CAREER POINT .

AIPMT - 2006

AIPMT - 2006
Q.1 In producing chlorine through electrolysis 100 Q.5 When a charged particle moving with velocity
r
watt power at 125V is being consumed. How V is subjected to a magnetic field of induction
much chlorine per minute is liberated ? E.C.E. of r
B , the force on it is non-zero. This implies the:-
chlorine is 0.367 × 10–6 kg/coulomb:- r r
(1) 17.6 mg (2) 21.3 mg (1) Angle between V and B is necessary 90º
r r
(3) 24.3 mg (4) 13.6 mg (2) Angle between V and B can have at value
other than 90º
r r
(3) Angle between V and B can have at value
Q.2 In the circuit shown, if a conducting wire is other than zero and 180º
connected between points A and B, the current in r r
this wire will- (4) Angle between V and B is either zero or 180º
A
Q.6 Two cells, having the same e.m.f., are
4Ω 4Ω connected in series through an external
resistance R. Cell have internal resistances
r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. When the circuit
is closed, the potential difference across the first
1Ω 3Ω
cell is zero. The value of R is:-
B r +r
(1) r1 – r2 (2) 1 2
2

r1 − r2
V (3) (4) r1 + r2
2
(1) Flow from A to B
(2) Flow in the direction which will be decided
Q.7 A black body at 1227ºC emits radiations with
by the value of V maximum intensity at a wavelength of 5000Å.
The temperature of the body is increased by
(3) Be zero 1000ºC, the maximum intensity will be
(4) Flow from B to A observe at:-
(1) 4000Å (2) 5000Å

Q.3 A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross- (3) 6000Å (4) 3000Å
section A floats in a liquid of density ρ. If it is
given a small vertical displacement from
Q.8 Two circular coil 1 and 2 are made from the
equilibrium it undergoes oscillation with a time
same wire but the radius of the 1st coil is twice
period T. Then:-
that of the 2nd coil. What potential difference in
1 volts should be applied across them so that the
(1) T ∝ ρ (2) T ∝
A magnetic field at their centres is the same-
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 2
1 1
(3) T ∝ (4) T ∝
ρ m
Q.9 A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit
with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and
Q.4 A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an a capacitor C in series produce oscillations of
efficiency of 40%. By how much should the frequency f. If L is doubled and C is changed to
temperature of source be increased so as to 4C, the frequency will be:-
increase its efficiency by 50% of original f f f
efficiency:- (1) (2) 8f (3) (4)
4 2 2 2
(1) 275 K (2) 325 K
(3) 250 K (4) 380 K

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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2006
Q.10 The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and Q.17 The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by
that of 42 He is 28MeV. If two deuterons are b
v = at + , where a, b and c are constants.
t+c
fused to form one 42 He then the energy released
The dimensions of a, b and c are respectively:-
is:-
(1) LT–2, L and T (2) L2, T and LT2
(1) 25.8 MeV (2) 23.6 MeV
(3) LT2, LT and L (4) L, LT and T2
(3) 19.2 MeV (4) 30.2 MeV

Q.18 A microscope is focused on a mark on a piece

Q.11 In a radioactive material the activity at time t1 is of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3
R1 and at a later time t2, it is R2. If the decay cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the
constant of the material is λ, then mark. How should the microscope be moved to
(1) R1 = R2 e − λ ( t1 −t 2 ) (2) R1 = R2 e λ ( t1 − t 2 ) get the mark in focus again:-
(1) 1 cm upward (2) 4.5 cm downward
(3) R1 = R2 (t2/t1) (4) R1 = R2
(3) 1 cm downward (4) 2 cm upward

Q.12 Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6eV.

Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited Q.19 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up
by monochromatic radiation of photon energy an inclined plane of height 10m. Taking
12.1 eV. According to Bohr's theory, the spectral g = 10 m/s2, work done against friction is
lines emitted by hydrogen will be:- (1) 200 J (2) 100 J
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Zero (4) 1000 J
(3) Four (4) One

Q.20 A transistor is operated in common emitter

Q.13 The potential energy of a long spring when configuration at constant collector voltage
stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched Vc = 1.5 V such that a change in the base
by 8 cm the potential energy stored in it is:- current from 100 µA to 150 µA produces a
U change in the collector current from 5 mA to
(1) 4U (2) 8U (3) 16U (4) 10 mA. The current gain (β) is:-
4
(1) 67 (2) 75 (3) 100 (4) 50
Q.14 For angles of projection of a projectile at angles
(45º – θ) and (45º + θ), the horizontal ranges
described by the projectile are in the ratio of: Q.21 A forward biased diode is:-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 (1) –4V –3V

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 5V
(2) 3V

(3) –2V +2V

Q.15 A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force
which causes a displacement s in metres in it,
1 (4) 0V –2V
given by the relation s = t 2 , where t is in
3
seconds. Work done by the force in 2 seconds is:-
Q.22 A photo-cell employs photoelectric effect to
5 3 8 19
(1) J (2) J (3) J (4) J convert:-
19 8 3 5 (1) Change in the frequency of light into a
change in electric voltage
Q.16 A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a (2) Change in the intensity of illumination into a
time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of change in photoelectric current
the particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3. (3) Change in the intensity of illumination into a
How long would the particle travel before change in the work function of the
coming to rest: - photocathode
(1) 24 m (2) 40 m (3) 56 m (4) 16 m (4) Change in the frequency of light into a
change in the electric current
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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2006
Q.23 The core of a transformer is laminated because:- Q.28 A coil of inductive reactance 31Ω has a
(1) Energy losses due to eddy currents may be resistance of 8Ω. It is placed in series with a
minimised condenser of capacity reactance 25Ω. The
(2) The weight of the transformer may be combination is connected to an a.c. source of
reduced 110 volt. The power factor of the circuit is:-
(3) Rusting of the core may be prevented (1) 0.56 (2) 0.64
(4) Ratio of voltage in primary and secondary (3) 0.80 (4) 0.33
may be increased
Q.29 A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s
Q.24 Two coils of self inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30º with the
placed so close together that the effective flux in wall. It is reflected with the same speed and at
one coil is completely linked with the other. The the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the
mutual inductance between these coils is: wall for 0.25 seconds, the average force acting
(1) 10 mH (2) 6mH on the wall is:-
(3) 4 mH (4) 16 mH

