Allen RBC

REVISION OF BOTANY CONCEPT (RBC) Serial Page
No.
CONTENT No.
1. Diversity in the living world 01-07

2. Morphology of Flowering Plants 08-11
3. Anatomy of Flowering Plants 12-14
4. Cell : The Unit of Life 15-18
5. Biomolecules 19-20
6. Enzyme 21-22
7. Cell Cycle and Cell Division 23-25
8. Transport in Plants 26
9. Mineral Nutrition 27
10. Photosynthesis in Higher Plants 28
11. Respiration in Plants 29-30
12. Plant Growth and Development 31
13. Reproduction in organisms 32
14. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 33-34
15. Principles of Inheritance and Variations 35-37
16. Molecular Basis of Inheritance 38-40
17. Strategies for Enhancement in Food 41-43
Production (Plant breeding, Single cell
protein and Plant Tissue culture)
18. Microbes in Human Welfare 44
19. Biotechnology-Principles and Processes 45-46
20. Biotechnology and Its applications 47-48
21. Organisms & Populations 49-50
22. Ecosystem 51-52
23. Biodiversity and Conservation 53
E 24. Environmental Issues 54
ALLEN REVISION OF BOTANY CONCEPT (RBC) 1
DIVERSITY IN THE LIVING WORLD

(THE LIVING WORLD, BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION,PLANT KINGDOM)
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? 7. Read the following statements regarding
(1) Fungi prefer to grow in cold and humid bryophytes and do as ask next to them :-
places (A) All cells of sporophyte undergo reduction
(2) Karyogamy in fungi occurs after division to produce haploid spores.
plasmogamy (B) They play an important role in plant
(3) Yeast are used to make bread and beer. succession on barren rocks.
(4) Fungi bodies consist of long, slender thread (C) Plant body is thallus like and prostate or
errect and attached to the substratum by
like structures called mycelium. unicellular or multicellular rhizoids.
2. Stored food of red algae is similar to :- (D) They prevent soil erosion.
(1) Chitin (E) Sex organs are multicellular. Male and
female sex organs are called archegonium
(2) Mannitol
and antheridium respectively.
(3) Amylopectin and glycogen How many of the above statements is/are not
(4) Glycogen and chitin correct?
3. Complex post fertilization development is seen (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4
in which algae ? 8. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Green algae (1) In gymnosperms the sporophyte and the
(2) Brown algae gametophyte do not have an independent
(3) Yellow green algae free-living existence.
(4) Red algae (2) The leaves of gymnosperms are well-
4. Pyrenoids are made up of – adapted to withstand extremes of
temperature humidity and wind.
(1) Core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein
(3) Pollination in gymnosperms is mainly
(2)Core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath. carried by air current
(3)Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath (4) The multicellular female gametophyte of
(4) Core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein gymnosperm is retained within mega-
sporangium.
5. Some characters/structures are given below.
9. Read the following paragraph and fill in the
How many of them are found in both bryophyta
blanks with appropriate words :-
and pteridophyta ?
In pteridophytes the main plant body is
(A) Archegonium (B) Protonema ___(A)___ which bears sporangia that are
(C) Embryo (D) Ovule subtended by leaf-like appendages called
(E) Vascular tissue (F) Antheridium ___(B)___. The sporangia produce spores by
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\BOTANY_ENGLISH.P65
___(C)___ and after germination of spores,

Option :-
they give rise to photosynthetic gametophytes
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five called ___(D)___.
6. Which group of protist is responsible for Choose the correct option :-
producing neurotoxin that become A B C D
concentrated in the aquatic food chain ?
(1) Sporophyte Sporangia Meiosis Protonema
(1) Chlorophyta
(2) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Sporophyte
(2) Chrysophyta
(3) Sporophyte Sporophylls Meiosis Prothallus
(3) Dinoflagellates
(4) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Protonema
(4) Slime moulds
E
2 REVISION OF BOTANY CONCEPT (RBC) ALLEN
10. Read the following statements regarding 12. Study the given algae and answer the following
Gymnosperm :- questions :-
(A)The main plant body is sporophyte and
heterosporous in nature.
(B) Roots of some gymnosperm have algal
(blue green algae) association.
(C) The multicellular female gametophyte bears
two or more archegonia.
(D) The male and female cones may be borne
on the same tree or on different trees.
(1) Statement A, C and D are correct and (a) Name of algae ?
statement B is incorrect. (b) Type of sexual reproduction ?
(2) Statement A, B and D are correct and (c) Name of division ?
statement C is incorrect. (d) Stored food ?
(3) Statement A and D are correct and statement (1) Laminaria : Isogamous : Chlorophyta :
B and C are incorrect. Starch
(4) All statement are correct (2) Volvox : Oogamous : Chlorophyta : Starch
(3)Fucus : Isogamous : Rhodophyta :
11. Study the given diagram and give answer of
Floridian starch
questions a, b and c :-
(4)Chara : Oogamous : Rhodophyta : Glycogen
13. Asexual reproduction in most brown algae is
by zoospores, these zoospores are :-
(1)Biflagellate : Pear-shaped : Unequal flagella
(2)Triflagellate : Pear-shaped : Equal flagella
(3)Biflagellate : Spiral-shaped : Unequal
flagella
(4)Biflagellate : Oval-shaped : Equal flagella
14. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) Name of plant ? (1) In all bryophytes asexual reproduction takes
(b) Class of plant ? place by green, multicellular buds called
gemmae
(c) Ploidy of rhizoids ?
(2) The sporophyte of bryophytes is differentiated
(a) (b) (c) into foot, seta and capsule and it is a free-living
generation
(1) Sphagnum Lycopsida Haploid
(3) Protonema is a green, creeping, branched
(2) Funaria Moss Haploid
and filamentous stage in mosses, which
(3) Funaria Liverwort Diploid develops directly from a spore.
(4) Marchantia Moss Haploid (4) The liverworts have an elaborate mechanism
of seed dispersal.
E
15. In the members of green algae the cell wall is 20. Identify the given figure :-
double layered outer cell wall is made up of
Strobilus
pectose while inner cell wall composed of :-
(1) Cutin (2) Pectose Node

Internode
(3) Cellulose (4) Lignin
16. The needle like leaves, reduced surface area,

thick cuticle and sunken stomata are the Branch
characteristic features of the which of the

following groups of plants : Rhizome
(1) Pteridophyte
(2) All bryophytes (1) Selaginella (2) Equisetum

(3) Marsilea (4) Lycopodium
(3) Gymnosperm (conifers) 21. Stored food in brown algae is/are :-
(1) Glycogen and oil
(4) Angiosperm (2) Laminarin and mannitol
(3) Floridean starch
17. In pteridophyte, gametophyte (prothallus)
(4) Cellulose
prefers to grow in moist shady places 22. Which of the following show association with
because : sloth bear ?
(1) Algae/B.G.A (2) Bryophyta
(1) In these conditions, it survive very well (3) Pteridophyta (4) Gymnosperm
23. Unbranched stem is characteristic of which
(2) It represents the ancestory of bryophyte
gymnosperm ?
(3) It need water for fertilization (1) Pinus (2) Cycas
(3) Cedrus (4) Lycopodium
(4) It is a aquatic structure 24. Choose the incorrect match :
(1) Ascomycetes - Used in genetic work
18. Cytotaxonomy is based on : (2) Deuteromycetes - Rust and smut fungi
(3) Basidiomycetes-Sex organs are not formed
(1) Cytological information (4) Phycomycetes - Aquatic habitat also
25. Column-I Column-II
(2) Chromosome number
I. Streptomyces A. Nitrogen fixation
(3) Chromosome structure and behaviour II. Rhizobium B. Source of antibiotics
III. Nitrosomonas C. Vinegar synthesis
(4) All of the above IV. Acetobacter D. Nitrification
Which of the following combinations is

19. Agar, used to grow microbes and in
correct ?
preparations of ice creams and jellies, obtained
from :- I II III IV
(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria (1) B A D C
(2) Spirulina and Oscillatoria (2) C D A B

(3) Fucus and Polysiphonia (3) A B C D
(4) Vaucheria and Brown algae (4) D B A C
E
26. Match the content of column-I with those of 31. Both thallophyta and bryophyta are most
column-II :- correctly termed as :-
(1) Phanerogames
Column-I Column-II
(2) Cryptogames
(a) Fungi (i) Chitinase
(3) Non-vascular cryptogames
(b) Bacteria (ii) Cellulase (4) Vascular cryptogames
(c) Plant cell (iii) Lysozymes 32. Find the correct statements from the followings:-
(A) Each rank or taxon, in fact represent a unit of
(a) (b) (c)
classification
(1) i ii iii (B) Every step in taxonomic hierarchy represents
(2) iii ii i a rank or category
(3) ii iii i (C) A taxonomic category is a part of overall
(4) i iii ii taxonomic hierarchy
(D) Taxonomic categories are not distinct
27. Rust, smut and mushroom, all the three have
biological entities, they are only
common characters, that they :-
morphological aggregates
(1) are pathogen
Options :-
(2) are saprobes
(1) A, B & D are correct
(3) produce basidiospore
(2) A, C & D are correct
(4) bear basidiocarp
(3) A, B & C are correct
28. Which one of the following pair is correctly
(4) Only A and B are correct
matched ?
33. Select the incorrect statement among the
Parasite in the root of following
(1) Rhizobium
legume plants. (1) Chrysophytes are found in fresh water as
(2) Mycorrhizae Symbiotic association well as in marine environment.
between roots of higher (2) Dinoflagellates are mostly fresh water
plants and fungi organisms and are photosynthetic.
(3) Yeast Production of biogas (3) Majority of euglenoids are fresh water
organisms.
(4) Myxomycetes are mostly parasitic
(4) Slime moulds are saprophytic protist
29. Nomenclature is must in taxonomy, which of 34. Read the following statements.
the following is not correct about scientific
(A) Each genus may have one or more than one
nomenclature ?
specific epithet.
(1) They ensure that each organism has only
(B) Genera are aggregates of closely related
one name with two component
species.
(2) They also ensure that such a name has not

(C) Family has a group of related genera with
been used for any other known organism
still more number of similarities as
(3) Scientific nomenclature is a standardised compared to genus and species.
naming system
How many statements are correct and incorrect
(4) Different countries of the world use different among these?
kinds of scientific nomenclature system (1) 3 correct, 0 incorrect
30. Which of following microbes serve as an (2) 2 correct, 1 incorrect
important biofertiliser in paddy fields ?
(3) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
(1) Glomus (2) Azotobacter
(3) Anabaena (4) Rhizobium (4) 0 correct, 3 incorrect
E
35. Find out the incorrect statement from the 40. Read the following statements :-
followings:- (i) Ernst Mayr, has been called "The Mendel
(1) Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant
of the 20th century.
in nature.
(2) Bacterial structure is very complex and (ii) All living organisms grow
they have very simple behaviour. (iii)Unicellular organisms multiply by cell
(3) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission. division
(4) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in (iv)Non–living object also exhibits
having different cell wall structure. metabolism
36. 'Key' is a taxonomical aid used for the
How many statements is/are correct ?
identification of organisms, each statement in
the key is called....? Option :-
(1) Couplet (2) Lead (1) Four (2) Three
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Taxa
(3) Two (4) One
37. Match column-I with column-II and select the
41. Given below in the digaram of bacteriophage.
correct option :-
In which one of the options all the four parts
Column-I Column-II
A, B C and D are correct ?
(a) Family (i) tuberosum
(b) Kingdom (ii) Polymoniales
(c) Order (iii) Solanum
A
(d) Specific epithet (iv) Plantae
C
(e) Genus (v) Solanaceae B
(1) (a)–v, (b)–iv, (c)–ii, (d)–i, (e)–iii
(2) (a)–v, (b)–iv, (c)–i, (d)–iii, (e)–ii
(3) (a)–i, (b)–ii, (c)–iii, (d)–v, (e)–iv
D
(4) (a)–ii, (b)–i, (c)–iii, (d)–iv, (e)–v
38. Which lichen is used for making litmus paper?
(1) Roccella (2) Cetraria Options :-
(3) Cladonia (4) Usnea
39. Consider the following statements :- A B C D
(i) Bacteria have rigid cell wall made up of (1) Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres
cellulose
(2) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres
(ii) Bacteria do not reproduce by sexual
reproduction. (3) Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath
(iii)Ammonia is oxidised to nitrite by the (4) Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar
bacteria Nitrosomonas.
(iv)Viruses are obligate parasites, cannot be 42. Which of the following statements is wrong
living without host cell. about lichen ?
Which of the above statements are correct and (1) Lichens are sensitive to air pollution
incorrect ? (2) Algal and fungal partner live mutually
(1) i, ii correct and iii, iv incorrect (3) Algae prepare food and fungi provide
(2) ii, iii correct and i, iv incorrect shelter, absorb water and minerals for algal
(3) iii, iv correct and i incorrect partner
(4) iv correct and i, ii, iii, incorrect (4) Alage live as master & fungi live as slave
E
43. Select the correct pair :- 47. Study the five statements (A–D) given below
(I) Methanogen ® occurs in swampy ares and select the correct statements :-
(A) The cyanobacteria are unicellular, colonial
(II) Halophiles ® have pigments but they are
or filamentous algae.
not photosynthetic
(B) Euglenoids are photosynthetic in the
(III) Thermoacidophiles ® Mostly parasitic
presence of sunlight when deprived of
Options :-
sunlight they behave like heterotrophs
(1) I and II (2) II and III (C) In phycomycetes mycelium is aseptate and
(3) I and III (4) All of the above coenocytic
44. Which of the following statements are correct? (D) Bryophytes are plants which can live in soil
(A) Mycoplasma has no cell wall but are dependent on water for sexual
(B) Viruses can multiply only when they are reproduction.

