ABC Chapter 1

Geographical and Cultural Orientation

1-FIRs and Political borders

A. Are always the same.
B. Are not necessarily the same.
C. Are the same only in Africa and the Middle East

2-Atlas can be used for in-flight navigation purposes.

A. True
B. False

3-What is the golden rule to be followed when abroad with regards

to other people’s beliefs and traditions?
A. Fight for your beliefs and traditions cause its your right.
B. Argue and try to convince others of your beliefs and traditions.
C. Be tolerant and accepting of everyone’s beliefs and traditions.
Geographical and Cultural Orientation
1. Atlas is
a. Collection of maps and charts
b. Earth biography only
c. Detailed list of the countries

2. When flying over Saudi Arabia

a. Pilots should be in contact with Saudi Arabia Control
b. Pilots should maintain communication with Bahrain Control
c. Pilots may fly over an area although within the Saudi Arabia political
borders but not under Air Traffic Control of Saudi Arabia

3. The nature theory claims

a. Inheritance from parents always determine the person’s behavior
b. Inheritance from the environment determine the person’s behavior
c. Environment is the only source for determining the person’s behavior

4. Belief means
a. The mental act, condition, or habit of placing trust or confidence in a
particular area of thinking by a group of persons
b. The social act, condition, or habit of placing trust or confidence in a
particular perception by a group of persons
 c. The passing down of elements of a culture in means of beliefs or
attitude behavior passed by a people mainly through oral
communication from generation to generation

5. Tradition means
a. The passing down of elements of a culture and mode of thoughts or
behavior followed by a people especially by oral communication from
generation to generation
b. The state, or habit of placing trust or confidence in a particular area of
thinking by the society
c. The inception of elements of a culture and mode of thoughts or
behavior followed by a people especially by oral communication from
generation to generation

6. ATC’s areas of responsibility may exceed the political borders of

its country for political reasons only
a. True
b. False

ABC Chapter 2

Local and International Organizations

1. The IFALPA is responsible for

A. Monitoring of airports
B. Regulating international air traffic
C. Representation of pilots

2. Which of the following agencies is/are responsible for local law

enforcement of aviation?
A. ICAO, IFALPA, and IATA
B. FAA (USA), ECAA (Egypt)
C. NASA and NTSB

3. Who is responsible for handling the task of general weather

forecasting in Egypt?
A. National Metrological Authority
B. ECAA
C. Egyptair
International and Local Organizations
 1. Which organization is responsible for standardization of aviation
operations, and issuing of regulations?
a. ICAO
b. IFALPA
c. IATA

2. Which organization is responsible to investigate aviation accidents

and incidents?
a. EGALPA
b. NASA
c. NTSB

3. NTSB may investigate accidents outside the USA in the following

conditions
a. Accidents to non- American aircraft under request
b. Accidents to American aircraft in countries without a transportation
investigation board
c. All of the above

4. ICAO play very important role in

a. Law, standardization and ticketing
b. Law, standardization and regional planning
c. Law standardization and facilitation only

5. ECAA is responsible to
a. Issue pilots license only
b. Issue all the regulations required pilots and their operation
c. None of the above

6. SAFA checks might include

a. Licenses of pilots, safety equipment in cockpit and cabin and cargo
carried in the aircraft
b. Licenses of pilots, procedures and manuals that should be carried in
the cockpit, however, not necessarily check the crew compliance
c. Search for bombs

7. SAFA stands for

a. Safety Association Federation of Aircrafts
b. Safety Association of Foreign Aircrafts
c. Safety Assessment of Foreign Aircrafts

ABC Chapter 4

Cockpit Familiarization and Checklist Philosophy

1. What is the main difference between Runway Visual Range (RVR) and
Slant Visual Range (SVR)?
 A. There is no difference they are both the same.
B. RVR is an instrument-derived value.
C. SVR is an instrument-derived value.

2. The Cockpit Cut-Off Angle

A. Is not a fixed angle having more than one value depending on the
aircraft’s geometry (attitude) and the pilot’s seat adjustment (eye
height).
B. Is a fixed angle
C. Fixed or variable and varies according to airplane type only.

3. ƐĂƌƵůĞ͕ŝƚĐĂŶďĞƐĂŝĚƚŚĂƚƐŝƫ ŶŐϭĐĞŶƟŵĞƚĞƌ;ϭĐŵͿůŽǁ ĞƌƚŚĂŶ

the neutral eye height results in a (an) _________ of the cockpit cut-
off angle approximately 1°.
A. Increase
B. Reduction.
C. No effect

4. Checklists were created to be used …

A. At the captains discretion.
B. As a must to eliminate errors of omission in the cockpit.
C. As an option to be used in high workload conditions.

5. Normal checklists are to be carried out after the items in the checklist
are completed or checked.
A. True
B. False

6. In case of a systems failure, which requires an abnormal checklist to

be carried out, the normal checklist of the current phase of flight
must be carried out first, followed by the abnormal checklist.
A. True
B. False
7. An engine shutdown during any phase of the flight may not be
crosschecked by another crewmember cause its time critical.
A. True
B. False
Cockpit Familiarization and Checklist Philosophy
1. Glare Shield Panel is the
a. FCM
b. MCU
c. MCP

2. EFIS displays
a. System schematics for pilots’ use
b. Parameters and navigation data on the PFD and ND
c. Engine parameters

The next question is based on the above figure

3. Number 1 is called
a. Flight Mode Annunciator
b. Flight Main Annunciator
c. Flight Main Attributes
The next question is based on the above figure
4. Number 1 is the
a. EFIS
b. EIS
c. DU

5. The EFIS is responsible for

a. Controlling the E/WD indications
b. Controlling the SD indications
c. Controlling the PFD and ND indications

6. RVR is calculated using

a. It is an instrument derived value, based on standard calibrations, that
represents the horizontal distance a pilot will see down the runway from
the approach end
b. It is an instrument derived value, based on standard calibrations, that
represents the horizontal distance a pilot will see during the approach
c. It is an instrument derived value, along with human calibrations, that
represents the horizontal distance a pilot will see down the runway from
the approach end

7. SVR is
a. The distance between the pilots’ eye and the farthest point he can see
b. Horizontal distance that can be seen in flight
c. The angle between the line of sight at the neutral (correct) eye height in
the cockpit and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft

8. The Cockpit Cut-Off Angle equals the Down Vision Angle only
when
a. Pitch angle is zero
b. When the airplane is in the approach phase
c. When the airplane is taking off

9. What are some of the factors affecting the cockpit cutoff angles
a. Seat adjustment, Eye position and time
b. Visibility, Configuration and Weight
c. All of the above

10. During takeoff an abnormal condition occurred concerning

the landing gear, what is the correct sequence to follow
a. Immediately notify the ATC, do the normal checklist then followed by
the abnormal checklist
b. Do the abnormal checklist first followed by the normal checklist then
notify the ATC
c. Do the normal checklist then the abnormal checklist then notify the
ATC
 11. What is the Checklist priority during approach and landing
in case of emergency
a. Normal, Abnormal, Emergency
b. Abnormal, Normal, Emergency
c. Emergency, Abnormal, Normal

12. What is the correct sequence pilots should follow during

any case of emergency (The golden Rule)
a. Navigate, Communicate then Fly the aircraft
b. Fly the aircraft, Navigate then Communicate
c. Communicate and Navigate then fly the aircraft

ABC Chapter 5

Jet Characteristics

1. Density altitude corrects pressure altitude for..

A. Non-standard temperature.
B. Humidity
C. Adiabatic laps rate

2. Which of the following is Bernoulli’s principle?

A. Differential pressure causes fluid to always move from high
pressure to low pressure in order to reach a state of equilibrium.
B. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction, which is
equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
C. Differential pressure causes fluid to always move from low
pressure to high pressure in order to reach a state of equilibrium.

3. The angle of attack at which the airflow begins to separate from the
wing is called
A. “Coefficient of Lift max”
B. “Center of Pressure”
C. “Critical Angle of Attack”

4. Regarding drag, a by-product of the coefficient of lift is

 A. Parasite drag
B. Induced drag
C. Total drag

5. With regard to aircraft speed, Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) is Indicated

airspeed (IAS) corrected for …
A. Position error
B. Compressibility error
C. Temperate and pressure

6. What is True Airspeed (TAS)?

A. IAS corrected for air density variation.
B. EAS corrected to air density variation.
C. CAS corrected for air density variation.

7. True Airspeed corrected for wind is called …

A. Indicated Airspeed (IAS)
B. Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)
C. Ground Speed (GS)

8. Which of the following speeds are used for Navigation?

A. Indicated Airspeed (IAS)
B. True Airspeed (TAS)
C. Ground Speed (GS)

9. Which drag is directly related to the angle of attack?

A. Induced drag.
B. Parasite drag.
C. Total drag.

10.The relationship between drag and airspeed is ..