30º
Q.25 In a discharge tube ionization of enclosed gas
produced due to collisions between:
(1) Positive ions and neutral atoms/molecules
30º
(2) Negative electrons and netural atoms/molecules
(3) Photons and neutral atoms/molecules
(4) Neutral gas atoms/molecules (1) 48 N (2) 24 N
(3) 12 N (4) 96 N
Q.26 When photons of energy hν fall on an aluminium
plate (of work function E0), photoelectrons of Q.30 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc
maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the of radius 'R' and mass 'M' about an axis
frequency of the radiation is doubled, the touching the disc at its diameter and normal to
maximum kinetic energy of the ejected the disc is:-
photoelectrons will be
2
(1) K + E0 (2) 2K (1) MR2 (2) MR2
5
(3) K (4) K + hν
3 1
(3) MR2 (4) MR2
2 2
Q.27 The following figure shows a logic gate circuit
with two inputs A and B and the output C. The
voltage waveforms of A, B and C are as shown Q.31 The momentum of a photon of energy 1MeV in
below- kg m/s, will be-
A Logic gate (1) 0.33 × 106 (2) 7 × 10–24
C (3) 10–22 (4) 5 × 10–22
B circuit
1 Q.32 The radius of Germanium (Ge) nuclide is
measured to be twice the radius of 94 Be . The
A t
number of nucleons in Ge are:-
1
(1) 73 (2) 74 (3) 75 (4) 72
B t
1 Q.33 The molar specific heat at constant pressure of
7
an ideal gas is   R. The ratio of specific heat
C t 2
The logic circuit gate is: at constant pressure to that at constant volume is:-
(1) AND gate (2) NAND gate 7 8 5 9
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) NOR gate (4) OR gate 5 7 7 7

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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2006
Q.34 The Earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. Q.40 Which one of the following statements is true:
A platform is arranged at a height R from the (1) Both light and sound waves in air are
surface of the Earth. The escape velocity of a
body from this platform is fv, where v is its transverse
escape velocity from the surface of the Earth. (2) The sound waves in air are longitudinal
The value of f is:- while the light waves are transverse
1 1 1 (3) Both light and sound waves in air are
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4)
2 3 2 longitudinal
(4) Both light and sound waves can travel in
Q.35 Two sound waves with wavelength 5.0 m and vacuum
5.5 m respectively, each propagate in a gas with
velocity 330 m/s. We expect the following Q.41 Above Curie temperature:-
number of beats per second:-
(1)A ferromagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic
(1) 12 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 6
(2) A paramagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic
(3) A diamagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic
Q.36 Power dissipated across the 8Ω resistor in the
circuit shown here is 2 watt. The power (4) A paramagnetic substance becomes ferromagnetic
dissipated in watt units across the 3Ω resistor is:-
Q.42 A convex lens and a concave lens, each having
1Ω 3Ω
same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to
i form a combination of lenses. The power in
dipoters of the combination is:-
(1) 25 (2) 50
8Ω (3) Infinite (4) Zero
(1) 2.0 (2) 1.0 (3) 0.5 (4) 3.0
r
Q.43 An electric dipole of moment p is lying along a
Q.37 Kirchhoff's first and second laws for electrical r
circuits are consequences of:- uniform electric field E . The work done in
(1) Conservation of energy rotating the dipole by 90º is:-
(2) Conservation of electric charge and energy pE
respectively (1) 2 pE (2)
2
(3) Conservation of electric charge
(3) 2pE (4) p E
(4) Conservation of energy and electric charge
respectively Q.44 A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a
potential difference of V volts. After
Q.38 A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is
disconnecting the charging battery the distance
represented by
between the plates of the capacitor is increased
π
y(x, t) = 8.0 sin (0.5πx – 4πt – ) using an insulating handle. As a result the
4
potential difference between the plates:-
where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The
speed of the wave is:- (1) Decreases (2) Does not change
(1) 4π m/s (2) 0.5 π m/s (3) Becomes zero (4) Increases

π Q.45 A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track

(3) m/s (4) 8 m/s
4 of radius 100 m, taking 62.8 seconds for every
circular lap. The average velocity and average
Q.39 The time of reverberation of a room A is one
speed for each circular lap respectively is:
second. What will be the time (in seconds) of
reverberation of a room, having all the (1) 0, 0 (2) 0, 10 m/s
dimensions double of those of room A- (3) 10 m/s, 10 m/s (4) 10 m/s, 0
1
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) (4) 1
2
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Q.46 A square surface of side L metres is in the plane Q.51 Identify the correct statement for change of
r
of the paper. A uniform electric field E (volt/m), Gibbs energy for a system (∆Gsystem) at constant
also in the plane of the paper, is limited only to temperature and pressure:-
the lower half of the square surface, (see figure). (1) If ∆Gsystem > 0, the process is spontaneous
The electric flux in SI units associated with the (2) If ∆Gsystem = 0, the system has attained
surface is:- equilibrium
(3) If ∆Gsystem = 0, the system is still moving in
r a particular direction
E (4) If ∆Gsystem < 0, the process is not
spontaneous
Q.52 A solution containing 10 g per dm3 of urea
(1) EL2/(2ε0) (2) EL2/2
(molecular mass = 60 g mol–1) is isotonic with a
(3) Zero (4) E L2 5% solution of a nonvolatile solute. The
molecular mass of this nonvolatile solution is:
Q.47 A tube of length L is filled completely with an (1) 250 g mol–1 (2) 300 g mol–1
incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at (3) 350 g mol–1 (4) 200 g mol–1
both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a
horizontal plane about one of its ends with a Q.53 A plot of log x/m versus log p for the adsorption
uniform angular velocity ω. The force exerted by of a gas on a solid gives a straight line with
the liquid at the other ends is:- slope equal to:
(1) – log K (2) n
MLω2 ML2 ω
(1) (2) 1
2 2 (3) (4) log K
n
ML2 ω2
(3) M Lω2 (4) Q.54 Assume each reaction is carried out in an open
2
container. For which reaction will ∆H = ∆E ?
(1) H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g)
Q.48 A uniform rod of length l and mass m is free to
rotate in a vertical plane about A. The rod (2) C(s) + 2H2O(g) → 2H2(g) + CO2(g)
initially in horizontal position is released. The (3) PCl5(g)→ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
initial angular acceleration of the rod is (Moment (4) 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)
ml 2 Q.55 In a set off reactions propionic acid yielded a
of inertia of rod about A is ):
3 compound D.
l CH3CH2COOH SOCl
2 → B NH
3 → C
A B
KOH
→ D
3g 2l 3g l Br2
(1) (2) (3) (4) mg
2l 3g 2l 2 2 The structure of D would be:-
(1) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (2) CH3CH2CONH2
(3) CH2CH2NHCH3 (4) CH3CH2NH2
r r
Q.49 The vectors A and B are such that Q.56 During the process of digestion, the proteins
r r r r
| A + B | = | A − B | .The angle between the two present in food materials are hydrolysed to
vectors is:- amino acids. The two enzymes involved in the
process:
(1) 90º (2) 60º (3) 75º (4) 45º
Proteins Enzyme
 (A)
→ Polypeptides
Q.50 Two bodies, A(of mass 1kg) and B(of mass 3kg), Enzyme
 ( B)
→ Amino acids,
are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m
are respectively-
respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them
to reach the ground is:- (1) Amylase and Maltase
5 12 5 4 (2) Diastase and Lipase
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) Pepsin and Trypsin
4 5 12 5
(4) Invertase and Zymase

