64-YN401MA

Home Assignment-01
DURATION: 180 Minutes DATE: 14/08/2025 M.MARKS: 720

Topics Covered

Physics: Syllabus as Milestone Test 01

Chemistry: Syllabus as Milestone Test 01
Botany: Syllabus as Milestone Test 01
Zoology: Syllabus as Milestone Test 01

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 180 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (four options
with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 45 questions in
each subjects.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks
are 720.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer
Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
 (PHYSICS)
8. A body travels uniformly a distance of (13.8 ± 0.2)
m in a time (4.0 ± 0.3) s. The velocity of the body
1. Find the value of tan 135º;
(1) 1 (2) –1 within error limits is;
(3) (4) 2 (1) (3.45 ± 0.2) ms–1
(2) (3.45 ± 0.3) ms–1
2. Which of the following physical quantities has the (3) (3.45 ± 0.4) ms–1
same dimensions as that of energy; (4) (3.45 ± 0.5) ms–1
(1) Power
(2) Force 9. In a new system of units, unit of mass is 10 kg,
(3) Linear momentum unit of length is 1 km and unit of time is 1 min.
(4) Work The value of 1 joule in this new hypothetical
system is;
3. In vernier caliper, the difference between the (1) 3.6 × 10–4 new units
value of one main scale division and one vernier (2) 6 × 107 new units
scale division is known as; (3) 1011 new units
(1) Least count
(4) 1.67 × 104 new units
(2) Error count
(3) Actual reading
10. Find the value of (8)5/3?
(4) Vernier calibration
(1) 16 (2) 8
4. If force (F), length (L) and time (T) are assumed (3) 32 (4) 4
to be the fundamental units, then the dimensional
formula of the mass will be; 11. The coordinates of a particle moving in X-Y plane
(1) [FL–1 T2] (2) [FL–1 T–2] vary with time t as x = 4t2, y = 2t. The locus of the
–1 –1 particle is a;
(3) [FL T ] (4) FL2T2]
(1) Straight line
5. Resistance of a given wire is obtained by measuring (2) Circle
the current flowing in it and the voltage difference (3) Parabola
applied across it. If the percentage errors in the (4) Ellipse
measurement of the current I and the voltage a t2
a
difference V are 3% each, then maximum percentage 12. The dimensions of in the equation p
b bx
error in calculating the value of resistance R of the
(where p is pressure, x is distance and t is time),
wire is; (V = IR)
are;
(1) 6% (2) Zero
(1) [M2 LT–3] (2) [MT–2]
(3) 1% (4) 3%
(3) [LT–3] (4) [ML3T–1]
11
6. The value of x 2 dx is; 13. If the value of the resistance is 10.845 Ω and the
value of the current is 3.23 A, then the value of
(where c is constant of integration)
potential difference to the correct significant
2 13/2 13 2/13
(1) x c (2) x c figures would be; (Use V = IR)
13 2
(1) 35 V
2 9/2 2 11/2
(3) x c (4) x c (2) 35.0 V
9 9
(3) 35. 03V
7. The length, breadth and thickness of a block is (4) 35.029 V
measured to be 50 cm, 2.0 cm and 1.00 cm. The
percentage error in the measurement of its volume dy
14. If y xe x then is;
is; dx
(1) 0.8 % (2) 8 % (1) ex + xx (2) ex (x + 1)
(3) 10 % (4) 12.5 % (3) e2x (4) ex
15. The sum of the first five multiples of 3 (including 3) 22. One side of a cubical block is measured with the
is; help of a vernier calipers of least count 0.01 cm.
(1) 45 (2) 55 This side comes out to be 1.23 cm. What is the
(3) 65 (4) 75 percentage error in the measurement of area?
1.23
(1) 100
16. The dimensions of physical quantity X in the 0.01
X 0.01
equation, force = is given by; (2) 100
1.23
Density
0.01
(3) 2 100
(1) M 1L4T 2
1.23
(2) M 2 L 2T 1
(4) 3
0.01
100
1.23
(3) M 3/2 L 1/2T 2

3/2
(4) M L 1/2T 2
23. Assertion (A): Random errors arise due to
random and unpredictable fluctuations in
17. The shape of graph for the equation y = 2x by experimental conditions.
plotting it in the cartesian plane will be; Reason (R): Random errors occur irregularly and
(1) Circle are random with respect to sign and size.
(2) Straight line (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(3) Parabola and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(4) Hyperbola Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
18. Find the value of (1 + x)1/2 if x << 1; but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
x
(1) 1 (2) (1 + x) (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is
2 false.
x x (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(3) 1– (4) 1–
2 3
1 1 1 1 1
24. Find sum of series 1 – – – ...... :
19. The radius of a wire is 0.24 mm, then its area of 2 4 8 16 32
cross-section by taking significant figures into 3 4
(1) (2)
consideration is; 4 3
(1) 0.1 mm2 2 3
(3) (4)
(2) 0.2 mm2 3 2
(3) 0.18 mm2
25. Find using binomial approximation method value
(4) 0.180 mm2
of 104 ;
20. The numbers of significant figures for the (1) 10.2
(2) 10.3
numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are
(3) 11.0
respectively;
(4) 10.5
(1) 4, 4, 2
(2) 5, 1, 2 26. If velocity v varies with time t as v = t2, then the
(3) 5, 1, 5 plot between v and t2 will be given as:
(4) 5, 5, 2

21. If unit of length, mass and time each are doubled, (1) (2)
the unit of work done is increased to;
(1) 4 times
(2) 6 times
(3) 8 times (3) (4)
(4) 2 times
 x 2
27. log5 ( x) log5 ( y) 2, find the value of ; 33. Solve integral t 2 – 1 dt ;
y
–2
(1) 100 (2) 25
3 4
(3) 50 (4) 75 (1) (2)
4 3
28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1 2
(3) (4)
A. A screw gauge having a smaller value of 4 3
pitch has greater accuracy.
B. The least count of screw gauge is directly 34. Find the area of the curve y = sin x between x 0
proportional to the number of divisions on
to x
circular scale.
(1) Only A (1) 2 sq. unit (2) 5 sq. unit
(2) Only B (3) 4 sq. unit (4) Zero
(3) Both A and B
(4) Both statements are incorrect. 35. Match the following List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
29. Correct graph of equation 3x + 3y + 1 = 0 is;
(A) x 2 y2 a2 (I) Ellipse

x2 y2
(B) 1 (II) Rectangular hyperbola
(1) (2) a2 b2

(C) xy constant (III) Parabola

(D) y kx 2 (IV) Circle

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

(3) (4)
(2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
d 100
30. (e ) ......
dx
(1) e100 (2) 0 36. 1 cos is equal to;
(3) 100e999 (4) None of these
(1) 2 sin (2) 2 cos
2 2
31. Statement I: When percentage errors in the 1 1
measurement of mass and velocity are 1% and 2% (3) sin (4) cos
2 2 2 2
respectively, then percentage error in calculating
kinetic energy is 5%.
1 2 E m 2 v 37. Assertion (A): When we change the unit of
Statement II: E mv , . measurement of a quantity, its numerical value
2 E m v
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. changes.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is Reason (R): Smaller the unit of measurement,
incorrect. smaller is its numerical value.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
correct.
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(4) Statement I and statement II both are
incorrect. Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
32. The minimum value of function y 5x2 2 x 1 is; but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
1 2 of Assertion (A).
(1) (2) (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
5 5
4 3 (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is
(3) (4)
5 5 true.
38. For y = (x – 2)2, what is the maximum/minimum 42. Which of the following is the smallest unit of
value and the point at which y is length?
maximum/minimum? (1) Millimeter
(1) max 1 at x = –1 (2) Angstrom
(2) max 0 at x = 2 (3) Fermi
(3) min 1 at x = –1 (4) Metre
(4) min 0 at x = 2
43. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is
39. Statement-I: Two physical quantities having l
same dimensions, may have different units. given by T 2 where l is 100 cm and is
g
Statement-II: Shake and light year, both measure
known to have 1 mm accuracy. The period is
time.
about 2s. The time of 100 oscillations is measured
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
by a stopwatch of least count 0.1 s. The
percentage error in g is;
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(1) 0.1% (2) 1%
incorrect.
(3) 0.2% (4) 0.8%
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and statement II both are 44. Taking into account of the significant figures,
incorrect. what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m?
(1) 9.98 m (2) 9.980 m
40. A new system of units is proposed in which, unit (3) 9.9 m (4) 9.9801m
of mass is kg, unit of length is m and unit of
time is s. What will be value of 5 J in this new 45. As increases from 0º to 90º, the value of cos ;
system? (1) Continuously increases
(1) 5 2 –2 (2) 5 –1 –2 2 (2) Continuously decreases
(3) Remains constant
(3) 5 –2 –1 –2 (4) 5 –1 2 2
(4) First decreases then increase
41. Distance between points (2, 3, –7) and (–2, 0, 5)
is;
(1) 5 (2) 13
(3) 145 (4) 119
 CHEMISTRY

