q. 1 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R Assertion A : Work done in moving a test charge between two points inside a
uniformly charged spherical shell is zero, no matter which path is chosen.
Reason R : Electrostatic potential inside a uniformly charged spherical shell is constant and
is same as that on the surface of the shell.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below

Option 1:
A is true but R is false

Option 2:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Option 3:
A is false but R is true

Option 4:
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Correct Answer:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Solution:
Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation

Δw = q(Δv)

Δv = 0

⇒ Δw = 0

Hence, the answer is the option 2.

Q. 2 A rod of linear mass density ' λ ' and length ' L ' is bent to form a ring of radius ' R '.
Moment of inertia of ring about any of its diameter is :

Option 1:
3
λL
2
16π

544
 Option 2:
3
λL

12

Option 3:
3
λL
2
4π

Option 4:
3
λL
2
8π

Correct Answer:
3
λL
2
8π

Solution:
2πR = L ⇒ M = λL

L
R =
2π

Moment of Inertia about diameter

2 2 3
MR M L λL
= = ( ) = 2
2 2 2π 8π

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

Q. 3 A 3 m long wire of radius 3 mm shows an extension of 0.1 mm when loaded vertically by a

mass of 50 kg in an experiment to determine Young's modulus. The value of Young's
modulus of the wire as per this experiment is P × 10 Nm , where the value of P is :
11 −2

(Take g = 3π m/s ) 2

Option 1:
5

Option 2:
10

Option 3:
25

Option 4:
2.5

Correct Answer:
5

545
Solution:
F /A FL (500 N)(3)
Y = = =
−6 −4
ΔL/L AN π × 9 × 10 × 1 × 10
11 2
= 5 × 10 N/m

Hence, the answer is the option 1.

Q. 4 Electric charge is transferred to an irregular metallic disk as shown in figure. If σ , σ , σ

1 2 3

and σ are charge densities at given points then, choose the correct answer from the
4

options given below:

(A) σ 1
> σ3 ; σ2 = σ4

(B) σ 1
> σ2 ; σ3 > σ4

(C) σ 1
> σ3 > σ2 = σ4

(D) σ 1
< σ3 < σ2 = σ4

(E) σ 1
= σ2 = σ3 = σ4

Option 1:
A, B and C Only

Option 2:
A and C Only

Option 3:
D and E Only

Option 4:
B and C Only

Correct Answer:
A, B and C Only

Solution:

546
 1
σ ∝ R → radius of curvature
R

R2 = R4 > R3 > R1

⇒ σ1 > σ3 > σ4 = σ2

Hence, the answer is the option 1.

Q. 5 Water falls from a height of 200 m into a pool. Calculate the rise in temperature of the water
assuming no heat dissipation from the water in the pool.
(Take g = 10 m/s , specific heat of water = 4200 J/(kgK) )
2

Option 1:
0.23 K

Option 2:
0.36 K

Option 3:
0.14 K

Option 4:
0.48 K

Correct Answer:
0.48 K

Solution:
mgh = msΔT

gh 10 × 200
ΔT = = = 0.48 K
S 4200

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

Q. 6 A concave-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and the radii of curvature of its surfaces are 30
cm and 20 cm , respectively. The concave surface is upwards and is filled with a liquid of
refractive index 1.3. The focal length of the liquid-glass combination will be

Option 1:
500
cm
11

547
 Option 2:
800
cm
11

Option 3:
700
cm
11

Option 4:
600
cm
11

Correct Answer:
600
cm
11

Solution:

1 1 1 1
= (1.5 − 1) ( − ) = −
F1 20 30 120

1 1 1 1
= (1.3 − 1) ( − ) =
F2 ∞ −30 100

1 1 1
= +
F F1 F2

1 1 1 10 + 12
= + =
F 120 100 1200
1 22
=
F 1200

600
F =
11

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

Q. 7 An infinitely long wire has uniform linear charge density λ = 2nC/m. The net flux through a
Gaussian cube of side length √3 cm, if the wire passes through any two corners of the
cube, that are maximally displaced from each other, would be xNm C , where x is :
2 −1

[Neglect any edge effects and use = 9 × 10 SI units]

1

4πε 0
9

Option 1:
0.72π

548
 Option 2:
1.44π

Option 3:
6.48π

Option 4:
2.16π

Correct Answer:
2.16π

Solution:
q enclosed
ϕ = I = √ 3a = 3
ε0

q = λI

λI −9 −2 9
ϕ = = 2 × 10 × 3 × 10 × 4π × 9 × 10
ε0

= 2.16π

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

Q. 8 The output voltage in the following circuit is (Consider ideal diode case)

Option 1:
10 V

Option 2:
0V

Option 3:
+5 V

Option 4:
-5 V

549
 Correct Answer:
0V
Solution:

D1 = Reverse biased

D2 = Forward biased

V (out) = 0 V

Hence, the answer is the option 2.

Q. 9 Two metal spheres of radius R and 3R have same surface charge density σ. If they are
brought in contact and then separated, the surface charge density on smaller and bigger
sphere becomes σ and σ , respectively. The ratio
1 2
σ1

σ2
is.

Option 1:
1

Option 2:
9

Option 3:
1

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:
2 2
Q1 Q2 σ1 R σ2 R
1 2
v1 = v2 ⇒ = ⇒ =
R1 R2 R1 R2

σ1 R2
⇒ = = 3
σ2 R1

550
Hence, the answer is the option 4.

Q. 10 A quantity Q is formulated as X Y Z ⋅ X, Y and Z are independent parameters

−2 +
3

2
−
2

which have fractional errors of 0.1, 0.2 and 0.5 , respectively in measurement. The
maximum fractional error of Q is

Option 1:
0.1

Option 2:
0.8

Option 3:
0.7

Option 4:
0.6

Correct Answer:
0.7

Solution:
ΔQ (±Δx) (±Δy) (±Δz)
3 2
= −2 + −
Q x 2 y 5 z

For maximum fractional error

ΔQ 2Δx 3 Δy 2 Δz
= + +
Q x 2 y 5 z

3 2
= 2 × 0.1 + × 0.2 + × 0.5
2 5

= 0.7

Hence, the answer is the option 3.

Q. 11 A monoatomic gas having γ =

5
is stored in a thermally insulated container and the gas is
3
th
suddenly compressed to ( ) of its initial volume. The ratio of final pressure and initial
1

pressure is: ( γ is the ratio of specific heats of the gas at constant pressure and at constant
volume)

551
 Option 1:
16

Option 2:
40

Option 3:
32

Option 4:
28

Correct Answer:
32

Solution:
γ γ
v1
P1 v = P2 v v2 =
1 2
8
γ
P2 v1 5

= ( ) = (8) 3
= 32
P1 v2

Hence, the answer is the option 3.

Q. 12 A convex lens of focal length 30 cm is placed in contact with a concave lens of focal length 20
cm . An object is placed at 20 cm to the left of this lens system. The distance of the image
from the lens in cm is _____

Option 1:
30

Option 2:
45

Option 3:
60

Option 4:
15

Correct Answer:
15

Solution:

552
1 1 1 1 1 1
= + = + = −
F f1 f2 30 −20 60

Fu −60 × −20
v = = = −15 cm
u + F −20 + −60

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

Q. 13 Two strings with circular cross section and made of same material, are stretched to have
same amount of tension. A transverse wave is then made to pass through both the strings.
The velocity of the wave in the first string having the radius of cross section R is v , and that
1

in the other string having radius of cross section R/2 is v . Then

2
v2

v1
=

Option 1:
√2

Option 2:
2

Option 3:
8

Option 4:
4

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
T
v = √
μ

2
v1 R R2 1
2
= √ = =
2
v2 R R1 2
1

v2
= 2
v1

Hence, the answer is the option 2.