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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2006
Q.57 The human body does not produce:- Q.65 The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal
(1) DNA (2) Vitamin halides is generally due to :
(3) Hormones (4) Enzymes (1) F-centres (2) Schottky defect
(3) Frenkel defect (4) Interstitial positions
Q.58 CsBr crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice.
The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the Q.66 The general molecular formula, which
atomic mass of Cs = 133 and that of Br = 80 amu represents the homologus series of alkanols is:-
and Avogadro number being 6.02 × 1023 mol–1,
(1) CnH2nO2 (2) CnH2nO
the density of CsBr is:-
(3) CnH2n+1O (4) CnH2n+2O
(1) 42.5 g/cm3 (2) 0.425 g/cm3
3
(3) 8.25 g/cm (4) 4.25 g/cm3 Q.67 If E ºFe2+ / Fe = – 0.441 V and
Q.59 More number of oxidation states are exhibited by
the actinoids than by the lanthonoids. The main E ºFe3+ / Fe2+ = 0.771 V, the standard EMF
reason for this is:- of the reaction : Fe + 2Fe3+ → 3Fe2+ will be:
(1) More energy difference between 5f and 6d (1) 0.330 V (2) 1.653 V
orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals (3) 1.212 V (4) 0.111 V
(2) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d
orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals Q.68 For the reaction :
(3) Greater metallic character of the lanthanoids 2A + B → 3C + D
than that of the corresponding actinoids Which of the following does not express the
(4) More active nature of the actinoids reaction rate:-
Q.60 Given: The mass of electron is 9.11 × 10–31Kg d[C] d[B]
(1) − (2) −
Planck constant is 6.626 × 10–34Js, the uncertainty 3dt dt
involved in the measurement of velocity within a d[D] d[A]
distance of 0.1Å is:- (3) (4) −
dt 2dt
(1) 5.79 × 106 ms–1 (2) 5.79 × 107 ms–1
(3) 5.79 × 108 ms–1 (4) 5.79 × 105ms–1 Q.69 For the reaction :
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
Q.61 Copper sulphate dissolved in excess of KCN to
give:- ∆Hr = – 170.8 kJ mol–1
(1) CuCN (2) [Cu(CN)4]3– Which of the following statements is not true:-
(3) [Cu(CN)4] 2–
(4) Cu(CN)2 (1) At equilibrium, the concentrations of CO2(g)
and H2O(l) are not equal
Q.62 In which of the following pairs are both the ions
(2) The equilibrium constant for the reaction is
coloured in aqueous solution-
[CO 2 ]
(1) Ni2+, Ti3+ (2) Sc3+, Ti3+ given by KP =
3+ 2+ [CH 4 ] [O 2 ]
(3) Sc , Co (4) Ni2+, Cu+
[At. No. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Co = 27] (3) Addition of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibrium
will cause a shift to the right
Q.63 Al2O3 can be converted to anhydrous AlCl3 by (4) The reaction is exothermic
heating:-
(1) Al2O3 with HCl gas Q.70 [NH(CH2)NHCO(CH2)4CO]n is a:-
(2) Al2O3 with NaCl in solid state (1) copolymer
(3) A mixture of Al2O3 and carbon in dry Cl2 gas (2) Addition polymer
(4) Al2O3 with Cl2 gas (3) Thermosetting polymer
(4) Homopolymer
Q.64 The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction:
Br2(l) + Cl2(g) → 2BrCl(g) Q.71 A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen
are 30 kJ mol–1 and 105 JK–1 mol–1 respectively. cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on
The temperature at which the reaction will be in hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of
equilibrium is:- α-hydroxy acid. The carbonyl compound is:
(1) 285.7K (2) 273 K (1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetone
(3) 450 K (4) 300 K (3) diethyl ketone (4) Formaldehyde

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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2006
Q.72 Which one of the following is a peptide Q.78 Which of the following is not chiral:-
hormone:- (1) 2-Butanol
(1) Glucagon (2) Testosterone (2) 2,3-Dibromopentane
(3) Thyroxin (4) Adrenaline (3) 3-Bromopentane
(4) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid
Q.73 The major organic product in the reaction,
CH3–O–CH(CH3)2 + HI → Product is: Q.79 [Co(NH3)4(NO2)2]Cl exhibits:-
(1) CH3OH + (CH3)2CHI (1) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism
(2) ICH2OCH(CH3)2 and optical isomerism
(3) CH3OC(CH3)2 (2) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism
and geometrical isomerism
I (3) Ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism
(4) CH3I + (CH3)2CHOH and optical isomerism
(4) Linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism
Q.74 Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most and optical isomerism
favoured in:-
O Q.80 [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (at. No. of Cr = 24) has a
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2C–CH3 magnetic moment of 3.83 B.M. The correct
distribution of 3d electrons in the Chromium of
(2) (CH3)2C = O the complex is:-
(3) CH3CH2CHO 1
(1) (3d x2 – y2)1, 3d z 2 , 3d xz1
(4) CH3CHO
(2) 3d xy1, (3d x2 – y2)1, 3d yz1
(3) 3dxy1, 3d yz1, 3d xz1
Q.75 The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is 1
–119.5 kJ mol–1. If resonance energy of benzene (4) 3d xy1, 3d yz1, 3dz 2
is –150.4 kJ mol–1, its enthalpy of hydrogenation
would be:-
Q.81 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass
(1) –508.9 kJ mol–1 (2) –208.1 kJ mol–1 250g mol–1) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene.
(3) –269.9 kJ mol–1 (4) –358.5 kJ mol–1 If the freezing point depression constant Kf of
benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1, the freezing point
Q.76 Self condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate of benzene will be lowered by:-
in presence of sodium ethoxide yields:- (1) 0.4 K (2) 0.3 K
(1) Ethyl butyrate (3) 0.5 K (4) 0.2 K
(2) Acetoacetic ester
(3) Methyl acetoacetate Q.82 Which of the following pairs constitutes a
(4) Ethyl propionate buffer:-
(1) HNO2 & NaNO2 (2) NaOH & NaCl
Q.77 Consider the reaction (3) HNO3 & NH4NO3 (4) HCl & KCl
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
d[ NH 3 ] Q.83 The hydrogen ion concentration of a 10–8M HCl
The equality relationship between and aqueous solution at 298 K (KW = 10–14) is:-
dt
d[H 2 ] (1) 1.0 × 10–6 M (2) 1.0525 × 10–7 M
− is :- (3) 9.525 × 10 M (4) 1.0 × 10–8 M
–8
dt
d[ NH 3 ] 1 d[H 2 ]
(1) =− Q.84 A solution of acetone is ethanol:-
dt 3 dt
(1) Shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law
d[ NH 3 ] 2 d[ H 2 ]
(2) + =− (2) Shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law
dt 3 dt
(3) Behaves like a near ideal solution
d[ NH 3 ] 3 d[H 2 ]
(3) + =− (4) Obeys Raoult's law
dt 2 dt
d[ NH 3 ] d[H 2 ]
(4) =−
dt dt
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Q.85 A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown Q.91 The correct order of the mobility of the alkali
below: metal ions in aqueous solution is:
Θ ⊕ (1) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+
A | A + ( xM) || B+ ( yM) | B
(2) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Li+
The emf measured is +0.20V. The cell reaction is: (3) K+ > Rb+ > Na+ > Li+
(1) A+ + B → A + B+ (4) Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
(2) A+ + e– → A; B+ + e– → B
(3) The cell reaction cannot be predicted Q.92 The correct order regarding the electronegativity of
(4) A + B+ → A+ + B hybrid orbitals of carbon is:-
(1) sp > sp2 < sp3 (2) sp > sp2 > sp3
2 3
Q.86 Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard (3) sp < sp > sp (4) sp < sp2 < sp3
reagent yields:-
(1) Secondary alcohol Q.93 Which of the following species has a linear
(2) Tertiary alcohol shape:-
(3) Cyclopropyl alcohol (1) NO −2 (2)SO2 (3) NO +2 (4)O3
(4) Primary alcohol
Q.94 Which of the following is the most basic oxide:-
Q.87 During osmosis, flow of water through a (1) Al2O3 (2) Sb2O3
semipermeable membrane is:-
(3) Bi2O3 (4) SeO2
(1) From solution having higher concentration
only
Q.95 The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by:-
(2) Form both sides of semipermeable membrane
with equal flow rates (1) Azimuthal quantum number
(3) From both sides of semipermeable membrane (2) Spin quantum number
with unequal flow rates (3) Magnetic quantum number
(4) From solution having lower concentration (4) Principal quantum number
only
Q.96 Which of the following is not a correct
Q.88 Which of the following is more basic than statement:-
aniline:- (1) The electron-deficient molecules can act as
(1) Diphenlamine (2) Triphenylamine Lewis acids
(3) p-Nitroaniline (4) Benzylamine (2) The canonical structures have no real
existence
Q.89 In which of the following molecules all the (3) Every AB5 molecule does infact have square
bonds are not equal:- pyramid structure
(1) CIF3 (2) BF3 (4) Multiple bonds are always shorter than
corresponding single bonds
(3) AlF3 (4) NF3