46. If 1 mL of water contains 20 drops, then number (1) 25% (2) 20%
of molecules in a drop of water is (3) 5% (4) None of these
(1) 6.023 × 1023 (2) 1.376 × 1026
21 53. The volume occupied by 20 𝑔 water at 1.2 𝑎𝑡𝑚
(3) 1.673 × 10 (4) 4.346 × 1020
and 4∘ 𝐶 is about
20×0.082×227
47. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) (1) 20𝑚𝑙 (2) 18×1.2
𝐿
carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. 20×0.082×4
(3) 18×1.2
𝐿 (4) 20 𝐿
The right option for the empirical formula of this
compound is: [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] 54. The charge on 1 gram ion of Al3+ is
(1) CH2 (2) CH3 (1)
1
× 𝑁𝐴 × 𝑒 Coulomb
27
(3) CH4 (4) CH 1
(2) 3
× 𝑁𝐴 × 𝑒 Coulomb
1
48. The number of oxygen atoms present in 24.5 gm (3) × 𝑁𝐴 × 𝑒 Coulomb
9
of H3PO4 is equal to: (4) 3 × NA × e Coulomb
(1) Number of electrons present in 16 gm
methane (CH4). 55. 1.26 𝑔 of hydrated oxalic acid was dissolved in
(2) Number of molecule of CO2 present in 11.2 water to prepare 250𝑚𝑙 of solution. Calculate
lit. at STP. molarity of solution.
(3) Number of moles of proton present in one (1) 0.04𝑀 (2) 0.02𝑀
gm-atom of Hydrogen. (3) 0.01𝑀 (4) 0.50𝑀
4
(4) Number of total atoms present in mol of
3 56. The correct conversion of the following into basic
CO2. units.
(i) 28.7 𝑝𝑚 (ii) 15.15 𝜇𝑠 (iii) 25365 𝑚𝑔
49. How a sample of calcium carbonate (CaCO3) has (1) (i) → 28.7 × 10−11 𝑚 , (ii) → 1.515 ×
the following percentage composition :
10−6 𝑠, (iii) → 2.5365 × 10−3 𝑘𝑔
Ca = 40%, C = 12%, O = 48%
(2) (i) → 2.87 × 10−11 𝑚 , (ii) → 1.515 ×
If the law of constant proportions is true, then the
10−5 𝑠, (iii) → 2.5365 × 10−2 𝑘𝑔
weight of calcium in 4g of a sample of calcium
(3) (i) → 2.87 × 10−10 𝑚 , (ii) → 1.515 ×
carbonate obtained from another source will be
10−5 𝑠, (iii) → 2.5365 × 10−3 𝑘𝑔
(Gram atomic mass of Ca = 40 g, O = 16 g and C
(4) (i) → 2.87 × 10−10 𝑚 , (ii) → 1.515 ×
= 12 g)
(1) 0.016 g (2) 0.16 g 10−6 𝑠, (iii) → 2.5365 × 10−2 𝑘𝑔
(3) 1.6 g (4) 16 g 57. The number of water molecules is maximum in
(1) 1.8 gram of water
50. Mass of 0.1 mole of methane is (2) 18 gram of water
(1) 1 𝑔 (2) 16 𝑔 (3) 18 moles of water
(3) 1.6 𝑔 (4) 0.1 𝑔 (4) 18 molecules of water

51. Which of the following correctly represents 170 g 58. Calculate the mole percentage of 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 and
of ammonia? 𝐻2 𝑂 respectively in 60% (by mass) aqueous
(1) 10 mole of ammonia solution of 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻.
(2) 100 mole of ammonia (1) 45.8,54.2 (2) 54.2,45.8
(3) 22.4 litre of ammonia at STP (3) 50, 50 (4) 60, 40
(4) 6.022 × 1023 molecule of ammonia
59. A sample of oxygen gas has the same mass as that
of 1 lakh molecules of methane. The sample
52. Calculate the concentration in terms of mass by
contains 5 × 10𝑥 molecules of oxygen gas. The
volume percentage of the solution containing, 2.5
value of x is
g potassium chloride in 50 ml of potassium
(1) 6 (2) 4
chloride (KCl) solution ?
(3) 3 (4) 5
60. The empirical formula of a compound of 68. The haemoglobin from red blood corpuscles of
molecular mass 120 𝑢 is 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂 . The molecular most mammals contain approximately 0.33% of
formula of the compound is : iron by mass. The molecular mass of haemoglobin
(1) 𝐶2 𝐻4 𝑂2 (2) 𝐶4 𝐻8 𝑂4 is 67200. The number of iron atoms in each
(3) 𝐶3 𝐻6 𝑂3 (4) all of these molecule of haemoglobin is:
(1) 3 (2) 4
61. Equal weight of X (At. wt. = 36 ) and Y (At. wt. (3) 2 (4) 6
= 24 ) are reacted to form the compound 𝑋2 𝑌3 .
Then 69. How many moles of KMnO4 are required to
(1) 𝑋 is the limiting reagent oxidise one mole of SnCl2 in acidic medium ?
1 2
(2) 𝑌 is the limiting reagent (1) (2)
5 5
(3) No reactant is left over and mass of 𝑋2 𝑌3 3 4
(3) (4)
formed is double the mass of 𝑋 taken 5 5

(4) none of these

70. What is the value of a and b respectively in the
62. How many atoms of gold are present in 19.7 kg of given reaction?
gold ? (At ωt of Au = 197) al− (aq) + bMnO−4 (aq) + dH2 O(𝑙)