553
 Q. 14 Figure shows a current carrying square loop ABCD of edge length is ' a ' lying in a plane. If
the resistance of the ABC part is r and that of ADC part is 2 r , then the magnitude of the
resultant magnetic field at centre of the square loop is

Option 1:
3πμ 0 I

√ 2a

Option 2:
μ0 I

2πa

Option 3:
√ 2μ I
0

3πa

Option 4:
2μ 0 I

3πa

Correct Answer:
√ 2μ I
0

3πa

Solution:

R ABC = r R ADC = 2r

2l l
i1 = i2 =
3 3

2(μ 0 √ 2)
2l l μ0 l
B centre = a [ − ] = √2
4π( ) 3 3 3πa
2

554
Hence, the answer is the option 3.

Q. 15 →
A body of mass 2 kg moving with velocity of v = 3^i + 4^jms enters into a constant force
−1
in

field of 6 N directed along positive z -axis. If the body remains in the field for a period of
5

seconds, then velocity of the body when it emerges from force field is

Option 1:
^
4^
i + 3^
j + 5k

Option 2:
^
3^
i + 4^
j + 5k

Option 3:
^
3^
i + 4^
j − 5k

Option 4:
^
3^
i + 4^
j + √ 5k

Correct Answer:
^
3^
i + 4^
j + 5k

Solution:
F→ ⋅ t = m (v→ 2
→
− v1 )

6 5
× k →
^ = v − v
2 1
→
2 3

→ → ^ = 3^
v 2 = v 1 + 5k i + 4^ ^
j + 5k

Hence, the answer is the option 2.

Q. 16 Two balls with same mass and initial velocity, are projected at different angles in such a way
that maximum height reached by first ball is 8 times higher than that of the second ball. T 1

and T are the total flying times of first and second ball, respectively, then the ratio of T
2 1

and T is :
2

Option 1:
2√ 2 : 1

Option 2:
2 : 1

555
 Option 3:
√2 : 1

Option 4:
4 : 1

Correct Answer:
2√ 2 : 1

Solution:
2 2 2 2
u sin θ1 u sin θ2
H1 = H2 =
2g 2g

2u sin θ 1 2u sin θ 2
T1 = T2 =
g g

2
H1 sin θ1 T1 sin θ 1
= 2
=
H2 sin θ2 T2 sin θ 2

2
T1
8 = ( )
T2

T1
T 1 : T 2 = 2√ 2 : 1 ⇒ = 2√ 2
T2

Hence, the answer is the option 1.

Q. 17 The amplitude and phase of a wave that is formed by the superposition of two harmonic
travelling waves, y (x, t) = 4 sin(kx − ωt) and y (x, t) = 2 sin (kx − ωt + ), are :
i 2
2π

(Take the angular frequency of initial waves same as ω )

Option 1:
2π
[6, ]
3

Option 2:
π
[6, ]
3

Option 3:
π
[√ 3, ]
6

Option 4:
π
[2√ 3, ]
6

Correct Answer:
π
[2√ 3, ]
6

Solution:

556
 2 2
A = √ A + A + 2A 1 A 2 cos ϕ
1 2

2π
ϕ =
3

2π
A = √ 4 2 + 2 2 + 2 × 4 × 2 cos = 2√ 3
3

2 sin ϕ 1
tan α = =
4 + 2 cos ϕ √3

α = π/6

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

Q. 18 In a Young's double slit experiment, the source is white light. One of the slits is covered by
red filter and another by a green filter. In this case

Option 1:
There shall be an interference pattern for red distinct from that for green.

Option 2:
There shall be no interference fringes.

Option 3:
There shall be alternate interference fringes of red and green.

Option 4:
There shall be an interference pattern, where each fringe's pattern center is green and outer edges is
red.

Correct Answer:
There shall be no interference fringes.

Solution:
Frequency of Green and frequency of Red will be different. No interference pattern is observed for two
lights of different frequencies as phase difference does not remain constant.

Hence, the answer is the option 2.

Q. 19 For a nucleus of mass number A and radius R , the mass density of nucleus can be
represented as

557
 Option 1:
3
A

Option 2:
1

A 3

Option 3:
2

A 3

Option 4:
Independent of A

Correct Answer:
Independent of A

Solution:
1/3
R = R0 A

Mass number A
Density = = = constant
4 3
Volume πR A
3 0

Hence, the answer is the option 4.

Q. 20 A block of mass 2 kg is attached to one end of a massless spring whose other end is fixed at
a wall. The spring-mass system moves on a frictionless horizontal table. The spring's natural
length is 2 m and spring constant is 200 N/m. The block is pushed such that the length of
the spring becomes 1 m and then released. At distance xm(x < 2) from the wall. the speed
of the block will be :

Option 1:
3/2
10[1 − (2 − x)] m/s

Option 2:
1/2
2
10[1 − (2 − x) ] m/s

Option 3:
2
10 [1 − (2 − x) ]m/s

Option 4:
2
2
10[1 − (2 − x) ] m/s

558
 Correct Answer:
1/2
2
10[1 − (2 − x) ] m/s

Solution:

Energy conservation
1 2 1 2 1 2
k(1) = mv + k(2 − x)
2 2 2

Compression in the spring = (2 − x)

1 1
2 2
⇒ k (1 − (2 − x) ) = mv
2 2
1/2
2
⇒v = [100 (1 − (2 − x) )]

1/2
v = 10[1 − (2 − x)]

Hence, the answer is the option 2.

Q. 21 An electron is released from rest near an infinite non-conducting sheet of uniform charge
density ' −σ '. The rate of change of de-Broglie wave length associated with the electron
varies inversely as n power of time. The numerical value of n is _____ .
th

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
σ Δp
F = qE = q ( ) =
2ϵ 0 Δt

h dλ h Δp h qσ
λ = = × = ×
2 2
p dt p Δt p 2ϵ 0

dλ 1 l 1
∝ ∝ ∝
2 2 n
dt p t t
qσ
p = t
2ϵ 0

n = 2

Hence, the answer is 2.

559
 Q. 22 A sample of a liquid is kept at 1 atm . It is compressed to 5 atm which leads to change of
volume of 0.8 cm . If the bulk modulus of the liquid is 2 GPa , the initial volume of the liquid
3

was _____ litre. ( Take 1 atm = 10 Pa) 5

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
9 −6
ΔvB 5
2 × 10 Pa × 10 × 0.8
− = ΔP ⇒ 4 × 10 Pa =
v v
9 −6
2 × 10 × 10 × 0.8 −3 3
v = = 4 × 10 m
5
4 × 10

⇒ 4 litre

Hence, the answer is 4.

Q. 23

Space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of plate area 4 cm and separation of
2

(d) 1.77 mm , is filled with uniform dielectric materials with dielectric constants (3 and 5) as
shown in figure. Another capacitor of capacitance 7.5 pF is connected in parallel with it. The
effective capacitance of this combination is _____ pF.
(Given ε = 8.85 × 10
0 F/m )
−12

Correct Answer:
15

Solution:

560
1 1 1 d/2 d/2
= + = +
C C1 C2 Ak 1 ε 0 Ak 2 ε 0

1 1 d
= ( + )
k1 k2 2Aε 0

1 1 d
= ( + )
3 5 2Aε 0

1 4 d
=
C 15 Aε 0
−4 −12
15 Aε 0 15 4 × 10 × 8.85 × 10
C = × = ×
−3
4 d 4 1.77 × 10

= 7.5pF

C + C 3 = (7.5 + 7.5)pF = 15pF

Hence, the answer is 15.