Q.97 The number of unpaired electrons in a

Q.90 The electronegativity difference between N and
paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element
F is greater than that between N and H yet the
with atomic number 16 is:-
dipole moment of NH3(1.5 D) is larger than that
of NF3 (0.2 D). This is because:- (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1
(1) In NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole
and bond dipole are in the same direction Q.98 Which one of the following orders is not in
(2) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole according with the property stated against it ?
are in the same direction whereas in NF3 (1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 ; Oxidising power
these are in opposite directions (2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF ; Acidic property in water
(3) In NH3 as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and (3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 ; Electronegativity
bond dipole are in opposite directions (4) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 ; Bond dissociation energy
(4) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole
are in the opposite directions whereas in NF3
these are in the same direction
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Q.99 Which of the following is not isostructural with Q.106 The 'blue baby' syndrome results from-
SiCl4:- (1) Excess of chloride
(1) SCl4 (2) SO 24− (2) Methemoglobin
(3) Excess of dissolved oxygen
(3) PO 34− (4) NH +4
(4) Excess of TDS (total dissolved solids)

Cl Q.107 Praying mantis is a good example of-

Q.100 The IUPAC name of is:- (1) Mullerian mimicry
O (2) Warning colouration
(1) 3,4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride (3) Social insects
(2) 1-chloro-1-oxo-2,3-dimethylpentane (4) Camouflage
(3) 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride
(4) 2,3-dimethylpentanoyl chloride Q.108 Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not
Q.101 What would be the number of chromosomes in vice verse
the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species (2) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity,
with 8 chromosomes in its synergids ? and nervous system regulates endocrine
(1) 16 (2) 24 (3) 32 (4) 8 glands
(3) Neither hormones control neural activity nor
Q.102 Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from- the neurons control endocrine activity
(1) a unilocular polycarpellary flower (4) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity,
(2) a multipistillate syncarpous flower but not vice versa
(3) a cluster of compactly borne flowers on a
common axis Q.109 Examination of blood of a person suspected of
(4) a multilocular monocarpellary flower having anemia, shows large, immature,
nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin.
Supplementing his diet with which of the
Q.103 Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. following is likely to alleviate his symptoms ?
When released for cultivation, it will help in (1) Thiamine
(1) Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency (2) Folic acid and cobalamine
(2) Pest resistance (3) Riboflavin
(3) Herbicide tolerance (4) Iron compounds
(4) Producing a petrol-like fuel from rice
Q.110 Farmers in a particular region were concerned
Q.104 Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by- that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse
(1) Removing androecium of flowers before crop might cause decrease in the yield. Which
pollen grains are released treatment could be most beneficial to obtain
(2) Treating the plants with low concentrations maximum seed yield ?
of gibberellic acid and auxins (1) Frequent irrigation of the crop
(3) Raising the plants from vernalized seeds (2) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins
(4) Treating the plants with phenylmercuric alongwith a small dose of nitrogenous
acetate fertilizer
(3) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying
Q.105 How does pruning help in making the hedge the remaining green leaves with 2,4,5-
dense ? trichlorophenoxy acetic acid
(1) It induces the differentiation of new shoots (4) Application of iron and magnesium to
from the rootstock promote synthesis of chlorophyll
(2) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance
(3) The apical shoot grows faster after pruning Q.111 In which of the following fruits is the edible
part the aril ?
(4) It released wound hormones
(1) Custard apple (2) Pomegranate
(3) Orange (4) Litchi

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Q.112 Which one of the following amino-acids was not Q.121 Which one of the following is not included
found to be synthesized in Miller's experiment ? under in-situ conservation ?
(1) Glycine (2) Aspartic acid (1) Sanctuary (2) Botanical garden
(3) Glutamic acid (4) Alanine (3) Biosphere reserve (4) National park

Q.113 Crop plants grown in monoculture are- Q.122 Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between
(1) Low in yield tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein
(2) Free from intraspecific competition synthesis ?
(3) Characterised by poor root system (1) Erythromycin (2) Neomycin
(4) Highly prone to pests (3) Streptomycin (4) Tetracycline

Q.114 Montreal Protocol which calls for appropriate Q.123 Phenotype of an organism is the result of-
action to protect the ozone layer from human (1) Mutations and linkages
activities was passed in the year- (2) Cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
(1) 1986 (2) 1987 (3) Environmental changes and sexual dimorphism
(3) 1988 (4) 1985 (4) Genotype and environment interactions