(1) 6.022 × 1024 (2) 6.022 × 1023 a

→ I2 ( s) + bMnO2 ( s) + 2dOH − (aq)
(3) 6.022 × 1025 (4) 6.022 × 1021 2
(1) 2 and 6 (2) 6 and 2
63. What volume of 0.10𝑀𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 must be added to (3) 4 and 6 (4) 6 and 4
50 𝑚𝐿 of a 0.10𝑀𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 solution to make a
solution in which the molarity of the 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 is 71. Volumetric estimation of 𝐶𝑢𝑆𝑂4 using hypo as
0.050𝑀 ? intermediate solution along with 𝐾𝐼 solution and
(1) 400 𝑚𝐿 (2) 50 𝑚𝐿 starch as indicator is an example of:
(3) 100 𝑚𝐿 (4) 150 𝑚𝐿 (1) Redox titration
(2) Precipitation titration
64. The weight of 1 molecule of the compound (3) Acid-base titration
C60H122 is …………(NA = 6.0 × 1023) (4) None of these
(1) 1.4 × 10–21 g (2) 1.09 × 10–21 g
(3) 5.025 × 1023 g (4) 16.023 × 1023 g 72. In basic medium, 𝐶𝑟𝑂42− oxidises 𝑆2 𝑂32− to form
𝑆𝑂42− and itself changes to 𝐶𝑟(𝑂𝐻)−
4 . How many
2−
65. The molarity of a solution of sodium chloride 𝑚𝐿 of 0.154𝑀 𝐶𝑟𝑂4 are required to react with
(molar wt. = 58.5) in water contain 5.85 gm of 40 𝑚𝐿 of 0.246 𝑀 𝑆2 𝑂32−
sodium chloride in 500 ml of solution is (1) 200 𝑚𝐿 (2) 156.4 𝑚𝐿
(1) 0.25 (2) 2.0 (3) 170.4 𝑚𝐿 (4) 190.4 𝑚𝐿
(3) 1.0 (4) 0.2
73. Equivalent weight of carbon in CO and CO2 are in
66. 10 mole of 𝐴2 𝐵3 contains 100𝑔𝑚 of 𝐴 atom & the ratio of
60𝑔𝑚 of 𝐵 atoms. Choose the correct statements- (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(A) Molecular weight of 𝐴2 𝐵3 is equal to 16 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
(B) Atomic weight of 𝐴 is equal to 5
(C) Weight of one atom of 𝐵 is equal to 2 74. The equivalent weight of FeS2 in the following
(D) Atomic weight of 𝐵 is equal to 6 reaction is
(1) A, B, C (2) A, B FeS2 + O2 → Fe3+ + SO2
𝑀𝑜𝑙.𝑤𝑡 𝑀𝑜𝑙.𝑤𝑡
(3) C, D (4) A, B, D (1) (2)
1 7
𝑀𝑜𝑙.𝑤𝑡 𝑀𝑜𝑙.𝑤𝑡
(3) (4)
67. Mass of one atom of the element A is 3.9854 × 10– 11 9
23
g. How many atoms are contained in 1 g of the
element A ? 75. Which ordering of compounds is according to the
(1) 2.509 × 1023 (2) 6.022 × 1023 decreasing order of the oxidation state of
(3) 12.044 × 1023 (4) None of these nitrogen?
 (1) 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 , 𝑁𝑂2 , 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙, 𝑁2 83. Assign A, B, C, D from given type of reactions.
(2) 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 , 𝑁𝑂, 𝑁2 , 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙
(3) 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 , 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙, 𝑁𝑂, 𝑁2 (1) A for disproportionation reaction.
(4) 𝑁𝑂, 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 , 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙, 𝑁2 (2) B for comproportionation reaction.
(3) 𝐶 for either intermolecular redox reaction or
76. In the reaction given below the Zn goes under displacement reaction.
which one of the given options (4) 𝐷 for either thermal combination redox
𝑍𝑛 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝑍𝑛𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐻2 reaction or thermal decomposition redox
reaction.
(1) Reduction
(2) Oxidation 84. The oxidation state of central bromine atom in
(3) Both oxidation and reduction 𝐵𝑟3 𝑂8 is
(4) None of these (1) +2 (2) +4
(3) +6 (4) +7
77. The sum of oxidation states of sulphur in 𝐻2 𝑆2 𝑂8
is 85. The values of 𝑥 and 𝑦 in the following redox
(1) +2 (2) +6 reaction, 𝑥𝐶𝑙2 + 6𝑂𝐻 − → 𝐶𝑙𝑂3− + 𝑦𝐶𝑙 − + 3𝐻2 𝑂
(3) +7 (4) +12 are
(1) 𝑥 = 2, 𝑦 = 4 (2) 𝑥 = 5, 𝑦 = 3
78. Both oxidation and reduction takes place in : (3) 𝑥 = 3, 𝑦 = 5 (4) 𝑥 = 4, 𝑦 = 2
(1) NaBr + HCl → NaCl + HBr
(2) HBr + AgNO3 → AgBr + HNO3 86. In the reaction, 2𝑁𝑎 + 𝐻2 → 2𝑁𝑎𝐻, identify the
(3) H2 + Br2 → 2HBr reductant.
(4) CaO + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O (1) Hydrogen gas (2) Sodium metal
(3) Sodium hydride (4) All of these
79. Oxidation number of Cr atom in CrO5 and K3CrO8
respectively. 87. Equivalent weight of 𝑀𝑛3+ in the following
(1) +6, +6 (2) +5, +6 reaction is (Mn=55)
(3) +6, +5 (4) +5, +5 𝑀𝑛3+ → 𝑀𝑛2+ + 𝑀𝑛𝑂2
(1) 27.5 (2) 55
80. How many moles of 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 are needed to oxidise (3) 110 (4) 165
a mixture of 1 mole of each 𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4 and 𝐹𝑒𝐶2 𝑂4 in
acidic medium? 88. Calculate the equivalent weight of 𝐾𝐻𝐶2 𝑂4 when
(1)
4
(2)
5 it is neutralised by KOH.
5 4
3 5 (1) 128 (2) 64
(3) 4
(4) 3 (3) 42 (4) None of these

81. Which reaction does not represent auto redox or 89. The oxidation number of 𝐶 in
disproportionation? 𝐶𝐻4 , 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑙, 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑙2 , 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙3 and 𝐶𝐶𝑙4 is
(1) 𝐶𝑙2 + 𝑂𝐻 − → 𝐶𝑙 − + 𝐶𝑙𝑂3− + 𝐻2 𝑂 respectively
(2) 2𝐻2 𝑂2 → 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝑂2 (1) −4, −2,0, +2, +4 (2) +2,4,0, −2, −4
(3) 2𝐶𝑢+ → 𝐶𝑢2+ + 𝐶𝑢 (3) 4,2,0, −2,4 (4) 0,2, −2,4,4
(4) (𝑁𝐻4 )2 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂7 → 𝑁2 + 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂3 + 4𝐻2 𝑂
82. Oxidation state of sulphur in Na2S2O3 and 90. When 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 is reduced with oxalic acid in
Na2S4O6 acidic solution, the oxidation number of Mn
(1) 4 and 6 (2) 3 and 5 changes from:
(3) 2 and 2.5 (4) 6 and 6 (1) 7 to 4 (2) 6 to 4
(3) 7 to 2 (4) 4 to 2
 BOTANY

91. Which of the following must be features of a Assertion A: Larger and more numerous nucleoli
unicellular organism for its survival? are present in cells actively carrying out protein
A. Presence of a cell wall synthesis.
B. Independent existence Reason R: Nucleolus is a site for active ribosomal
C. Ability to perform all essential life functions protein synthesis.
D. Presence of membrane-bound organelles In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) A and B only (2) C and D only correct answer from the options given below:
(3) B and C only (4) A and D only (1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
92. Identify the correct sequence of transport of a (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
protein that is packaged and delivered to explanation of A.
intracellular targets or secreted outside the cell. (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(1) Nucleus → ER → trans face of GB → cis face explanation of A.
of GB
(2) SER → trans face of GB → cis face of GB 97. Given below are two statements:
(3) RER → cis face of GB → lysosome → trans Statement-I: Both lysosomes and vacuoles are
face of GB endomembrane structures, yet they differ in terms
(4) RER → cis face of GB → trans face of GB of their functions.
Statement-II: Polar molecules cannot pass
93. Which of the following organelles are double through the nonpolar lipid bilayer, but water,
membrane bound and divide by fission? despite being polar, can diffuse across the
A. Centrioles B. Plastids membrane.
C. Mitochondria D. Vacuoles In the light of the above statements, choose the
E. Lysosomes correct answer from the options given below.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
below: incorrect.
(1) B and C only (2) A, B and C only (2) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
(3) C, D and E only (4) A, B, C, D and E correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
94. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. incorrect.
Assertion A: ER helps in the transport of
substances, synthesis of proteins, lipoproteins and 98. Identify A, B, C and D of the given diagram and
glycogen. select the correct option.
Reason R: The secretions of cells are packed in
ER and transported out from the cell. In the light
of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true. (1) A - Middle lamella, B - Primary cell wall, C -
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Plasma membrane, D - Secondary cell wall
explanation of A. (2) A - Primary cell wall, B - Secondary cell wall,
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct C- Middle lamella, D - Plasma membrane
explanation of A. (3) A - Plasma membrane, B - Middle lamella, C
- Secondary cell wall, D - Primary cell wall
95. Which of the following is correct regarding (4) A - Secondary cell wall, B - Plasma
chromatin? membrane, C - Primary cell wall, D - Middle
(1) It contains DNA, histones, some non-histone lamella
proteins but no RNA.
(2) It appears as a loose and indistinct network of 99. Which of the following is not a common feature
fibres throughout the cell division. between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
(3) It was stained by the acidic dyes and was given (1) Plasma membrane is made up of lipids and
the name chromatin by Flemming. proteins.
(4) These are a type of nucleoprotein fibres. (2) Presence of ribosomes.
(3) Flagella arising from basal body with 9 + 2
96. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as arrangement of microtubule.
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. (4) Cytoplasm occupies the volume of the cell.
100. Which of the following is incorrect? (1) A, B and C only (2) D and E only
(1) Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria (3) A, B and D only (4) A, B, D and E only
differ in composition of their cell envelopes.
(2) Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria 105. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
differ in their response to the Gram staining facilitated transport?
procedure.
(1) Require a carrier protein for transport
(3) Gram-negative bacteria take up the Gram
stain. (2) Involves movement of polar molecules
(4) Glycocalyx differs in composition and (3) Movement of molecules is along the gradient
thickness among different bacteria. (4) Require energy for transport of molecules.