Options :-
present inside the living cell.
(1) A, B & C
(C) True sexuality is not found in bacteria
(2) C, D & A
(D) Mycoplasma can not survive without O2
(3) A & B only
Options :-
(4) All statements are correct
(1) A,B,C & D
48. Match of the following columns correctly :-
(2) A, B & D
Column-A Column-B
(3) A, B & C
(i) Smut fungi (a) Sphagnum
(4) C & D
(ii) Irish moss (b) Ustilago
45. How many organisms in the list given below
are of ascomycetes ? (iii) Rust fungi (c) Chondrus crispus
Aspergillus, Rhizopus, Yeast, Claviceps, (iv) Peat moss (d) Puccinia
Morels, Agaricus, Trichoderma, Puccinia Options :-

(1) Six (2) Three (1) i–b, ii–a, iii–d, iv–c
(3) Four (4) Five (2) i–b, ii–c, iii–d, iv–a
46. (A) It causes potato spindle tuber disease. (3) i–d, ii–c, iii–b, iv–a
(4) i–d, ii–b, iii–c, iv–a
(B) It is free RNA
49. Pili do not play a role in motility because :-
(C) Molecular weight of RNA is low
(1) They are small bristle like fibres
(D) Infectious agent, smaller than viruses
(2) They help bacteria to attach rocks and host
The above statements are assigned to :-
tissues
(1) Viruses (2) Viroids (3) They are made up of non-contractile protein
(3) Virulent virus (4) Mycoplasma (4) They are found inside the surface of bacteria
E
50. Choose the incorrect statement from the 52. Which one of the following pairs is
following :- mismatched :-
(1) Dinoflagellates have stiff cellulosic plates (1) Penicillium - Source of antibiotics
on the outer surface. (2) Albugo - Parasitic fungi on legume
(2) Euglenoids have two flagella one lies (3) Neurospora - Used in biochemical and
longitudinally and the other transversely. genetic work
(3) Slime mould's spores are dispersed by air (4) Agaricus - Edible fungus
current.
(4) In diatoms the cell wall form two thin
overlapping shells.
51. Consider the following four statements (a-d)
and select the option which includes all the
correct ones :-
(a) Single cell spirulina can produce large
quantities of food rich in proteins, minerals
and vitamins.
(b) Diatoms are the chief producers of ocean.
(c) Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
(d) Spores of moulds are devoid of cell wall.
Options :-
(1) b, c and d (2) a, b
(3) b, c (4) a, b and c
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 4 3 2 3 1 1 3 4 2 2 1 3 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 4 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 4 3 2 4 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 3 2 2 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 4 1 3 3
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52
Ans. 2 4 2 3 2 4 2
HINT – SHEET
5. Three (Archegonium, Embryo, Antheridium)
7. Two (A, E) not correct
34. A,B correct C incorrect
40. Two (ii, iii) correct
45. Four (Aspergillus, Yeast, Claviceps, Morels)
E
MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
1. Primary root originates from :- 8. Find out the correct match from given table :-
(1) Radicle of embryo
Column-I Column-II
(2) Plumule of embryo
(3) Coleorhiza of embryo (A) Alternate (i) Sunflower, china
phyllotaxy rose, mustard
(4) Scutellum of embryo
2. Fibrous root system is present in :- (B) Opposite (ii) Calotropis, guava
(1) Wheat (2) Mustard phyllotaxy
(3) Monstera (4) Banyan tree (C) Whorled (iii) Monocot plants
3. Fusiform, conical and napiform root are the phyllotaxy
modification of what type of root :-
(D) Parallel (iv) Alstonia (Devils'
(1) Adventitious root (2) Fibrous root venation tree)
(3) Tap root (4) Fasciculated root
4. Sucking root is related with :- (1) A - i, B - iii, C - iv, D - ii
(1) Cuscuta (2) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii
(2) Betel (3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(3) Banyan (4) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
(4) Sugarcane and maize 9. Rachis is absent in :-
5. Stem originates from which part at the time of (1) Simple leaf
seed germination :- (2) Palmately compound leaf
(1) Plumule (2) Radicle (3) Pinnately compound leaf
(3) Scutellum (4) Coleorhiza (4) Both (1) and (2)
6. The function of stem is :- 10. Find out the correct match :-
(1) Spreading out branches, bearing leaves,
Column-I Column-II
flowers and fruits
(2) Conduct water, minerals and A Leaf spine (i) Pea
photosynthates B Leaf tendril (ii) Opuntia, Argemone
(3) Storage of food, support, protection and of
C Leaf pitcher (iii) Australian acacia
vegetative propagation
(4) All of the above D Phyllode (iv) Nepenthes
7. Find out the correct match from the given (1) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
columns:- (2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
Column-I Column-II (3) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
A Stem tendril (i) Citrus, Bougainvillea (4) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
11. Which of the following possess simple leaves :-

B Stem thorn (ii) Grapes, Cucurbits
(1) Peepal, mango, radish
C Bulb (iii) Opuntia (2) Silk cotton
D Phylloclade (iv) Onion, garlic (3) Bombax
(1) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i (4) Azadirachta (Neem)
12. ................ type of inflorescence the main axis
(2) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
terminates in a flower, hence is limited in growth
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
and the flowers are borne in a basipetal order :-
(4) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv (1) Racemose (2) Cymose
(3) Venation (4) Placentation
E
13. Find out the correct match :- 17. Find out the correct match :-
Column-I Column-II
A Actinomorphic (i) Canna Column-I Column-II
flower
B Zygomorphic (ii) Pea, gulmohur, A Twisted aestivation i
flower bean, Cassia
C Asymmetric (iii) Datura, mustard, B Valvate aestivation ii
flower chilli
D Underground (iv) Potato, ginger
stems C Vexillary aestivation iii
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv D Imbricate aestivation iv

(3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(4) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii

14. Ficus carica (fig) possess which type of (1) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
inflorescence :- (2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(1) Hypanthodium (2) Verticillaster (3) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
(3) Cyathium (4) Raceme (4) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
15. The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in 18. Find out the correct match from the table :-
floral bud with respect to the other members of
the same whorl is known as ...................... :-
(1) Aestivation (2) Placentation Column-I Column-II
(3) Phyllotaxy (4) Allogamy A Basal (i) Pea

placentation
16. Find out the correct match :-
B Free central (ii) Chinarose, tomato,
Column-I Column-II
placentation lemon
A Twisted (i) Calotropis
C Parietal (iii) Argemone, mustard
placentation
B Valvate (ii) Chinarose,
ladyfinger, cotton
D Axile (iv) Dianthus, primrose
placentation
C Vexillary (iii) Cassia, gulmohur
E Marginal (v) Sunflower,
placentation marigold
D Imbricate (iv) Pea, bean
(1) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii (1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - v

(2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i (2) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - v, E - i
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i (3) A - v, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii, E - i
(4) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i (4) A - v, B - iv, C - i, D - ii, E - iii
E
19. Find out the correct match :-
23.
Column-I Column-II
A Free central i
B Basal ii
Choose the correct floral formula with the help
C Parietal iii of given floral diagram :-
(1) Å + K 2+2 C 4 A2+4G(2)

D Axile iv
(2) Å + K (2+2) C1+2+2 A2+4G(2)
E Marginal v (3) Å + K 2+2 C4 A(2+4)G(2)
(4) Å + K 2+2 C4 A2+4G2

(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - v 24. % K(5)C1+2+(2)A (9)+1G 1
(2) A - i, B - ii, C - v, D - iv, E - iii
Select the correct option in respect of given
(3) A - iv, B - v, C - iii, D - ii, E - i
floral formula :-
(4) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - iv, E - i
(1) Posterior petals are fused
20. Identify the components labelled A, B, C in the
given diagrams :- (2) Found in flower of tulip plant
(3) Diadelphous condition
(4) Monoadelphous condition
25. Perennial herbs with underground bulbs/
A corms/Rhizomes is character of ?
B
C (1) Solanaceae (2) Liliaceae
(3) Fabaceae (4) Malvaceae
(1) A - mesocarp, B - seed, C - endocarp

(2) A - mesocarp, B - endocarp, C - seed
(3) A - Seed, B - endocarp, C - mesocarp 26.
(4) A - Seed, B - mesocarp, C - endocarp
21. Mango and coconut lie in which category of

fruit:-
(1) Drupe fruit (2) Pepo fruit
(3) Pome fruit (4) Berry fruit Identify the floral diagram and select the
22. If any fruit is produced from ovary without correct option :-
fertilization then it is called .......................... :-
(1) Liliaceae, parietal placentation
(1) Parthenogenesis
(2) Solanaceae, endospermic seeds
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Liliaceae, bulb and corm
(3) Apospory
(4) Diplospory (4) Liliaceae, non-endospermic seeds
E
28. Medicinal plants like belladona and
27.
ashwagandha belongs to family :-
(1) Solanaceae (2) Liliaceae
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) Cruciferae (4) Fabaceae
29. Which of the following statement is wrong
Identify the correct floral formula on the basis
of given diagrame ? regrarding liliaceae family :-
(A) Leaves mostly basal, alternate, exstipulate
(1) % K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A (9) + 1 G1 with parallel venation
(B) Inflorescence is Solitary/Cymose
(2) K2 + 2 C4 A2 + 4 G(2) (C) Flower are bisexual and actinomorphic
(D) Number of sepal and petal are six.
(3) Br P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G(3) Option :
(1) A, B (2) D, A
(4) K(5) C(5) A5 G(2) (3) Only D (4) Only C
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 1 3 1 1 4 2 2 4 1 1 2 2 1 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. 1 1 3 3 1 1 2 1 3 2 3 1 1 3
E
ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
1. In which part of dicot root, casparian stripes are 9. How many types of tissue systems are present
present ? in plants on the basis of morphology and
(1)Hypodermis (2) Endodermis location according to Von sachs
(3) Pericycle (4) Cortex (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3
2. The vascular bundles are surrounded by a layer 10. The meristem, which occurs between mature
of thick walled _______ cells in dorsiventral tissues and are responsible for primary growth
leaf :- is called :
(1) Mesophyll (2) Epidermal (1) Intercalary
(3)Bundle sheath (4) Hypodermis (2) Secondary
3. Bulliform cells are present in : (3) Lateral
(1)Grass leaf (2) Mango leaf (4) Apical
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Monocot stem 11. Which cambium is primary in origin :
4. The tissues involved in secondary growth are : (1)Intrafascicular cambium
(1) Lateral meristem (2) Vascular cambium (2) Interfascicular cambium
(3) Cork cambium (4) All of the above (3) Cork cambium
5. The wood formed during spring season is (4) Vascular cambium

called : 12. In the _______, the vascular cambium is
(1)Spring wood completely secondary in origin :
(2) Early wood (1) Monocot root (2) Monocot stem

(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) Dicot root (4) Dicot stem
(4) Late wood 13. The endodermis of dicot stem is also called :
6. Select wrong statement about heart wood : (1) Stele (2) Starch sheath
(1) It is made up of dead elements (3) Cortical layers (4) Periderm
(2) It does not conduct water 14. The wood is actually a _______
(3) It gives mechanical support to the stem (1)Secondary phloem (2) Primary phloem
(4) It is involved in the conduction of water and
(3) Primary xylem (4) Secondary xylem

minerals from root to leaf
15. The companion cells are specialised
7. Phellogen is also known as : parenchymatous cells, which are closely
(1) Cork cambium (2) Cork associated with :-
(3) Phellem (4) Phelloderm (1) Sieve tube elements
8. Periderm is formed of : (2) Xylem
(1) Phellogen (2) Phellem (3) Phloem
(3) Phelloderm (4) All of the above (4) Subsidiary cells
E
16. The number of xylem bundle in monocot root 22. Identify the tissue in which cells are much
is : thickened at the corners due to a deposition of
(1) 4 (2) 6 cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin :-
(3) more than 6 (4) less than 6 (1) Parenchyma
17. In dicot stem, pericycle is present on the inner (2) Collenchyma
side of the endodermis and above the phloem
(3) Sclerenchyma
in the form of semi lunar patches, it is made of:
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma (4) Xylem
(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Prosenchyma 23. ______ provide mechanical support to the
18. During the formation of leaves and elongation growing parts of the plant such as young stem
of stem, some cells left behind from shoot and petiole of a leaf :
apical meristem, constitute the ______ (1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma
(1)Axillary bud
(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Xylem
(2) Secondary meristem
(3) Lateral meristem 24. The main mechanical tissue of plant is :
(4) Cambium (1)Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma

19. The meristem that occurs in the mature regions of (3) Sclerenchyma (4) Xylem
roots and shoots of many plants, particularly those
25. ____________ constitute the complex tissues
that produce woody axis and appear later than
in plants
primary meristem is called the _____ meristem:
(1)Apical (2) Secondary (1) Xylem, phloem (2) Phloem, metaxylem
(3) Intercalary (4) Primary (3) Parenchyma, xylem (4) Xylem, metaxylem
20. Select the wrong statement about parenchyma : 26. The cells which are devoid of protoplasm are :
(1) It forms the major component within organs
(1) Tracheids (2) Vessels
(2) The cells of the parenchyma are generally
non-isodiametric (3) Xylem fibres (4) All of the above
(3) Its cell walls are thin and made up of 27. Which one of the following is not a part of
cellulose phloem ?
(4) The parenchyma performs various (1)Sieve tubes (2) Companion cells
functions like photosynthesis, storage and
(3) Phloem parenchyma (4) Vessels
secretion
21. Select the wrong statement about the 28. ______ is absent in most of the
collenchyma: monocotyledonous, stem :
(1) The collenchyma occurs in layers below the (1) Sieve tube elements (2) Phloem parenchyma
epidermis in dicotyledonous stem
(3) Xylem parenchyma (4) Companion cells
(2) They are always found as continuous
homogenous layers 29. Phloem fibres (bast fibres) are made up of
(3) These can assimilate food when they cotain ______ cells :
chloroplasts (1) Parenchymatous (2) Sclerenchymatous

(4) Intercellular spaces are generally absent (3) Secretory (4) Collenchymatous
E
30. The stomatal aperture, guard cells and the 34. In leaves, the ground tissue constitute of thin
surrounding subsidiary cells are together called walled parenchymatous chloroplast containing
as – cells and is called ______
(1)Trichome (2) Stomata (1) Mesophyll

(2) Epidermis
(3) Stomatal apparatus (4) Ground tissue
(3) Stomatal apparatus
31. On stem the epidermal hairs are called :
(4) Bundle sheath extension
(1)Trichome (2) Root hair 35. The innermost layer of the cortex is called :
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Bundle sheath (1)Endodermis (2) Hypodermis
32. All tissues except epidermis and vascular (3) Pericycle (4) Casparian strips
bundles constitute – 36. In dicot roots, initiation of lateral roots and
(1) Ground tissue system cambium during the secondary growth takes
place by _____ cells.
(2) Epidermal tissue system
(1) Parenchyma (2) Pericycle
(3) Vascular tissue system (3) Endodermis (4) Epidermis
(4) Stele 37. The parenchymatous cells which lie between
33. The ground tissue system consists of simple the xylem and the phloem in root are called :
tissues such as : (1)Conjuctive tissue (2) Stele
(1) Parenchyma and Collenchyma (3) Pith (4) Medullary rays