 A. Induced drag is the predominant factor at low airspeeds, and
parasite drag is the predominant factor at high airspeeds.
B. Induced drag is the predominant factor at high airspeeds, and
parasite drag is the predominant factor at low airspeeds.
C. There is no relationship between drag and airspeed.

11.What is the name of the line equidistant from the upper and the lower
surfaces of the wing?
A. Mean Line.
B. Chord Line.
C. Camber of the wing.

12.What is angle of attack?

A. Angle between the Mean line and the relative wind.
B. Angle between the chord line and the relative wind.
C. Angle between the camber of the wing and the relative wind.

13.Regarding THRUST & DRAG, forward motion continues as long as …

A. Thrust forces are equal or greater than the drag forces.
B. Thrust forces are greater than the drag forces.
C. Thrust forces are equal or less than the drag forces.

14.Regarding LIFT & WEIGHT, the force of lift acting on a wing is

concentrated on a point known as the …
A. Center of Gravity (CG)
B. Center of Pressure (CP).
C. Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC)

15.What is MACH NUMBER (M)?

A. The ratio between the actual speed of the aircraft (True Air Speed),
and the actual speed of sound.
B. Modified Acceleration Control Hardware
C. The ratio between the actual Indicated Airspeed (IAS), and the
actual speed of sound.
16.What is Mach Tuck (Tuck Under)?
A. A gradual nose drop that occurs at very high speed due to shock
wave formation.
B. It is a nose up effect that occurs at very high Mach number due to
compressibility effect.
C. It is when an aircraft reaches supersonic speed above Mach 2 and
the nose of the airplane is maintained steady due to very high
stability.

Jet propulsion
17.What is the function of the jet engine compressor?
A. The compressor draws air in, compresses it, and then delivers it
into the combustion chamber.
B. The compressor draws fuel in, compresses it, and then delivers it
into the combustion chamber.
C. The compressor draws air in, compresses it, and then delivers it
into the diffuser section.

18 Which of the following is used to measure engine thrust instead of

EPR in different engine designs?
A. N1
B. N2
C. N3

19-What is the low-pressure turbine in the dual-compressor engine or

twin spool referred to as?
A. N1
B. N2
C. N3

20-In the dual-compressor or twin spool engine the high speed and low
speed compressors are both mechanically connected.
A. True
B. False

21-Which type of thrust does engine thrust reversers always divert?

A. Cold thrust
B. Warm thrust
C. Hot thrust
AERODYNAMICS

1. The Coefficient of Lift “CL” is depending on

a. The shape of airfoil only
b. The angle of attack only
c. Both the shape of airfoil and the angle of attack

2. The Drag appears with the production of lift is named

a. The profile Drag
b. The structural Drag
c. The induced Drag

3. The speed which indicated by the airplane instruments with assuming

constant air density and not corrected for position error is called
a. Indicated air speed
b. Calibrated Air speed
c. Equivalent air speed

4. The speed which indicated by the airplane instruments and corrected

for position error and compressibility error and corrected to air density
variation is called
a. True air speed
b. Indicated air speed
c. Calibrated Air speed

5. The angle of attack is the angle between the chord line and the
a. Relative wind
b. Horizontal line
c. Mean line

6. As the aircraft speed increases the lift force

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Does not change

7. The dihedral angle is the upward angle of the airplane wings with
respect to
a. Vertical axis
b. Horizontal axis
c. Relative wind
8. The dihedral wing design improves the
a. Lateral stability
b. Longitudinal stability
c. Directional stability

9. The Mach number is the ratio between the actual speed of sound and
the
a. Aircraft indicated Air Speed
b. Aircraft True Air Speed
c. Aircraft equivalent air speed

10. As the aircraft climbing with constant indicated air speed before
reaching the TROPOPAUSE layer, the True air speed
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Does not change

11. As the aircraft climb with constant Mach No. after passing the
TROPOPAUSE layer, the True air speed
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Does not change

12. The unwanted yaw-roll oscillation is known as

a. Dutch roll
b. MACH TUCK (TUCK UNDER)
c. Stall
Jet “Propulsion”

1. Regarding the by-pass turbofan ducted type and the fan engines
short duct
a. The by-pass engine mixes the hot and cold flow but the fan
engine doesn´t mix the hot and cold flow.
b. The by-pass engine must be single spool but the fan engine
must be twin-spool.
c. “A” and “B” are correct.

2. The jet engine ignition system

a. Has only one ignition system operate all the time during flight.
b. Has two ignition systems operate all the time during flight.
c. Has two ignition systems operate during starting with large
flaming spark.
3. The engine pressure ratio is the
a. Total pressure of compressor inlet divided by total pressure of
the turbine discharge.
b. Total pressure of turbine discharge divided by total pressure of
the compressor inlet.
c. Compressor inlet pressure divided by compressor outlet
pressure.

4. The Air pollution percentage

a. Increases with increasing the bypass ratio.
b. Decreases with increasing the bypass ratio.
c. Does not depend on bypass ratio.

5. The noise abatement first segment

a. You must reduce the engine power immediately after lift of the
aircraft
b. You must maintain the steepest possible safe climb gradient
immediately after lift of the aircraft
c. Accelerate the aircraft by the higher acceleration available.

6. The function of the turbine is

a. Reduce airflow speed absorbing sufficient energy from the hot
expanded gases leaving the combustor to keep the compressor
rotating at its most efficient speed
b. Increase airflow temperature absorbing sufficient energy from
the expanded gases leaving the combustor to keep the
compressor rotating at its most efficient speed
c. Increase airflow speed absorbing sufficient energy from the
expanded gases leaving the combustor to keep the compressor
rotating at its most efficient speed

7. The engine which contribute in more noise pollution is the engine

a. With mixing of primary and secondary airflow
b. Without mixing of primary and secondary airflow
c. The same produce the same noise levels

8. Most of the new jet engines starters (not all)

a. Uses the pneumatic power
b. Uses the electric power
c. Uses the hydraulic power

9. The thrust reverser is most effective

a. At high speed after landing
b. At low speed after landing
c. Before touchdown

10. The EGT indicates the temperature of the gases in

a. The turbine exhaust temperature inside the combustion chamber
b. The turbine temperature inside the engine intake
c. The turbine exhaust temperature

Flight Controls
1. As per the book, the main function of the leading edge flaps and
slats
a. Increase angle of descent without increasing airspeed
b. Steeper glide path during approach
c. None of the above

2. Trim tabs are used now in modern jet aircrafts to trim the airplane
(ex. A320 & B738)
a. True
b. False

3. Roll spoilers do
a. Fully deflect on the side inside the turn
b. Partially deflect on the side outside the turn
c. Partially deflect on the side inside the turn

4. The rudder limiters are installed because

a. There is no need for the huge rudder travel, because sufficient speed
with minimum deflection can give the needed yaw
b. To limit the hazard of pilots in case inadvertent pressure on the rudder
took place
c. The rudder surface is not needed at all during cruise normal cases

5. With trailing edge flaps extended the wing will produce

a. Higher CL for the same angle of attack
b. Lower CL for the same angle of attack
c. Same CL for the same angle of attack

6. During landing roll all the panel (given normal conditions)

a. Fully deployed
b. Partially deployed
c. Full deployed, but some of the panels are partially deployed

7. According to Bernoulli’s principle, as the velocity of a fluid

increases
a. The internal pressure increase
b. The internal pressure decreases
c. None of the above

8. Calibrated airspeed is
a. IAS corrected for position error
b. EAS corrected for position error
c. IAS corrected for air density variation
 9. The angle of incidence is the angle between
a. Longitudinal axis and chord line
b. Chord line and relative wind
c. Chord line and mean line
10. Aspect ratio is the relationship between
a. The span and the chord of a wing
b. The span and relative wind
c. None of the above

11. Taper ratio is the ratio between

a. The thickness of the wing and its chord
b. The root chord and tip chord
c. None of the above

12. The temperature of the air increases suddenly as it passes

through a shock wave
a. True
b. False

13. Why is the centrifugal compressor is limited

a. Because the diffuser is not rotating at its most efficient speed
b. Because of the drastic change in direction, along with other reasons
c. None of the above

14. What is the strongest part in a jet engine

a. Turbine wheel
b. Compressor wheels
c. Intake

15. Compared to normal approaches, low drag configuration

results in
a. Lower noise level
b. Higher noise level
c. Same noise level

ABC Chapter 6
AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS

1. The air conditioning system usually includes two air conditioning

packs, which are
A. Independent and work in serial.
B. Dependant and work in parallel.
 C. Independent and work in parallel.