Q.115 The formula for exponential population growth is- Q.124 Photochemical smog pollution does not contain-
(1) dt/dN = rN (2) dN/rN = dt (1) Ozone
(3) rN/dN = dt (4) dN/dt = rN (2) Nitrogen dioxide
(3) Carbon dioxide
Q.116 Which one of the following is not used for (4) PAN (peroxy acyl nitrate)
construction of ecological pyramids ?
(1) Dry weight Q.125 Moss peat is used as a packing material for
(2) Number of individuals sending flowers and live plants to distant places
(3) Rate of energy flow because-
(4) Fresh weight (1) It is easily available
(2) It is hygroscopic
Q.117 Niche overlap indicates- (3) It reduces transpiration
(1) Active cooperation between two species (4) It serves as a disinfectant
(2) Two different parasites on the same host
(3) Sharing of one or more resources between the Q.126 A common structural feature of vessel elements
two species and sieve tube elements is-
(4) Mutualism between two species (1) Thick secondary walls
(2) Pores on lateral wall
Q.118 In photosystem-I, the first electron acceptor is- (3) Presence of p-protein
(1) Ferredoxin (4) Enucleate condition
(2) Cytochrome Q.127 The thalloid body of a slime mould
(3) Plastocyanin (Myxomycetes) is known as-
(4) An iron sulphur protein (1) Protonema (2) Plasmodium
(3) Fruiting body (4) Mycelium
Q.119 Treatment of seed at low temperature under
moist conditions to break its dormancy is called - Q.128 In which mode of inheritance do you expect
(1) Sclarification (2)Vernalization more maternal influence among the offspring ?
(3) Chelation (4) Stratification (1) Autosomal (2) Cytoplasmic
(3) Y-linked (4) X-linked
Q.120 Which one of the following is the most suitable Q.129 What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea ?
medium for culture of Drosophila melanogaster ? (1) Basal (2)Axile
(1) Moist bread (2) Agar-agar (3) Free central (4) Marginal
(3) Ripe banana (4) cow dung

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Q.130 Long filamentous threads protruding at the end Q.138 Bowman's glands are found in-
of a young cob of maize are- (1) Olfactory epithelium
(1) Anthers (2) Styles (2) External auditory canal
(3) Ovaries (4) Hairs (3)Cortical nephrons only
(4) Juxtamedullary nephrons
Q.131 Conifers differ from grasses in the-
(1) Production of seeds from ovules Q.139 The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that
(2) Lack of xylem tracheids causes botulism is-
(3) Absence of pollen tubes (1) A facultative anaerobe
(4) Formation of endosperm before fertilization (2) An obligate anaerobe
(3) A facultative aerobe
Q.132 How many different kinds of gametes will be (4) An obligate aerobe
produced by a plant having the genotype
AABbCC ? Q.140 Which one of the following is the correctly
(1) Three (2) Four matched pair of an endangered animal and a
(3) Nine (4) Two National Park ?
(1) Lion – Corbett National Park
Q.133 In Maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by- (2) Rhinoceros – Kaziranga National Park
(1) Bombarding the protoplast with DNA (3) Wild Ass – Dudhwa National Park
(2) Crossing of two inbred parental lines (4) Great Indian – Keoladeo National Park
(3) Harvesting seeds from the most productive Bustard
plants
(4) Inducing mutations Q.141 A person showing unpredictable moods,
outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour
Q.134 Which of the following statements regarding and conflicts with others is suffering from-
mitochondrial membrane is not correct ? (1) Schizophrenia
(1) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds (2) Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)
of molecules (3) Mood disorders
(2) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain (4) Addictive disorders
are embedded in the outer membrane
(3) The inner membrane is highly convoluted Q.142 Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum
forming a series of infoldings growth and productivity in-
(4) The outer membrane resembles a sieve (1) Pulse crops (2) Cereals
(3) Fibre crops (4) Oilseed crops
Q.135 Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is
decided by the sequence of- Q.143 Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpellary
(1) tRNA (2) mRNA ovary with oblique septa, and fruit a capsule or
(3) cDNA (4) rRNA berry, are characteristic features of-
(1) Asteraceae (2) Brassicaceae
Q.136 How many ATP molecules could maximally be (3) Solanaceae (4) Liliaceae
generated from one molecule of glucose, if the
complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to Q.144 In a moss the sporophyte-
CO2 and H2O yields 686 kcal and the useful
(1) is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
chemical energy available in the high energy
phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal ? (2) produces gametes that given rise to the
(1) Two (2) Thirty gametophyte
(3) Arises from a spore produced from the
(3) Fifty-seven (4) One
gametophyte
Q.137 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and (4) Manufactures food for itself, as well as for
essential for its activity is called - the gametophyte
(1) Coenzyme (2) Holoenzyme
(3) Apoenzyme (4) isoenzyme
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Q.145 Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the Q.152 Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of-
activity of- (1) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda
(1) Bacteria (2) Mycorrhiza (2) Echinodermata and Annelida
(3) Viruses (4) Fungi (3) Annelida and Arthropoda
(4) Mollusca and Chordata
Q.146 People living at sea level have around 5 million
RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas Q.153 Which of the following pairs of an animal and a
those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have plant represents endangered organisms in India-
around 8 million. This is because at high
(1) Bentinckia nicobarica and Red Panda
altitude-
(1) People get pollution-free air to breathe and (2) Tamarind and Rhesus monkey
more oxygen is available (3) Cinchona and Leopard
(2) Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more (4) Banyan and Black buck
RBCs are needed to absorb the required
amount of O2 to survive Q.154 Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era
(3) There is more UV radiation which enhances characterized by-
RBC production (1) Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first
(4) People eat more nutritive food, therefore birds appear
more RBCs are formed (2) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal
like reptiles
Q.147 An important evidence in favour of organic (3) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms
evolution is the occurrence of- appear
(1) Homologous and vestigial organs (4) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear
(2) Analogous and vestigial organs
(3) Homologous organs only Q.155 What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca,
(4) Homologous and analogous organs Monocystis and Giardia-
(1) These are all unicellular protists
Q.148 Which one of the following is not a living fossil- (2) They have flagella
(1) King crab (2) Sphenodon (3) They produce spores
(3) Archaeopteryx (4) Peripatus (4) These are all parasites