38. Which one of the following is not a part of
(2) Collenchyma and Sclerenchyma
stele ?
(3) Parenchyma and Sclerenchyma (1)Pith (2) Vascular bundle
(4) All of the above (3) Endodermis (4) Pericycle
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 1 4 3 4 1 4 4 1 1 3 2 4 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 1 4 4 2 2 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
Ans. 1 1 4 1 1 2 1 3
E
CELL : THE UNIT OF LIFE
1. The chromosome "B" in this diagram is :- 5. Which option provide correct information
Secondary
regarding the nucleus.
Satelite
constriction (1) Normally, there is only one nucleus per cell,
Short arm variation in the number of nuclei are also
Short arm
observed.
(2) Normally, there is multiple nucleus per cell
Centromers Centromer
(3) Chlamydomonas contains only one nucleus
(4) 1 and 3 option is correct.
Long Arm
6. The term chromatin was given by :-
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) W. Flemming (2) Robert Brown
(1) Metacentric (3) George Palade (4) Camillo Golgi
(2) Sub-metacentric 7. Ribosomal subunits and rRNA are synthesized
(3) Acrocentric in which site of nucleus ?
(1) Nucleolous (2) Cytoplasm
(4) Telocentric
(3) Nucleoplasm (4) Perinuclear Space
2. Match the Column-I and Column-II and select
8. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a :-
the correct answer :-
(1) Simple protein (2) RNA
Column - I Column - II
(3) Ribonucleoprotein (4) Repetitive DNA
(A) Metacentric (i) At the tip
9. Microbodies are present in
(B) Sub-Metacentric (ii) At the middle (1) Both in plant and Animal cells
(C) Acrocentric (iii) Almost near the tip (2) Only in plant cell
(D) Telocentric (iv) Slightly away from (3) Only in Animal cells
the middle (4) Only in bacteria
(1) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii 10. Which of the following organelle (s) is/are not
(2) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i include in endomembrane system
(3) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i (1) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(4) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv (2) Golgibody
3. Normally one cell contain _________ nucleus? (3) Lysosomers and vacuoles
(4) Mitochondria, chloroplast and ribosome.
(1) One (2) Two
11. Lysosome arises from which cell organelle ?
(3) Three (4) Ten
(1) Nucleus
4. Function of nuclear pores is............
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Through these pores movement of RNA and

(3) Golgi Apparatus
protein molecules in both directions
(4) Both 2 & 3
between the nucleus and the cytoplasm is
12. Detoxification of harmful drugs is the function
performed
of
(2) Transport of RNA in both direction between (1) RER (2) SER
the Nucleus and the cytoplasm is performed. (3) Lysosome (4) Mitochondria
(3) Only for transport of RNA in unidirectional 13. The suicidal bag of an animal cell is :-
manner from nucleus to cytoplasm (1) Sphaerosome (2) Dictyosome
(4) 1 and 3 option is correct. (3) Lysosome (4) Mitochondria
E
14. Mitochondria and chloroplast divides by 21. Incorrect match between column -I, II and III :
(1) Meiosis-I (2) Mitosis Column-I Column-II Column-III
(3) Fission (4) Meiosis
15. Which of the following cell organelles is lack (1) RBCs Round/biconcave
of DNA?
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitoplast (4) Lysosome
(2) WBCs Amoeboid
16. In which cell organelle following reaction takes
place?
Light
6CO2 + 12 H2O + Energy CH O
Chlorophyll 6 12 6 (3) Mesopyll Round and oval
+ 6O2 + 6H2 O cell
(1) Mitochondria (2) Peroxisome
(3) Chloroplast (4) Glyoxisome
17. Which option is correct regarding eukaryotic (4) A Tracheid Branched &
Elongated
Cell:
(1) Cytoplasm of Eukaryotic cell catain 70 s 22. Match between column I and column-II and
and 80s ribosome . choose the correct answer ?
(2) Eukaryotic cell contain linear ds DNA in
chloroplast and mitochondria Column-I Column-II
(3) Only 80 s ribosomes are found in cytoplasm, (A) Typical Bacteria (i) 10 - 20 µm
mitochondria and chloroplast of eukaryotic
(B) PPLO (ii) 0.02 - 0.2 µm
cell
(C) Viruses (iii) 0.1 µm
(4) 80s ribosomes are present in cytoplasm of
eukaryotic cell only (D) A Typical (iv) 1-2 µm
eukaryotic cell
18. Reserve materials in prokaryotic cells are
stored in the cytoplasm, related with______. (1) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
(1) Inclusion bodies (2) A-iv B-ii C-i D-iii
(2) Golgi body (3) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(3) ER (4) A-iii B-iv C-ii D-i
(4) Polysome 23. Match the columns I & II and identify the
19. The basic unit of life is : incorrect option :
(1) Cell
Column-I Column-II
(2) Tissue
(1) Robert brown (i) Discovered the
(3) Cell organelle Nucleus
(4) Mitochondria
(2) Robert Hooke (ii) First observed cell
20. All living beings are composed of _____ ? from cork
(1) Cells and product of cells (3) Rudolf (iii) Omnis cellula e
(2) Cells only Virchow cellula
(3) Product of cells only (4) Anton von (iv) Discovered cell
(4) Nucleus only Leeuwenhoek Theory
E
24. In Human beings, the membrane of the 30. The figure below shows the section of a cilia/
erythrocyte has approximately : flagella showing different parts labelled
(1) 52 % Protein and 40 % Lipids A and B select the correct labelled name ?
A
(2) 80 % Protein and 20% Lipids
B
(3) 40% Protein and 52% Lipids
(4) 52% Carbohydrate and 20% Protein
25. The fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane
given by Singer and Nicolson is applicable for:
(1) A – Radial spoke
(1) Only for prokaryotic membrane B – Central microtubule
(2) Only for eukaryotic membrane (2) A – Interdoublet Bridge
(3) Both for prokaryotic and eukaryotic membranes B – Peripheral microtubule
(3) A – Centeral sheath
(4) Only for organeller membranes
B – Plasma membrane
26. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major (4) A – Interdoublet Bridge
site for : B – Radial spoke
(1) Synthesis of protein 31. Which statement provides correct information
(2) Synthesis of carbohydrate regarding prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella :-
(1) The prokaryotic cell also possess flagella
(3) Synthesis of lipid
but these are structurally different from that
(4) Synthesis of nucleic acid of eukaryotic flagella.
27. Golgi apparatus is the important site for the (2) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic both flagella are
formation of_______. structurally similar.
(1) Glycoprotein and Glycolipids (3) In case of both microtubule arrangement is
9 + 2.
(2) Only protein
(4) In case of both flagella is made up of
(3) Lipid formation
microtubule and flagellin protein.
(4) Only vitamins 32. Which similarity is found between chloroplast
28. Hydrolytic enzyme related with_____. and mitochondria ?
(1) Lysosome (1) Both are semi-autonomous contain double
stranded circular DNA and double
(2) Mitochondria
membrane bound
(3) Chloroplast (2) Both are autonomous organelle
(4) Glyoxisome (3) Both are single membrane bounded

29. In plants, the ____A___facilitates the transport (4) Both contains 80S type of ribosome
of a number of ions and other materials against 33. Which element is required for maintaing the
concentration gradient into the ___B__. structure of ribosome ?
(1) Mg+2 (2) Ca+2
(1) A - Tonoplast B - Vacuole
(3) Zn+2 (4) Cl–
(2) A - Outer membrane B - Mitochondria
34. Ribosomes are chemically composed of :-
(3) A - Outer membrane B - Chloroplast (1) RNA only (2) proteins only
(4) A - Tonoplast B - Mitochondria (3) Lipid only (4) RNA and protein
E
35. Plastids are found in :- 38. Shape of chloroplast found in Spirogyra is:-
(1) All plant cells and in Euglenoids (1) Lens shaped (2) Oval
(2) All animal cells and in euglenoids (3) Spherical (4) Ribbon like
(3) All bacteria and animal cells
39. Starch is stored in :-
(4) All plants and bacteria
(1) Amyloplasts
36. Select the correct for label "B" in this diagram :-
(2) Elaioplasts
(3) Aleuroplast
Extracellular space
(4) Cytoskeleton
Membrane
A removal Constitative 40. Chloroplast, chromoplast, leucoplast are
secretory
pathway classified under the :-
(1) Plastid
(2) Cytoskeleton
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Lysosome
B
Regulated 41. Secondary cell wall is formed on :-
secretory
Lysosome pathway (1) The inner side of primary cell wall
(2) The outer side of primary cell wall
(3) Middle side of cell
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Peroxisome (4) Intercellular space
(3) Golgi apparatus 42. Which cell organelle is related with protein
(4) Glyoxysome synthesis ?
37. The three dimensional network of protein (1) Cytoskeleton (2) Ribosome
filaments with in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic (3) Lysosome (4) Glyoxysome
cell is called the :- 43. The pattern arrangement of axonemal
(1) Endoplasmic Reticulum microtubules is referred to as the _____ array :-
(2) Golgi apparatus
(1) 9 + 2 (2) 9 + 0
(3) Cytoskeleton
(3) 27 + 2 (4) 27 + 0
(4) Peroxisome Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\BOTANY_ENGLISH.P65
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 2 1 1 4 1 1 3 1 4 4 2 3 3 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 4 1 1 1 4 1 4 1 3 3 1 1 1 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
Ans. 1 1 1 4 1 3 3 4 1 1 1 2 1
E
BIOMOLECULES
1. Which one is secondary metabolite :- 7. Inuline is made up by :-
(1) Protein (1) Glucose (2) Fructose
(2) Lipid (3) Protein (4) Amino acid
(3) Alkaloid 8. Paper made from plant pulp and cotton fiber.
(4) Amino acid Which type of polysaccharide present in it :-
2. Match the column-I with column-II :- (1) Cellulose (2) Chitin
(3) Inulin (4) Starch
9. Which is not a homopolymer :-
Column-I Column-II
(1) Cellulose (2) Inulin
(A) Alkaloid I Diterpenes (3) Starch (4) Hemicellulose
(B) Toxin II Concanavalin A 10. This structural formula belongs to :-
(C) Lectin III Morphine CH2OH
(D) Terpanoids IV Ricin

OH OH OH
OH
(1) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II (1) Ribose (2) Sucrose
(2) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I (3) Deoxy ribose (4) Glucose
(3) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D-I 11. Which one is the poly hydroxy aldehyde or
(4) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I ketone :-
3. Abrin is which type of secondary metabolites :- (1) Lipid (2) Nucleic acid
(1) Alkaloids (2) Toxin (3) Carbohydrate (4) Water
(3) Lectin (4) Drug 12. Bond between glycerol and fatty acid is :-
4. One of the following almost not found in living (1) Ester bond
organism :- (2) Hydrogen bond
(1) Si (2) K (3) Glycosidic bond
(3) Na (4) Ca (4) Co-ordinate bond
5. Which is incorrect statement for acid soluble 13. Formula CH3–(CH2)14 –COOH is :-
pool/filtrate :-
(1) Phospholipid (2) Arachidonic acid
(1) Molecular weight < 1000 dalton
(3) Palmitic acid (4) Triglyceride
(2) Has monomers
14. Three important polysaccharides made up of
(3) Has four type chemical compounds like glucose monomers are :-
proteins, nucleic acid, polysaccharide, and

(1) Chitin, hemicellulose, starch
lipid
(2) Sucrose, lactose, maltose
(4) It present in trichoroacetic acid
(3) Starch, glycogen, cellulose
6. The in organic compound like sulphate,
(4) RNA, DNA, Starch
phosphate etc are found in :-
15. Choose the incorrect statement :-
(1) Acid soluble pool
(1) Nitrogenous base have heterocyclic ring
(2) Retentate
(2) DNA is a genetic material in cellular organism
(3) Acid in soluble fraction
(3) Adenylic acid is nucleoside
(4) (1) & (2) both
(4) Cytidine is a nucleoside
E
16. Cholesterol is related to which type of 22. Peptide bond present in all, except :-
molecule. (1) Polypeptide (2) Enzyme
(1) Enzyme (2) Carbohydrate (3) Amino acid (4) Protein
(3) Lipid (4) Protein 23. GLUT-4 is :-
17. Who is the building block of nucleic acid :- (1) A sensory receptor
(1) Nucleoside (2) Nucleotide (2) A intercellular ground substance
(3) Nitrogenous base (4) Phosphate group (3) Glucose transporter into cell
18. Which nitrogenous bases is related to purine :- (4) A enzyme
(1) Adenine (2) Cytosine 24. 4-subunits of human haemoglobin is :-
(3) Uracil (4) Thymine (1) One a-type sub unit + three b type sub unit
19. b-pleated sheet organization in a polypeptide (2) Three a-type sub unit + one b type sub unit
chain is an example of :-
(3) Two a-type sub unit + two b type sub unit
(1) 1° structure (2) 2° structure
(4) Four a-type sub unit + b-type sub unit absent
(3) 3° structure (4) 4° structure
25. The individual monosaccharides are linked in
20. Primary structure of protein can be understood a polysaccharide :-
by :-
(1) By peptide bond
(1) Disulphide bridge
(2) By glycosidic bond
(2) 3D-structure
(3) By ester bond
(3) b-plated sheet
(4) By hydrogen bond
(4) Order of amino acid
26. How many hydrogen bond present between A
21. Which type of protein have hormonal and T, G and C respectively :-
function :-
(1) 3, 3 (2) 2, 3
(1) Collagen (2) Insulin
(3) 3, 2 (4) 1, 3
(3) Trypsin (4) Receptor
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 2 1 3 1 2 1 4 4 3 1 3 3 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Ans. 3 2 1 2 4 2 3 3 3 2 2
E
ENZYME
1. Select the incorrect statement regarding 6. Nucleic acids that behave like enzymes are
enzyme :- known as :
(1) Helical structure (secondary structure) of (1) Ribozyme (2) Zymogen
enzyme contains active site
(3) Collagen (4) Isomerase
(2) Catalytic activity of an enzyme is inversely
X Y
proportional to km constant. | |
7. C - C ¾® X – Y + C = C
(3) Catalytic structure of most of the enzymes
Which type of enzyme is used for the above
are tertiary and globular
reaction?
(4) Active site of an enzyme is a crevice in which
(1) Transferase (2) Lyase
substrate fits
(3) Ligase (4) Oxidoreductase
2. Which of the following is not a hydrolase
8. CO2 + H2 O H2CO3
enzyme ?
In the absence of an enzyme, the above
(1) Protease (2) Lipase reaction is :
(3) Mutase (4) Carbohydrase (1) Very slow and about 2000 molecules of
product are formed per minute
3. Match the column-I with column-II and choose
(2) Very slow and about 200 molecules of
the correct option :
products are formed per minute
Column-I Column-II (3) Very slow and about 200 molecules of
(i) Transferase (a) Citrate synthase products are formed per hour
(4) Very fast, and about 6,00,000 molecules of
(ii) Lyase (b) Mutase
products are formed per second.
(iii) Isomerase (c) Aldolase 9. Inhibition of hexokinase by glucose-6-
(iv) Ligase (d) Hexokinase phosphate is an example of allosteric inhibition.
This inhibition occurs due to increase in :
Options :-
(1) Concentration of substrate
(1) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a (2) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a (2) Concentration of end product
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b (4) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c (3) Concentration of enzyme
4. Select the correct statement from the following:- (4) Both (1) and (2)
10. (i) Temperature, pH and concentration of
(1) Hydrolase enzymes catalyse the linking of
substrate can influence enzyme activity.
two compounds (ii) ES complex is short lived
(2) Ligase enzyme is responsible for removal (iii)In exothermic reaction, the energy level of
of a group from substrate "P" is lower than "S" substrate
(iv)Cofactors play a crucial role in the catalytic