2. The negative pressure relief valve prevents external atmospheric

pressure from exceeding internal pressure by a predetermined value
to maintain structural integrity.
A. True
B. False

3. Fuel feeding is accomplished from a fuel tank into its respective

engine. Fuel cannot be fed from any tank to any engine, but only its
respective side.
A. True
B. False

4. Hydraulic reservoirs, usually there are

A. ϯƌĞƐĞƌǀŽŝƌƐĨŽƌĂƚLJƉŝĐĂůƚǁ ŝŶĞŶŐŝŶĞĂŝƌĐƌĂŌ͕ϮĨŽƌƚŚĞŵĂŝŶ
systems and 1 for the standby system.
B. ϮƌĞƐĞƌǀŽŝƌƐĨŽƌĂƚLJƉŝĐĂůƚǁ ŝŶĞŶŐŝŶĞĂŝƌĐƌĂŌ͕ϮŵĂŝŶƐLJƐƚĞŵƐ͘
C. ϮƌĞƐĞƌǀŽŝƌƐĨŽƌĂƚLJƉŝĐĂůƚǁ ŝŶĞŶŐŝŶĞĂŝƌĐƌĂŌ͕ϭĨŽƌƚŚĞŵĂŝŶ
system and 1 for the standby system.

5. Airplane hydraulic pumps are divided into …

A. Three kinds, engine driven, electric, and manual pumps.
B. Two kinds, engine driven pump and an electric pump.
C. Two kinds, engine driven pump and a manual pump.

6. What is one of the differences between an engine and an APU

generator?
A. APU generator has no generator drive/constant speed drive.
B. Engine generator is much more powerful.
C. APU generator is more powerful than the engine generator.

7. The APU does not have a constant speed drive (CSD) due to the fact
that it operates only at a steady governed RPM, while the engines
operate at a large range of RPM’s.
A. True
 B. False

8. The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) uses ram air to rotate a connected
generator for power generation.
A. True
B. False

9. EGPWS provides GPWS protection even in the landing configuration.

A. True
B. False

10.A Traffic Advisory (TA) issued from TCAS requires which of the
following actions?
A. Pilots are expected to respond and act immediately (Climb or
Descend).
B. Pilots are instructed to initiate a visual search for the traffic and
maintain it.
C. Pilots are required to exercise their own judgment and maneuver
as necessary

11.Why is important that each generator maintains a constant frequency

throughout the normal operating range of the engine?
A. To prevent the cockpit LCD screens from flickering.
B. To prevent electrical surges which will damage the electrical
system.
C. To prevent the cabin lights and passenger entertainment systems
from any damage.

12.How many volts AC power does the modern aircraft use to operate
it’s AC electrical system?
A. 115V
B. 220V
 C. 400V

13.The basic principle involved in hydraulic power is Pascal`s law, which

states that pressure exerted upon a liquid is transmitted in all
directions at the same magnitude.
A. True
B. False

14.Air Systems are composed of three main sub systems, which are;
A. The pneumatic or bleed air system, air conditioning system and
the pressurization system.
B. The pneumatic or bleed air system, electrical, and hydraulic
system.
C. The air conditioning system, pressurization system, and fuel
system.
PNEUMATIC SYSTEM

1- In jet aircrafts, sources of air include ……

a. the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
b. the engines
c. All of the above

2- Usually, the pneumatic system ……

a. Consists of only one pneumatic duct.
b. Is split into two sides with an isolation valve separating the right and the left side.
c. Is split into more than two sides based on the number of users requesting
pneumatic.

3- …… is considered as a pneumatic system component.

a. The fuel tank venting line.
b. The bleed trip sensors.
c. Both answers are correct.

4- If an overpressure condition is sensed downstream of the engine bleed valve

……
a. The associated valve closes automatically.
b. The associated valve doesn't close automatically but only a warning is displayed
in the flight deck.
c. Nothing happens and the valve resumes its operation.

5- A pre-cooler is simply a heat exchanger which pre-cools ……

a. Engine bleeds air using cold ram air.
b. Engine bleed air using cold fan air.
c. Air coming from the mixing manifold before entering the cabin zones.
6- During normal operations, the isolation valve ……
a. Opens to collect air from the air-conditioning packs.
b. Isolates the sides of the pneumatic manifold.
c. Splits the aircraft cabin into many zones.

7- The bleed air passes to the pneumatic manifold to feed system consumers
……
a. When it is temperature regulated only.
b. When it is humidity regulated only.
c. When it is pressure and temperature regulated.

8- What is a Cross Bleed Start?

a. Using Bleed Air from the APU to start the engines.
b. Using Bleed Air from an engine to start another engine.
c. Using Bleed Air from a ground cart to assist the APU in starting one engine.

AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM

9- The purpose of the air conditioning system is ……

a. To determine the cabin pressure through regulating the pressure in the pneumatic
manifold.
b. The distribution and circulation of air to the cabin.
c. To open the engine and APU bleed valves once needed.

10- The conditioned air for the cabin comes from ……

a. The aircraft`s air conditioning system (air-conditioning packs).
b. A preconditioned ground source.
c. Either A or B.

11- An air-conditioning PACK basically consists of ……

a. Heat exchangers and an air cycle machine.
b. Heat exchangers and recirculation fans.
c. Heat exchangers, an air cycle machine and recirculation fans.

12- The cooled air in the air-conditioning PACK is routed to a mixing chamber
where it is mixed with hot air to ……
a. Control the humidity downstream of the PACK.
b. Regulate the pressure downstream of the PACK.
c. Achieve the desired temperature from the PACK.

13- The PACK valve ……

a. controls the flow of bleed air to the air conditioning pack
b. Controls the flow of hot air only to be mixed with the cold air the mixing
chamber.
c. Controls the flow of hot air going to the zone trim air valve.
14- The heat exchangers in the air-conditioning PACK uses ……
a. Fan air for cooling.
b. Ram air for cooling.
c. Freon gas for cooling

15- The trim air system diverts some of the hot air to the trim air valves to ……
a. Modify the pressure inside the cabin.
b. Modify the humidity inside the cabin.
c. Modify the temperature of the air that is entering the cabin to the exact
temperature setting required.

16- A typical air-conditioning system usually includes two air conditioning packs which
are ……
a. Dependent on each other and work in series.
b. Independent and work in parallel.
c. Using ram air if the bleed source is cut from the engines.

17- …… adjusts the humidity of the cold air to be supplied to the mixing
chamber
a. Pack
b. Secondary heat exchanger
c. Water separator
 PRESSURIZATION SYSTEM

18- The cabin altitude …… by limiting the amount of air that exits aircraft
cabin.
a. Is lowered.
b. Is raised.
c. Stays constant.

19- The installed valve that controls the amount of air that exits the aircraft’s
cabin is the……
a. Outflow valve.
b. Positive pressure relief valve.
c. Negative pressure relief valve.

20- The cabin altitude can be decreased by modulating the outflow valve towards
……
a. The open position.
b. The closed position.
c. The outflow valve is not used to modulate cabin altitude.

21- The pressurization controllers automatically or semi-automatically control

cabin altitude by automatic modulation of ……
a. The outflow valve only.
b. The outflow valve and the positive pressure relief valve.
c. The outflow valve and the negative pressure relief valve.

22- The positive pressure relief valve ……

a. Prevents differential pressure from exceeding a predetermined value by allowing
air to exist the cabin.
b. Prevents external atmospheric pressure from exceeding internal pressure by a
predetermined value.
c. Can be controlled by the pressurization controllers to depressurize the aircraft.
23- The negative pressure relief valve ……
a. Prevents differential pressure from exceeding a predetermined value by allowing
air to exist the cabin.
b. Prevents external atmospheric pressure from exceeding internal pressure by a
predetermined value.
c. Can be controlled manually by the pilot.

24- Normally the modes of operation for the pressurization systems include ……
a. Automatic and semi-automatic modes only.
b. Automatic and manual modes only.
c. Automatic, semi-automatic and manual modes.

25- After engine start, the auto controller pressurizes the cabin to about 200 feet
below the take-off field altitude to ……
a. Guarantee that the aircraft stays pressurized if the pilot rejected the take-off in
order to avoid structural damage.
b. Make the transition to pressurized flight more gradual for passengers and crew.
c. To prevent the negative pressure relief valve from opening during take-off.

26- The standby pressure controller ……

a. Regulates the cabin pressure based on different rate of climb than the AUTO
controller.
b. Is a second automatic controller functions exactly the same as the AUTO
controller.
c. Needs a pilot manual action to open and close the outflow valve.