101. Identify the correct increasing order of size of 106. Identify the type of chromosome for each of the
following organelles or structures. following structural features:
A. Ribosomes B. Golgi apparatus A. The centromere is located exactly in the
C. Chloroplast middle, forming two equal arms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given B. The centromere is located close to one end,
below:
forming one very short and one very long arm.
(1) A < B < C (2) B < A < C
(3) C < A < B (4) B < C < A C. The centromere is at the terminal end of the
chromosome.
102. Identify the incorrectly matched pair. D. The centromere is slightly away from the
(1) George Palade – Ribosomes middle, forming one short and one long arm.
(2) Singer and Nicolson - fluid mosaic model of Choose the correct answer from the options given
plasma membrane below:
(3) Matthias Schleiden - Presence of cell wall in (1) A–Metacentric, B–Acrocentric, C–
plant cells is a unique character Telocentric, D–Sub-metacentric
(4) Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek – First saw live (2) A–Sub-metacentric, B–Metacentric, C–
cells
Acrocentric, D–Telocentric
103. Which of the following features are found in both (3) A–Acrocentric, B–Telocentric, C–
animal and plant cells? Submetacentric, D–Metacentric
A. Presence of organelle having cartwheel like (4) A–Metacentric, B–Sub-metacentric, C–
structure. Acrocentric, D–Telocentric
B. Cytoplasmic connections between two cells.
C. An outer membrane as the delimiting structure 107. Ribosomes with 50S and 30S subunits are found
of the cell. in/on all, except:
D. Double membrane bound structure that (1) Chloroplast
contains DNA and synthesise ATP (2) Mitochondria
E. Extensive and continuous structure with the
(3) Chlamydomonas
outer membrane of the nucleus.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
below.
(1) A and B only (2) D and E only 108. Which of the following is correct about intergranal
(3) A, C and D only (4) A, D and E only thylakoid?
(1) It connects the thylakoids of the different
104. Identify the correct set of statements regarding grana.
plasma membrane. (2) It contains thylakoids arranged in stacks called
A. Phospholipids are major lipids in plasma grana, like piles of coins.
membrane. (3) It contains stroma at centre.
B. The inward-facing hydrophobic tail protects
(4) It is also known as stroma lamellae.
the nonpolar hydrocarbon chain from the
aqueous environment.
C. Integral proteins can be easily extracted from 109. Which of the following features is not common in
the membrane. chloroplast and mitochondria?
D. Lateral movement of proteins is possible due (1) Presence of double membrane.
to quasi-fluid nature of lipid. (2) Presence of circular DNA molecule and
E. Glycoproteins and cholesterols are also found ribosomes.
in plasma membrane. (3) Their number can vary in different species.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) Called as powerhouse of the cell for producing
below: ATP.
110. Which of the following is common between the (2) Endoplasmic reticulum consists of a network
structure of centrioles and cilia/flagella? of membranous tubules and helps in transport,
(1) Presence of 9 peripheral doublet microtubules. synthesis and secretion.
(2) Presence of radial spokes (3) Leucoplasts are bound by two membranes,
(3) A central sheath encloses central lack pigment, but contain their own DNA and
microtubules.
protein-synthesizing machinery.
(4) Enclosed by plasma membrane
(4) Lysosomes are double-membraned vesicles
111. Which of the following statements correctly budded off from the Golgi apparatus and
describes the organelle involved in the synthesis of contain digestive enzymes.
steroidal hormones?
(1) It has ribosomes attached to its outer surface 116. A scientist filters a solution containing a mixture
and is involved in protein synthesis. of the following:
(2) It is a double membrane-bound organelle with A. Typical bacteria
cristae and generates cellular ATP. B. PPLO (Mycoplasma)
(3) It is the major site for synthesis of lipid. C. Viruses
(4) It contains cisternae, vesicles, and tubules
D. Typical eukaryotic cells
involved in protein glycosylation and
packaging. The filter used has a pore size of 5 micrometres.
Which of the following will be present in the
112. Which of the following cellular processes would filtrate?
be most directly affected if the fluid nature of the (1) C and B only (2) A, B and C only
plasma membrane were disrupted? (3) C only (4) A, B, C and D
(1) Glycosylation process
(2) ATP synthesis in mitochondria 117. A bacterial cell loses its plasmid due to exposure
(3) Secretion, endocytosis, cell division to a certain chemical. Which of the following
(4) DNA replication in the nucleus functions is most likely to be lost first?
(1) DNA replication
113. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: The structure that gives rise to (2) Cell wall synthesis
spindle apparatus during cell division in animal (3) Antibiotic resistance
cells is surrounded by amorphous pericentriolar (4) Protein synthesis
material.
Statement-II: Centrioles form the basal bodies 118. Which of the following structures/organelles of a
(centriole-like structures) from which cilia and cell do not possess components required for
flagella emerge. synthesis of proteins?
(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is A. Cytoplasm
incorrect. B. Mitochondria
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
C. Nucleus
correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. D. Lysosomes
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are E. Chloroplast
incorrect. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
114. For the formation of ribosomes, rRNA is (1) A, B and C only (2) C and D only
transferred from: (3) C, D and E only (4) B, C and D only
(1) Nucleoplasm to cytoplasm
(2) Cytoplasm to extra-luminal compartment of 119. Consider the following characteristics:
ER I. Presence of membrane-bound organelles.
(3) Cytoplasm to nucleoplasm
II. A true nucleus enclosed by a nuclear envelope.
(4) Golgi complex to peroxisome
III. Genetic material is circular, naked DNA, not
115. Three of the following statements regarding cell enveloped by a nuclear membrane.
organelles are correct while one is wrong. Which IV. Presence of a cell wall in all members.
one is wrong? Which of the above characteristics are exclusively
(1) In vacuole, the membrane facilitates the found in eukaryotic cells?
transport of a number of ions and other (1) I and II only
materials against concentration gradients into (2) II and III only
it. (3) I, II and IV
(4) I, II and III
120. Arrange the following in the increasing order of E. All living organisms are composed of cells and
their size. products of cells.
A. Virus B. PPLO Choose the correct answer from the options given
C. Typical bacteria below:
D. A typical eukaryotic cell (1) A, B and E (2) B, C and D
(3) C, D and E (4) A, C and D
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: 126. Identify the type of transport demonstrated in the
(1) A - B - C - D (2) B - A - D – C diagram below.
(3) C - B - A - D (4) D - C - B – A

121. Which of the following would not be affected if

the Golgi apparatus is removed from a plant cell?
(1) Formation of lysosomes
(2) Glycosylation of proteins
(3) Synthesis of ribosomal RNA
(4) Formation of secretory vesicles