(3) Transferase enzymes catalyse the transfer
activity of the enzyme.
of all groups including hydrogen. Which of the above statements are correct ?
(4) Dehydrogenase enzymes catalyse the (1) only i, iii and iv (2) only ii and iv
redox reactions (3) only i, ii and iv (4) i, ii, iii and iv
5. Select the correctly matched option : 11. Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by
malonate is an example of :
(1) Simple enzyme – Protein and non-protein part
(1) Competitive inhibition
(2) Apoenzyme – Non-protein part (2) Non-competitive inhibition
(3) Co-factor – Protein part (3) Allosteric inhibition
(4) Prosthetic group – Haem group in catalase (4) Negative feedback
E
12. Which one of the following graphs show the 13. Which is not correct about competitive
relationship between the rate of an enzymatic inhibition ?
activity (v) and substrate concentration(s) ?
(1) Inhibitor resembles the substrate in
molecular structure
v v
(2) Competition occurs between substrate and
(1) (2)
inhibitor to bind at active site
[s] [s]
(3) Binding of the inhibitor to active site decline
the enzyme action
v v
(4) Inhibitor does not resemble the substrate in
(3) (4)
molecular structure
[s] [s]
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans. 1 3 1 4 4 1 2 3 2 4 1 4 4
E
CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION

1. Chromosomes with variations in progeny cells 8. Bivalents arrange on equator (congression) of
are found in case of .......... cell to form :
(1) Mitosis (1) Pole (2) Metaphase plate
(2) Meiosis (3) Telophase (4) Near to pole

9. Interkinesis is present between...........
(3) Amitosis
(1) Meiosis-I and Meiosis-II
(4) Fission
(2) Leptotene and Zygotene
2. Bouquet stage and synapsis is absent in case
(3) Pachytene and diplotene
of:-
(4) Diplotene and diakinesis
(1) Mitosis 10. The term meiosis was given by :-
(2) Heterotypic division (1) Farmer and Moore
(3) Meiosis-I (2) Watson and Crick
(4) Reductional division (3) Alexander Flaming
3. In which type of division nuclear division takes (4) Flaming and Skooge
place twice but division of chromosome occurs 11. The specialised kind of cell division that
only once ? reduces the chromosome number by half
results in the production of haploid daughter
(1) Meiosis (2) Fision
cells. This kind of division is called ............
(3) Mitosis (4) Amitosis
(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis
4. In a diploid cell before s-phase quantity of
(3) Amitosis (4) Fission
DNA is 40 picogram (pg) after meiosis-I what
12. Which one of the following statement is correct
will be the quantity of DNA is each daughter
(1) Meiosis-I equivalent to mitosis division
cell ?
(2) The major objective of meiosis-I is
(1) 10 pg (2) 20 pg
segregation of homologous chromosome
(3) 5 pg (4) 40 pg after recombination
5. If the cell had 4n number of chromosome at G1, (3) The major objective of meiosis-II is
after s phase the number of chromosome in the Segregation of Homologous chromosome
cell will be :- after Recombination
(1) 2n (2) n (4) Division of chromosomes or centromere
occurs during meiosis-I
(3) 4n (4) 8n
13. Recombination process occur between.......

6. Nuclear membrane, ER, Golgibody, Nucleolus
(1) Non sister chromatids of Homologous
reapears in which stage of karyokinesis :-
chromosomes
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(2) Sister chromatid of Homologous
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase chromosome
7. Which phase of prophase-I represents transition (3) Sister chromatids of non homologous
of metaphase I? chromosomes
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene (4) Non sister chromatids of Non homologous
(3) Diakinesis (4) Diplotene chromosomes
E
14. Nuclear membrane and Nucleolous will 20. Check points of cell cycle is controled by :-
disappear at the end of : (1) Cyclin protein and Cdks
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (2) Cyclin only
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis (3) Cdks only
15. Which enzyme is responsible for (4) ATP and Ca+2
recombination process in meiosis-I ?
21. Which of the following is wrong about
(1) Recombinase (2) Protease S-phase in animal cell?
(3) DNA ligase only (4) DNA Polymerase (1) DNA duplication occur in S-phase
16. What is the significance of meiosis :- (2) Cell synthesized Histone protein in S-phase
(1) The conservation of specific chromosome (3) Centriole duplication occur in S-phase
number of each species is achieved across (4) Synthesis of tubulin protein in S-phase
generations in sexually reproducing
22. During cell division, centriole duplication takes
organisms.
place in :-
(2) It increases the genetic variability in the
(1) G2 -phase (2) M-phase
population of organisms from one
generation to the next. (3) S-phase (4) G1-phase
(3) Meiosis decreases the genetic variability in 23. Which of the following is smallest phase of the
the population of organisms from one cell cycle ?
generation to the next (1) Prophase
(4) 1 and 2 option is correct (2) Interphase
17. Yeast for example can progress through the cell (3) Anaphase
cycle in only about.............. (4) Metaphase
(1) 40 minutes (2) 90 minutes 24. Best material for the study of mitosis in
(3) 1440 minutes (4) 60 minutes laboratory is :
(1) Anther
18. First check point occured during cell cycle is:-
(2) Onion root tip
(1) G 1 ¾¾¾® S-phase
(3) Leaf tip
(2) G 2 ¾¾¾® Prophase
(4) Ovary
(3) S ¾¾¾® G2 phase
25. Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed
(4) Metaphase ¾® Anaphase
under the microscope do not show______.
19. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of (1) Golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum,
DNA in a cell remains at 8C level. If the initial nucleolus and the nuclear envelope
amount is denoted as 4C ?
(2) Only nuclear envelope
(1) G0 and G1 (2) G1 and S
(3) Only endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Only G2 (4) G2 and Telophase
(4) Only nucleolus
E
26. Prophase is marked by : 28. In which order, cytokinesis occurs in Animals:
(1) The initiation of condensation of (1) Centripetal (2) Centrifugal
chromosomal material (3) Oblique (4) Equational
(2) DNA Duplication 29. Meiosis process not occurs in_______:
(3) Transcription and translation (1) Somatic cell
(4) Duplication of centriole (2) Germ cell
27. Mitosis is not having the one of the character (3) Microspore mother cell
out of the four given below : (4) Megaspore mother cell
(1) It is an equational division 30. A cell has 48 chromosomes at each pole in
(2) It involves recombination and crossing over mitotic telophase. In this division the number
of chromatids at the metaphase was :
(3) Sister chromatid separated during Anaphase
(1) 24 (2) 96
(4) Nuclear membrane disappears during late
prophase (3) 69 (4) 46
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 1 1 4 3 4 3 2 1 1 2 2 1 4 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 2 1 3 1 4 3 3 2 1 1 2 1 1 2
E
TRANSPORT IN PLANTS
1. Select the incorrect statement from the following ? 6. Water reaches the top of plant mainly due to:-
(1) Phloem translocates the food material in (1) Pulling force (2) Pushing force
bidirectional manner. (3) Guttation (4) Exudation
(2) Short distance transport in plants occurs by 7. A system has 50 pascal of osmotic pressure and
diffusion and cytoplasmic streaming its turgor pressure is zero. Now due to entry of
(3) Transport through xylem occurs in some water osmotic pressure decreases by
bidirectional manner 10 pascal then what will be the change in DPD
(4) Xylem transports the water, minerals and of this system?
some organic nitrogen (1) Decrease by 10 pascal
2. Which of the following is the best imbibant ? (2) No change will occur
(1) Agar-Agar (2) Protein (3) Decrease by more than 10 pascal
(3) Cellulose (4) Starch (4) Decrease by less than 10 pascal
3. Choose the correct path of water flow in three 8. Hormones in the plants are transported by :-
(1) xylem only
adjacent cells :-
(2) phloem only
yS= –12 yS= –18 (3) both xylem and phloem
A y P=8 yP=10
B (4) neither xylem nor phloem
9. Which of the following is correct regarding
y W= –2 apoplast pathway of water ?
(1) Movement of water occurs through the
C intercellular spaces and the walls of the cells
A B A B (2) Movement of water is dependent on the
(1) (2) gradient
C C
A B A B (3) Water movement is through mass flow
(3) (4) (4) All of the above
C C
4. Match the column-I with column-II and select 10. Which of the following is not a characteristic
the correct option : of active transport ?
(1) Insensitive to inhibitors (2) Transport saturates
Column-I Column-II (3) Uphill transport (4) Highly selective
(i) Root pressure (a) Negative 11. Stomatal opening is affected by :-
(1) Nitrogen concentration, CO2 concentration
(ii) Adhesion force (b) Active and light
Attraction of water (2) CO2 concentration, temperature and light
Transpirational
(iii) (c) molecules to (3) Nitrogen concentration, light and temperature
pull
tracheary elements (4) CO2 concentration, Nitrogen concentration
Phloem
and temperature
(iv) (d) Positive 12. In diffusion, molecules move in a random fashion,
Loading
the net result being substances moving from :-
(1) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (2) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b (1) Higher concentration to lower concentration
(3) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c (4) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b with energy expenditure.
5. Which pair is wrong ? (2) Lower concentration to higher concentration
(1) ABA - Stomatal closing. with energy expenditure.
(2) Potometer - Rate of transpiration measuring. (3) Higher concentration to lower concentration
(3) COCl 2 Method - Comparative study of without energy expenditure.
transpiration (4) Lower concentration to higher concentration
(4) Stomata - Guttation without energy expenditure.p
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans. 3 1 4 2 4 1 3 3 4 1 2 3
E
MINERAL NUTRITION
1. Which of the following essential mineral 7. Elements most readily mobilised are :-
nutrients is the constitutent of ring structure of
(1) Ca, B, Fe (2) K, P, Ca
chlorophyll?
(1) Manganese (2) Magnesium (3) N, P, K (4) Cl, Fe, B
(3) Calcium (4) Potassium 8. Consider the following conversions of nitrogen
2. Select the correct statement regarding mechanism cycle. Which one of the following represents
of absorption of mineral elements : biological oxidation process ?
(1) Initial phase involves slow uptake of ions (1) NH3 ® NO3– (2) NO3– ® N2
(2) Metabolic phase involves rapid uptake of
(3) NO3– ® NH3 (4) N2 ® NH3
ions
(3) Initial phase involves active absorption with 9. Mark the mismatched pair (with respect to
expenditure of ATP deficiency symptoms) ?
(4) Metabolic phase may involve passive or (1) Necrosis – K, Cu, Ca, Mg
active absorption
(2) Delay flowering – Ca, Mg, K
3. One of the chief sinks for mineral elements is :
(1) Ripened fruits (3) Inhibition of cell division – Mo, N, S, K
(2) Old leaves (4) Chlorosis – N, K, Mg, S, Zn
(3) Developing flowers, fruits, seeds and 10. Select the incorrect match :-
storage organs
(1) Mn = photolysis of water
(4) Senescent organs
4. Select the incorrect statement : (2) Ca = Synthesis of middle lamella
(1) Mo and Fe are the components of (3) P = Component of ATP
nitrogenase enzyme (4) Zn = Constituent of Co-enzyme-A
(2) LHb is formed by contribution of both plant 11. Alongwith the atmospheric conversion of
and bacteria.
nitrogen (N 2) to nitrogen oxides (NO, NO 2 ,
(3) LHb protects the nitrogenase enzyme by
binding to O2 N2O), which of the following is/are the source
(4) N2 fixation is a passive process (s) of atmospheric nitrogen oxides ?
5. How many ATP are required to fix 5 molecules (1) Industrial combustions
of nitrogen (N2) ?
(2) Automobile exhausts
(1) 160 ATPs (2) 140 ATPs
(3) 100 ATPs (4) 80 ATPs (3) Power generating stations
6. Select the incorrect statement from following :- (4) All of the above
(1) Both Rhizobium and Frankia can be free
12. Deficiency of which of the following elements
living in soil
directly affects the fertilisation in flowering
(2) Nitrate present in soil is reduced to nitrogen
plants ?
by the process of denitrification
(3) Frankia and Rhizobium are able to fix N2 (1) Boron (2) Chlorine
in free state (3) Zinc (4) Copper
(4) Nitrifying bacteria utilize energy released
during nitrification
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans. 2 4 3 4 4 3 3 1 2 4 4 1
E
PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS
1. Select the incorrect statement regarding 8. Select the correct statement about CO 2 in
photosynthesis: photosynthesis :
(1) It is an endothermic (endergonic) process (1) Rate of photosynthesis decreases with
(2) It is a physico-chemical process
increase in CO2 concentration upto 0.05%
(3) It is a redox process
(2) Green house crops (C 3 plants) show
(4) It is a non enzymatic process
CO2 fertilization effect
2. O 2 evolved during light reaction of
photosynthesis comes from H2O was proved by: (3) Atmospheric CO2 is rarely a limiting factor
(1) T.W. Engelmann (2) Joseph Priestley for C3 plants
(3) Ruben and Kamen (4) Julius Von Sachs (4) High concentration of CO2 in C3 plants
3. Which of the following pigments is an universal causes photorespiration
photosynthetic pigment ? 9. How many additional ATPs are required in C4
(1) Chlorophyll-a (2) Chlorophyll-b plants as compared to C 3 plants to synthesize
(3) Chlorophyll-c (4) Chlorophyll-d 2 molecules of hexose sugar ?
4. Experiment for Emerson enhancement and red
(1) 12 ATP (2) 24 ATP
drop was conducted on :
(3) 36 ATP (4) 48 ATP
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Polysiphonia
(3) Chlorella (4) Dictyota 10. Select the incorrect statement :-
5. Select the correct statement about (1) Primary CO2 acceptor in C3 plants is RuBP
photophosphorylation : (2) Primary CO2 acceptor in CAM plants is PEP
(1) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves (3) High temperature sensitive enzyme PEP case
photolysis of water is present in bundle sheath cells of C4 plants
(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation always (4) CO2 is stored in CAM plants as malic acid
occurs in granal thylakoid inside vacuole during night.
(3) External electron donor is required in cyclic
11. Red drop occurs due to :
photophosphorylation
(1) Low CO2 in atmosphere
(4) Only PS-I is involved in cyclic
photophosphorylation (2) High CO2 in atmosphere
6. Which of the following is most strong natural (3) Supply of wavelengths of light below 680 nm
oxidant involved in photophosphorylation ? (4) Supply of monochromatic light of 700 nm
(1) Pheophytin 12. Select the incorrect statement about
(2) Plastoquinone photosystems :-
(3) NADP + (1) PS-I is located towards stroma side of
(4) Cytochrome b6 & f complex thylakoid membrane
7. Select the incorrect statement about
(2) PS-II is involved in photolysis of water
photorespiration :-
(3) Both PS-II and PS-I participate in cyclic