Q. 24 A thin solid disk of 1 kg is rotating along its diameter axis at the speed of 1800 rpm . By
applying an external torque of 25πNm for 40 s, the speed increases to 2100 rpm . The
diameter of the disk is _____ m.

Correct Answer:
40

Solution:
τ dt = I ΔW

2π
⇒ 25π × 40 = I (300) ×
60
2
25 × 60 × 40 MR
I = = 100 =
300 × 2 4
2
R = 400

R = 20 m

D = 40 m

Hence, the answer is 40.

561
 Q. 25 A cube having a side of 10 cm with unknown mass and 200 gm mass were hung at two ends
of an uniform rigid rod of 27 cm long. The rod along with masses was placed on a wedge
keeping the distance between wedge point and 200 gm weight as 25 cm . Initially the masses
were not at balance. A beaker is placed beneath the unknown mass and water is added
slowly to it. At given point the masses were in balance and half volume of the unknown mass
was inside the water.
(Take the density of unknown mass is more than that of the water, the mass did not absorb
water and water density is 1gm/cm .) The unknown mass is ______ kg.
3

Correct Answer:
3

Solution:

25 × 0.2 × g = 2 × (m − ρ × v)g

m − ρv = 2.5 kg

−3 3 3
1 × 10 kg 10 cm 1
ρv = × = kg
3
cm 2 2

m = 3 kg

Hence, the answer is 3.

Chemistry
Q. 1 In a first order decomposition reaction, the time taken for the decomposition of reactant to
one fourth and one eighth of its initial concentration are t and t ( s), respectively. The ratio
1 2

t /t will :
1 2

Option 1:
4

Option 2:
3

562
 Option 3:
3

Option 4:
2

Correct Answer:
2

Solution:
1 A0 1
t1 = t 1 = ln = ln 4
A0
4
k k
4

1 A0 1
t2 = t 1 = ln = ln 8
A0
8
k k
8

t1 ln 4 2 ln 2 2
= = =
t2 ln 8 3 ln 2 3

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 2 Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I LIST-II

A. Carbocation I. Species that can supply a pair of electrons.

B. C-Free radical II. Species that can receive a pair of electrons.

C. Nucleophile III. sp
2
hybridized carbon with empty p-orbital.

D. Electrophile IV. 2
sp /sp
3
hybridized carbon with one unpaired electron.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Option 2:
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Option 3:
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

563
 Option 4:
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Correct Answer:
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Solution:

Carbocation ⇒

Nucleophile ⇒ e rich species like anions etc.

−

⇒ can supply a pair of electrons

Electrophile ⇒ e deficient species ⇒ can receive

−

a pair of electrons.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 3 (i) NaOH (i) EIOH

A
−
− → B → C
+
(ii) H 3 O (ii) H 2 SO 4 ,Δ

' A ' shows positive Lassaign's test for N and its molar mass is 121 .
'B' gives effervescence with aq. NaHCO . 3

'C' gives fruity smell.

Identify A, B and C from the following.

Option 1:

564
 Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:
Compound (A) is likely to be amide which gives carboxylic acid (B) after hydrolysis. Compound (B) reacts
with alcohol to give ester

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

565
 Q. 4 Choose the correct set of reagents for the following conversion.

Option 1:
Br 2 /Fe; Cl 2 , Δ ; alc. KOH

Option 2:
Cl /Fe; Br
2 2
/ anhy. AlCl ; aq. KOH
3

Option 3:
Br / anhy. AlCl
2 3; ; aq. KOH
Cl 2 , Δ

Option 4:
Cl / anhy. AlCl
2 3
; Br 2 /Fe ; alc. KOH

Correct Answer:
Br 2 /Fe; Cl 2 , Δ ; alc. KOH

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

566
 Q. 5 (i) KOH (alc)

−→ P 1, 2-dibromocyclooctane
(iii) NaNH 2 NH 2 (Major product)

(ii) Hg
+ +
(iv) Zn−H /H

' P ' is

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

567
 Q. 6 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : A homolepitc octahedral complex, formed using monodentate ligands, will not
show stereoisomerism.

Statement II : cis- and trans- platin are heteroleptic complexes of Pd .

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below.

Option 1:
Both statement I and Statement II are false.

Option 2:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Option 3:
Both statement I and Statement II are true.

Option 4:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Correct Answer:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Solution:
[Ma6] type complex will not show stereoisomerism, where a is monodentate ligand

Cis and trans-platin are heterolytic complexes of Pt( Platinum ). Formula is [Pt(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ]

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 7 The atomic number of the element from the following with lowest 1 st
ionisation enthalpy is :

568
 Option 1:
32

Option 2:
35

Option 3:
87

Option 4:
19

Correct Answer:
87

Solution:
Atomic No. Period No. Group No.
35 4 17
19 4 1
32 4 14
87 6 1
First ionization energy of an element generally decreases down the group and increases from left to right
along a period. Therefore, an element having atomic number 87 has the lowest first ionization energy.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 8 Which of the following binary mixture does not show the behaviour of minimum boiling
azeotropes ?

Option 1:
H 2 O + CH 3 COC 2 H 5

Option 2:
C 6 H 5 OH + C 6 H 5 NH 2

Option 3:
CS 2 + CH 3 COCH 3

Option 4:
CH 3 OH + CHCl 3

Correct Answer:
C 6 H 5 OH + C 6 H 5 NH 2

569
Solution:
The solution showing positive deviation from Raoult's law will form a minimum boiling azeotrope. Phenol
+ Aniline shows negative deviation, so they will not form a minimum boiling azeotrope.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 9 HA(aq) ⇌ H
+
(aq) + A
−
(aq)

The freezing point depression of a 0.1 m aqueous solution of a monobasic weak acid HA is
0.20 C. The dissociation constant for the acid is
∘

Given :
K (H O) = 1.8 K kg mol
f 2 , molality ≡ molarity
−1

Option 1:
−3
1.38 × 10

Option 2:
−2
1.1 × 10

Option 3:
−3
1.90 × 10

Option 4:
−1
1.89 × 10

Correct Answer:
−3
1.38 × 10

Solution:
ΔT f = iK f m

ΔT f
i =
Kf ⋅ m

0.20
i = = 1.11
1.8 × 0.1

i = 1.11

i − 1
α = ( f or HA, n = 2)
n − 1

1.11 − 1
α = = 0.11
1
2 2
cα 0.1 × (0.11)
−3
Ka = = = 1.38 × 10
1 − α 1 − 0.11

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

570
 Q. 10 What is the correct IUPAC name of

Option 1:
4-Ethyl-1-hydroxycyclopent-2-ene

Option 2:
1-Ethyl-3-hydroxycyclopent-2-ene

Option 3:
1-Ethylcyclopent-2-en-3-ol

Option 4:
4-Ethylcyclopent-2-en-1-ol

Correct Answer:
4-Ethylcyclopent-2-en-1-ol

Solution:

4-Ethylcyclopent-2-en-1-ol

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 11 The correct decreasing order of spin only magnetic moment values (BM) of
+
Cu , Cu
2+
, Cr and Cr ions is:
2+ 3+