122. Both lysosomes and vacuoles are part of the (1) Simple diffusion (2) Osmosis
endomembrane system, yet they exhibit significant (3) Passive transport (4) Active transport
functional differences. Which of the following
best highlights this difference? 127. Identify the number of true statements and choose
(1) Lysosomes are involved in waste removal, the correct option:
while vacuoles are only for storage. (a) Cell wall helps in cell-to-cell interaction and
(2) Lysosomes primarily perform intracellular provides a barrier to undesirable
macromolecules.
digestion, while vacuoles in plant cells
(b) Algae have cell walls, made of cellulose,
maintain turgor pressure and store sap. galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium
(3) Lysosomes are exclusive to animal cells, while carbonate.
vacuoles are only in plant cells. (c) The cell wall of a mature plant cell, the
(4) Lysosomes are responsible for energy primary wall, is capable of growth.
production, while vacuoles are involved in (d) The middle lamella is a layer mainly of
protein synthesis. calcium carbonate which holds the different
neighboring cells together.
123. The inclusion bodies of a cell that lie freely in the (1) Two (2) Three
cytoplasm and are not bound by any membrane (3) Four (4) One
include all the following, except;
128. Which of the following is not true for
(1) phosphate granules. mitochondria and chloroplasts?
(2) cyanophycean granules. (1) Both contain DNA
(3) glycogen granules. (2) Both are double membrane bound
(4) microbodies. (3) Both contain enzymes for carbohydrate
synthesis
124. A plant cell is treated with an enzyme that digests (4) Both are present only in eukaryotic cells
calcium pectate. Which of the following structures
will be disrupted first? 129. Which of the following statements about
(1) Primary cell wall (2) Secondary cell wall chromosomes is correct?
(1) Chromosomes contain genetic information in
(3) Middle lamella (4) Plasma membrane
the form of lipids, primarily involved in
energy production.
125. Find the correct statements: (2) Chromosomes are composed of proteins only
A. Cell is the structural and functional unit of life. and do not play a role in cellular processes.
B. Anything less than a complete structure of a (3) Chromosomes carry genetic information in the
cell does not ensure independent living. form of DNA, serving as the blueprint for the
C. Unicellular organisms are not capable of cell's structure and function.
performing the essential functions of life. (4) Chromosomes are static structures within the
D. The compound microscope revealed all the cell and do not participate in cell division or
structural details of the cell. replication.
130. Why is it essential to have a physico-chemical (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
approach to understand the living phenomena? incorrect.
(1) To describe organisms at a macroscopic level (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
and their diversity. correct.
(2) To analyze living tissues for their elemental (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
composition only. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) To describe various biological processes in incorrect.
molecular terms using cell-free systems. 134. Identify the incorrect statements.
(4) To solely understand the evolutionary history A. Glycocalyx gives sticky character to a
of life forms. prokaryotic cell.
B. Glycocalyx could be a thick and tough sheath
131. The functions of lysosomes are not coordinated called the slime layer in some bacteria, while
with; in others it may be loose sheath, called the
(1) ER. (2) mitochondria. capsule.
(3) vacuoles. (4) golgi complex. C. Glycocalyx is the innermost layer of the cell
envelope in prokaryotic cell.
132. The usual axonemal arrangement of microtubules D. The plasma membrane determines the shape
is; of the cell and provides a strong structural
(1) nine doublets of radially arranged peripheral support to prevent the bacterium from bursting
microtubules, and a single centrally located or collapsing.
microtubule. E. he plasma membrane in prokaryotes is
(2) six doublets of radially arranged peripheral structurally similar to that of eukaryotes.
microtubules, and a single centrally located Choose the correct option.
microtubule. (1) A and B (2) B, C and D
(3) six doublets of radially arranged peripheral (3) A, C and D (4) A and C
microtubules, and a pair of centrally located
microtubules. 135. The true statements are;
(4) nine doublets of radially arranged peripheral A. Chloroplasts contain pigments like
microtubules, and a pair of centrally located carotenoids and chlorophyll.
microtubules. B. Chromoplasts store starch and proteins.
C. Leucoplasts are colourless and can store
133. Given below are two statements: nutrients.
Statement I: The size of arms is unequal in D. Grana are stacks of thylakoids in the stroma.
submetacentric and acrocentric chromosomes. E. Aleuroplasts gives the part of the plant a
Statement II: The nuclear pores are formed due to yellow, orange or red colour.
fusion of the two nuclear membranes. (1) A and E only (2) A, C, and D
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) A and D only (4) B, C, and E
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
 ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following is a secretion of an 144. Read the given below statements about compound
endocrine gland? epithelium.
(1) Mucus (2) Saliva A. This tissue has a limited role in secretion and
(3) Hormone (4) Ear wax absorption.
137. Choose the correct option w.r.t cardiac muscle B. It is mainly involved in formation of diffusion
fibres. boundary.
(1) Striated and involuntary C. It is present in the lining of blood vessels.
(2) Striated and voluntary D. It is composed of multilayered cells.
(3) Non-striated and involuntary Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(4) Non-striated and voluntary (1) A and C only (2) B and C only
138. Which of the following connective tissues (3) C and D only (4) A and D only
provides support to the body and serve weight- 145. Given below are two statements.
bearing functions? Statement I: The cuboidal epithelium is
(1) Tendon (2) Bone composed of a single layer of cells.
(3) Ligament (4) Blood Statement II: Ciliated epithelium helps in
139. Which of the following tissues are found in the air
removing mucus in specific direction over the
sacs of lungs?
epithelium.
(1) Cuboidal epithelium
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) Columnar epithelium
correct answer from the options given below
(3) Squamous epithelium
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(4) Compound epithelium
incorrect.
140. Which of the following is/are present in blood?
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) RBCs (2) WBCs
correct.
(3) Platelets (4) All of these
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
141. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground
incorrect.
substance.
146. Which of the following junctions perform
(2) Bones are rich in calcium salts and collagen
cementing to keep neighbouring cells together?
fibres.
(1) Tight junction (2) Gap junction
(3) The bone marrow in all bones is the site of
(3) Adhering junction (4) None of these
production of blood cells.
147. On the basis of structural modification of cells,
(4) The intercellular material of cartilage is solid
simple epithelium is classified into how many
and pliable and resists compression.
types?
142. On the basis of structures and functions, animal
(1) Four (2) Three
tissues are classified into;
(1) 3 types. (2) 2 types. (3) Two (4) One

(3) 1 types. (4) 4 types. 148. Which of the following muscle fibres have tapered

143. Which of the following is present between ends and do not show striations?

adjacent bones of the vertebral column? (1) Smooth muscles fibres

(1) Cartilage (2) Bone (2) Skeletal muscle fibres

(3) Blood (4) Tendon (3) Cardiac muscle fibres
(4) Both (2) and (3)
149. Which of the following tissue covers moist surface Choose the correct answer from the options given
of buccal cavity? below.
(1) Cuboidal epithelium (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) Columnar epithelium (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) Simple squamous epithelium (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(4) Compound epithelium (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

150. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 154. Identify the types of muscles present in the

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. gastrointestinal tract.

Assertion (A): All cells in epithelium are held (1) Skeletal muscles
(2) Smooth muscles
together with little intercellular material.
(3) Cardiac muscles
Reason (R): In epithelium, specialised junctions
(4) All of these
provide both structural and functional links
155. Which of the following junction help to stop
between its individual cells.
substances from leaking across a tissue?
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Tight junction (2) Adhering junction
correct answer from the options given below.
(3) Gap junction (4) All of these
(1) A is true but R is false
156. Which of the following statements is incorrect
(2) A is false but R is true.
w.r.t cuboidal epithelium?
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(1) The cuboidal epithelium have cube-like cells.
explanation of A.
(2) It is found in tubular parts of nephrons in
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
kidneys.
explanation of A.
(3) Its main functions are secretion and absorption
151. Fat storing tissues in our body is;
(4) None of these
(1) areolar tissue. (2) adipose tissue. 157. Salivary gland is a type of;
(3) muscular tissue. (4) epithelial tissue. (1) unicellular gland. (2) multicellular gland.
152. Cartilage is an example of; (3) endocrine gland. (4) none of these
(1) fluid connective tissue. 158. Given below are two statements.
(2) specialised connective tissue. Statement I: Some of the columnar or cuboidal
(3) dense connective tissue. cells get specialised for secretion and are called
(4) loose connective tissue. glandular epithelium.
153. Match List-I with List-II. Statement II: Cells, tissues, organs and organ

List-I List-II systems exhibit division of labour.