(1) Photorespiration occurs in high light intensities
photophosphorylation
(2) Photorespiration occurs in high temperature
(3) Photorespiration occurs under high O 2 (4) PS-II requires external electrons in
concentration non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(4) Photorespiration occurs under high CO 2
concentration
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans. 4 3 1 3 4 3 4 2 2 3 4 3
E
RESPIRATION IN PLANTS
1. First CO2 release in aerobic respiration occurs 7. Match the column-I with column-II and select
during : the correct option :
(1) 3-PGAL formation
(2) Pyruvic acid formation Column-I Column-II
(3) Acetyl CoA formation Alcoholic 3-carbon

(A) (i)
fermentation compound
(4) a-Ketoglutaric acid formation
Lactic acid
(B) (ii) CO 2 production
2. At how many steps substrate level fermentation
phosphorylation occurs during glycolysis? Muscles during
(C) Pyruvic acid (iii) vigorous exercise
(1) One (2) Two in animals
(3) Three (4) Four

3. All enzymes are present in matrix of (1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
mitochondria for TCA cycle except :
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(1) a-Ketoglutaric acid dehydrogenase
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(2) Citrate synthetase
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase
8. Select the incorrect statement regarding
(4) Decarboxylase amphibolic pathway :
4. ETS is inhibited at complex-IV by : (1) All carbohydrates are usually converted into
(1) Cyanide glucose before they used for respiration
(2) Rotenone (2) It includes both anabolism and catabolism
(3) Antimycin (3) Acetyl CoA is the connecting link between

fat, carbohydrate and protein metabolism
(4) Oligomycin
(4) Proteins can enter into the respiratory pathway
5. Select the correct match for one glucose
only at one point i.e. as a-ketoglutaric acid.
molecule:
9. RQ is more than one if respiratory susbstrate
(1) EMP pathway – 12 ATP
is :
(2) Link reaction – 8 ATP
(1) Tripalmitin
(3) Krebs cycle – 24 ATP
(2) Glucose
(4) Anaerobic respiration – 06 ATP
(3) Protein
6. Select the correct statement about anaerobic

(4) Malic acid
respiration :
10. Select the correct statement regarding R.Q. ?
(1) More than 7% of total energy of glucose is
generated (1) RQ depends upon type of respiratory
substrate
(2) Yeast poison themselves to death when
concentration of alcohol reaches about (2) R.Q. is less than one in case of organic acids
30% (3) R.Q. is always more than one in case of
(3) Net gain is of 2ATP. carbohydrate
(4) CO2 is produced in all types of fermentations (4) R.Q. is 0.7 in succulent plants
E
11. If 15 Acetyl CoA enter into Krebs cycle then 12. Which of the following enzymes is called as
how many CO2 molecules are produced after mitochondrial marker enzyme?
complete decarboxylation? (1) Carboxylase
(1) 60 CO2 molecule (2) Decarboxylase
(2) 15 CO2 molecule (3) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(3) 30 CO2 molecule
(4) Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) 75 CO2 molecule
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans. 3 2 3 1 3 3 3 4 4 1 3 4
E
PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT
1. Arithmetic growth can be observed in : 8. The two leaves with respective growth are
(1) BGA colony depicted below :-
(2) Yeast colony
B1(55cm2)
(3) Bacteria colony 1
A (10cm )
2
2
(4) Root elongation B(50cm )
2. What is the basic reason behind more than one
type of leaves in a plant?
(1) Due to different growth rates
(2) Due to lack of nutrients 2
A(5cm )
(3) Due to nutrients toxicity
(4) Due to plasticity Consider A1 & B1 as final size after one day
3. Which of the following PGRs shows dual role, growth. Which of the following statements not
growth promotion and growth inhibition? explains the above situation appropriately ?
(1) Cytokinin (2) Gibberellin (1) Absolute growth rate is same in A and B
(3) Ethylene (4) Abscisic acid (2) RGR (Relative growth rate ) of A is twice
4. What is the basic reason behind leaves as that of B
remaining above the water in rice plant ? (3) RGR (Relative growth rate ) of B is less than A
(1) Bolting due to gibberellin (4) RGR (Relative growth rate ) of B is 1/10 of A
(2) Apical dominance due to auxin 9. Triple response hormone on stem is :-
(3) Internodal elongation due to ethylene (1) Abscisic acid (2) Ethylene
(4) Due to photoperiodism (3) Cytokinin (4) Auxin
5. Number of female flowers increase in cucumber, 10. Hormone related with a–amylase induction is –
due to : (1) Cytokinin (2) ABA
(1) Feminising effect of auxin (3) Ethylene (4) GA
(2) Feminising effect of cytokinin 11. Which of the following is a synergistic function
(3) Feminising effect of ethylene of auxin and cytokinin ?
(4) Feminising effect of gibberellins (1) Promotion of flowering in pineapple
(2) Morphogenesis in plants
6. Development in plants :- (choose the correct one)
(3) Increase in absorption surface in plants
(1) is only under control of intrinsic factors
(4) Induction of dormancy in seeds
(2) includes plasmatic growth followed by cell
12. Which of the following is/are biennial and
division, elongation and differentiation monocarpic plant(s) ?
(3) is governed by intercellular factors like (1) Sugarbeet (2) Wheat
genetic factors (3) Barley (4) All of the above
(4) is not influenced by environmental factors
7. Foolish seedling disease or Bakanae disease in
rice caused by a fungus helped in the discovery

of :-
(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin
(3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans. 4 4 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 4 2 1
E
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
1. Select the incorrect statements :- 3. Events of sexual reproduction may be
categorised into :-
(1) Asexual reproduction does not involve the
formation or fusion of gametes (1) Pre-fertilisation events
(2) The offsprings formed by asexual (2) Fertilisation events

reproduction are identical and are referred
(3) Post-fertilization events
to as clone
(4) All of the above
(3) Zoospores, conidia etc, are the most
common asexual structures formed in 4. In flowering plants, post fertilisation events
several algae and fungi include :-
(4) The offsprings formed by sexual (1) Development of endosperm

reproduction are identical and are referred
(2) Embryogenesis
to as clone
(3) Both (1) & (2)
2. Select the correct statements :-
(4) Gametogenesis
(1) Sexual reproduction involves the formation
and fusion of gametes 5. Select the correct statements :-
(2) Sexual reproduction is complex and slower (1) The process of development of embryo from
process as compared to asexual the zygote is called embryogenesis
reproduction (2) Animals may be either oviparous or
viviparous
(3) Most of the higher animals reproduce
almost entirely by sexual method (3) Embryonal protection and care are better in
viviparous orgnisms
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. 4 4 4 3 4
E
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
1. Occurance of more than one embryo in a seed 8. In a typical angiosperm anther is :-
is referred as .................. :- (1) Monothecous and bisporangiate
(1) Apomixs (2) Polyembryony (2) Dithecous and tetrasporangiate
(3) Parthenocarpy (4) Parthenogenesis (3) Monothecous and monosporangiate
(4) Dithecous and bisporangiate
2. The plants in which some of the nucellar cells
9. A typical angiospermic microsporangium
surrounding the embryo sac start dividing appears near circular in outline. It is generally
protude into the embryo sac and develops into surrounded by four wall layers. Find correct
the embryos are :- option with correct sequence from outside to
inner side :-
(1) Citrus and mango (1) Epidermis, hypodermis, middle layers and
(2) Papaya and Citrus tapetum
(2) Epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and
(3) Citrus and litchi
tapetum
(4) Mango and guava (3) Endothecium, epidermis, middle layers and
3. In flowering plants, after fertilisation, ovary tapetum
(4) Endothecium, hypodermis, middle layers
develops into .............. and ovule matures into
and tapetum
.............. :- 10. The innermost wall layer of microsporangium
(1) Seed, fruit is called.
(2) Fruit, seed (1) Epidermis (2) Endothecium
(3) Seed, embryo (3) Middle layer (4) Tapetum
(4) Embryo, endosperm 11. The exine of pollen grain is made up of .............
and has germ pores :-
4. Which one of the following structure is known
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Pectin
as the progenitor of the next generation ?
(3) Cellulose (4) 2 & 3 both
(1) Ovule (2) Embryo
12. The mature embryo sac of a typical angiosperm
(3) Endosperm (4) Fruit
is ............. celled and ............. nucleated :-
5. How many given structures are haploid ? (1) 8, 7 (2) 7, 8
Ovary, anther, egg, pollen, male gamete, (3) 6, 8 (4) 8, 6
zygote 13. Zygote develops into the ............. and the
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 primary endosperm cell forms the .............
6. Flowers are morphological and embryological tissue in angiosperm :-
marvels and the site of :- (1) Embryo, endosperm
(2) Endosperm, embryo
(1) Apomixis
(3) Seed, embryo

(2) Parthenocarpy
(4) Endosperm, seed
(3) Sexual reproduction
14. In Angiosperm, formation of endosperm
(4) Fragmentation always precedes development of the
7. The integumented megasporangium is :- .................... :-
(1) Locule (1) Embryo
(2) Ovule (2) Embryosac
(3) Pollen sac (3) Male gametophyte
(4) Female gametophyte
(4) Embryo sac
E
15. The central cell after triple fusion becomes the :- 18. Seeds are endospermic in :-
(1) Primary endosperm cell (PEC) (1) Pea & castor
(2) Primary zygote nucleus (2) Pea & coconut
(3) Ovule (3) Castor and coconut
(4) Coconut & pea
(4) Embryo
19. The portion of embryonal axis above the level
16. Number of nuclei participated in the process of
of cotyledons is the .............. and portion below
double fertilization is :-
the level of cotyledons is .............. in
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6
dicotyledonous embryo :-
17. The coconut water form tender coconut is
(1) Epicotyl, hypocotyl (2) Hypocotyl, epicotyl
.......... and the white kernel is the .......... :-
(3) Epicotyl, plumule (4) Hypocotyl, plumule
(1) Nuclear endosperm, cellular endosperm 20. .............. is a form of asexual reproduction that
(2) Cellular endosperm, nuclear endosperm mimics sexual reproduction :-
(3) Cellular endosperm, cellular endosperm (1) Apomixis (2) Parthenocarpy
(4) Nuclear endosperm, nuclear endosperm (3) Polyembryony (4) Amphimixis
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 1 2 2 1 3 2 2 2 4 1 2 1 1 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 1 3 1 1
E
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATIONS

1. Read the all statements carefully : 4. (i) Segregation of alleles is a ___(a)___
(i) Mendel conducted artificial pollination / process
cross pollination experiments using several (ii) Dwarf character shows itself in ___(b)____
true breeding pea line condition.
(ii) True breeding having undergone Fill the correct option respectively :
continuous self pollination, show stable trait (1) a-Sequenced, b-heterozygous
inheritance (2) a-Random, b-homozygous
(iii) Mendel selected 14 true breeding pea plant (3) a-Random, b-heterozygous
varieties. (4) a-Sequenced, b-homozygous
5. In monohybrid cross, What is the possibility of
(1) Only i and iii are correct
obtaining genotype TT,tt and Tt respectively in
(2) i, ii and iii are correct F2 generation :
(3) Only iii is incorrect (1) 3/4, 1/4, 1/2 (2) 1/4, 1/4, 1/2
(4) i and ii are incorrect (3) 1/4, 1/2, 1/4 (4) 1/2, 1/2, 1/4
2. Read the following statement and choose 6. Which are related to incomplete dominance in
incorrect statement : (According to Mendel following :-
experiment) (i) Flower colour in mirabilis jalapa
(1) Mendel crossed tall and dwarf pea plant to (ii) Coat colour in cattle
study the inheritance of one gene known as (iii) ABO blood group
Monohybrid cross. (iv) Flower colour in snapdragon
(2) In monohybrid cross, F 1 progeny plants (v) Coat colour in mice
were similar to one of its parents
(1) i, ii (2) i, iii
(3) In F2 generation of monohybrid cross, only (3) i, iv (4) ii, iii
one of the parental trait was expressed
7. Which statement is correct about polygenic
(4) In F2 generation of monohybrid cross both the inheritance :-
traits were expressed in the proportion 3 : 1.
(1) One character is controlled by many genes
3. Match column-I to column-II and then arrange (2) Characters controlled by cytogenes
all correctly :
(3) Two pair of allelic genes are essential in
dominant form to produce a particular
Column-I Column-II
character
Different forms of the (4) Gene which inhibit the expression of
(i) Factor (a)
same gene
another non allelic gene
Morphological appearance 8. 'Mendel work remain unrecognised till 1900'.