27- When aircraft pressurization is controlled manually, a placard informs the flight
crew of
a. The correct cabin pressure for a certain flight level
b. The correct differential pressure for a certain flight level
c. The correct outflow valve position for a certain flight level
 FUEL SYSTEM

28- The fuel boost pumps use ……

a. AC electrical power.
b. DC electrical power.
c. AC or DC electrical power.

29- The fuel boost pumps are cooled by ……

a. Air from the venting line.
b. Air from the air-conditioning packs.
c. Fuel.

30- …… is used to connect the engine fuel manifolds and is used to direct fuel to
all engines from any tank.
a. The cross-feed valve.
b. The fuel shut off valve.
c. The defueling valve.

31- The fueling, defueling and fuel transfer processes are accomplished ……
a. By changing the routing of the fuel lines.
b. From the fueling panel.
c. From the flight deck.

32- Fuel venting is installed to ……

a. Cool the fuel pumps inside the fuel tanks.
b. Avoid damage to the wings due to the increased and excessive positive or
negative pressure buildup inside the fuel tanks.
c. Keep the fuel tanks always depressurized.

33- Fuel venting system provides ……

a. Ram air pressure within the fuel tanks.
b. Pressurized air from the pneumatic manifolds.
c. Either A or B

34- In case of any accidental tank overfilling ……

a. The excess fuel flows from a tank to another.
b. The excess fuel discharge is provided through surge tanks.
c. The fuel tank starts an automatic defueling process.

35- When all boost pumps are operating ……

a. The center tank fuel is used before the wing tank fuel.
b. The wing tank fuel is used before the center tank fuel.
c. The fuel in the center and wing tanks is used in the same time.

36- In the auto fueling mode, the required fuel amount can be preset on a digital
counter and when the required amount of fuel is reached ……
a. The cross-feed valve operates automatically.
b. The fuel boost pumps operate automatically.
c. The fueling valves automatically close.

37- The over-wing fueling can be done ……

a. From the fueling panel.
b. For the wing tanks only.
c. For the center tank only.

38- The defuel valve is used to defuel any undesired amount of fuel off the
aircraft ……
a. On ground only.
b. In-flight only.
c. On ground or in-flight.

39- In some aircrafts, what valve is used to transfer fuel from one tank to another on the
ground?
a. Cross Feed Valve
b. Defuel valve
c. Fuel Shutoff valve
 HYDRAULIC SYSTEM

40- The hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized ……

a. From outside ram air.
b. From the pneumatic manifold.
c. Both answers are correct.

41- The hydraulic engine driven pump provides …… the hydraulic electrical
pump.
a. Same flow rate as.
b. Higher flow rate than.
c. Lower flow rate than.

42- The Power Transfer Unit or (PTU) acts as a backup unit which consists of
……
a. An air driven pump connected to the RAT.
b. An alternate electrical pump that works in case of the main pumps failure.
c. A hydraulic motor and a pump.

43- The Power Transfer Unit or (PTU) allows power transfer ……

a. From an operating system to another non-pressurized system with interconnecting
the two systems’ hydraulic lines.
b. From an operating system to another non-pressurized system without
interconnecting the two systems’ hydraulic lines.
c. From an operating system to another operating system with interconnecting the
two systems’ hydraulic lines.

44- Before returning hydraulic fluid to the reservoir ……

a. It passes by the heat exchangers to cool the heated fluid.
b. A return hydraulic pump pressurizes the hydraulic fluid to be able to reach the
reservoirs.
c. The hydraulic fluid temperature is monitored; so that it can be drained overboard
in case of an overheat

45- The heat exchanger in the hydraulic system ……

a. Is the same heat exchanger in the air-conditioning packs using the ram air for
cooling.
b. Uses low fuel temperature to cool the heated hydraulic fluid.
c. Uses engine fan air to cool the engine driven pump hydraulic fluid.

46- For the different main hydraulic systems ……

a. There is only one reservoir serving all systems.
b. Each system has its own reservoir and its own engine driven & electrical pumps.
c. Each system has its own reservoir but they share the same engine driven and
electrical pumps.

47- Each main hydraulic system is responsible for supplying certain users and
……
a. In some cases shares with the other main system the supply of some essential
users.
b. Never shares with the other main system the supply of some essential users.
c. Can be interconnected with the other main system through hydraulic fluid transfer
between the two systems.

48- The standby hydraulic system is designed to power most essential users such
as.
a. The elevator
b. The thrust reversers
c. Trailing Edge Devices
 ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

49- The external AC ground power ……

a. Generates 115V - 400 Hz AC power, that is the same in quality as the engine
driven or APU generators.
b. Generates AC power lower than the generated from the engine driven or APU
generators.
c. Needs transformers to be able to provide adequate AC power to the aircraft
busses.

50- The APU is capable of supporting the electrical system entirely ……

a. By a common generator between the engines and the APU.
b. By the emergency generator also connected to the RAT.
c. By its own generator.

51- The APU generator may be used to supply primary electrical power as a
backup for any engine generator ……
a. On ground only.
b. In-flight only.
c. On ground and in-flight.

52- If the constant speed drive CSD experiences a malfunction ……

a. Only the affected generator will be tripped.
b. The APU generator will not be able to produce electrical power.
c. The AC power will be lost on the aircraft.

53- The APU generator ……

a. Is equipped with a constant speed drive CSD.
b. Is not equipped with a constant speed drive CSD.
c. Produces AC and DC power.

54- An electrical buss is ……

a. A distribution point for the AC power only.
b. A distribution point for the DC power only.
c. A storage and distribution point for the generated electrical current from any
source supplying it.

55- The transformer rectifier unit ……

a. Receives AC power from an AC bus and then transforms it into DC power.
b. Converts DC power to AC power.
c. Can convert AC to DC power or vice versa depending on the electrical consumers.
56- The static inverter ……
a. Converts AC power to DC power.
b. Converts DC power to single phase AC power.
c. Converts DC power to three phase AC power.

57- The aircraft battery charging ……

a. Is automatically controlled.
b. Can be done on ground only.
c. Can be done when the battery is removed from the aircraft.

58- On some aircraft types, the emergency generator ……

a. Is the generator connected to the APU
b. Is the generator connected to the Ram Air Turbine RAT.
c. Is a backup generator connected to the engine

59- …… mostly powers all heavy loads

a. AC Power
b. DC Power
c. The aircraft battery.

60- The AC sources on the aircraft are ……

a. The engine and APU generators.
b. The Battery via the static inverter.
c. Both A and B are correct

61- Engines drive their generators through constant speed drives. Why isn’t the
APU equipped with one for its generator?
a. APU operates only at a constant RPM.
b. APU generator produces less electric voltage than the engines.
c. APU generator is used to supply power mostly on the ground.
 WARNING SYSTEM

62. What is the instrument that traditional GPWS uses to alert pilots of flying
into obstacles?
a. Pressure altimeter
b. Radio altimeter
c. Terrain database

63. What is the GPWS callout when an aircraft loses altitude after takeoff or a
go-around?
a. “TOO LOW PULL UP”
b. “GLIDESLOPE”
c. “DON’T SINK”

64. What does EGPWS use to alert pilots of flying into terrain?
a. Pressure altimeter
b. Radio altimeter
c. Terrain database

65. How many seconds are two aircrafts away from impact when a TCAS RA
event is first triggered?
a. 25 seconds
b. 40 seconds
c. 60 seconds

66. How many seconds are two aircrafts away from impact when a TCAS TA
event is first triggered?
a. 25 seconds
b. 40 seconds
c. 60 seconds

67. During a TCAS RA, what callout would you expect after a “CLIMB
CLIMB” callout, when the intruder is considerably away or weakening but is
still a threat?
a. “DESCEND DESCEND”
b. “ADJUST VERTICAL SPEED, ADJUST”
c. “CLEAR OF CONFLICT”

68. During a TCAS RA, what callout would you expect after a “CLIMB
CLIMB” callout, when the intruder is no longer a threat?
a. “DESCEND DESCEND”
b. “ADJUST VERTICAL SPEED, ADJUST”
c. “CLEAR OF CONFLICT”

1. The TCAS vertical order indications are displayed on

a- The V/S scale in case of traffic alert (TA) and resolution advisory (RA) detection.
b- The SPEED scale.
c- The V/S scale only in case of resolution advisory RA detection.
2. The TCAS resolution advisory (RA) is represented on the Navigation Display (ND) with
a- A red square
b- An amber circle
c- A white filled diamond shape.

3. Which aircraft are detected by the TCAS?

a- All
b- Only ATC Mode S transponder equipped A/C.
c- ATC transponder equipped A/C.

4. On the TCAS control panel, with mode selector in traffic alert (TA) position
a- Only traffic advisories are provided.
b- All traffic indications are provided.
c- No TCAS information is provided.