In the light of the above statements, choose the
Dense regular correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Bronchiole (I)
connective tissue (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is

Ducts of incorrect.
(B) (II) Ciliated epithelium (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
glands
correct.
(C) Tendon (III) Columnar epithelium
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(D) Stomach (IV) Cuboidal epithelium (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
159. Each muscle is made of many long, cylindrical Compound cells Unicellular glandular
fibres arranged in arrays. (3)
bearing cilia epithelium
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.
(1) parallel (2) transverse Columnar cells Multicellular glandular
(4)
(3) longitudinal (4) lateral bearing cilia epithelium
160. The fibres and fibroblasts are oriented differently
in;
165. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) areolar tissue.
(2) dense irregular connective tissue. List-I List-II

(3) dense regular connective tissue. A. Mast cells I. Voluntary in nature

(4) specialised connective tissue.
161. Which of the following cells of areolar tissue B. Earwax II. Areolar tissue
secrete fibres?
Skeletal
(1) Mast cells (2) Macrophages C. III. Exocrine gland
muscles
(3) Fibroblasts (4) Chondrocytes
162. Flattened cells with irregular boundaries is the D. Goblet cell IV. Unicellular gland
characteristic feature of epithelium which is found
Choose the correct answer from the options given
in;
below.
(1) small intestine.
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) stomach.
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) trachea.
(4) walls of blood vessels. (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

163. Which of the following tissues represents the (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
example of dense regular connective tissue? 166. Which of the following epithelium has nuclei
(1) Skin (2) Cartilage located at their base?
(3) Ligaments (4) Bone (1) Cuboidal epithelium
164. A student was given sample of two tissues. He (2) Columnar epithelium
observed the tissues under the microscope and (3) Squamous epithelium
draws their figures as 𝐀 and 𝐁 given below. (4) Compound epithelium
Identify the tissues 𝐀 and 𝐁. 167. Which of the following statements is/are
incorrect?
A. Lymph is the main circulating fluid in our
body that helps in transport of various
substances.
B. Areolar tissue serves as a support framework

(A) (B) for epithelium.

C. Most of cartilage in vertebrate embryos are
Columnar cells Unicellular glandular
(1) replaced by bones in adult.
bearing cilia epithelium
D. Areolar tissue is present beneath the skin.
Cuboidal cells Multicellular glandular E. The matrix in connective tissues contain
(2)
bearing cilia epithelium modified polysaccharides.
(1) A only (2) B and C only
(3) A, B, C and E only (4) E and D only
168. Compound epithelium is found in; 175. Which of the following is present in outer ear
(1) stomach. joint?
(2) intestine. (1) Cartilage
(3) nephrons of kidney. (2) Bone
(4) pharynx. (3) Blood
169. Bone cells are present in spaces called; (4) Ligament
(1) lamella. (2) lacunae. 176. Given below are two statements.
(3) stroma. (4) matrix. Statement I: The structure of the cells vary
170. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as according to their function.
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Statement II: Muscular tissues perform the
Assertion (A): The main function of compound function of linking and supporting other
epithelium is to provide protection against tissues/organs of body. In the light of the above
chemical and mechanical stresses. statements, choose the correct answer from the
Reason (R): Compound epithelium covers the options given below
inner lining of pancreatic duct. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
In the light of the above statements, choose the incorrect.
correct answer from the options given below. (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) A is true but R is false. correct.
(2) A is false but 𝑅 is true. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
explanation of A. incorrect.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 177. Identify 𝐀, 𝐁 and 𝐂 in the given diagram of
explanation of A. adipose tissue.
171. The bone forming cells are known as;
(1) osteocytes. (2) fibroblasts.
(3) chondrocytes. (4) myofibrils.
172. The fibres present in the connective tissue
provides;
(1) strength only.
(1) A-Cytoplasm, B-Nucleus, C-Cell wall
(2) elasticity and flexibility only.
(2) A-Fat storage area, B-Mast cell, C-Plasma
(3) strength and elasticity only.
membrane
(4) strength, elasticity and flexibility.
(3) A-Cell fluid, B-Collagen fibres, C-Plasma
173. How many types of cell junctions is/are found in
membrane
the epithelium and other animal tissues?
(4) A-Fat storage area, B-Nucleus, C-Plasma
(1) One (2) Two
membrane
(3) Three (4) Four
178. In which of the following tissues intercalated discs
174. Bones are type of;
are present?
(1) adipose tissue.
(1) Smooth muscles fibres
(2) areolar tissue.
(2) Skeletal muscles fibres
(3) dense regular connective tissue.
(3) Cardiac muscles fibres
(4) specialised connective tissue.
(4) All of these
179. Match List-I with List-II. A. In unicellular organisms, all functions are

List-I List-II performed by a single cell.

B. In the complex body of multicellular animals,
(A) Microvilli (I) Nose the same basic functions are carried out by

(B) Ligament (II) Fallopian tube different groups of cells in a well organised
manner.
Connects bone
(C) Cartilage (III) C. Hydra is made of same types of cells and the
to bone
number of cells in each type can be in thousands.

Ciliated D. Dense regular connective tissue is present in

(D) (IV) PCT
epithelium skin.
E. Epithelial tissue have two free surfaces.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) A and B only
below.
(2) A, B and C only
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) B, C and E only
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A, B, C and E only
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
180. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option.

■■■
 64-YN401MA

Home Assignment-01
DURATION: 180 Minutes DATE: 14/08/2025 M.MARKS: 720

ANSWER KEY
(PHYSICS)

1. (2) 10. (3) 19. (3) 28. (1) 37. (3)

2. (4) 11. (3) 20. (2) 29. (4) 38. (4)
3. (1) 12. (2) 21. (4) 30. (2) 39. (2)
4. (1) 13. (2) 22. (3) 31. (1) 40. (2)
5. (1) 14. (2) 23. (2) 32. (3) 41. (2)
6. (1) 15. (1) 24. (3) 33. (2) 42. (3)
7. (2) 16. (3) 25. (1) 34. (1) 43. (3)
8. (2) 17. (2) 26. (1) 35. (3) 44. (1)
9. (1) 18. (1) 27. (2) 36. (2) 45. (2)

(CHEMISTRY)
46. (3) 55. (1) 64. (1) 73. (3) 82. (3)
47. (2) 56. (2) 65. (4) 74. (3) 83. (1)
48. (3) 57. (3) 66. (2) 75. (2) 84. (2)
49. (3) 58. (1) 67. (4) 76. (2) 85. (3)
50. (3) 59. (2) 68. (2) 77. (4) 86. (2)
51. (1) 60. (2) 69. (2) 78. (3) 87. (3)
52. (3) 61. (3) 70. (2) 79. (3) 88. (1)
53. (1) 62. (3) 71. (1) 80. (1) 89. (1)
54. (4) 63. (3) 72. (3) 81. (4) 90. (3)

(BOTANY)
91. (3) 100. (3) 109. (4) 118. (2) 127. (1)
92. (4) 101. (1) 110. (2) 119. (1) 128. (3)
93. (1) 102. (3) 111. (3) 120. (1) 129. (3)
94. (1) 103. (2) 112. (3) 121. (3) 130. (3)
95. (4) 104. (4) 113. (3) 122. (2) 131. (2)
96. (1) 105. (4) 114. (1) 123. (4) 132. (4)
97. (3) 106. (1) 115. (4) 124. (3) 133. (3)
98. (2) 107. (4) 116. (2) 125. (1) 134. (2)
99. (3) 108. (2) 117. (3) 126. (4) 135. (2)

(ZOOLOGY)

136. (3) 145. (3) 154. (2) 163. (3) 172. (4)
137. (1) 146. (3) 155. (1) 164. (4) 173. (3)
138. (2) 147. (2) 156. (4) 165. (1) 174. (4)
139. (3) 148. (1) 157. (2) 166. (2) 175. (1)
140. (4) 149. (4) 158. (3) 167. (1) 176. (1)
141. (3) 150. (4) 159. (1) 168. (4) 177. (4)
142. (4) 151. (2) 160. (2) 169. (2) 178. (3)
143. (1) 152. (2) 161. (3) 170. (4) 179. (2)
144. (2) 153. (3) 162. (4) 171. (1) 180. (1)
 Hints & Solutions

(PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 8. (2)
1. (2) Here, S (13.8 0.2) m
tan (180º – ) = – tan
and t (4.0 0.3)sec
tan 135º = tan (180º – 45º)
Expressing it in percentage error, we have,
= – tan 45º
= –1 distance 13.8
v 3.45
time 4.0
2. (4) v d t 0.2 0.3
Dimensions of energy = Dimensions of work v d t 13.8 4.0
[ ML2T 2
] = 0.089
v 0.089 3.45