(ii) Allele (b)
of a particular character Which statement is not correct regarding above
Genetic constitution of a statement :-
(iii) Phenotype (c)
character (1) Communication was not easy
Pass down from parent to (2) He did his experiments on garden pea
(iv) Genotype (d) offspring stably in mendel (3) Factors which did not blend with each other,
experiments was not accepted by his contemporaries
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (2) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (4) Mendel's approach of using mathematics
was totally new and unacceptable
(3) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c (4) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b
E
9. Physical association of two genes known as :- 18. In the following pedigree chart, the mutant trait
(1) Recomibination (2) Linkage is shaded black. The gene responsible for the
(3) Crossing over (4) Sex determination trait is :-
10. Analysis of traits in a several of generation of
a family is called :-
(1) Mendelian disorder
(2) Chromosomal disorder
(3) Pedigree
(4) Aneuploidy (1) Dominant and sex linked
11. Myotonic dystrophy is an example of :- (2) Dominant but autosomal
(1) Autosomal recessive trait
(3) Y-linked
(2) Autosomal dominant trait
(4) Recessive and autosomal
(3) Sex linked recessive trait
19. Which is not a correct match :-
(4) Sex linked dominant trait
12. (1) Deletion - Loss of a segment of DNA result
This symbol shows :-
in alteration in chromosome
(1) Affected individual
(2) Insertion - Gain of a segment of DNA, result
(2) Mating between non relative
in alteration in chromosome
(3) Mating between relative
(4) Parents with male child (3) Aberration - Result of chromosomal
alteration
13. Which genetic disorder presented in Queen
victoria's family :- (4) Sickle cell anemia - A classical example of
(1) Colour blindness (2) Haemophilia frame shift mutation
(3) Cystis fibrosis (4) Thalassemia 20. Which match is not correct :-
14. Presence of one additional copy of a chromosome (1) Crossing over - Recombination of genes
known as :- (2) Turner's syndrome - Additional copy of X-
(1) Monosomy (2) Tetrasomy chromosome
(3) Trisomy (4) Double monosomy (3) Test cross - Tt × tt
15. Which disease is sex linked recessive disease ? (4) Polyploidy - more than two sets of
(1) Haemophilia (2) Sickle cell anaemia chromosomes
(3) Phenylketonuria (4) Thalassemia 21. Which statement is not correct :-
16. Which statement is not correct regarding to
sickle cell anaemia :- (1) ABO blood group is an example of multiple
(1) This is autosomal linked recessive trait allelism
(2) Heterzygous (Hb A Hb S ) are resistant to (2) Law of independent assortment is based on
malarial disease monohybrid cross
(3) Heterozygous (Hb A Hb S) indivisuals are
(3) A set of haploid chromosome known as

diseased phenotype
genome
(4) Defect is caused by the substitution of
glutamic acid (Glu) by valine (Val) at the (4) X-body name given by Henking
sixth position of the beta globin chain of the 22. Which statement is incorrect :-
haemoglobin molecule
(1) Pleotropic gene has multiple phenotype
17. Which symbol used for unspecified sex :-
(2) 9 : 7 ratio is produced due to co-dominance
(1) (2)
(3) Two identical alleles known as homozygous
(3) (4) (4) Incomplete dominance present in
antirrhinum majus
E
23. Which statement is not true :- 28. Which part is removed at the time of
(1) Genetics deals with the inheritance, as well emasculation in unisexual flower :-
as the variation of characters from parents (1) Anther (2) Carpel
to offspring (3) Stamen (4) None
(2) Characters are controlled by discrete units
29. Which of the following is correctly matched :-
called factor
(1) Stem height – chromosome number 1
(3) Co-dominance present in 'AB' blood group
(4) Linkage µ distance between two gene (2) Seed colour – chromosome number 2
present in one chromosome (3) Pod colour – chromosome number 5
24. Which type of genetic disorder is related to (4) Pod shape – chromosome number 7
chromosomal disorder :- 30. The Punnett square shown below represents the
(1) Haemophilia (2) Cystic fibrosis pattern of inheritance in dihybrid cross when
(3) Phenylketonuria (4) Down's syndrome yellow (Y) is dominant over white (y) and
25. For human ABO blood group there are three round (R) is dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds:-
different ______, there are six different______
and there are four different______. YR Yr yR ry
(1) Alleles, phenotypes, genotypes YR F J N R
(2) Phenotypes, genotypes, alleles Yr G K O S
(3) Genotypes, Alleles, phenotypes yR H L P T
(4) Alleles, genotypes, phenotypes ry I M Q U
26. Which of the following type of gamete will not
A plant of 'H' type will produce seeds with the
be produce by a genotype AAbbCcDd :-
genotype identical to seeds produced by the
(1) AbCd (2) AbcD (3) AbCD (4) AbCcd
plants of:-
27. How many dominant traits are present in pea
plant from the given lsit ? (1) Type M
Yellow seed colour, Green pod colour, (2) Type J
Wrinkled seed shape, Violet flower colour, (3) Type P
Terminal flower position, Full pod shape
(4) Type N
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 3 2 2 3 1 2 2 3 2 3 1 3 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 4 4 2 2 2 4 4 4 4 2 4 3 4
E
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
1. DNA component is :- 7. The correct match is :-
(1) Nucleosides + phosphate groups
Column-I Column-II
(2) Nitrogenous bases + deoxyribose sugar +
phosphate groups
(i) Helicase (a) Joining of
(3) Nitrogenous base + ribose sugar + nucleotides
phosphate group
(ii) Topisomarase (b) Ligate okazaki
(4) (1) and (2) both are correct
fregments
2. If in double stranded DNA molecule, cytosine
is 40%, then the percentage of adenine would (iii) Ligase (c) Remove stress at
the time of
be :-
unwinding
(1) 60% (2) 40% (3) 20% (4) 10%
(iv) DNA (d) Opening of DNA
3. Which type of bond is not present in DNA :-
polymarase-III
(1) Phosphodiester bond
(1) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
(2) Glycosidic bond
(2) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
(3) Hydrogen bond (3) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a
(4) Disulphide bond (4) i - b, ii - a, iii - c, iv - d
4. In RNA, which type of nitrogen base is not 8. Repllication is continuous in :-
present as a structural component :- (1) The leading strand
(1) Uracil (2) 5-methyl uracil (2) The lagging strand
(3) Cytosine (4) Adenine (3) Strand where okazaki gregments are present
(4) Both (2) & (3)
5. Nature of histone protein is :-
9. The base sequence in one strand of DNA is
(1) Basic and positive charged AAGCTACCGA, then what would be the
(2) Acidic and positive charged sequence of bases in another strand is :-
(3) Acidic and negative charged (1) AAGCTACCGA (2) TTCGATGGCT
(4) Basic and negative charged (3) TTCCATGGCT (4) TTCGATGCCT
6. Match the column-I to column-II :- 10. Hershey and chase use which type of
radioactive medium in experiment :-
Column-I Column-II (1) Radio active sulfer containing medium only.
(2) Radio active phosphorus containing
1 Griffth (a) Transduction medium only.
(3) One medium radio active sulfer containing
and another medium radioactive
2 Hershey and (b) Nucleoid
chase phosphorus containing.

(4) Both medium were radio active sulfer
3 Euchromatiin (c) Transformation containing.
11. RNA is more reactive or unstable to DNA due
4 Prokariotic DNA (d) Active chromatin to presence of :-
(1) –OH group on 2nd position of ribose sugar
(2) –OH group on 3rd position of deoxy ribose
(1) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - d
sugar
(2) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b
(3) –Phosphate group on 5th position of ribose
(3) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - a sugar
(4) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (4) –OH group on 1st position of ribose sugar
E
12. Which statement is not correct :- 18. Allelic sequence variation has traditionally
(1) DNA and RNA are able to mutate been described as a DNA polymorphism if
(2) RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster rate more than one variant (allele) at a locus occurs
compare to DNA in humn population with a frequency :-
(3) The presence of thymine at the place of uracil (1) Greater than 0.1 (2) Greater than 0.01
also confers additional stability to DNA (3) Less than 0.1 (4) Less than 0.01
(4) DNA is not dependent on RNA for synthesis 19. Human genome consists how many number of
of protein. genes :-
13. Which was the first genetic material on earth :- (1) 3000 (2) 30000 (3) 3 × 109 (4) 40000
(1) DNA (2) Protein 20. Which major approach of HGP used for
(3) RNA (4) Carbohydrate identifying all the genes that are expressed as
14. (i) Transcriptional level RNA :-
(ii) Processing level (1) Bio informatics (2) ESTs
(iii)Transport of m-RNA from nucleus to the (3) Sequence annotation (4) BAC
cytoplasm 21. Which is wrongly match with its specificity :-
(iv) Translational level (1) YAC – A type of vector
Which of the above level includes in regulation (2) SNPs – Single nucleotide polymorphisms
of gene expression in eukaryotes :- (3) Human largest gene – Dystrophin
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (iii) only (4) Chromosome-1 – 231 gene
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)(4) (i) and (iv) only 22. Which statement is not correct :-
15. Which one of the following synthesize a (1) Amino acid attach with acceptor end of t-RNA
repressor protein :- (2) Release factor binds to the stop codon for
(1) Regulator gene (2) Promoter gene terminating translation
(3) Structural gene (4) Operator gene (3) All 64 codons code for amino acids
16. Match the column-I to column-II :- (4) In splicing, introns are removed and exons
Column-I Column-II are joined
23. A sequence of three Nitrogen Bbase of RNA
(i) i-gene (a) Codes for transacetylase can function as :-
(1) Gene (2) Nucleoside
(ii) z-gene (b) Codes for permease (3) Codon (4) Amino acid
24. Find out incorrect match :-
(iii) y-gene (c) Codes for the repressor of lac (1) Genome of f×174 bacteriophase - 5386
operon nucleotides
(2) Catalytic RNA - Ribozyme
(iv) a-gene (d) Codes for b-galactosides (3) Sudden chemical change in DNA - Mutation
(4) Purine - Adenine and cytosine
(1) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a 25. Find out incorrect match :-
(2) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d
(1) Inducer - Lactose
(3) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a
(2) Euchromatic - Inactive chromatin
(4) i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d
(3) DNA packaging - Nucleosome
17. DNA fingerprinting involve identifying
(4) Prokariotic DNA - Nucleoid
differences in some specific regions in DNA
sequence called as :- 26. Which statement is not correct :-
(1) Euchromatin (1) Heterochromatic is more densely packed
(2) Repetitive DNA (2) DNA replication takes place in 3'®5' direction
(3) Genophore (3) Intron is non coding sequence
(4) Heterochromatin (4) DNA have acidic nature
E
27. Which statement is not correct :- 31. The process of copying genetic information from
(1) DNA polymarase is the main enzyme for one strand of the DNA into RNA is known is :-
RNA synthesis (1) Replication (2) Transcription
(2) Primer is formed by primase enzyme (3) Translation (4) Termination
(3) In human, less than 2% of genome codes 32. Which of the following region is not present in
for protein transcriptional unit in DNA :-
(4) AUG codes for methionine amino acid
(1) Promoter (2) Structural gene
28. Give the correct sequence of Hershey-Chase
(3) Terminator (4) N-terminal
experiment :-
(1) Infection, centrifugation, blending 33. Match the column-I to column-II :-
(2) Blending, infection, centrifugation
Column-I Column-II
(3) Infection, blending, centrifugation
(4) Centrifugation, infection, blending
29. What is the basic concept of transformation (i) m-RNA (a) Attach on promoter
experiment of Griffith :- site
(1) R-II strains convert in new R-II strains (ii) t-RNA (b) Provide the template
(2) R-II strains transform in S-III strains during translation
(3) S-III strains transform in R-II strains
(iii) r-RNA (c) Brings amino acids
(4) S-III strains transform in new S-III strains
and read genetic code
30. Match the column-I to column-II :-
(iv) RNA (d) Play structural and
Column-I Column-II polymarage catalytic role during
translation
(i) Griffith (a) Use of protein, RNA
(1) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
experiment and DNA digestive
emzymes (2) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a
(ii) Avery, (b) S-III and R-II strain (3) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d
Mecloed and of pneumococcus
(4) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a
Mccarty
experiment 34. Process of polymerisation of amino acids to
(iii) Hershey and (c) Discovery of nuclein form a polypeptide known as :-
chase (1) Transcription (2) Translation
experiment
(3) Replication (4) Duplication
(iv) Meischer (d) Use of P32 and S35
(radioactive P and S) 35. Which type of rRNA act as ribozyme in
bacteria :-
(1) i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv -d
(2) i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv -a (1) 23s-rRNA (2) 16s-rRNA
(3) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv -b (3) 28s-rRNA (4) 18s-rRNA

(4) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv -c
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 4 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 4 3 3 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 2 2 2 4 3 3 4 2 2 1 3 2 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. 2 4 4 2 1
E
STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION
(PLANT BREEDING, SINGLE CELL PROTEIN AND PLANT TISSUE CULTURE)
1. Correctly match the Column-I with Column-II. 6. Correctly match the Column-I with Column-II.
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(A) Pusa (i) Resistance for (A) Virus free Plants (i) Carrot
Swarnim aphids
Vitamin A
(B) (ii) Bitter Gourd
(B) Pusa Komal (i) Resistance to enriched crop
white rust
Resistance to
(C) (iii) Pusa Sadabahar
(C) Pusa Gaurav (iii) Resistance of chilly mosaic virus
leaf and stripe
rust Vitamin C Apical meristem
(D) (iv)
enriched Crop culture
(D) Himgiri (iv) Resistance to
(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
bacterial blight
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii (2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
2. A very time consuming and tedious process, (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
is breeding a new genetic variety of a crop is:- 7. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(1) Collection of variability (1) In 1963 Several varieties such as sonoro-
(2) Cross hybridisation among the selected 64 and lerna rojo-64, which were high
parents. yeilding and disease resistant, were
(3) Selection and testing of superior introduced all over the rice growing belt of
recombinants. India.
(4) Evaluation and selection of parents.
(2) Sharbati sonora is a important variety of
3. Which micro organism, because of its high rate
of biomass production and growth, can be wheat produced by gamma rays treatment of
expected to produce tonnes of protein ? sonora-64
(1) Nostoc (3) Pomato is somatic hybrid between potato
(2) Methylophilus methylotrophus and brinjal.
(3) Pseudomonas putida (4) Parbhani kranti, resistances to yellow mosaic
(4) Rhizobium virus is produced by mutation breeding.
4. Substance which induces the fusion of
8. Which of the following is correct match?
protoplast, is/are
(1) Polyethylene glycol