5. The EGPWS aural warnings have priority over:

a- All systems aural warnings.
b- TCAS aural warnings.
c- Stall and wind-shear warnings.

6. Which synthetic voice is broadcasted by EGPWS in case of an excessive rate of descent?

a- “SINK RATE, SINK RATE”
b- “TERRAIN, TERRAIN”
c- “GLIDE SLOPE GLIDE SLOPE”

ABC Chapter 7
AIRCRAFT DOCUMENTS

1. After inspection has been performed the maintenance personal shall

make an entry in the maintenance record containing which of the
following data?
A. Type of inspection, name of the engineer with signature, and total
time for inspection.
B. Type of inspection, Age, gender, and type of license held.
C. Type of inspection and a brief description of the inspection, the
date, and Signature and stamp.
2. Defected aircraft items which may not cause a safety risk e.g. missing
landing gear door, but include performance penalties, speed limits,
and/or fuel penalties are found in;
A. Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
B. Airplane Flight Manual-Supplementary Procedures (AFM/FCOM)
C. Configuration Deviation List (CDL)

3. The operation specifications OP-SPECS document includes approval

for such operations as Low Visibility (LVP) and CAT II, Reduced
Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM), and ETOPS.
A. True
B. False

ABC Chapter 8
WEIGHT AND BALANCE

1. An airplane Basic Empty Weight includes the weight of Flight and

cabin crew and their baggage.
A. True
B. False

2. Which of the following is used as a reference for locating the relative

positions of the wing’s center of lift and the airplane’s center of
gravity?
A. Mean Aerodynamic Chord.
B. Datum line
 C. Load Index Zero Fuel Weight (LIZFW) on ground and Load Index
Takeoff Weight (LITOW) in flight.

3. Actual Zero Fuel Weight

A. It is the Dry Operating Weight plus the Basic Empty Weight less
the required fuel.
B. It is the Dry Operating Weight plus the payload and must never
exceed the maximum zero fuel weight.
C. It is the Basic Empty Weight plus the payload and must never
exceed the maximum zero fuel weight.

4. Maximum Taxi Weight

A. It is the maximum weight authorized for ground maneuvers and
includes taxi and run-up fuel.
B. It is the maximum weight authorized for taxi and takeoff,
C. It is the maximum weight during taxi for 30 minutes.

5. Payload weight consists of the total weight of revenue including

passengers and/or cargo but does not include passenger baggage.
A. True
B. False

6. In most modern transport airplanes, the datum line is located

A. Varies according to airplane weight and CG.
B. At or ahead of the nose in order to avoid computation with
negative values.
C. At or behind the nose in order to avoid computation with negative
values.

7. The Dry Operating Index (DOI)

A. Corresponds to the center of gravity (CG) of the dry operating
weight. This figure is unique for each aircraft tail number and
cabin seating configuration.
B. Corresponds to the center of gravity (CG) of the dry operating
weight. This figure varies according to actual cabin seating of each
flight.
 C. Corresponds to the center of pressure (CP) of the dry operating
weight. This figure is unique for each aircraft tail number and
cabin seating configuration.

1. The position of the center of gravity can always be determined by:

a. Dividing the total moment by the total mass
b. Subtracting the total mass from the total moment
c. Dividing the total mass by the total moment
d. Subtracting the total moment from the total mass

2. It is intended to fly a certified aircraft with full traffic load and a full fuel
load.
a. The CG might not be within limits at any one time during flight
b. The CG must be within limits throughout the entire flight.
c. The CG might be within limits throughout the entire flight.
d. The CG will not be within limits throughout the entire flight.

3. The weight of the airplane, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to
act:
a. Vertically through the center of gravity.
b. Vertically through the datum point.
c. Always along the vertical axis of the airplane.
d. Vertically through the center of pressure.

4. For a large aircraft where the main and nose landing gears retract forward,
the effect on the CG on lowering the gear is:
a. To move forward
b. To remain static
c. To move aft
d. To move forward then aft

5. If the nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement
affect the location of the center of gravity on the airplane?
a. It will cause the CG to move aft
b. It will cause the CG to move forward
c. The CG location will change, but the direction cannot be told using the
information given
d. It will not affect the CG location

6. The datum of an airplane is situated:

a. Between the leading edge and the trailing edge of the MAC
b. Always between the nose and the tail
c. Between the leading edge and the trailing edge of the wing
d. Not always between the nose and the tail

7. The center of gravity of an aircraft:

a. Must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load.
b. Can be allowed to move between defined limits.
c. Is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aircraft loading.
d. May only be moved of permitted by regulations and endorsed in the aircraft’s
airworthiness certificate.

8. Select the correct statement for the CG safe range:

a. The safe range falls between nose and the tail of the aircraft.
b. The safe range falls between the front and rear CG limits.
c. The safe range falls between the leading and trailing edge of the wing.
d. The safe range falls between the datum line and the rear CG limit.

9. The landing gear of an aircraft moves rearward when it is being retracted.

Does this affect the CG?
a. Yes, the CG would move forward.
b. Yes, but the CG movement could not be determined.
c. No, the position of the CG would remain the same.
d. Yes, the CG would move aft.

10. Unusable fuel is an element of the

a. Payload
b. Basic empty weight
c. Useful load
d. Engine system oil

11. As a flight crew member, your weight is included in the:

a. Basic empty weight
b. Dry operating weight
c. Payload
d. Useful load

12. Is it possible for usable fuel to be part of the zero fuel weight of an airplane?
a. No, usable fuel is never part of the zero fuel weight.
b. Yes, because usable fuel is actually part of the basic empty weight.
c. Yes, when carried in lieu of payload providing it is in accordance with applicable
government regulations.
d. No, because it is a consumable propulsion agent.

13. Zero fuel weight is:

a. Dry operating weight minus payload.
b. Dry operating weight plus payload.
c. Dry operating weight plus usable fuel.
d. Dry operating weight minus usable fuel.

14. Maximum take-off weight

a. Is a structural limitation of the airplane
b. Includes taxi and run-up fuel.
c. Changes according to the CG position
d. Can be exceeded under certain circumstances.
15. Subtracting take-off weight from ramp weight will yield:
a. Usable fuel
b. Taxi and run-up fuel
c. Payload
d. A meaningless figure

16. Payload is
a. Take-off weight minus the sum of the dry operating weight and take-off fuel
b. Take-off weight minus the sum of the dry operating weight and trip fuel
c. Take-off weight minus the sum of the zero fuel weight and ramp fuel
d. Take-off weight minus the sum of the landing weight and take-off fuel

17. Subtracting landing weight from the take-off weight will yield
a. Taxi fuel
b. Trip fuel
c. Take off fuel
d. A meaningless figure

18. The sum of the trip fuel and take off fuel will yield
a. Taxi fuel
b. Landing fuel
c. Unusable fuel
d. A meaningless figure.

19. If force is multiplied by distance, this will yield,

a. Arm
b. Moment
c. Datum position
d. CG location

20. A section of an imaginary aerofoil on the wing which would have force
vectors identical to an actual wing is
a. Center of Gravity
b. Camber
c. Mean Aerodynamic Chord
d. Datum Line

21. The distance from the datum line to the leading edge of the mean
aerodynamic chord is called
a. Leading edge center of gravity
b. Trailing edge mean aerodynamic chord
c. Leading edge mean aerodynamic chord
d. Leading edge datum line

22. The distance from the datum line to the leading edge of the mean
aerodynamic chord is called
a. Leading edge center of gravity
b. Trailing edge mean aerodynamic chord
c. Leading edge mean aerodynamic chord
d. Leading edge datum line

23. The center of gravity of the dry operating weight is called

a. Arm
b. Load index
c. Dry operating index
d. Weight index

For questions 24-29, please refer to the load sheet extract figure 1.1

24. What is the maximum take-off weight for this aircraft?

a. 71500
b. 89000
c. 75500
d. Information is not provided

25. What is the maximum zero fuel weight for this aircraft?
a. 71500
b. 89000
c. 75500
d. Information is not provided

26. What is the maximum landing weight for this aircraft?

a. 71500
b. 89000
c. 75500
d. Information is not provided

27. What is the maximum ramp weight for this aircraft?

a. 71500
b. 89000
c. 75500
d. Information is not provided

28. What is the payload

a. 7700
b. 18147
c. 3000
d. Information is not provided

29. If you are the commander of this flight, should you have any concerns about
any of the load sheet data?
a. Yes, the total traffic load is higher than normal.
b. Yes, the actual landing weight computed is very close to the maximum landing
weight.
c. No, nothing to be observed.
d. Yes, the dry operating weight appears inaccurate.
30. Refer to the fulcrum in figure 1.2. If 100 kilos is placed at station 15. How
much weight should be placed in station 10 to balance the fulcrum. The
fulcrum is in the middle of the bar.
a. 100 kilos
b. 150 kilos
c. 50 kilos
d. 200 kilos

31. Refer to the fulcrum in figure 1.2. If 100 kilos is placed at station 15. How
much weight should be placed in station 5 to balance the fulcrum. The
fulcrum is in the middle of the bar.
a. 100 kilos
b. 150 kilos
c. 50 kilos
d. 200 kilos

FIGURES

Figure 1.1 Load sheet extract

Figure 1.2 Fulcrum

ABC Chapter 9

Performance

1. In flight, the higher the Mach number:

A. The higher the Ram Rise
 B. The lower the Ram Rise.
C. No effect on the Ram Rise.

2. Indicated Altitude is:

A. The altitude as indicated on the altimeter when the altimeter sub-
scale is set to QNH
B. The altitude as indicated on the altimeter when the altimeter sub-
scale is set to QFE.
C. The altitude as indicated on the altimeter when the altimeter sub-
scale is set to QNE.