3. (1) = 0.30
The difference between the value of one main velocity = (3.45 0.3) m/s
scale division and one vernier scale division is
called least count. 9. (1)
We know that the dimensional formula of energy
4. (1) is [ ML2T 2
]
a b c
Let M KF L T 1 2 2
Substituting the dimension of 1kg 1m 1s
n2 1
2 10kg 1km 1min
[ F ] [MLT ], [ L] [ L] and [T ] [T ]
2 a 1 1 1 3600 4
[MLT ] [ L]b [T ]c [M ] 3.6 10
10 106 (60) 2
10 7

or, [M a ][ La b ][T 2a c
] [M ]
Comparing of both sides, 10. (3)
a 1, a b 0, b 1, 5
3
5/3 3 5/3
2a c 0, c 2a, (8) (2 ) 2 3 25 32
c 2
Finally, we get M FL 1T 2 11. (3)
x = 4t2 and y = 2t x = y2 Parabolic path.
5. (1)
V R V I 12. (2)
R 100 100 100 3 3 6%
I R V I
a t2
Given, p or pbx a t 2
6. (1) bx
11 By the law of homogeneity of dimensional
11 1 13
x2 2 2 equation.
x 2 dx c x c
11 13 Dimensions of a dimensions of t 2 [T 2 ]
1
2
t2
Dimensions of b dimensions of [ M 1T 4 ]
7. (2) px
1 a 2
Percentage error in length 100 2% So, dimensions of is [ MT ].
50 b
0.1
Percentage error in breadth 100 5%
2.0 13. (2)
0.01 V iR 10.845 3.23 35.02935
Percentage error in thickness 100 1%
1.00 We have to retain three significant figures in the
Percentage error in volume 2 5 1 8% result.
14. (2) 23. (2)
y' = ex + xex x
e (x + 1) Random errors are those errors, which occur
irregularly and hence are random with respect to
15. (1) sign and size.
Three, six, nine, twelve, and fifteen are the first five These arise due to random and unpredictable
multiples of three. the sum of 3 + 6 + 9 + 12 + 15 fluctuations in experimental conditions, personal
equals 45. (unbiased) errors by the observer taking reading, etc.
Therefore, Assertion and Reason are correct but
Reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
16. (3)
[X] = [F] × [ ]1/2 24. (3)
1/2 1
M –
= [MLT –2 ] × = [M3/2 L–1/2 T –2 ] This series is G.P. of common ratio r
2
L3
a 1 1 2
S
1– r –1 1 3
17. (2) 1– 1
It will be a straight line passing through (0, 0). 2 2

25. (1)
18. (1) (100 + 4)1/2
(1 x)n 1 nx 1/2
4
1 100 1
(1 x)1/2 1 x 100
2
2
10 1 10(1 0.02) 10(1.02) 10.2
100
19. (3)
Area of cross section 26. (1)
22
0.24 0.24mm2 0.18mm2 Graph between v vs t2 will be a straight line
7 passing through the origin.

20. (2)
In 23.023 number of significant figures will be
because all the zero’s between non zero digits are
significant. In 0.0003, number of significant
figures will be one because all the zero’s before 27. (2)
and after decimal point are insignificant if the
a
number is less than one. In 2.1 × 10–3 number of Using property, log a log b log
b
significant figure are two because power of 10 is
not considered as significant figure. x 2 x
log5 , 52 25
y 1 y
21. (4)
1 2 2 28. (1)
M2 L2 T2
n2 n1 The least count of screw gauge is
M1 L1 T1 Pitch
LC=
Given, M 2 2M1, L2 2L1, T2 2T1 Number of divisions on circular scale
n2 n1[2]1 [2]2 [2] 2
2n1
29. (4)
3x + 3y + 1 = 0
22. (3) 3y = –3x –1
Percentage error in measurement of a side 1
0.01 y –x –
100 3
1.23
A 2 a
A 6a 2 100 100
A a
Percentage error in measurement of area
0.01
2 100
1.23
30. (2) 35. (3)
d
(constant) 0
dx
d 100
or e =0
dx

31. (1)
ΔE Δm 2Δv
= +
E m v
ΔE Δm Δv
×100= ×100 + 2 ×100
E m v
= 1 + 2 (2) = 5%

32. (3) 36. (2)

For finding minimum value, we will first find 1 2cos 2 –1 ( cos 2 2cos 2 – 1)
critical points. 2
dy 2cos 2 2 cos
0
dx 2 2
dy
10 x 2 0 37. (3)
dx
10 x 2
1
nu constant, n .
u
1
x 1 cm = 10 mm. Here, mm is smaller unit.
5 But its numerical value is more.
d2y
Further, 10
dx 2 38. (4)
2
d2y y x–2
Since is positive for all values of y is
d 2x dy
2( x – 2) 0 x 2
dx
1
minimum at x . d2y
5 2 0 So x 2 is a point of minima
2 dx 2
1 1
y 1 5 2 1 ymin (2 – 2)2 0
x 5 5
5

1 2 5 4 39. (2)
5 5 5 5 Two physical quantities having same dimension,
may have different units. For example, angular
33. (2) velocity and frequency both have same dimension
[T–1] but have different units having radians per
2
t3 8 –8 4 second and Hertz respectively. Shake and light
–t –2 – 2
3 3 3 3 year, both measure length.
–2
34. (1) 40. (2)
y dx joule is a unit of energy.
0 n1 = 5 n2 = ?
sin x dx M1 = 1 kg M2 = kg
0
L1 = 1 m L2 = m
[– cos x]0 T1 = 1s T2 = s
–[cos – cos0] Dimensional formula of energy is [ML2T 2
].
– –1 –1 Comparing with [M a LbT c ], we get,
2sq.units a = 1, b = 2, c = –2
 a b c
M1 L1 T1 44. (1)
As, n 2 = n1
M2 L2 T2 The difference between 9.99 m and 0.0099 m is
1 2 –2 = 9.99 – 0.0099 = 9.9801 m
1kg 1m 1s 5γ 2
=5 = = 5α –1β –2 γ 2 9.99 2 digits after decimal
αkg βm γs αβ 2 0.0099 4 digits after decimal
Final result should contain 2 digits after decimal.
41. (2)
Distance 45. (2)
2 2 2 As increases from 0º to 90º,
= x2 – x1 y2 – y1 z2 – z1
At = 0º, cos 0º = 1
2 2 2
= –2 – 2 0–3 5 7 3
At = 30º, cos 30º =
16 9 144 13 2
1
At = 45º, cos 45º =
42. (3) 2
The SI unit of length is meter At = 90º, cos 90º = 0
1 Angstrom = 1/1010 m As increases from 0º to 90º, cos decreases.
1 Millimeter = 1/103 m
1 Fermi = 1/1015 m
Hence, the smallest unit of length is fermi.

43. (3)
4 2l
T 2 l /g T2 4 2
(l /g ) g
T2
Here, % error in
1mm 0.1
l 100 100 0.1%
100cm 100
0.1
And % in error in T 100 0.05%
2 100
% error in g = % error in l + 2 (% error in T)
= 0.1 + 2 × 0.05 = 0.2%
 CHEMISTRY

46.
Video Solution:

50. Text Solution:

Number of moles is equal to given mass by molar
47. Text Solution: mass.
A 78 %‐to‐22 % carbon‐to‐hydrogen ratio 𝑚
𝑛=
corresponds (mole‐ratio) to about C : H = 1 : 3.4. 𝑀
Among the given empirical options, CH₃ is closest 𝑛 is number of moles
(it has 80 % carbon). Hence, the simplest formula 𝑚 is the given mass
matching 78 % C is CH₃. 𝑀 is the molar mass
Video Solution: Given 𝑛 = 0.1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒
Molar mass of methane is 𝐶𝐻4 = 12 + 4 × 1 = 16 𝑔/
𝑚𝑜𝑙
Substituting the values, we get
𝑚
0.1 =
16
𝑚 = 0.1 × 16 = 1.6 𝑔
So, the required mass is 1.6 𝑔
51. Text Solution:
48. Text Solution: 170
Number of mole atoms of O in H3PO4 𝑛𝑁𝐻3 = 17
= 10 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒
24.5
× 4 = 1 mol atom = NA atoms 1 mole of 𝑁𝐻3 = 22.4 litre of gas at STP
98
16 = 6.022 × 1023 molecules
(1) Number of electrons = × 10 × 𝑁𝐴 electron 52.
16
= 10NA electrons Video Solution:
11.2 1
(2) Number of molecules = 22.4 × 𝑁𝐴 = 2 𝑁𝐴
(3) 1 mole of H = 1 mole of P+
4
(4) Total number of atoms = 3 × 3 × 𝑁𝐴
= 4 NA atoms
49. Text Solution:

• A compound: Calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) 53.