Column-I Column-II Column-III
(2) NaNO3
(Crop) (Variety) (Resistance)
(3) Ca++ ions at high pH
(4) All of the above (1) Brassica Pusa gauraw Jassids
5. Enzyme used for obtaining protoplast from
(2) Flat bean Pusa Sem-2 Jassids, aphids
isolated single cell of plant are:-
and fruit borer
(1) Cellulase and lysozyme
(2) Cellulase and pectinase (3) Okra Pusa Sawani Aphids
(3) Protease and lipase
(4) Chilli Pusa Komal Chilly mosaic
(4) Cellulase and DNase
virus
E
9. Which of the following is incorrect match :- 13. Which of the following is not an example of
single cell protein ?
(1) Spirulina
(Crop) (Variety) (Resistance
(2) Methylophilus methylotrophus
to Disease)
(3) Agaricus bisporus [Mushroom]
(1) Wheat Himgiri Leaf and
striperust, (4) Cow's milk
hill bunt 14. Match the columns.
(2) Brassica Pusa White Rust Column-I Column-II
Swarnim
(i) Totipotency (a) Plants genetically
(3) Cauliflower Pusa Aphids identical to original plant
Shubhra
(ii) Explant (b) in-vitro culture of virus-
(4) Cowpea Pusa Komal Bacterial free plants
blight
(iii) Somaclones (c) Producing large number
10. Abelmoschus esculentus is high yeilding of plants
cultivated variety of bhindi, which is resistance to (iv) Micropropagation (d) Any part of plant
(1) Yellow mosaic virus
(v) Meristem culture (e) Capacity to negenerate
(2) Jassid whole plants from any
(3) Bacterial Blight cell
(4) Chilly mosaic Virus and Tobocco Mosaic virus (1) i-a,ii-b,iii-e,iv-b,v-c (2) i-e,ii-d,iii-a,iv-c,v-b
11. Find the correct statements (3) i-e,ii-a,iii-d,iv-c,v-b (4) i-c,ii-d,iii-a,iv-b,v-e
(A) Atlas-66 is biofortified variety of wheat. 15. Given below is the process of somatic
(B) Iron-rich Rich is also biofortified variety of hybridisation identify A, B, C, D and E.
Rice Nucleus Plasmalemma
Vacuole
(C) In 2000, Maize hybrid that had twice the
amount of amino acid, tryptophan and
A
tyrosine Cell wall B
(D) Vit. C enriched biofortified crop are Plant Cell
pumpkin, carrot, tomato.
(1) A, B are correct Parent-I Parent-II
(2) A, B, C, D are correct
(3) Only A, B, C are correct C- Name of this step
(4) B, C, D are correct D- Chemical used
12. Choose incorrect statement :-
(1) SCP is one of the alternate sources of
E- Term used to denote
proteins for animals and human nutrition.
such plants
(2) Microbes because of their high rate of (1) A- Cellulase, Pectinase, B-Protoplast,
biomass production and growth can C-Protoplast fusion, D-Polyethylene glycol,
produces large amounts of protein. E-Somatic hybrid
(3) Spirulina can sense as food rich in protein (2) A-pectinase, B-protoplast, C-Hybrid,
but not in minerals, fats, carbohydrate and D-NaNO 3, E-Somaclone
vitamins. (3) A-Knife, B-somatic hybrid, C-Polyploid,
D-Ca2+, E-Cybrid
(4) Microbial growth on starch, straw,
(4) Cellulase, Pectinase, B-Cell fusion,
molasses, sewagealso reduces environmental
C-Protoplast Fusion, D-PEG, E-Fusogenic
pollution.
agent
E
16. Resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery 19. The techique of obtaining large number of
mildew in mungbean is developed by which plantlets by tissue culture method is called :-
method?
(1) Micro injection
(1) Tissue culture
(2) Somatic hybridisation (2) Embryo culture
(3) Genetic engineering (3) Parasexual hybridisation
(4) Mutation breeding (4) Clonal Propagation [Micropropagation]
17. Which one of following hybrid variety of crop
not developed in India ? 20. Find the correct match :-
(1) Jaya (2) IR-8 (3) Ratna (4) Himgiri (1) Vitamin A ® Bathua
18. A variety of wheat produced by hybridisation (2) Vitamin C ® Spinach
is resistant for hill bunt :-
(1) Atlas 66 (2) Himgiri (3) Iron & Calcium ® Bathua
(3) Sonalika (4) Pusa lerma (4) Protein ® Carrot
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 2 4 2 3 2 2 3 1 1 3 4 2 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 2 2 4 3
E
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
1. How many of the dipteran insects given in box 5. Choose the correct options :-
are killed by the proteins produced form Bt
(i) Dough used Baker's ....A....
bacterium for making yeast
Budworm, armyworm, Flies, mosquitoes bread
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
(ii) Cyclosporin-A ....B.... Transgenic
2. Find the correct match :- pigs
(1) Aspergillus niger - butyric acid
(2) Clostridium butylicum - ethanol (iii) Anticoagulant Brassica ....C....
(3) Acetobacter aceti - Acetic acid napus
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae - citric acid (iv) RNA ....D.... Meloidegyne
3. Match the column-I and column-II :- interference incognitia
Column-I Column-II Options are :-

(bioactive molecule) (source) (1) A-Saccharomyces cerevisiae, B-Immuno
(a) Clot buster (i) Monasccus suppressive agent, C-Heparin, D-Gene
silencing
(b) Statins (ii) Trichoderma
(2) A - Schizosaccharomyces, B - Immuno
(c) Butyric acid (iii) Streptococcus
suppressive agent, C-Hirudin, D-Gene
(d) Cyclosporin-A (iv) Clostridium silencing
(1) a - i, b - iii, c - iv, d - ii (3) A-Saccharomyces cerevisiae, B-Clot buster,
(2) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii C-Hirudin, D-Gene silencing
(3) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv
(4) A-Saccharomyces cerevisiae, B-immuno
(4) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - ii
suppressive agent, C-Hirudin, D-Gene
4. Which of the following statement is incorrect :-
silencing
(1) Green revolution was dependent to a large
extent on plant breeding technique 6. The micro-organism used to prepare alcoholic
beverages is :-
(2) The greater the BOD of waste water, more
is its polluting potential (1) Streptococcus
(3) Trichoderma species are effective (2) Staphylococcus
biocontrol agents of several plant (3) Lactobacillus
pathogens
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(4) Baculoviruses are pathogens that atack
several Plant pathogen
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6
Ans. 2 3 2 4 4 4
E
BIOTECHNOLOGY : PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES
1. Identify the correct match from column I, II and 6. Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure of
III :- E.coil cloning vector pBR322 and select the
correct option.
Cla I Hind III
(1) Selectable ampR gene identification A
marker of
Pvu I B
recombinants Pst I C tet R
Sal I
(2) Restriction Enzyme random pBR322
endonuclease cutting of D
DNA rop
(3) pBR322 Cloning Linear DNA Pvu II
vector
(4) BAC Host cell isolation of A B C D
DNA
(1) Hind I Eco R I amp R
ori
2. The separated fragments resulted from (2) Hind I Bam H i kan R ampR
treatment with a restriction enzyme have an (3) Bam H I Pst I ori amp R
overhanging piece of single-stranded DNA at (4) Eco R I Bam H I amp R ori
ends, called as :- 7. Gel electrophoresis is used for :-
(1) Satellite DNA (1) Construction of recombinant DNA by joining
(2) Sticky end with cloning vectors
(3) plasmid (2) Purification of product
(4) Selectable marker
(3) Cutting of DNA into fragments
3. The method in which alien DNA is directly injected
(4) Separation of DNA fragments according to
into the nucleus of an animal cell is known as :-
their size
(1) Biolistic
8. Which vector can clone only a small fragment
(2) Micro-injection
of DNA?
(3) Electroporation
(1) BAC (2) YAC
(4) Heat-shock treatment
(3) Plasmid (4) Cosmid
4. The DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase) used
9. Insertional inactivation is used for :-
in polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been
(1) Selection of transformed cells
isolated from :-
(1) Bacteria (2) Selection of non-transformed cells
(2) Plant (3) Selection of recombinants
(3) Nematode (4) Selection of vector

(4) Fungus 10. After the formation of products in the
5. Which of the following is not a feature of the bioreactors it undergoes through some
cloning vector :- processes, before a finished product to be ready
(1) Origin of replication for marketing is called
(2) Many restriction sites of one restriction enzyme (1) Elution
(3) Selectable marker (2) Upstream processing
(4) Restriction sites of more than one restriction (3) Downstream processing
enzymes
(4) Transformation
E
11. The construction of first r-DNA emerged from 14. Purified DNA ultimately precipitate out after the
the possibility of linking a gene encoding addition of chilled ethanol. This DNA that
antibiotic resistance with native plasmid of :- separates out can be removed by :-
(1) Salmonella typhimurium (1) Electrophoresis
(2) E. coli (2) Downstream processing
(3) Yeast (3) PCR

(4) Spooling
(4) Thermus aquaticus
15. Among the following select which is not the
12. What is the source of the Ti (Tumor inducing)
tools of rDNA technology
plasmid which is modified and used as a
(1) Restriction enzymes
cloning vector to deliver the desirable genes
(2) Vectors
into plant cells?
(3) Host
(1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(4) Promotor
(2) Thermophilus aquaticus
16. In the following figure
(3) Pyrococcus furiosus
(4) Aedes aegypti 4
13. For a DNA to function as a cloning vector the 3
most essential requirement is :-
2
(1) multiple restriction sites
1
(2) several selectable markers
(3) circular nature
Which DNA is not digested ?
(4) 'ori' sequence (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 2 1 2 4 4 3 3 3 1 1 4 4 4
Que. 16
Ans. 1
E
BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
1. Match the columns and select correct option. 4. Match the following :-
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(A) Golden rice (i) Increased shelf A Rosie 1. Human a-lactalbumin

life 2. Insulin like growth factors
(B) Flavr savar (ii) HGH B Transgenic 3. a-1-antitrypsin

tomato mice 4. Polio vaccine
(C) Mouse (iii) Vitamin-A C Cry 5. Activates in alkaline medium

endotoxin 6. Eukaryotic cellular defence
(D) Transgenic pig (iv) Organ D RNA-i 7. AIDS vaccine

transplantation 8. Activates in acidic medium
(1) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv Options are :-
(2) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii (1) A - 1, B - 7, C - 5, D - 6
(3) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv (2) A - 1, B - 4, C - 5, D - 6
(4) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv (3) A - 3, B - 4, C - 5, D - 6
2. Find out incorrect match :- (4) A - 3, B - 4, C - 8, D - 6
(1) PKU - autosomal recessive 5. Identify the mismatched pair :-
(2) a-1 antitrypsin - used to treat emphysema (i) Gene transfer - micropropagation
(3) ELISA - it is based on the antibody reaction (ii) Early detection & diagnosis - hybridisation
only technique using probes
(4) alpha-lactalbumin protein - rosie (iii) Flaver savr tomato - Gene silencing
3. Find out the correct match from the following (iv) International committee - GEAC
table (ragarding biotechnological aplications) :-
(v) Golden rice - Vitamin-A and Fe rich
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (iii) & (v) (4) (i) & (iv)
(i) Humulin Eli-lily firm Treatment of
insulin 6. For which variety of Indian rice, the patent was
dependent filled by a USA company :-
diabetes
(1) Golden rice (2) Brown rice

(ii) Bacillus production of biodegradable
thuringieneis endotoxin insecticide (3) Basmati rice (4) Fe-fortified rice
(iii) ADA maturation of duplication of 7. Why was the Indian parliament has cleared the
deficiency T-lymphocytes ADA gene second amendment of the Indian patents bill :-
affected
(1) To prevent biopiracy
(1) (i) only
(2) To prevent biopatent
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (iii) only (3) To increase biodiversity
(4) (ii) and (iii) (4) All of these
E
8. Which of the following is correct match :- 12. Using agrobacterium vectors, nematod specific
Column-I Column-II genes were introduced into host plant and this
DNA produces :-
(A) Nematode (i) Antisense (1) Sense - DNA
resistant tobacco technology (2) Antisense - DNA
(3) ds RNA
(B) Replacement of (ii) Gene silencing
non-functional (4) All of these
gene 13. The protein products of the following Bt toxic
(C) Flavr-savr (iii) gene therapy genes cry IAc are responsible for controlling :-
tomato (1) Boll worm
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii (2) Round worm
(3) Moth
(2) A - iii, B - ii, C - i
(4) Fruitfly
(3) A - ii, B - iii, C - i 14. Eli-Lilly an American company is famous for :-
(4) A - ii, B - i, C - iii (1) Producing vitamin-A enriched rice
9. Bt-cotton is a GM crop when released for (2) Producing pest resistant plants, by RNA
cultivation it will help in :- interferance
(3) Producing GH (Growth hormone) synthesised
(1) Pest resistance
by recombinant DNA technology
(2) Herbicide tolerance
(4) Preparing two DNA sequences corresponding
(3) Increase soil fertility to A and B chain of human insulin and
(4) Reduce post-harvest losses introduced them in the plasmids of E.coli to
10. Genetically modified organism are also called :- produce insulin chain.
15. Match the following columns :-
(1) Transgenic organisms
Column-I Column-II
(2) Clones
(3) Daughter cells A GMO (i) Prevents blood clotting
(4) Somaclones
B Hirudin (ii) Enhanced nutritional value
11. Find incorrect statement with respect to
of food eg. vitamin-A
genetically engineered insulin :- enriched rice
(1) 'C' peptide is not present in mature insulin C PCR (iii) Pest resistance and high
(2) 'A' and 'B' peptide chain produced separately yield
by Eli-Lilly D Bt cotton (iv) Amplifying a specific

(3) Human insulin is produced by plasmid of DNA molecule
E.coli (1) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
(4) Chain A and B, that are linked by H-bond (2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(hydrogen bond) (3) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
(4) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 2 2 4 3 1 3 1 1 4 3 1 4 1
E
ORGANISMS & POPULATIONS
1. What is the correct order ecological heirarchy:- 6. The feeding efficiency of one species might be
(1) Species ® Genes ® Family ® Order ® reduced due to the presence of the other
interfering and inhibitory species, even If
Class ® Division ® Kingdom
resources are unlimited. It is called :-
(2) Species ® Community ® Order ® (1) Competitive release
Kingdom (2) Competitive exclusion
(3) Organisms ® Populations ® Communities (3) Resource partioning
® Biome (4) Interference competition
7. (A) Herbivores and plants appear to be more
(4) Organisms ® Communities ® Biosphere
adversely affected by competition than
® Ecosysten ® Biome
carnivores
2. Ecology is basically concerned with how many (B) A species whose distribution is restricted to
levels of biological organisation :- a small geographical area due to presence
(1) 3 levels (2) 4 levels of a competitively spuperior species is
called "Competitive Exclusion Principle"
(3) 6 levels (4) 7 levels
(1) Both A & B correct
3. The clear stratification is found in :- (2) Only A is correct
(1) Tropical rain forest (3) Only B is correct
(4) Both A & B incorrect
(2) Temperate deciduous forest
8. The interacting organism become co-evolued
(3) Grasslands in which types of interactions :-
(1) Mutalism and competition
(4) Deserts
(2) Mutalism and parasitism
4. How many statement are correct regarding all (3) Simbiosis and competition
succession :- (4) Parasitism and amensalism
(i) Composition & structure of communities 9. The cattle erget and grazing cattle is an example
constantly change with the changing of :-
environmental conditions. (1) Mutalism (2) Predation
(3) Parasitism (4) Comensalism
(ii) The change is orderly & sequential, parallel 10. A population growth becomes asymptote
with the change in the physical environment when population density :-
(iii) Change leads finally to a community is (1) is in log phase
unstable. (2) is in lag phase
(3) reaches carrying capacity
(1) only i is correct
(4) crosses carrying capacity
(2) i & ii are correct 11. Exponential growth or geometric growth is
(3) All correct represented by :-