Q.150 A major breakthrough in the studies of cells Q.156 Which of the following statements regarding
came with the development of electron cilia is not correct -
microscope. This is because- (1) The organized beating of cilia is controlled
(1) The resolution power of the electron by fluxes of Ca2+ across the membrane
microscope is much higher than that of the (2) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages
light microscope (3) Microtubules of cilia are composed of
(2) The resolving power of the electron tubulin
microscope is 200-350 nm as compared to (4) Cilin contain an outer ring of nine doublet
0.1-0.2 nm for the light microscope microtubules surrounding two single
(3) Electron beam can pass through thick microtubules
materials, whereas light microscopy requires
thin sections Q.157 Two microbes found to be very useful in
(4) The electron microscope is more powerful genetic engineering are-
than the light microscope as it uses a beam (1) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium
of electrons which has wavelength much tumefaciens
longer than that of photons
(2) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
Q.151 Which one of the following is a matching set of
(3) Diplococcus sp.and Pseudomonas sp.
phylum and its three examples ?
(4) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis
(1) Cnidaria – Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia
elegans
(2) Platyhelminthes-Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius
(3) Mollusca-Loligo, Teredo, Octopus
(4) Porifera-Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula
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Q.158 Which of the following environmental Q.166 The contractile protein of skeletal muscle
conditions are essential for optimum growth of involving ATPase activity is-
Mucor on a piece of bread ? (1) Tropomyosin (2) Myosin
A. Temperature of about 25ºC (3) α-Actin (4) Troponin
B. Temperature of about 5ºC
C. Relative humidity of about5% Q.167 Which one of the following is not a second
D. Relative humidity of about 95% messenger in hormone action ?
E. A shady place (1) cGMP (2) Calcium
F. A brightly illuminated place (3) Sodium (4) cAMP
Choose the answer from the following options
(1) A, C and E only (2) A, D and E only Q.168 In Mendel's experiments with garden pea, round
(3) B, D and E only (4) B, C and F only seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled
seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY) was dominant
Q.159 Evolutionary history of an organism is known as- over green cotyledon (yy). What are the
(1) Phylogeny (2) Ancestry expected phenotypes in the F2 generation of the
(3) Paleontology (4) Ontogeny cross RRYY × rryy ?
(1) Only round seeds with green cotyledons
Q.160 Which of the following is considered a hot-spot (2) Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
of biodiversity in India ?
(3) Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
(1) Western Ghats
(4) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and
(2) Indo-Gangetic Plain wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
(3) Eastern Ghats
(4) Aravalli Hills Q.169 One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was
postulated by-
Q.161 During photorespiration the oxygen consuming
reaction (s) occur in- (1) R. Franklin (2) Hershey and Chase
(1) Stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria (3) A.Garrod (4) Beadle and Tatum
(2) Stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
(3) Grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes Q.170 One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is
approximately-
(4) Stroma of chloroplasts
(1) 20 nm (2) 0.34 nm
Q.162 Which one of the following is an example of (3) 3.4 nm (4) 2 nm
polygenic inheritance ?
(1) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa Q.171 Test cross involves-
(2) Production of male honey bee (1) Crossing between two genotypes with
(3) Pod shape in garden pea recessive trait
(4) Skin colour in humans (2) Crossing between two F1 hybrids
Q.163 Which one of the following does not act as a (3) Crossing the F1 hybrid with a double
neurotransmitter ? recessive genotype
(1) Acetylcholine (2) Epinephrine (4) Crossing between two genotypes with
dominant trait
(3) Norepinephrine (4) Cortisone

Q.164 Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary Q.172 Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means
hormone known as- that-
(1) FSH (2) GH (1) One strand turns anti-clockwise
(3) Prolactin (4) LH (2) The phosphate groups of two DNA stands,
at their ends, share the same position
Q.165 A steroid hormone which regulates glucose (3) The phosphate groups at the start of two
metabolism is- DNA strands are in opposite position (pole)
(1) Cortisol (4) One strand turns clockwise
(2) Corticosterone
(3) 11-deoxycorticosterone
(4) Cortisone
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Q.173 Areolar connective tissue joins- Q.181 Which of the following is an accumulation and
(1) Fat body with muscles release centre of neurohormones ?
(2) Integument with muscles (1) Posterior pituitary lobe
(3) Bones with muscles (2) Intermediate lobe of the pituitary
(4) Bones with bones (3) Hypothalamus
(4) Anterior pituitary lobe
Q.174 Mast cells secrete-
(1) Hippurin (2) Myoglobin Q.182 Withdrawal of which of the following hormones
(3) Histamine (4) Heamoglobin is the immediate cause of menstruation ?
(1) Estrogen (2) FSH
Q.175 If a colourblind woman marries a normal visioned (3) FSH-RH (4) Progesterone
man, their sons will be -
(1) All normal visioned Q.183 Which one of the following statements is
(2) One-half colourblind and one-half normal incorrect ?
(3) Three-fourths colourblind and one-fourth normal (1) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases
the efficiency of respiration in mammals
(4) All colourblind
(2) The presence of non-respiratory air sacs,
increases the efficiency of respiration in
Q.176 Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by birds
the-
(3) In insects, circulating body fluids serve to
(1) Fertilization of an XX egg by a normal distribute oxygen to tissues
Y-bearing sperm
(4) The principle of countercurrent flow
(2) Loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5 facilitates efficient respiration in gills of
(3) Loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5 fishes
(4) Trisomy of 21st chromosome Q.184 Which one of the following has an open
circulatory system ?
Q.177 Restriction endonuclease - (1) Pheretima (2) Periplaneta
(1) Cuts the DNA molecule randomly (3) Hirudinaria (4) Octopus
(2) Cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites
(3) Restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the Q.185 Which hormone causes dilation of blood
nucleus vessels, increased oxygen consumption an
(4) Synthesizes DNA glucogenesis ?
(1) ACTH (2) Insulin
Q.178 Antibodies in our body are complex- (3) Adrenalin (4) Glucagon
(1) Lipoproteins (2) Steroids
(3) Prostaglandins (4) Glycoproteins Q.186 The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a-
(1) Bacterium (2) Prion
Q.179 Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution (3) Worm (4) Virus
Control Board for the discharge of industrial and
municipal waste waters into natural surface Q.187 The translocation of organic solutes in sieve
waters, is - tube members is supported by-
(1) < 3.0 ppm (2) <10 ppm (1) Root pressure and transpiration pull
(3) < 100 ppm (4) < 30 ppm (2) P-proteins
(3) Mass flow involving a carrier and ATP
Q.180 Earthworms are - (4) Cytoplasmic streaming
(1) Ureotelic when plenty of water is available
(2) Uricotelic when plenty of water is available Q.188 Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are
the characteristics of-
(3) Uricotelic under conditions of water scarcity
(1) Starfish and sea anemone
(4) Ammonotelic when plenty of water is available.
(2) Ctenoplana and Beroe
(3) Aurelia and Paramecium
(4) Hydra and starfish
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Q.189 The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal Q.196 In which one of the following sets of animals do
embryo sac in the dicot plants is- all the four give birth to young ones ?
(1) 2 + 4 + 2 (2) 3 + 2 + 3 (1) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich
(3) 2 + 3 + 3 (4) 3 + 3 + 2 (2) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus
(3) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi
Q.190 An enzyme that can stimulate germination of (4) Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin, Loris
barley seeds is-
Q.197 Sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated from
(1) α- amylase (2) Lipase
the African population because-
(3) Protease (4) Invertase
(1) It is controlled by recessive genes
(2) It is not a fatal disease
Q.191 In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo
(3) It provides immunity against malaria
is represented by -
(4) It is controlled by dominant genes
(1) Coleorhiza (2) Scutellum
(3) Prophyll (4) Coleoptile
Q.198 Two common characters found in centipede,
Q.192 The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our cockroach, and crab are-
body cells is transported to the lungs- (1) Compound eyes and anal cerci
(1) Dissolved in the blood (2) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
(2) As bicarbonates (3) Green gland and tracheae
(3) As carbonates (4) Book lungs and antennae
(4) Attached to hemoglobin
Q.199 Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington's chorea
Q.193 Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has are-
been obtained by crossing wheat with (1) Bacteria-related diseases
(1) Rye (2) Pearl millet (2) Congenital disorders
(3) Sugarcane (4) Barley (3) Pollutant-induced disorders
(4) Virus-related diseases
Q.194 In order to obtain virus-free plants through tissue
culture the best method is- Q.200 Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and
(1) Protoplast culture secreted by-
(2) Embryo rescue (1) Macula densa cells
(3) Anther culture (2) Endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)
(4) Meristem culture (3) Liver cells
(4) Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells
Q.195 HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying
(1) B-lymphocytes (2) Leucocytes
(3) Thrombocytes (4) Helper T-lymphocytes