Option 1:
+ 2+ 3+ 2+
Cu > Cu > Cr > Cr

Option 2:
2+ + 2+ 3+
Cu > Cu > Cr > Cr

571
 Option 3:
2+ 3+ 2+ +
Cr > Cr > Cu > Cu

Option 4:
3+ 2+ + 2+
Cr > Cr > Cu > Cu

Correct Answer:
2+ 3+ 2+ +
Cr > Cr > Cu > Cu

Solution:
+ 10
Cu ⇒ 3 d ⇒ ⇒ 0BM

2+ 0
Cu ⇒ 3 d ⇒ ⇒ 1.73BM

2+ 4
Cr ⇒ 3 d ⇒ ⇒ 4.89BM

3+ 3
Cr ⇒ 3 d ⇒ ⇒ 3.87BM

So order :
2+ 3+ 2+ +
Cr > Cr > Cu > Cu

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 12 Which one of the following reactions will not lead to the desired ether formation in major
proportion? (iso- Bu ⇒ isobutyl, sec- Bu ⇒ sec-butyl, nPr ⇒ n-propyl, ' Bu
⇒ tert-butyl,

Et ⇒ ethyl)

Option 1:
⊖
′ t
BuO N a + EtBr → Bu − O − Et

Option 2:

Option 3:

572
 Option 4:
⊖

iso- BuO N a + sec − BuBr → Sec − Bu − O − iso − Bu

Correct Answer:
⊖

iso- BuO N a + sec − BuBr → Sec − Bu − O − iso − Bu

Solution:

For 2 ∘
RX ⇒ elimination would be more favourable than substitution

For Williamson's synthesis of ether RO ⊖

Na
+
+ RX → ROR (undergo S N2 reaction)
(1 alkyl halide)

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

Q. 13 On combustion 0.210 g of an orgainc compound containing C, H and O gave 0.127 gH O 2

and 0.307 gCO . The percentages of hydrogen and oxygen in the given organic compound
2

respectively are:

Option 1:
53.41, 39.6

Option 2:
6.72, 53.41

Option 3:
7.55, 43.85

Option 4:
6.72, 39.87

Correct Answer:
6.72, 53.41

Solution:
Mass of organic compound = 0.210 g
Mass of water formed = 0.127 g
Mass of CO formed = 0.307 g
2

Mass of hydrogen = 0.127×2

= 0.014 g
18

573
Percentage of hydrogen = 0.014×100
= 6.72%
0.210

Mass of carbon = 0.307×12

44
= 0.084 g

Percentage of carbon == 0.084×100

= 39.87%
0.210

Percentage of oxygen = 53.41%

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 14

Choose the correct option for structures of A and B , respectively.

Option 1:

Option 2:

Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

574
At pH = 2 ⇒ Medium is acidic so −NH group will convert to −NH
2
+

∴ At pH = 10 ⇒ medium is basic
So -COOH group will convert to −COO ⊖

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 15 Correct statements for an element with atomic number 9 are
A. There can be 5 electrons for which m = + and 4 electrons for which m
s
1

2
s
= −
1

B. There is only one electron in p orbital

z

C. The last electron goes to orbital with n = 2 and l = 1

D. The sum of angular nodes of all the atomic orbitals is 1 .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Option 1:
C and D Only

Option 2:
A and C Only

Option 3:
A, C and D Only

Option 4:
A and B Only

Correct Answer:
A and C Only

Solution:
Z = 9

575
Electronic configuration ⇒

- There can be 5e for which m

−
s
= +
1

and 4e for which m

−
s = −
1

- There can be 2e in p orbital

−
z

- Last e enters 2p(n = 2, I = 1)

−

- Angular nodes = 1
∴ Sum of angular nodes = 0 + 0 + 3 = 3

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Q. 16 The number of species from the following that are involved in sp 3
d
2
hybridization is
3+ 3− 3− 3−
[Co(NH 3 ) ] , SF 6 , [CrF 6 ] , [CoF 6 ] , [Mn(CN) 6 ]
6

3−
and [MnCl 6 ]

Option 1:
5

Option 2:
6

Option 3:
4

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:

576
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).
Q. 17 Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I LIST-II
(Reagent) (Functional Group detected)

A. Sodium bicarbonate solution I. double bond/unsaturation

B. Neutral ferric chloride II. carboxylic acid

C. ceric ammonium nitrate III. phenolic - OH

D. alkaline KMnO 4
IV. alcoholic - OH

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Option 2:
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Option 3:
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Option 4:
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Correct Answer:
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

577
Solution:
Reagent Functional Group detected
(A) Sodium bicarbonate solution (I) Carboxylic acid
(B) Neutral ferric chloride (II) Phenolic - OH
(C) ceric ammonium nitrate (III) Alcoholic - OH
(D) alkaline KMnO 4
(IV) double bond/unsaturation

(A) Carboxylic acid gives effervescence with sodium bicarbonate

R − COOH + NaHCO 3 → RCOONa + CO 2 ↑ +H 2 O

(B) Phenolic-OH gives characteristic colour with neutral FeCl 3

(C) Alcoholic- OH gives red colour with ceric ammonium nitrate

(NH 4 ) [Ce(NO 3 ) ] + 2ROH → [Ce(ROH) 2 (NO 3 ) ] + 2NH 4 NO 3

2 6 4
(Red)

(D) Purple colour of alkaline KMnO is discharged by multiple bond of alkenes and alkynes
4

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Q. 18

When

undergoes intramolecular aldol condensation, the major product formed is :

Option 1:

Option 2:

578
 Option 3:

Option 4:

Correct Answer:

Solution:

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

579
 Q. 19 Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I LIST-II
(Complex/Species) (Shape \& magnetic moment)

A. [Ni(CO) 4 ] I. Tetrahedral, 2.8 BM

B. [Ni(CN) 4 ]
2−
II. Square planar, 0 BM

C. [NiCl 4 ]
2
III. Tetrahedral, 0 BM

D. [MnBr 4 ]
2−
IV. Tetrahedral, 5.9 BM

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Option 1:
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Option 2:
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Option 3:
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Option 4:
A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Correct Answer:
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Solution:
A) Ni(CO) 4 → Ni(0) ⇒ sp
3
, tetrahedral, 0 BM

(3d
10
) (pairing)

B) [Ni(CN) 4]
2−
→ Ni
2+
⇒ dsp
2
, square planar, 0 BM

(3 d )
8
(pairing)

C) [NiCl (no pairing) ⇒ sp , tetrahedral,

+
2− 2 3
4
] → Ni

2.8 BM

580
 −

D) [MnBr 4
]
2
⇒ Mn
2+
⇒ 3 d
5
(no pairing)

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Q. 20 Given below are two statements :

Statement I : H Se is more acidic than H Te.
2 2

Statement II : H Se has higher bond enthalpy for dissociation than H Te.

2 2

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below.

Option 1:
Both statement I and Statement II are false.

Option 2:
Both statement I and Statement II are true.

Option 3:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Option 4:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Solution:
∴ H 2 Teis more acidic than H Se 2

because of lesser bond dissociation energy of H 2 Te

It can release H more easily +

pK a : H 2 Se(3.89) > H 2 Te(2.6)

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

1

581
 Q. 21 Resonance in X 2
Y can be represented as
⊖ ⊖

⊖ ⊕ ∙ ⊕ ⊖
∙
X=X=Y↔: X ≡XY∙

The enthalpy of formation of X Y (X ≡ X(g) + Y = Y(g) → X Y(g)) is 80 kJ mol .