3-VMCA is the:
A.Minimum flight speed at which the airplane is controllable utilizing
aerodynamic controls alone (Maximum rudder deflection only), when
one engine suddenly becomes inoperative with the remaining engines
are operating at takeoff thrust
B.The minimum speed for flap retraction.
C.The minimum speed for aircraft rotation during take off.

4.The Maximum Tire Speed is the upper limit of the:

A.VLOF
B.V2 speed
C.VR speed.

5.V1 speeds are selected based on the following:

A.Aircraft weight, flap setting, OAT, Press Altitude, wind, slope
B.ƚŚƌĞƐŚŽůĚŚĞŝŐŚƚŽĨϱϬŌ
C.ƚŚƌĞƐŚŽůĚŚĞŝŐŚƚŽĨϭϱŌ

6.Take off "FIRST SEGMENT":

A.Extends ĨƌŽŵƚŚĞĞŶĚŽĨƚŚĞƚĂŬĞŽī ĚŝƐƚĂŶĐĞ;ϯϱŌƉŽŝŶƚͿ͕ƚŽƚŚĞ
point where the landing gear is fully retracted, using takeoff thrust
and takeoff flaps at a constant V2 speed
 B.džƚĞŶĚƐĨƌŽŵƚŚĞĞŶĚŽĨƚŚĞƚĂŬĞŽī ĚŝƐƚĂŶĐĞ;ϯϱŌƉŽŝŶƚͿ͕ƚŽƚŚĞ
point of flap retraction
C.džƚĞŶĚƐĨƌŽŵƚŚĞĞŶĚŽĨƚŚĞƚĂŬĞŽī ĚŝƐƚĂŶĐĞ;ϯϱŌƉŽŝŶƚͿ͕ƚŽƚŚĞ
point where the aircraft reaches the Green Dot speed

7.At any given weight and speed (Mach No.), the higher the altitude:
A.The lower the load factor and the narrower Maneuver Margin
B.The higher the load factor and the narrower Maneuver Margin.
C.The lower the load factor and the wider Maneuver Margin.

8.The regulations require a gross weight that will permit the airplane
to meet the approach and landing climb gradients, in case of go
around, the minimum approach climb gradients for two engines
aircrafts are as follows:
A.2.1 %
B.2.4 %
C.2.7 %

9.For the destination airport, regulations require that, the

demonstrated landing distance (without reverse thrust) based on
the landing weight estimated from normal fuel consumption, may
not exceed (for wet runway):
A.At least 115% of the landing distance required for a dry runway
B.At least 110% of the landing distance required for a dry runway
C.At least 105% of the landing distance required for a dry runway

10.VREF is equal to:

A.ϭ͘ϯs Ɛ;ƐƚĂůůƐƉĞĞĚŝŶůĂŶĚŝŶŐĐŽŶĮ ŐƵƌĂƟŽŶͿ͕ϭ͘Ϯϯs ƐϭŐ
B.ϭ͘Ϯs Ɛ;ƐƚĂůůƐƉĞĞĚŝŶůĂŶĚŝŶŐĐŽŶĮ ŐƵƌĂƟŽŶͿ͕ϭ͘ϭϯs ƐϭŐ
C.ϭ͘ϭϱs Ɛ;ƐƚĂůůƐƉĞĞĚŝŶůĂŶĚŝŶŐĐŽŶĮ ŐƵƌĂƟŽŶͿ͕ϭ͘Ϭϱs ƐϭŐ
1. Ram rise is caused by
a. Changes in atmospheric pressure only
b. Changes in atmospheric temperature only
c. Compressibility
2. Which of the following temperature values is measured by the aircraft probes directly
a. TAT
b. RAT
c. SAT

3. Altitude means elevation above

a. Ground level
b. Means sea level
c. Any assumed reference level

4. If the ambient temperature is higher than the standard temperature, the airplane
flies at a
a. Lower level than indicated
b. Higher level than indicated
c. Same level as the indicated

5. What is the minimum speed at which control of the aircraft on ground can be
maintained with the critical engine failed
a. VMCG
b. VMCA
c. VS1G

6. Which airport has the highest VMCG (Ignoring the aerodynamic forces on the flight controls)
a. Cairo International Airport (Elev. Circa 450 feet)
b. Addis Abeba Bole International Airport (Elev. Circa 7,600 feet)
c. Kastrup International Airport, Copenhagen, Denmark (Elev. Circa 20 feet)

7. VLOF depends on
a. Angle of attack only
b. Angle of attack and gross weight only
c. None of the above

8. Which statement of the following is correct

a. VLOF should always be higher than the tire speed
b. VLOF should always be lower than the tire speed
c. VLOF shouldn’t be compared to the tire speed

9. When is tire failure most expected

a. High Elevation Airports
b. Low Elevation Airports
c. Tire failure is not related to elevation

10. Which of the following statements is correct

a. V1 should always be lower than VMCG
b. V1 should always be higher than VMCG
c. V1 should always be higher than V2

11. If V1 today is 140KIAS, and an engine failure occurred at 90KIAS

a. Takeoff should be rejected
b. Takeoff should be continued
c. Engine failure should occur before the V1

12. V1 is
a. A decision speed whether to abort takeoff or continue, if engine failure has occurred
b. The takeoff climb safety speed
c. None of the above

13. VR might not be less than V1 and

a. 1.2 VS
b. 1.13 VS1G
c. 1.05 VMCA

14. If the horizontal distances from the beginning of ground roll to the screen height
above the takeoff surface (with a failure in the critical engine recognized at V1) is
2,000 meters. And the 115% of the horizontal distance, starting from ground roll to
the screen height (with all engines operating) is 1,500 meters:
a. The TODR is 2,000 meters, because the longest distance shall be taken
b. The TODR is 1,500 meters, because the shortest distance shall be taken
c. The TODA is 1,750 meters

15. ASDR is
a. The distance from break release accelerating to V1
b. The distance from the break release to the acceleration height
c. None of the above

16. TODA is
a. Runway length available for takeoff plus any adjoining stop way
b. Runway length available for takeoff only even if there is adjoining stop way (no clearway)
c. The distance from break release to acceleration height

17. Which of the following statements is correct

a. For takeoff calculations, clearway can be taken into consideration for aborted takeoff
b. For takeoff calculations, clearway can have any dimensions
c. None of the above

18. For A320 and B737-800, the second segment climb gradient required is
a. 3%
b. 2.7%
c. 2.4%

19. During the first segment, the aircraft should be using

a. Takeoff thrust, with takeoff flaps and at final climb speed
b. Climb thrust, with takeoff flaps and at V2
c. Takeoff thrust, with takeoff flaps and at V2

20. The third segment can start from

a. 400 feet MSL
b. 400 feet ground height
c. 1,000 feet minimum

21. The takeoff four segments are based on

a. Any takeoff
b. Only all engines operating takeoffs
c. Only with the critical engine failed

22. Which of the following items can always be controlled by pilots to enhance takeoff
performance
a. Runway slope
b. Airplane configuration
c. Runway conditions

23. Which of the following runways has the highest ASD in Cairo international airport
a. Runway 23C (slope 0.05%)
b. Runway 05C (slope -0.05%)
c. Runway slope only affects TOD, not the ASD

24. Head wind components, compared to tail wind components,

a. Increase ASD
b. Decrease ASD
c. Has no effects on ASD
25. Takeoff weights is always
a. Higher in wet runways compared to dry runways (given all other factors constant),
because the aircraft has antiskid system
b. Higher in dry Runways compared to wet runways (given all other factors constant)
c. Might be either higher or lower for dry runways and wet runways, because of the lower
screen height

26. You are flying A321, what is the minimum rate of climb you should maintain in the
second segment, given your ground speed is 180KIAS
a. 437 foot per minute
b. 537 foot per minute
c. 637 foot per minute