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ANSWER KEY (AIPMT-2006)

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 1 4 2 3 3 1 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 1 1 2 3
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 4 2 1 3 2 4 1 3 2 3 4 4 1 2 4 4 2 4 1 2
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 1 4 4 4 2 3 1 1 1 4 2 2 3 1 4 3 2 4 2 1
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 2 1 3 1 1 4 3 1 2 1 1 1 4 4 2 2 2 3 2 3
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 1 1 2 2 4 4 3 4 1 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 1 4 1 4
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 2 3 1 2 2 2 4 2 2 4 4 3 4 2 4 4 3 4 4 3
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 2 2 4 3 2 4 2 2 4 2 4 4 2 2 2 3 1 1 2 2
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 2 4 3 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 2 4 4 1 1 2 3 4 4 3 3 3 2 3 4 2 2 4 4 4
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 1 4 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 4 4 4 3 2 2 3

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

P  100  7. By Wiens displacement law λm T = b we have
1. m = ZIt = (Z)   (t) = (0.367 × 10–6)   (60)
V  125  (5000) (1500) = (λ'm) (1500 +1000)
= 1.76 × 10–5 kg = 17.6 mg (5000)(1500)
⇒ λ'm = = 3000 Å
(2500)
  V    V 
2. VA – VB = V −  × 4  − V −  × 1 8. Let r1 and r2 are the radius of coil 1 & 2. If B1
 8    4  and B2 are magnetic induction at their centre,
V V V then
=– + =− ⇒ VB > VA ⇒ Ans (4) µ I µ I
2 4 4 B1 = 0 1 ; and B2 = 0 2
2r1 2r2
3. Restoring force = Axρg = kx ⇒ k = Aρg
Since B1 = B2 ; and r1 = 2r2 therefore I1 = 2I2
m Again if R1 and R2 are resistance of the coil 1
⇒ T = 2π ⇒ Ans(2)
Aρg and 2 then R1 = 2R2 (as R ∝ length = 2πr) and if
V1 and V2 are the potential difference across
T2 300 them respectively, then
4. η=1– ⇒1– = 0.4 ⇒ T1 = 500 K
T1 T1 V1 I1R1 ( 2I 2 ) ( 2R 2 )
= = =4
50 V2 I 2 R 2 I2R 2
now η∋ = 0.4 + 0.4 × = 0.6
100 1 1
9. f= &f'=
300 2π LC 2π 2L(4C)
Therefore 0.6 = 1 –
500 + ∆T
 1  1 f
⇒ 500 + ∆T = 750 ⇒ ∆T = 250 K Therefore f ' =   =
r  2 2  2π LC 2 2
r r
5. F = q ( v × B) = avB sinθ n̂
Therefore when θ = 0º or θ = 180º, F = 0 10. Energy released = 28 – 2 × 2.2 = 28 – 4.4 = 23.6 MeV
6 According to question 11. R1 = R 0e −λt1 & R2 = R 0 e − λt 2
E+E E 2E R1 e − λt1
E–Ir1 = 0 & I = ∴ = ⇒ = = e −λ ( t1 − t 2 ) ⇒ R1 = R2 e − λ ( t1 − t 2 )
r1 + r2 + R r1 r1 + r2 + R R 2 e −λ t 2
⇒ r1 + r2 + R = 2r1 ⇒ R = r1 – r2
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 1 1  19. By using work energy theorem W = ∆KE
12. According to question 12.1 = 13.6  2 − 2 
l n  (here ∆KE = 0) ⇒ 300 – Wgravity – Wfriction = 0
13.6 ⇒ Wfriction = 300 –mgh
⇒ n2 = ≈9 ⇒n=3
1. 5 = 300 – (2) (10) (10) = 100J
No. of spectral lines emitted ∆I C (10 − 5) × 10 −3
20. β= = = 100
n (n − 1) (3)(2) ∆I B (150 − 100) × 10 −6
= = =3
2 2
24. By using M = K L1L 2 Here K = 1, L1 = 2mH
1 1
13. U= K(2)2 & U' = K(8)2
2 2 L2 = 8mH ⇒ M = 16 = 4 mH
U'  8 
2 26. According to given situation
⇒ =   = 16 ⇒ U' = 16U hν = E0 + K & 2hν = E0 + K' ⇒ K' = K + hν
U 2
27. In given situation output C is high only when
14. For complementary angles, range will be same
both inputs A and B are high so logic ckt gate is
OR AND gate.
 u 2 sin 2(45 − θ)  R 8
  28. Power factor = cos φ = =
R1  g 2
 = u sin(90 − 2θ) | Z| 8 + (31 − 25) 2
2
= 2
R 2  u sin 2(45 + θ)  u sin(90 + 2θ)
2
  8 8
 g  = = = 0.8
2
8 +6 2 10
cos 2θ
= =1 ∆p 2mv sin 30º
cos 2θ 29. F= = = 24 N
∆t 0.25
15. By using work energy theorem 30.
1 1 1
W = ∆KE = mv 22 – mv12 2
2 2
1 2 2
Now s = t ⇒v= t
3 3
2 4
⇒ v1 = 0, v2 = × 2 = ms–1 3
3 3 I2 = I1 + MR2 = MR2
2
2
1 4 1 8 31. For a photon E = pc
Therefore W = × 3  − × 3 ×(0)2 = J
2 3 2 3
E 106 × 1.6 × 10 −19
dx ⇒ p = = = 5.33 × 10–22
16. x = 40 + 12t – t3 ⇒ v = 12 – 3t2 c 3 × 108
dt kgms–1
⇒v=0 at t = 2 sec 3
R 
Distance travelled by particle before coming to 32. R = R0A1/3 ⇒ AGe =  Ge  (ABe) = (2)3(9)
rest  R Be 
= x (at t = 2) – x (at t = 0) = 8 × 9 = 72
3 7 5 C 7
= [40 + 12 × 2 – 2 ] – [40] = 16 m 33. CP = R ⇒ CV = CP – R = R⇒ γ = P =
2 2 CV 5
b
17. v = at + ⇒ [c] [t] = T; 34. According to question and by using COME
t+c
GMm 1
[ v] – + m(fv)2 = 0 + 0
[v] = [at] ⇒ [a] = = LT–2; R+R 2
[t]
GM 2GM
[b] = (LT–1) T = L ⇒ fv = but v =
R R
18. Shifting in microscope = upward shifting in mark
2GM GM 1
 1  1  Therefore f = ⇒f=
= t 1 −  = 31 −  = 1 cm R R 2
 µ   1.5 
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35. Number of beats per second
48. A B
v v 1 1 
= – = 330  −  = 66 – 60 = 6 α
λ1 λ 2  5 5. 5  mg
36. As voltage drop across
Here τ = I α
 V 2 
8Ω = 2 × 8 = 4V Q P =  l   ml 
2
3g
 R  ⇒ (mg)   =  (α) ⇒ α =