(4) only ii is correct (1) Nt + 1 = Nf + [(B + P) – (D + E)]
5. The gradual & fairly predictable change in the dN
(2) = (b – d) × N
species composition of a given area is called- dt
(1) Scarification dN æK-Nö

(3) = rN ç ÷
dt è K ø
(2) Eutrophication
dN
(3) Ecological succession (4) = KN
dt
(4) Stratification
E
æK-Nö 16. Some organism can tolerate and thrive in a
12. In logistic growth pattern ç ÷ is :-
è K ø wide range of temperature they are called :-
(1) Carring capacity
(1) stenothermal (2) stenohaline
(2) Intrinsic rate of natural increase (3) eurythermal (4) euryhaline
(3) Enviromental resistance
17. Which is likely to be found in the deepest
(4) biotic potential and envromental resistance
water?
13. Verhult - Pearl logistic growth pattern is :-
(1) Sigmoid (2) Parabola (1) red algae (2) brown algae
(3) Hyperbola (4) J-shaped (3) green algae (4) BGA

14. An 'Urn' shaped age pyramid represents :- 18. Desert lizard lack the physiological ability that
(1) Stabel population mammals have to deal with the high
(2) Expending population temperature of their habitat, but manage to keep
(3) Declining population their body temperature fairly constant by :-
(4) Threatened population (1) Physiological means
15. The most ecological relevant environmental (2) Behavioural means
factor is :- (3) Biochemical means
(1) water (2) temperature (4) Anatomical means
(3) soil (4) altitude
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 1 2 3 4 2 2 4 3 2 3 1 3 2
Que. 16 17 18
Ans. 3 1 2
E
ECOSYSTEM
1. The key elements that lead to mean variation 7. There are certain limitations of ecological
in the conditions of different habitat, are :- pyramids correct option :-
(A) Temperature, water, light and soil (A) It assumes a simple food chain
(B) Parasite, pathogen, predators & competitors (B) Saprophytes are not given any place in
of the organism ecological pyramids.
(C) The physico-chemical (abiotic) components
(C) It does not take into account the same
characterise the habitat of an organism
species belonging to two or more trophic
(1) A, C (2) A, B, C (3) only A (4) B, C
levels
2. The annual net primary productivity of the
(1) A, B Only (2) B, C Only
whole biosphere is approximately :-
(1) 70 billion ton (2) 170 billion ton (3) only B (4) All the above
(3) 270 billion ton (4) 55 billion ton 8. Total amount of inorganic matter present in
3. Humus is :- particular area at a particular time in an
(i) Dark coloured amorphous substance ecosystem in known as :-
(ii) Highly resistant to microbial action and (1) Standing state (2) Standing crop
undergoes decompostion at an extermely
(3) standing quality (4) both 2 & 3
slow rate
9. Which of the following statements about
(iii) Being colloidal in nature
carbon cycle is not true :-
(iv)Acts as a reservoir of nutrients
(1) i, ii are incorrect (1) 71% carbon is found dissolved in oceons
(2) i, ii & iv are correct but iii incorrect (2) Atmosphere only contains about 1% of total
(3) i, ii, iii, iv are correct global carbon
(4) All are incorrect (3) Annually 4 × 1018 Kg of carbon is fixed in
4. Consider the following statements and choose the biosphere through photosynthesis
the correct option :- (4) Carbon constitute 49% of dry weight of
(i) Sun is the only source of energy for all organism and is next to water
ecosystem on earth 10. The phosporus cycle is different from the
(ii) PAR is less than 50 percent of incident solar carbon cycle in that :-
radiation (1) Unlike carbon cycle, there is respiration
(1) only i is correct release of phosphorus into atmosphere
(2) only ii is correct
(2) Atmospheric input of phosphorus through
(3) both i & ii are correct
rainfall are much larger than carbon inputs
(4) both are incorrect

(3) Gaseous exchange of phosphorus between
5. GFC is the major conduit for energy flow in :-
organism & environment are negligible
(1) Aquatic ecosystem
(4) Primary reserviour of the phosphorus cycle
(2) Terrestrial ecosystem
is the atmosphere where as the primary
(3) Grassland ecosystem
reservoir for carbon is the rocks
(4) Croplant ecosystem
11. Which of the following biogeochemical cycle
6. Pyramid of biomass in a pond and sea is :-
has a major reservoir in sedimentary rock :-
(1) Upright (2) Inverted
(1) carbon cycle (2) Nitrogen cycle
(3) Irregular (4) None of the above
(3) phosphorus cycle (4) Water cycle
E
12. Name the sedimentary cycle that has, small 14. Which of the following is/are incorrect ?
gasous component :- (A) In nature food chain exist not food web
(1) Carbon (2) Sulphur (B) Gene flow occur between two different
(3) Nitrogen (4) Oxygen population
13. Robert constanza and his calleagues have very (C) Flow of energy in ecosystem is linear
recently tried to put price tags on nature's life (D) All ecosystem are constant in size.
support services. They have part an average (E) Plants capture only 2–10% of the PAR
price tag of one year is :- (1) A, C (2) A, D, E
(1) US $ 18 trillion (2) US $ 33 trillion (3) A, B, D (4) C & E
(3) US $ 32 trillion (4) US $ 16 trillion
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. 2 2 3 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 3 2 2 3
E
BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
1. Amazon rain forest are considered as lungs of 7. The temperate deciduous forest is characterised
the plant because they contribute ______ of the by :-
total oxygen in the earth's atmosphere :- (1) Needle-leaf tree
(1) 10% (2) 20% (2) Broad leaf tree
(3) 30% (4) 25% (3) Spiny leaf tree
2. Species diversity in a community depends (4) Grass land with scattered force
upon:- 8. Which is not correct about biodiversity :-
(1) Size of area only (1) Insects are the most species rich taxonomic
group, making up more than 70 % of the
(2) Climatic factors only
total.
(3) Climatic factors, type of soil & altitude (2) India has only 2.4 percent of the world's
(4) Type & size of area only land area, its share of the global species
3. Exploring molecular gemetic & species level diversity is an impressive 8.1 percent.
diversity for products of economic importance (3) Nearly 45,000 species of plants & twice as
like medicine is called :- many of animals have been recorded from
(1) Biofortification (2) Bio magnification india
(3) Bio prospecting (4) Bio processing (4) India has more than 1200 species of Bird.
4. How many percent of the earth's land area is 9. According to Robert may, what in the total
covered by all the biodivensity hot spots ? number of species present on earth ?
(1) More than two percent (1) 5 million (2) 6 million
(2) Less than two percent (3) 7 million (4) 9 million
(3) More than fine percent 10. Species area relationship was given by :-
(4) Exactly 2% (1) Robert constranza
5. Which of the following biome has largest (2) Alexander von humboldt
number of species ? (3) Alexander flemming
(1) Taiga (2) Deciduoma (4) Stamford ecologist Paul Ehrlich
(3) Tropical forest (4) subtropical forest 11. The term "The evil quartet" is related with :-
6. Chapparal occurs in areas of :- (1) Four major causes of population growth
(1) Africa (2) Pacific (2) Four major causes of forest loss
(3) Mediterranean (4) Tundra (3) Four major causes of biodiversity losses
(4) Four major causes of sacred groves
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
Ans. 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 1 3 2 3
E
ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
1. The government of india has passed 8. Which one is/are correct statement :-
environment protection act in :- (1) According to an estimate, almost 40 percent
(1) 1982 (2) 1984 (3) 1986 (4) 1988 forests have been lost in the tropics
2. Over 99% particulate matter present in the compared to only 1 percent in the temperate
exhaust from thermal power plant can be region
removed by :- (2) At the beginning of twenteth century, forest
(1) Scrubber covered about 30 percent of the land of
(2)Electrostatic precipitor India. It shrunk to 19.4 percent.
(3) Catalytic converter (3) National forest policy (1988) of Indian has
(4) lichen recommended 33 percent forest cover for
3. In india, the air prevention and control of the plains & 67 percent for hills.
pollution act came into force in 1981 but was (4) All of the above
amended in 1987 to include :- 9. Which one is not related to the forest protection ?
(1) Water pollution (1) Jhum cultivation
(2) Radioactive pollution (2) Joint forest management (JFM)
(3) Noise pollution (3) Chipko movement
(4) Ozone depletion (4) Amrita devi bishnoi wild life protection award
4. Which statement is wrong about ozone layer ? 10. Earth's surface re-emits heat into the
(1) Bad ozone formed in the lower atmosphere atmosphere in the form of :-
(troposphere). (1) Red radiation (2) UV radiation
(2) The thickness of ozone is measured in terms (3) infra - red radiation (4) g -radiation
of dobson unit (DU). 11. Secondary treatment or biological treatment of
(3) Major ozone depleting substance is CFC. waste water or sewage is done by the :-
(4) Montreal protocol was signed at montreal (1) Autotrophic microbes naturally present in
(canada) in 1986 (effective in 1988) the sewage.
5. Wh ich s tat eme nt is wr on g abou t wat er (2) Heterotrophic microbes naturally present in
pollution ? the sewage
(1) The government of india has passed the (3) Photoautotrophic bacteria
water (prevention & control of pollution) (4) Chemoautotrophic bacteria
Act in 1978 to safeguard water 12. Ganga action plan & Yamuna action plan has
(2) Water pollution level is measured in terms initiated to prevent these major rivers of our
of BOD. country from pollution. It was initiated by :-
(3) Presence of large amount of nutrients in (1) The ministry of health
water bodies also causes excessive growth (2) The ministry of environment
of planktonic (free floating) algae. (3) The ministry of forest
(4) Eichhornia is world's most problematic (4) The ministry of environment and forest.
aquatic weed. 13. During the past century, the temperature of earth
6. Accumulation of toxic substance in living is has increased by :-
called as :- (1) 0.5°C (2) 0.6°C (3) 0.8°C (4) 10°C
(1) Eutrophication (2) Biomagnification 14. How can we control global warming ?
(3) Bioprospecting (4) Biofortification

(A) Cutting down the use of fossil fuel
7. The use of nuclear energy has two very serious
inherent problems. these are :- (B) Improving efficiency of energy usage
(A) Accidental leakage (C) Increased deforestation
(B) Safe disposal of radioactive waste (D) Cutting down the trees
(C) Global warming
(E) slowing growth of human population
(D) Green house effect
(1) A,B (2) A,C (3) A & D (4) C, D (1) A,B,C (2) B,C,D (3) C,D,F (4) A,B,E
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. 3 2 3 4 1 2 1 4 1 3 2 4 2 4

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REVISION OF BOTANY CONCEPT (RBC) Serial Page

1. Diversity in the living world 01-07

DIVERSITY IN THE LIVING WORLD

___(C)___ and after germination of spores,

(1) Cutin (2) Pectose Node

16. The needle like leaves, reduced surface area,

characteristic features of the which of the

(2) All bryophytes (1) Selaginella (2) Equisetum

Which of the following combinations is

(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria (1) B A D C

(2) Spirulina and Oscillatoria (2) C D A B

(2) They also ensure that such a name has not

(B) Viruses can multiply only when they are reproduction.

are of ascomycetes ? (iii) Rust fungi (c) Chondrus crispus

Aspergillus, Rhizopus, Yeast, Claviceps, (iv) Peat moss (d) Puccinia

Morels, Agaricus, Trichoderma, Puccinia Options :-

11. Which of the following possess simple leaves :-

(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv

(2) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv D Imbricate aestivation iv

(4) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii

(3) Phyllotaxy (4) Allogamy A Basal (i) Pea

(1) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii (1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - v

(1) Å + K 2+2 C 4 A2+4G(2)

E Marginal v (3) Å + K 2+2 C4 A(2+4)G(2)

(4) Å + K 2+2 C4 A2+4G2

(1) A - mesocarp, B - seed, C - endocarp

21. Mango and coconut lie in which category of

(3) Pericycle (4) Cortex (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3

(1) Mesophyll (2) Epidermal (1) Intercalary

(3)Bundle sheath (4) Hypodermis (2) Secondary

3. Bulliform cells are present in : (3) Lateral

(1)Grass leaf (2) Mango leaf (4) Apical

4. The tissues involved in secondary growth are : (1)Intrafascicular cambium

(1) Lateral meristem (2) Vascular cambium (2) Interfascicular cambium

5. The wood formed during spring season is (4) Vascular cambium

(2) Early wood (1) Monocot root (2) Monocot stem

(3) Primary xylem (4) Secondary xylem

(3) Phellem (4) Phelloderm (1) Sieve tube elements

8. Periderm is formed of : (2) Xylem

(1) Phellogen (2) Phellem (3) Phloem

(3) Phelloderm (4) All of the above (4) Subsidiary cells

(4) Cambium (1)Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma

chloroplasts (1) Parenchymatous (2) Sclerenchymatous

(1)Trichome (2) Stomata (1) Mesophyll

(1) Parenchyma and Collenchyma (3) Pith (4) Medullary rays

Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\BOTANY_ENGLISH.P65

(1) Through these pores movement of RNA and

(4) Glyoxisome (3) Both are single membrane bounded

(D) Terpanoids IV Ricin

proteins, nucleic acid, polysaccharide, and

Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\BOTANY_ENGLISH.P65

(iv)Cofactors play a crucial role in the catalytic

Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\BOTANY_ENGLISH.P65

CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION

(2) Meiosis (3) Telophase (4) Near to pole

13. Recombination process occur between.......

(4) 1 and 2 option is correct (2) Interphase

(3) Both PS-II and PS-I participate in cyclic

(3) Acetyl CoA formation Alcoholic 3-carbon

_(C)_ and after germination of spores,