27. Climb gradient capabilities is affected by adjusting

a. V1
b. V2
c. Neither V1 nor V2

28. Increasing V1
a. Reduce the TOD
b. Increase the TOD
c. Reduce the ASD

29. The maximum engine rated power

a. Can be achieved at any temperature
b. Limited to temperatures lower than TMAX
c. Limited to temperatures lower than TREF

30. Higher engine power is expected in which of the following airports

a. Cairo International Airport (Elev. Circa 450 feet)
b. Rafik El Hariri International Airport, Lebanon (Elev. Circa 100 feet)
c. Barajes International, Madrid (Elev. 2,000 feet)

31. In Cairo, higher engine power is expected in which of the following conditions
a. Summer
b. Winter
c. The season has no effects on the engine power

32. Thrust reduction is allowed,

a. But the reduced thrust should not be lower than 75% of the full rated thrust
b. But the reduced thrust should not be lower than 25% of the full rated thrust
c. With no limits
33. Flying the B738, which of the following de-rates
de has the least VMCG
a. De-rate 1
b. De-rate 2
c. VMCG is not related to de--rates

34. When using 40°C flex temperature

a. VMCG will be lower than using the ambient temperature,
temperature which is 25°C
b. VMCG will be higher than using the ambient temperature,
temperature which is 25°C
c. VMCG will be the same

35. Improved climb utilize more runway length to accelerate to higher speeds, which
increase
a. ASD
b. TOD
c. Climb gradient

Based on the above figure answer the following questions

36. The ambient temperature is -1°C, and the wind is calm, what is the V1
a. 149
b. 155
c. 151
d. 158

37. The ambient temperature is -1°C, and wind is calm, what is the maximum allowed
takeoff weight
a. 83.3Kg
b. 82,200Kg
c. 80,500Kg

38. If the ambient temperature is 31°C, wind is calm and the takeoff weight is only
78,800Kg, what is the maximum allowed flex temperature
a. -1°C
b. -16°C
c. None of the above

39. If the ambient temperature is -1°C, wind is calm and the takeoff weight is only
79,500Kg, what is the maximum allowed flex temperature
a. 31°C
b. 29°C
c. None of the above

40. If a pilot is requested to climb to FL120 within 20 miles, he/she should maintain
a. Best rate of climb
b. Best angle of climb
c. Best angle of descent

41. If a pilot is requested to climb to FL120 within 20 minutes, he/she should maintain
a. Best rate of climb
b. Best angle of climb
c. Best rate of descent

42. Load factor increases with

a. Increasing angle of bank
b. Decreasing angle of bank
c. None of the above

43. Equivalent 1G gross weight is equal to

a. Actual weight multiplied by Load factor
b. Actual weight divided by Load factor
c. Actual weight plus by Load factor

44. At any given weight and speed (Mach no),

a. The higher the altitude, the higher the load factor
b. The higher the altitude, the lower the load factor
c. None of the above

45. At any given weight and speed (Mach no),

a. The higher the altitude, the wider the load factor
b. The higher the altitude, the narrower the load factor
c. None of the above

46. Flying far above optimum altitude is accompanied by

a. Significant reduction in load factor
b. Significant increase in load factor
c. Increase the maneuvering ability

47. Endurance is
a. The maximum distance the aircraft can fly given the fuel on board
b. Gliding distance the aircraft can fly with both engine failure
c. The maximum time the aircraft can fly given the fuel on board

48. Specific range is

a. The maximum time the aircraft can fly given the fuel on board
b. The specific distance per unit of fuel
c. None of the above

49. What are the factors affecting Specific Range

a. Altitude and weight only
b. Altitude only
c. Altitude, speed and weight

50. The best fuel mileage occurs at

a. Optimum altitude
b. Maximum altitude
c. None of the above

51. As fuel on board is consumed, the optimum altitude

a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Doesn’t change

52. The maximum range is achieved when flying with

a. MRC speed
b. LRC speed
c. Best rate of climb speed
53. The aircraft is cruising at FL370, what is the distance required to descend to FL300
without deceleration
a. 21 miles approximately
b. 111 miles approximately
c. 31 miles approximately
54. The aircraft is cruising at FL370 with a tail wind component of 60knots, what is the distance
required to descend to descend to FL100 without considering deceleration
a. 99 miles approximately
b. 117 miles approximately
c. 127 miles approximately

55. What is the approach climb gradient for a two engine aircraft
a. 2.1%
b. 3.2%
c. 2.7%

56. What is the landing climb gradient

a. 3.0%
b. 3.2%
c. 2.7%

57. The approach climb gradient is calculated based on

a. Approach flaps, landing gear retracted, T/O thrust on all engines
b. Landing flaps, landing gear retracted, T/O thrust on all engines
c. None of the above

58. Given two engine aircraft, the landing climb gradient is calculated based on
a. Landing flaps, landing gear extended, T/O thrust on remaining engines (one engine inoperative)
b. Landing flaps, landing gear extended, T/O thrust on all engines
c. Landing flaps, landing gear retracted, T/O thrust on all engines

59. VREF =
a. 1.2 VS
b. 1.1 VS
c. 1.3 VS
 ABC Chapter 10
INSTRUMENT

1- VOR is a ground based facility that provides 360 radials, each radial is
represented in degrees and the 0° radial (360°) is aligned with the…….
a- magnetic north,
b- true north
Quiz

2- VOR weak point(s):

a- rely on line of sight
b- low accuracy
C-both

3-NDB doesn’t need the receiver to be in a clear straight line of sight

while receiving its signal.
A-True
B- False Quiz

4- Localizer transmitter is in the axis of the runway, but on its other end,
opposite to the direction of approach.
A-TRUE
B-FALSE Quiz

5-DME readings for the speed and time might be erroneous if the
airplane is flying in any direction other than to or from the station.
A-TRUE
B-FALSE

Quiz
6- ILS Category I (CAT I).Is A precision instrument approach and landing
with a decision height not lower than 200 feet (61 m) above touchdown
njŽŶĞĞůĞǀĂƟŽŶĂŶĚǁ ŝƚŚĞŝƚŚĞƌĂǀŝƐŝďŝůŝƚLJŶŽƚůĞƐƐƚŚĂŶϴϬϬŵĞƚĞƌƐ
;Ϯ͕ϲϮϱ&ƚ͘ͿŽƌĂƌƵŶǁ ĂLJǀŝƐƵĂůƌĂŶŐĞŶŽƚůĞƐƐƚŚĂŶϱϱϬŵĞƚĞƌƐ;ϭ͕ϴϬϰŌ͘Ϳ
A-TRUE
B-FALSE Quiz

7- The still air time for flying the inbound leg of a holding pattern should
not exceed (…) min if at or below 14 000 Ft. ASL, or (…) min if above 14
ϬϬϬ&ƚ͘^>͘t ŝŶĚĐŽƌƌĞĐƟŽŶŝƐƚŚĞƉŝůŽƚ͛ƐƌĞƐƉŽŶƐŝďŝůŝƚLJ͘
A-1min, 1.5min
B-1.5min,1min
C-1,2min

ABC Chapter 11
OFP

1- the alternate fuel should be sufficient for:

a) a missed approach , A climb , The cruise ,The descent , approach
and landing at the alternate aerodrome
b)the cruise only
c) a missed approach , A climb , The cruise and hold 30 min above
the alternate aerodrome

2-If two alternates are required, the alternate fuel shall be sufficient to
get to
a) the alternate requiring the less amount of fuel
b) the alternate requiring the greater amount of fuel. Quiz
c) the alternate requiring greater distance
 3-If the actual fuel used is significantly greater than the estimated fuel
used then you might have to consider
a) Back to departure airport
b) diverting to either en-route alternate or a nearer destination
alternate
c) Proceed normally to destination airport

4-Taxi fuel must not be less than the fuel expected to be used for
engine start up and taxi to the take-off position, taking into account
a) taxi distances and anticipated traffic delays at the departure
aerodrome
b) taxi distances only
c) Non of the above Quiz

5-Trip fuel must not be less than the fuel expected to be used for
a) take-off, climb to the expected cruising level/altitude
b) en-route, descent, approach and landing
c) all
Quiz
6-A contingency is a chance occurrence or unforeseen event.
Contingency fuel is carried to compensate for deviations from:
a) the expected fuel consumption data for the individual airplane;
b) the forecast meteorological conditions; and/or planned routing
and expected altitudes.
c) All
Quiz
7) OFP layout , Threshold Elevation for Destination a/p format in
a) NM
b) feet
c) meter
 ABC Chapter 12
Metrological

1-How can the stability of atmosphere be determined ?