 2   3  2l
Therefore voltage drop across 3Ω = 3V r r r r r r r r
49. | A + B | = | A − B | ⇒ | A + B |2 = | A − B |2
[Q 4V is divided in ratio of resistances
between 1Ω and 3Ω] ⇒ A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ = A2 + B2 – 2AB cosθ
⇒ cos θ = 0 ⇒ θ = 90º
(3) 2
Hence power dissipated in 3Ω = = 3 watt 1 2 t h1 16 4
3 50. ∴h= gt ∴ 1 = = =
ω 4π 2 t2 h2 25 5
38. V= = = 8 ms–1
k 0. 5π 51. If ∆G system < 0, the process is spontaneous
V If ∆G system > 0, the process is nonspontaneous
39. Time of reverberation ∝ (sabine's formula)
A If ∆G system = 0, the process is in equilibrium
Where V = volume of room and A = area of room 52. For isotonic solution π1 = π2
1 1 1 1 or C1 = C2 (conc. in mol/lit.)
42. P = P1 + P2 = + = + =0
f1 f 2 25 (−25) (Urea solution) (unknown solution)
43. Work done in rotating a dipole from θ 1 to θ2 is 10 5 × 1000
=
W = pE (cos θ1 – cos θ2) 60 m w × 100
Here θ1 = 0º and θ2 = 90º therefore W = pE mw = 300 gm mol–1
44. According to question
Q = constant and C↓ therefore V↑ 54. For H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g)
Displacement 0 Q ∆ng = 0
45. Average velocity = = =0
Time taken 62.8 ∴ ∆H = ∆E + ∆ng RT
Distance 2πr ⇒ ∆H = ∆E
Average speed = =
Time taken T
(2π) (100) 55. CH3CH2COOH SOCl
2 → CH3CH2COCl
= = 10ms–1
(62.8) (B)
r r r
46. φ = E · S = ES cos 90º = 0 (∴ area vector is ⊥r to E ) NH3
47.
KOH
dm =
M
dx
CH3CH2NH2 ← CH3CH2CONH2
Br2
L
(D) (C)

x 58. For CsBr no. of formulas/unit cell

dx
n = 1 (like CsCl type)
Consider a small mass element dm at distance x
from axis n × M M = 133 + 80 = 213 
C.D. = V = a 3 = (436.6 × 10 −12 ) 3 
V × NA  
∫ dF = ∫ (dm)(ω )(x)
2
Required force F =
1× 213 gm
C.D.= = 4.25gm/cm3
L M 2 Mω 2 L 83.22 × 10 −24 cm 3 × 6.02 × 10 23
= ∫ 0 L
ω xdx =
2

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 CAREER POINT . AIPMT - 2006
h 73.
60. ∆x × ∆V ≥
4πm SN2
CH3–O–CH–CH3+HI CH3I + CH3–CH–OH
Q ∆x = 0.1 Å
= 1 × 10–11 m CH3 CH3
h
∆V ≥ 1
4πm × ∆x 74. Reactivity ∝
steric − Hinderence
6.626 × 10 −34 J sec
∆V ≥ 75. Q Heat of hydrogenation of cyclohaxene
4 × 3.14 × 9.11× 10 −31 kg × 10 −11 m
∆V ≥ 5.79 × 106 m sec–1 = – 119.5 kJ/mol
∴ Heat of hydrogenation of benzene
61. 2KCN + CuSO4 → K2SO4 + Cu(CN)2 = 3 × – 119.5 = – 358.5 KJ/mol
Cu(CN)2 → CuCN + (CN)2 Resonance energy
unstable = Observed ∆H – Calculated ∆H
CuCN + 3KCN → K3[Cu(CN)4] i.e. [Cu(CN)4]3–
–150.4 = – 358.5 – x

64. For the reaction x = – 208.1 KJ

Br2(l) + Cl2(g) → 2BrCl(g)
∆H = 30 kJ/mol 76.
α
∆S = 105 JK–1 mol–1 CH3–C–OC2H5 + H–CH2–C–OC2H5
For at equilibrium ∆G = 0 O C2H5ONa,–C2H5OH O
∴ ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
∆H = T∆S CH3–C–CH2–C–OC2H5
−1
∆H 30 × 1000J mol O(AAE)O
T= = = 285.7K
∆S 105 JK −1mol −1
77. For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
−d[ N 2 ] 1 d 1 d
65. Due to F centre defect colourless ionic crystal =− ([H2]) = ([NH3])
Converts into coloured ionic crystal dt 3 dt 2 dt
d 2 d
∴ ([NH3]) = – ([H2])
67. For the cell reaction dt 3 dt
Fe + 2Fe3+ → 3Fe2+ t2g eg
Anode reaction is Fe → Fe2+ + 2e– 80. Cr+3
3d(xy, yz, xz)
Cathode reaction is 2Fe3+ + 2e– → 2Fe2+
81. ∆Tf = molality × Kf
º º
E Cell = E Cathode − E ºAnode (Eº is reduction potential)  1× 1000 
∆Tf =   × 5.12
= 0.771 – (–0.441)  250 × 51.2 

º ∆Tf = 0.4 K
E Cell = 1.212 V
83 [H+] = 10–8 M
⊕
HCN H /H2O Due to dilute solution.
71. CH3–C–H CH3–CH–CN
[H+] = 10–8 + 10–7 M
O OH
= 10–7 [0.1 + 1]M
= 1.1 × 10–7 M
*
CH3–CH–COOH = 1.1 × 10–7 M
OH ~
(Rac. mixture) – 1.0525 × 10–7 M

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85. A/A+ (xM) | | B+(yM)/B 89. In the ClF3, Cl atom is sp3d hybridised, having
Ecell = + 0.20 V ∴∆G = – Ve trigonal bipyramidal geometry, in which axial
bonds are longer than equatorial bonds.
Therefore given cell reaction is spontaneous
91. Charge density ∝ hydration. Therefore hydrated
At Anode A → A+ + e–
size of Li+ is large and having less mobility.
At Cathode B+ + e– → B
Down the group degree of hydration decreases.
Cell reaction A + B+ → A+ + B +
86. 93. O = N → O sp hybridization hence Linear

R 94. Al2O3 and Sb2O3 are amphoteric, SeO2 is acidic

+δ –δ +δ and Bi2O3 is basic.
CH2—CH2 + R–MgX CH2–CH2
97. Element of At. no. = 16 is sulphur, its diatomic
O
–δ O—MgX molecule is like O2 which have two unpaired e–
H OH according to MOT.
R
100.
CH2–CH2 4
Cl
OH 5 3 2 1

88. O
·· 2 +M
CH2–NH ··NH2 2-3-dimethyl pentanoyl chloride

Benzyl amine Aniline

* Benzylamine has localised lone pair therefore
it is more basic.

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