2
1

2
2
1

The magnitude of resonance energy of X Y is 2

_______ kJmol (nearest integer value)

−1

Given : Bond energies of X ≡ X, X = X, Y = Y and X = Y are 940, 410, 500 and

602 kJ mol respectively.
−1

valence X : 3, Y : 2

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
(−) (+)
1
X ≡ X(g) + Y = Y(g) → X = X = Y(g)
2
−1
= 940 +
1

2
(500) − (410 + 602) . = 1190 − 1012
[ΔH f (X 2 Y)] = 80 kJ mol
Actual −1
= 178 kJ mol
[ΔH f (X 2 Y)]
Theoretical

Resonance energy =∣ (ΔH f ) ) − (ΔH f ) Theoretical ∣

Actual

−1
= |80 − 178| = 98 kJ mol

Hence, the answer is 98kJmol-1.

Q. 22 The energy of an electron in first Bohr orbit of H -atom is -13.6 eV . The magnitude of energy
value of electron in the first excited state of Be is 3+

_______eV . (nearest integer value)

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:

582
E 1 of H-atom = −13.6eV

2
−13.6 × Z
3+
E 2 of Be =
2
n
2
−13.6 × (4)
=
2
(2)

= − 54.4eV

3+
|E 2 | of Be = 54eV

Hence, the answer is 54.

Q. 23 20 mL of sodium iodide solution gave 4.74 g silver iodide when treated with excess of silver
nitrate solution. The molarity of the sodium iodide solution is ________ M. (Nearest Integer
value)
(Given : Na = 23, I = 127, Ag = 108, N = 14, O = 16 g mol ) −1

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Let molarity of Nal solution be ×M
NaI + AgNO 3 → AgI + NaNO 3

Moles of Agl formed = = 0.02

4.74

235

Moles of Nal = 20×x

= 0.02x
1000

0.02x = 0.02

x = 1

∴ Molarity of Nal solution = 1M

Hence, the answer is 1.

Q. 24 The equilibrium constant for decomposition of H 2

O(g)

1 ∘ 1
H 2 O( g) ⇌ H 2 ( g) + O 2 ( g) (ΔG = 92.34 kJ mol )
2

is 8.0 × 10 at 2300 K and total pressure at equilibrium is 1 bar. Under this condition, the
−3

degree of dissociation (α) of water is _______ ×10 (nearest integer value).

−2

[Assume α is negligible with respect to 1 ]

Correct Answer:
-

583
Solution:
1
H 2 O(g) ⇌ H 2 ( g) + O 2 ( g)
2

Initial mole 1 − ---

Moles at equil. 1 − α α
α

Equilibrium pressure = 1 bar

1
2α α 2
( )( )
2+α 2+α −3
Ka = = 8.0 × 10
1−α
2( )
2+α

α 2
−3
= 8.0 × 10
√2
2

3
−3
α = (8√ 2 × 10 )

2
7 3 7
−3 −2 −2
= (2 2
× 10 ) = 2 3
× 10 = 5 × 10

Hence, the answer is 5x10-2.

Q. 25 Consider the following half cell reaction
2− − + 3+
Cr 2 O (aq) + 6e + 14H (aq) → 2Cr (aq) + 7H 2 O(l)
7

3+ 2

The reaction was conducted with the ratio of

[Cr ]

[Cr 2 O
2−
]
= 10
−6
. The pH value at which the
7

EMF of the half cell will become zero is _______ . (nearest integer value)
[Given : standard half cell reduction potential

o 2.303RT
E 2 ∗ 3+
= 1.33 V, = 0.059 V]
C2 O +H /Cr F
−

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
2− − + 3+
Cr 2 O (aq) + 6e + 14H (aq) → 2Cr (aq) + 7H 2 O(l)
7

Using Nernst equation

3+ 2
[Cr ]
0 2.303RT
E 2− + 3+ = E 2−
− log 2−
14
Cr 2 O /H /Cr + 3+ 6 F +
7 Cr 2 O /H /cr [Cr 2 O ][H ]
7 7

584
 0 0.059 −16 + −14
0 = E 2− − log (10 [H ] )
Cr 2 O H
+
/C
3+ 6
7

0.059×14
0 = 1.33 + 0.059 − pH
6

1.389×6
pH = = 10.10 = 10
0.059×14

Hence, the answer is 10.

Maths
Q. 1 Let the values of λ for which the shortest distance between the lines = =
x−1 y−2 z−3

2 3 4

and is be λ and λ . Then the radius of the circle passing through

x−λ y−4 z−5 1
= = 1 2
3 4 5 √6

the points (0, 0), (λ 1

, λ2 ) and (λ 2
, λ1 ) is

Option 1:
5√ 2

Option 2:
4

Option 3:
√2

Option 4:
3

Correct Answer:
5√ 2

Solution:
x−1

2
=
y−2

3
=
z−3

4
...(1)

...(2)
x−λ y−4 z−5
= =
3 4 5

^ ^ ^
i j k

ṅ 1 × ṅ 2 = 2 3 4

3 4 5

=^
i(15 − 16) − ^ ^
j(10 − 12) + k(8 − 9)

^
= −^
i + 2^
j − k

585
L1

d =

Q. 2

∣
passing through (1, 2, 3) and L through (λ, 4, 5)

√6

λ = 4, 2

3
1

|(λ − 1)(−1) − 2(−2) + 2(−1)|

r =

5√ 2

Option 1:
3

Option 2:
11

Option 3:
7
Area
√1 2 + 4 2 + 1

| − λ + 1 + 4 − 2| = 1

| − λ + 3| = 1

λ − 3 = ±1

Circle passing through (0, 0), (1, 4)(4, 1)

(1 − 16)

abc

4Δ
1

=
0

15

Let α be a solution of x

R, [4

+
m

α
a +
a

α
n
b
0

b]

= 3
1

⎣
1

−1

−2
2
2

16

−1

−14
=
1

√6

+ x + 1 = 0

13

−8
⎤

⎦
, and for some a and b in

= [0

, then m + n is equal to_______

0 0]. If
4

α
4

586
[4

⇒ 4w

⇒
Option 4:
8

Correct Answer:
11
Solution:
x
2

8
+ x + 1 = 0

w
a

a + 14b = 64

Solving (i) and (ii)

We get a = −6, b = 5

∴
4

For α = w ,
4

4
2

⇒ 4w + m + nw
4

Adding (i) & (ii)

4

w
b]

m
−12

+ m +

⎢⎥
⎡

⎣
−2

αa
1

−1

+ m + nw = 3

+
+

−6

w
+

10
16

−1

−14

⇒ [4 − a − 2b, 64 − a − 14b, 52 + 2a − 8b] = [0

a + 2b = 4 .....(i)

......(ii)

= 3

= 3

2
b

= 3
= 3

w
5
13

−8

= 3
⎤

⎦
3×3
= [0

.....(i)
0 0]

0 0]

587
 2 2
⇒ 4 (w − w) + n (w − w ) = 0

2
⇒ (w − w)(4 − n) = 0

⇒ n = 4

2
∴ 4w + m + 4w = 3

⇒ −4 + m = 3

⇒ m = 7

∴ m + n = 11

Q. 3 Let the function f (x) = + x 3

+ 3, x ≠ 0 be strictly increasing in (−∞, α 1
) ∪ (α 2 , ∞)
3 x

and strictly decreasing in (α , α 3 4

) ∪ (α 4 , α 5 ). Then ∑
5

i=1
α is equal to :-
2
i

Option 1:
48

Option 2:
28

Option 3:
40

Option 4:
36

Correct Answer:
36

Solution:
x 3
f (x) = + + 3, x ≠ 0
3 x
2
1 3 x − 9 (x − 3)(x + 3)
′
f (x) = − = ( ) =
2 2 2
3 x 3x 3x