A-From the dry adiabatic laps rate .
B-from the surface temperature change.
C-from the environmental laps rate.

2-Fog is Reported at destination Airport ,This is mean that

A-dŚĞs /^ŝƐůĞƐƐƚŚĂŶϭϬϬϬŌ
B-The VIS is more than 1000 m
C-The VIS is less than 1000 m

3-The Characteristics of Anticyclone is

A-Poor VIS ,Nil precipitation and Light Wind
B-Good VIS , Nil precipitation and strong Wind
C- Poor VIS ,Nil precipitation and Strong Wind

4- Absolute Stability if
A-Environmental Laps Rate is Higher than Saturated Adiabatic Laps Rate
B- Environmental Laps Rate is equal to Saturated Adiabatic Laps Rate
C- Environmental Laps Rate is smaller than Saturated Adiabatic Laps Rate

5-Cloud Turbulence formed if ?

A-Wind speed 8 KT or more and strong Turbulence on ground
B-Humidity must be enough near the ground
C-All of the above
6-If Air mass passing over colder area
A-Become Colder , more stable and Reduction in R/H
B-Become Colder , more unstable and increase R/H
C- Become Colder , more stable and increase R/H

7-In mature Stage of Thunderstorm Characterized by

A- Žǁ ŶĚƌĂŌϮϬϬϬƚŽϯϬϬϬ&WD ĂŶĚƵƉĚƌĂŌĂƐŵƵĐŚas 10000 FPM
B-Top may be 50,000' and Gust Front 17 mils ahead
Quiz
C-All of them

8-VIS in case of Fog is

A-D ŽƌĞƚŚĂŶϭϬϬϬŌ
B-less Than 1000m
C-1000 m to about 5000 m

9-The environmental in which A/C icing in most like to have the highest
rate of accumulation is
A-heavy wet snow Quiz
B-Freezing rain
C-Freezing Drizzle

10-Clouds not contain Water droplets but consist of ice crystal only it is
A-Cumulonimbus cloud
B-Nimb Stratus Cloud
C-Cirriform Cloud

11-Thunderstorm are obscured by other mass of clouds called

A-Isolated Thunderstorm
B-Embedded Thunderstorm
C-Frequent Thunderstorm

12-If there are (TSVC) codes in METAR or TAF that is means

A-Thunderstorm Visual Clouds
B-Temperature Standard in Vertical cloud
C-Thunderstorm not on A/D but in Vicinity

13-The trend in METAR such as NOSIC , TEMPO and BECOM are

A-2 hrs Report make METARE 2 hrs validity from start
B-2 hrs Forecast make METAR 2 hrs validity from start
C-1/2 hr Forecast not affected the METAR validity

14-If Thunderstorm has to be over flown , maintain at least

A-5000 meter
B-3000 feet
C-5000 feet

ABC Chapter 13
ATC

1-Runway Visual Range will be Reported in the ATIS when the Visibility is
A-1500 m or less
B-less than 1500 m
C-less than 400 m

2-The unites responsible for controlling Traffic in the control zone are
A-ACC and APP
B-TWR and TEM
C-APP and TWR

3-CTOT implies that the aircraft should Take-Off

A-t ŝƚŚŝŶϱŵŝŶďĞĨŽƌĞŽƌϭϬŵŝŶĂŌĞƌƚŚĞdK d
B-t ŝƚŚŝŶϭϬŵŝŶďĞĨŽƌĞŽƌϱŵŝŶĂŌĞƌƚŚĞdK d Quiz
C--t ŝƚŚŝŶϱŵŝŶďĞĨŽƌĞŽƌϭϱŵŝŶĂŌĞƌƚŚĞdK d
4-you are flying in a NON Zs ^D ĂŝƌƐƉĂĐĞĂŶĚLJŽƵƌD ĂŐŶĞƟĐdƌĂĐŬŝƐϮϳϬ
your flight level will be
A-310
B-330
C-340

5-One of the cases that require ATC notification is

A-Variance in time is excess of +-3 min from the next applicable
reporting point
B-Variance in time is excess of +-5 min from the next applicable
reporting point
C-Variance in time is excess of +-10 min from the next applicable
reporting point

6-Communication failure is not conceders an emergency

A-True
B-False

7-Which code is used for unlawful interference

A-7700
B-7600 Quiz
C-7500

ABC Chapter 14
JEPPESEN

1-If the Runway width is 45 m , then the number of stripes are ?

A-16
B- 12
C-4 Quiz

2-Information regarding Stockholm Radio are found in which chapter?

A-En-route chapter
B-Metrology chapter
C-Radio Aids chapter

3-Advisary massage for volcanic ash activities are found in chapter ?

A-ATC chapter
B-Tables and Codes chapter
C-Metrology chapter

4-Which chapter contains information for conversing from MPS to Knot?

A-Tables and Codes
B-ATC
C-En-route

5-If you are confused about the signal that has been given to you by a
Marshall , in which chapter can you find the meaning of this signal ?
A-Tables and Code chapter
B-ATC
C-introduction

6-The Radio communication Failure procedures are found in ATC chapter

A-True
B-False

7- The ICAO location identifier for BERLIN Airport is ?

A-EDDF
B-EDEB
C-EDDB

8-dŚĞ&ŝƌĞ&ŝŐŚƟŶŐĂƚĞŐŽƌLJĨŽƌD ƵŶŝĐŚŝƌƉŽƌƚŝƐϵĂŶĚϭϬŽŶƌĞƋƵĞƐƚ
A-True
B-False

Quiz
9-What kind of Runway surface for runway o5C , 23R in Cairo Airport ?
A-Concrete
B-Asphalt
C-Grooved

10-What is the Runway Width for Runway 23L in Cairo

A-45 m
B-60 m
C-30 m

11-WĂƉŝŐƵŝĚĂŶĐĞĂƌĞůŽĐĂƚĞĚŽŶƚŚĞůĞŌƐŝĚĞŽŶůLJĨŽƌZƵŶǁ ĂLJϬϱZĂƚ
Cairo Airport
A-True
B-False

12-What is the Final Approach Course For (RNAV) App Runway 05C in
Cairo ?
A-045
B-047
C-048

13-What is the ATIS Freq for Munich Airport ?

A-123.12
B-123.14
C-123.16

14-which runway are grooved in Munich Airport ?

A-RWY 08L/26R
B-RWY 08R/26L
C-All RWY
 ABC Chapter 15
OM-A

1-What is your personal document? 1.9.2

A-FCOM and Checklist
B-OM-A and Checklist
C-Valid license, valid passports, ID card

2-Is it allow for flight crew to fly more than one type 4.5
A-yes
B-false

3- CRM Recurrent training should be done by 5.3.1.3

A-pilots only
B-Cabin Crew only
C-Suitably qualified personal

4-Ground service facilities is not one of the criteria of selection an

aerodrome 8.1.2
A-TRUE
B-False

5-t ŚĂƚŝƐƚŚĞĮ ƌĞĮ ŐŚƟŶŐĨŽƌϯϮϭ͍

A-5
B-6
C-7
6-What layers are covered by SICWC 8.1.5.2?
A-3 layers FL 100-FL 200 FL 310
B-2 layers FL 100-FL 250
C-1 layer FL 300

7-what is the Weight for passenger and baggage 8.1.8.3

A-5KG
B-6KG
C-8KG

8-The captain shall ensure that the amount of fuel remaining in flight is
excess of fuel required for safe landing with 8.3.7.3
A-45 min
B-40 min
C-30 min

9-Repetitive Flight Plan RPL is filed to be operated on regular basis at the

ƐĂŵĞƟŵĞĂŶĚĚĂLJϴ͘ϭ͘ϵ͘Ϯ
A-True
B-False

10-By how many miles should you avoid an echo of the CB cloud at FL
270? 8.3.8.2.6
A-20 miles
B-15 miles
C-20 miles
 GSOP
1-G.S.O.P must be adhered to by all crewmember ?
A-True
B-False

2-loudspeakers must be set at the lowest audible volume ,when flight

operation dictates the use of headsets
A-True
B-False

3-an engine failure during take-off is consider to be an emergency ?

A-Yes
B-False

4-Leavinig the cockpit to the Mid/Aft section of any aircraft is allowed

for safety reason only
A-True
B-false

5-TTENTION CREW AT STAION is the PIC in prepared emergency

A-True
B-False

6-Reporting for duty on time is the responsibility of the company

transportation
A-True
B-False
7-D ĂdžŝŵƵŵZĂƚĞK Ĩ ĞƐĐĞŶƚĚŽǁ ŶƚŽĂŶůƟƚƵĚĞŽĨϰϬϬϬĨĞĞƚŝƐ
A-6000 feet/min
B-5000 feet/min
C-4000 feet/min