588
 ⇒f (x) > 0∀x ∈ (−∞, −3) ∪ (3, ∞)

f (x) < 0∀x ∈ (−3, 0) ∪ (0, 3)

⇒α 1 = −3, α 2 = 3, α 3 = −3, α 4 = 0, α 5 = 3

2 2 2 2 2 2
⇒ ∑ α i = (−3) + (3 ) + 0 + (−3) + (3)

i=1

=4(9) = 36

–
A B
Q. 4
P(A) = 0.7 P(B) = 0.4 If and are two events such that
P(A ∩ B) = 0.5 , and , where
–
B B P (B ∣ (A ∪ B̄)) denotes the complement of , then is equal:-

Option 1:
1

Option 2:
1

Option 3:
1

Option 4:
1

Correct Answer:
1

Solution:
P (A) = 0.7

P (B) = 0.4

C
P (A ∩ B ) = 0.5

C
P (B ∩ (A ∪ B ))
C
P (B/A ∪ B ) =
C
P (A ∪ B )

P (A ∩ B)
=
C
P (A ∪ B )

Using Venn diagram

589
 P (A∩B) 0.2 2 1
⇒ C
= = =
P (A∪B ) 0.5+0.2+0.1 8 4

Q. 5 1 1 1 π
4

If + + + …..∞ = ,
14 24 34 90

1 1 1
+ + + … ∞ = α,
4 4 4
1 3 5

1 1 1
+ + + … ∞ = β,
4 4
2 4 64

then α

β
is equal to

Option 1:
23

Option 2:
18

Option 3:
15

Option 4:
14

Correct Answer:
15

Solution:
1 1 1
α = + + + …
14 34 54

1 1 1
β = + + + …
4 4 4
2 4 6

1 1 1 1 1
= [ + + + + …]
4 4 4 4 4
2 1 2 3 4

590
 1 1 1 1 1 1
⇒ 16β = [ + + + …] + [ + + + …]
4 4 4 4 4 4
1 3 5 2 4 6
α
= α + β ⇒ 15β = α ⇒ = 15
β

Q. 6 The sum of the squares of the roots of |x − 2| 2

+ |x − 2| − 2 = 0 and the squares of the
roots of x − 2|x − 3| − 5 = 0, is
2

Option 1:
26

Option 2:
36

Option 3:
30

Option 4:
24

Correct Answer:
36

Solution:
2
|x − 2| + |x − 2| − 2 = 0

⇒ (|x − 2| + 2)(|x − 2| − 1) = 0

⇒ |x − 2| = 1

⇒ x = 3, 1

2
x − 2|x − 3| − 5 = 0

x ≥ 3

2
x − 2(x − 3) − 5 = 0

2
⇒ x − 2x + 1 = 0

2
⇒ (x − 1) = 0

⇒ x = 1

x < 3

2
x + 2(x − 3) − 5 = 0

2
⇒ x + 2x − 11 = 0

x = −1 ± 2√ 3

Sum of square of roots

591
 2 2 2 2
= 3 + 1 + (−1 + 2√ 3) + (−1 − 2√ 3)

= 10 + (1 + 12)2

= 36

Q. 7 Let a be the length of a side of a square OABC with O being the origin. Its side OA makes an
acute angle α with the positive x -axis and the equations of its diagonals are
(√ 3 + 1)x + (√ 3 − 1)y = 0 and (√ 3 − 1)x − (√ 3 + 1)y + 8√ 3 = 0. Then a is equal
2

to

Option 1:
48

Option 2:
32

Option 3:
16

Option 4:
24

Correct Answer:
48

Solution:

OB : (√ 3 + 1)x + (√ 3 − 1)y = 0

AC : (√ 3 − 1)x − (√ 3 + 1)y + 8√ 3 = 0

⇒ (x, y) ≡ P (3 − √ 3, 3 + √ 3)

Let AB = a = OA

592
 2 2 2
⇒ OA + AB = OB

2 2 2
2a = 4 [(3 − √ 3) + (3 − √ 3) ]

2
a = 2 × 24 = 48

Q. 8 Let f (x) be a positive function and I 1

= ∫
1
1 2xf (2x(1 − 2x))dx and
−
2

.
2
I2 = ∫ f (x(1 − x))dx
−1

Then the value of I2

I1
is equal to______

Option 1:
9

Option 2:
6

Option 3:
12

Option 4:
4

Correct Answer:
4

Solution:
1

I1 = ∫ 2xf (2x(1 − 2x)dx)

1
−
2

1
1 1 1
I1 = ∫ 2( − x)f (2 ( − x) (1 − 2 ( − x)))dx
−
1 2 2 2
2

I1 = ∫ (1 − 2x)f ((1 − 2x)(2x))dx

1
−
2

1 1

I1 = ∫ f ((1 − 2x)(2x))dx − ∫ 2xf ((1 − 2x)(2x))dx


 −
1
−
1   
2 2
I1

2I 1 = ∫ f ((1 − 2x)(2x))dx
1
−
2

Put 2x = t

593
2dx = dt

dt
dx =
2
2
1
2I 1 = ∫ f ((1 − t)(t))dt
2 −1

2
1
I1 = ∫ f ((1 − x)(x))dx
4 −1

1
I1 = I2
4
I2
4 ⇒
I1

Q. 9 → →
Let a = ^i + 2^j + k
^
and b = 2^i + ^j − k
^ →
. Let ^c be a unit vector in the plane of the vectors a
and →b and be perpendicular to a. Then such a vector c ^ is :

Option 1:
1 ^
(^
j − 2k)
√5

Option 2:
1 ^
(−^
i +^
j − k)
√3

Option 3:
1 ^
(^
i −^
j + k)
√3

Option 4:
1 ^
(−^
i + k)
√2

Correct Answer:
1 ^
(−^
i + k)
√2

Solution:

594
→ →
c = xa + yb
→
→
c = x(^
i + 2^
^
j + k) + y(2^
i +^
^
j − k)

→ →
a ⋅ c = (^
i + 2^ ^ ⋅ (x(^
j + k) i + 2^ ^ + y(2^
j + k) i +^ ^
j − k))

(^
i + 2^ ^ ⋅ (x^
j + k) i + 2x^ ^ + 2y^
j + xk) i + y^ ^ = 0
j − yk

⇒ (x + 2y) + 2(x + 9) + (x − y) = 0

⇒ y = −2x

∴ →
c = x(−3^
^
i + 3k)

→
|c| = |x|√ 9 + 9 = 3|x|√ 2

→
∴ |c| = 1

3|x|√ 2 = 1

1
|x| =
3√ 2

1
Let x =
3√ 2

1
→
c = (−3^ ^
i + 3k)
3√ 2

1
→
or c = (−^ ^
i + k)
√2

Q. 10 Let the ellipse 3x 2

+ pypass through the centre C of the circle
2
= 4

x + y − 2x − 4y − 11 = 0 of radius r. Let f , f be the focal distances of the point C

2 2
1 2

on the ellipse. Then 6f f − r is equal to

1 2

Option 1:
74

Option 2:
68

Option 3:
70

Option 4:
78

Correct Answer:
70

Solution:

595
 2 2
S : x + y − 2x − 4y − 11 = 0

Centre C(1, 2)

radius = √ 1 + 4 + 11

= 4

Ellipse 3x 2
+ py
2
= 4 passes through (1, 2)

3(1) + p(4) = 4

4p = 1

1
p =
4

2
2 y
E : 3x + = 4
4

or
2
x y
4 + = 1
16
3

3
√
e = 1 −
16

1
e = √1 −
12

11
e = √
12

11
Focus = (0, ±2√ )
3

 2
 2

11 11
f1 = 1 + (2 − 2√ ) and f 2 = 1 + (2 + 2√ )
⎷ 3 ⎷ 3

37
f1 f2 =
3

⇒ 6f 1 f 2 − r = 74 − 7

= 70

Q. 11 3

The integral ∫ 2

−1
2
( π x sin(πx) )dx is equal to :

Option 1:
3 + 2π

Option 2:
4 + π

596
 Option 3:
1 + 3π

Option 4:
2 + 3π

1 + 3π

Solution:
I = ∫

= ∫

= 2∫

= 2π

∵ ∫

= −

∴
x

π
1

−1
−1

I = 2π

= 2π + 1 + π

= 3π + 1

Q. 12

Option 1:
4

Option 2:
6

Option 3:
5
∣
Correct Answer:

3/2

∫
0

cos πx +
2

x sin(πx)dx = x (
2
2
π x sin(πx) dx

π x sin(πx) dx + ∫

π x sin(πx) dx − π

|x sin(πx)|dx − π

2
(

the value of 3a
π

π
1

2
1

− cos πx

sin πx + C

) − π
2

2
(−
π

tan
3/2

2
2

2
π
∫

2
1

α − 2√ 3
−
2
π x sin(πx) dx

3/2

3/2

) − ∫
|x sin(πx)|dx

|x sin(πx)|dx

π
)
− cos πx

π
dx

A line passing through the point P(a, θ) makes an acute angle α with the positive x -axis. Let
this line be rotated about the point P through an angle in the clock-wise direction. If in
α

the new position, the slope of the line is 2 − √3 and its distance from the origin is1

√2
, then

597
 Option 4:
8

Correct Answer:
4
Solution:

α
tan = 2 − √3
2
1
⇒ tan α =
√3

Equation of new line: (y − 0) = (2 − √3)(x − a)

y = (2 − √ 3)x − (2 − √ 3)a

1
Distance f rom origin =
√2

−(2 − √ 3)a 1
=
4 + 3 − 4√ 3 + 1 √2

√ 8 − 4√ 3
|a| =
√ 2(2 − √ 3)

2√ 2 − √ 3
|a| =
√ 2(2 − √ 3)

√2
|a| =
√2 − √3

2
2
a = = 2(2 + √ 3)
2 − √3

1
2 2
3a tan α − 2√ 3 = 3(4 + 2√ 3) × − 2√ 3
3

= 4

598
 Q. 13 There are 12 points in a plane, no three of which are in the same straight line, except 5
points which are collinear. Then the total number of triangles that can be formed with the
vertices at any three of these 12 points is

Option 1:
230

Option 2:
220

Option 3:
200

Option 4:
210

Correct Answer:
210

Solution:

5 7 7 5 7
Number of triangle = C1 × C2 + C3 + C2 + C1

= 210

Q. 14 Let A =
2 cos θ+i sin θ
{θ ∈ [0, 2π] : 1 + 10 Re ( ) = 0}.
cos θ−3i sin θ

Then ∑ θ∈A
θ
2
is equal to

Option 1:
21 2
π
4

599
 Option 2:
2
8π

Option 3:
27 2
π
4

Option 4:
2
6π

Correct Answer:
21 2
π
4

Solution:
2 cos θ + i sin θ
Re ( )
cos θ − 3i sin θ

(2 cos θ + i sin θ)(cos θ + 3i sin θ)

Re ( )
2 2
cos θ + 9 sin θ
2 2
2 cos θ − 3 sin θ
=
2
1 + 8 sin θ

2 2
2 cos θ − 3 sin θ
1 + 10 ( ) = 0
2
1 + 8 sin θ
2 2 2
=1 + 8 sin θ + 20 cos θ − 30 sin θ = 0

Now, =1 − 22 sin 2
θ + 20 cos
2
θ = 0

2
=1 + 20(cos 2θ) − 2 sin θ = 0

=20 cos 2θ + cos 2θ = 0

=21 cos 2θ = 0

π
2θ = (2n + 1) ,n ∈ I
2
π 3π 5π 7π
2θ = , , ,
2 2 2 2

π 3π 5π 7π
⇒ θ = , , ,
4 4 4 4
2 2 2 2
π 9π 25π 49π
2
∑θ = + + + .
16 16 16 16
0∈A

2
84π
=
16
2
21π
=
4

600
 Q. 15 Let A = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. Let R be a relation on A defined by (x, y) ∈ R if and only if max
{x, y} ∈ {3, 4}.

Then among the statements

(S i ) : The number of elements in R is 18 , and

(S 2 ) : The relation R is symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive

Option 1:
both are true

Option 2:
both are false

Option 3:
only (S ) is true
2

Option 4:
only (S ) is true
1

Correct Answer:
only (S ) is true
2

Solution:
Let's write the pairs (x, y) in R

(0, 3), (1, 3), (2, 3), (3, 3), (4, 3), (5, 3), (3, 0), (3, 1),

(3, 2), (3, 4), (3, 5), (0, 4), (1, 4), (2, 4), (4, 4), (5, 4),

(4, 0), (4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 5)

There are total 20 pairs

If (x, y) ∈ R, then max(x, y) ∈ {3, 4}

This means, max(y, x) ∈ {3, 4}. So, (y, x) ∈ R.
Thus R is symmetric
Since max(5, 5) = 5 ∉ {3, 4}, (5, 5) ∉ R
Thus R is not reflexive

(3, 4) ∈ R&(4, 2) ∈ R, but (3, 2) ∉ R, 2 ∉ {3, 4}

Thus, R is not transitive

Therefore, only S is true

2

601
 Q. 16 1016

The number of integral terms in the expansion of (5 is

1 1

2 + 7 8 )

Option 1:
127

Option 2:
130

Option 3:
129

Option 4:
128

Correct Answer:
128

Solution:
4
1 1
(1016−r)
T r+1 = 1016C r ⋅ (7 8
) ⋅ 5 2

r 1016 − r
⇒ and ∈ Integer
8 2

⇒ 8/r ⇒ r = 0, 8, 16, … 1016

⇒ r = 0 × 8, 1 × 8, … 127 × 8

⇒ Total 128r such that T r+1 is rational

Q. 17 Let f (x) = x − 1 and g(x) = e for x ∈ R. If x dy

= (e
−2√x
g(f (f (x))) −
y
), y(0) = 0
dx √x

, then y(1) is :-

Option 1:
2
1−e
4
e

Option 2:
2e−1
3
e

Option 3:
e−1
4
e

602
 Option 4:
3
1−e
4
e

Correct Answer:
e−1
4
e

Solution:
f (x) = x − 1

f (f (x)) = (x − 1) − 1 = x − 2

x−2
g(f (f (x))) = e

dy y
−2√ x
= e (x − 2) −
dx √x

dy y −2√x x−2
⇒ + = e e
dx √x
−32
∫ x dx 2√x
IF = e = e

2√x −2√x x−2 2√x

y ⋅ e = ∫ e e e dx

2√x x−2
= y ⋅ e = e + c

−2
y(0) = 0 ⇒ c = e

2√x x−2 −2
∴ y ⋅ e = e − e

1 1 e − 1
2 −1 −2
y ⋅ e = e − e = − =
2 2
e e e

e − 1
y =
e4

Q. 18 2
√ 1+tan (2)−1
2
√ 1+tan (
1
)+1

The value of cot is equal to

−1 −1 2
( ) − cot ( 1
)
tan(2) tan( )
2

Option 1:
5
π −
4

Option 2:
3
π −
2

Option 3:
3
π +
2

Option 4:
5
π +
2

603
 Correct Answer:
π −

Solution:

cot

= cot

= cot
−1

= π − cot

= π − cot

= π − cot

= π − 1 −

= π −

Q. 19

Option 1:
22

Option 2:
24

Option 3:
26

Option 4:
20
5

−1

−1
√ 1 + tan 2 2 − 1

4
(

−1

−1

−1

4
(
tan 2

|sec 2| − 1

tan 2

− sec 2 − 1

(
tan 2

Let A =
1 + cos 2

sin 2

2 cos

⎣
2

6
2

2 sin 1 ⋅ cos 1

(cot 1) − cot
1
) − cot

) − cot

) − cot

) − cot

−1

2 + p

6 + 2p

12 + 3p

If det(adj(adj(3 A))) = 2
−1

−1
(

) − cot

(cot
−1

−1

4
(

⎜∣ ⎟
⎛ √ 1 + tan 2 (

sec (

sec

)
tan

tan

−1

2 + p + q

8 + 3p + 2q

20 + 6p + 3q
m
1

1 + cos

sin

n
)

+ 1

2
1

2 sin

⋅ 3 , m, n ∈ N
+ 1

2
tan

2 cos

⎦
1

4
)

.
2
1

⋅ cos
1

4
) + 1 ⎞

4
)
⎠

, then m + n is equal to

604
6


12

∣
4

=
Correct Answer:
24
Solution:
2

20 + 6p + 3q

2

= 4 2

= 4 2

= 8

Q. 20
3p
2 + p

6 + 2p

12 + 3p

= 2 × 2 2

Option 1:
2

20 + 6p + 3q


C 3 → C 3 → pC 2

1 1

6
1

3
1

6


2 + q

8 + 2q
2 + p + q

8 + 3p + 2q

20 + 6p + 3q

2 + p + q

8 + 3p + 2q

20 + 3q

10

= 8(1(6) − 1(8) + 1(3))

lim x→0 (
2 + p + q

8 + 3p + 2q

20 + 6p + 3q

= 4 2

tan

Statement II : lim

below :
−1
+

Given below are two statements :

Statement I:

x+log

x→1

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

e

5
2

√
p

2p

20

1+x

1−x

(x
2

−2x

1−x
2 + p + q

8 + 3p + 2q

=0

+ 0

) =

) =
1

e
2

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given

605
 Option 2:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Option 3:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Correct Answer:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Solution:
−1 1+x
tan x+ln √ −2x
1−x
lim x→0 ( 5
)
x

3 5 7 2 3 4 5
x x x 1 x x x x
(x − + − + …) + (+x − + − + + …)
3 5 7 2 2 3 4 5

2 3 4 5
1 x x x x
− (−x − − − − + …) − 2x
2 2 3 4 5

⇒ lim
5
x→0 x

1 −1 1 1 1 1
3
(x + (x + x) − 2x) + x ( + × + × )
2 3 2 3 2 3

5 1 1 1 1 1
x ( + × + × ) + …
5 2 5 2 5
lim
5
x→0 x

1 1 1 5
( + + )x
5 10 10 2
⇒ lim x→0 5
=
x 5

Q. 21 Let the area of the bounded region {(x, y) : 0 ≤ 9x ≤ y 2

, y ≥ 3x − 6} be A. Then 6 A is
equal to ______

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
The given problem has area bounded → ∞
However, if we correct in to y ≤ 4x then here is the solution. 2

606
Required area
3 2
y + 6 y
= ∫ ( − )dy
−3
3 9

27
= sq. units
2

Q. 22 Let the domain of the function f (x) = cos ( −1 4x+5

) be [α, β] and the domain of
3x−7

g(x) = log (2 − 6 log

2
(2x + 5)) be (γ, δ).
27

Then |7(α + β) + 4(γ + δ)| is equal to ______

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
−1
4x + 5
f (x) = cos ( )
3x − 7

4x + 5
− 1 ≤ ≤ 1
3x − 7

7x−2 x+12
≥ 0, ≤ 0
3x−7 3x−7

2 7 7
x ∈ (−∞, ] ∪ ( , ∞), x ∈ [−12, )
7 3 3

2 2
⇒ x ∈ [−12, ] ⇒ α = −12, β =
7 7

g(x) = log 2 (2 − 6 log 27 (2x + 5))

⇒ 2 − 6 log 27 (2x + 5) > 0, 2x + 5 > 0

1 3
log 27 (2x + 5) < ⇒ (2x + 5) < 27
3

607
 ⇒ 2x + 5 < 3 ⇒ x < −1

5 5
⇒ x ∈ (− , −1) ⇒ γ = − , δ = −1
2 2

⇒ ∣ 7(α + β) + 4(γ + δ) = 96

Q. 23 Let the area of the triangle formed by the lines x + 2 = y − 1 = z, x−3

5
=
y

−1
=
z−1

1
and
x

−3
= =
y−3

3
be A. Then A is equal to ______
z−2

1
2

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
L1 =
x+2

1
=
y−1

1
=
1
z
= λ , any point on it (λ − 2, λ +1, λ)

, any point on it (5μ + 3, −μ, μ + 1)

x−3 y z−1
L2 = = = = μ
5 −1 1

L3 =
x

−3
=
y−3

3
=
z−2

1
= k , any point on it (−3k, 3k + 3, k + 2)

P ≡ point of intersection of L and L 1 2

= (−2, 1, 0)

Q = point of intersection of L and L 1 3 = (0, 3, 2)

R ≡ point of intersection of L and L 2 3 = (3, 0, 1)

–
^
P Q = 2^
i + 2^
j + 2k

–
P R = 5^
i −^ ^
j + k

–
– 1
A = |P Q × P R| = √ 56
2

2
A = 56

Q. 24 The product of the last two digits of (1919) 1919

is _________

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
1919 1919
(1919) = (1920 − 1)

1919 1919 1919 1918

= C 0 (1920) − C 1 (1920) + ….+

1919 1919
C 1918 (1920) − C 1919

608
For last two digit ⇒ 1919
C 1919 (1920) − 1

Q. 25 Let r be the radius of the circle, which touches x -axis at point (a, 0), a < 0 and the parabola
y = 9x at the point (4, 6). Then r is equal to _________
2

Correct Answer:
-

Solution:
Equation of tangent to y 2
= gx at (4, 6) is 3x − 4y+ 12 = 0

Equation of circle is (x − 4) 2
+ (y − 6)
2
+ λ(3x − 4y +12) = 0

2 2
⇒ x + y + (3λ − 8)x + (−12 − 4λ)y + 52 + 12λ = 0

2
2√ g − c = 0 ⇒ g = c
2
∵

2
3λ−8
⇒ (− ) = 52 + 12λ
2

2 2
⇒ 9λ + 64 − 48λ = 208 + 48λ ⇒ 9λ − 96λ − 144 = 0

2 14
⇒ λ = 12, − ⇒ f = −30, −
3 3

⇒ r = √g 2
+ f 2
− c = |f | = | − (2λ + 6)|

∵ centre lies in 2 nd
quadrant
8
⇒ 3λ − 8 > 0 ⇒ λ >
3

⇒ λ = 12, f = −30, r = 30

609