• Its percentage composition: Video Solution:
– Calcium (Ca) = 40%
– Carbon (C) = 12%
– Oxygen (O) = 48%
• Mass of a new sample = 4 g
Step-by-step:
According to the Law of Constant Proportions, every
sample of CaCO₃ will have 40% calcium, no
matter the source. 54. Text Solution:
So, in a 4 g sample: 1 gram ion = 1 mole
40 charge = 3 × NA × e Coulomb.
Mass of calcium = × 4 = 1.6 g 55. Text Solution:
100
Video Solution:
 • Hydrated oxalic acid = H₂C₂O₄·2H₂O → M =
126 g mol⁻¹
• n = 1.26 g / 126 g mol⁻¹ = 0.010 mol
• Molarity = n / V = 0.010 mol / 0.250 L = 0.040
M.
Video Solution:

59. Text Solution:

Mass of 𝑂2 = Mass of 105 molecules of 𝐶𝐻4
Molecule of 𝑂2 105
× 32 = × 16
𝑁𝐴 𝑁𝐴
105 × 16
Molecule of 𝑂2 =
32
56. = 0.5 × 10 = 5 × 104
5

Video Solution: The value of x is 4

60.
Video Solution:

57. Text Solution:

61. Text Solution:

• 1.8 g H₂O = 0.1 mol ⇒ ~6.022×10²² molecules
No reactant is left over and mass of 𝑋2 𝑌3 formed
• 18 g H₂O = 1 mol ⇒ 6.022×10²³ molecules
is double the mass of 𝑋 taken
• 18 mol H₂O ⇒ 6.022×10²³ × 18 = ~1.084×10²⁵ Video Solution:
molecules
• 18 molecules of H₂O = just 18
Clearly, 18 mol of water has the greatest number of
molecules.
Video Solution:

62.
Video Solution:

58. Text Solution:

• In 100 g solution: 60 g CH₃OH + 40 g H₂O.

• Moles CH₃OH = 60 / 32 = 1.875.
• Moles H₂O = 40 / 18 ≈ 2.222. 63. Text Solution:
• Total moles ≈ 1.875 + 2.222 = 4.097.
• Moles H₂SO₄ added = 0.10 M × 0.100 L = 0.010
• Mole % CH₃OH ≈ (1.875 / 4.097)×100 ≈ 45.8%
mol
• Mole % H₂O ≈ (2.222 / 4.097)×100 ≈ 54.2%.
• Moles NaOH present = 0.10 M × 0.050 L =
Video Solution:
0.005 mol → consumes 0.0025 mol H₂SO₄ (1 : 2
ratio)
• H₂SO₄ left = 0.010 – 0.0025 = 0.0075 mol
 • Final volume = 50 mL + 100 mL = 150 mL = • It contains 0.33 % iron by mass. Thus, the mass
0.150 L of iron per molecule is 0.0033 × 67 200 ≈
• Molarity = 0.0075 mol / 0.150 L = 0.050 M (as 221.76 amu.
required). • Each Fe atom is about 56 amu, so
Video Solution: 221.76
≈ 3.96 ≈ 4.
56
Hence, each molecule of haemoglobin contains 4 iron
atoms.
Video Solution:

64.
Video Solution:

69.
Video Solution:

65.
Video Solution:

70. Text Solution:

The balanced chemical reaction is:

71. Text Solution:

66. 2CuSO4 + 4Kl → Cu2I2 +2K2SO4 + I2
Video Solution: In the above reaction, the liberated iodine is titrated with
a standard sodium thiosulphate.
2Na2S2O3 + I2 → Na2S4O6 + 2Nal
It is an example of redox reaction.
Video Solution:

67.
Video Solution:

72. Text Solution:

(C) 170.4 𝑚𝐿
Video Solution:

68. Text Solution:

• The haemoglobin molecule has a molar mass of

about 67 200 amu (or g mol⁻¹).
 Therefore, in the reaction Zn + H2 SO4 →
ZnSO4 + H2 , zinc (Zn) undergoes oxidation.
Answer: Option B - Oxidation
Video Solution:

73.
Video Solution:

77.
Video Solution:

74.
Video Solution:

78.
Video Solution:

75.
Video Solution:

79. Text Solution:

The oxidation number of chromium (𝐶𝑟) in 𝐶𝑟𝑂5
is +6 , and in K3CrO8 it is +5 :
Video Solution:

76. Text Solution:

The correct answer is option B
Explaination
In the reaction Zn + H2 SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2 ,
zinc (Zn) undergoes oxidation.
Let's analyze the oxidation state change of zinc in
this reaction: 80. Text Solution:
Equivalent of 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 = Equivalent of 𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4
1. Initial oxidation state of zinc (Zn): In its + Equivalent of 𝐹𝑒𝐶2 𝑂4 .
elemental form, zinc has an oxidation state Moles of 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 × 5 = Moles of 𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4 × 1
of 0. + moles of 𝐹𝑒𝐶2 𝑂4 × 3.
4
2. Final oxidation state of zinc (Zn): In Moles of 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 = 5
ZnSO4 , zinc has an oxidation state of +2. Video Solution:
The oxidation state of zinc increases from 0 to +2.
This increase in oxidation state indicates that zinc
has lost electrons, which is characteristic of
oxidation.
81. Text Solution: 84. Text Solution:

• (A), (B), and (C) each show the same element in

one oxidation state forming two new oxidation
states (disproportionation).
• (D) involves two different elements (N and Cr) Structure of 𝐵𝑟3 𝑂8 (tribromooctaoxide)
changing oxidation states and thus does not 85.
represent an auto‐redox or disproportionation of Video Solution:
a single element.
Video Solution:

86. Text Solution:

Reductant or reducing agent is the one which
82. Text Solution: donates the electron/s.
The correct option is 𝐂 + 2, +2.5 Video Solution:
charge on oxygen atom is = −2
charge on sodium atom is = +1
(i) Let oxidation number of S -atom in 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆2 𝑂3
is x .
∴ (+1) × 2 + (𝑥) × 2 + (−2) × 3 = 0
⇒ 𝑥 = +2
(ii) Let oxidation number of S -atom in 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆4 𝑂6
is x 87. Text Solution:
∴ (+1) × 2 + (𝑥) × 4 + (−2) × 6 = 0 The given disproportionation is effectively
⇒ 𝑥 = +2.5 2 Mn³⁺ ⟶ Mn²⁺ + MnO₂.
Video Solution: One Mn³⁺ is reduced (gain of 1 e⁻), the other is
oxidized (loss of 1 e⁻), so net 1 electron is
transferred per 2 Mn³⁺. Thus per 1 Mn³⁺, the
electron change is ½ e⁻. Its n‐factor = 0.5. So the
equivalent weight = 55 / 0.5 = 110.
Video Solution:

83.
Video Solution:

88. Text Solution:

In pure acid–base neutralization, KHC₂O₄ is
effectively monobasic (it has just one acidic H left,
 because one H⁺ has already been replaced by K⁺).
Hence its n‐factor is 1 in this neutralization with
KOH. Its molar mass is 128 g mol⁻¹ (K=39, H=1,
C₂=24, O₄=64). Thus, the equivalent weight =
128/1 = 128.
Video Solution:

90.
Video Solution:

89.
Video Solution:
 BOTANY

91. Text Solution: nucleus contains chromatin, which is a loose and

(C) indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibres.
A unicellular organism is a complete,
96. Text Solution:
independent living entity that performs all
(A)
essential life functions within a single cell.
Nucleolus is a site for active ribosomal RNA
Presence of a cell wall is not essential for all
synthesis.
unicellular organisms. Eukaryotic unicellular
97. Text Solution:
organisms possess membrane-bound organelles,
(C)
whereas prokaryotes lack them.
Both lysosomes and vacuoles are
92. Text Solution:
endomembrane structures, as their functions are
(D)
coordinated with other organelles of the
Proteins synthesised on ribosomes of the rough
endomembrane system such as the Golgi
ER are transported to the cis face of the Golgi
apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum.
apparatus via vesicles. After processing and
98. Text Solution:
packaging, they exit from the trans face and are
(B)
sent to intracellular targets or secreted outside
A - Primary cell wall, B - Secondary cell wall, C -
the cell.
Middle lamella, D - Plasma membrane
93. Text Solution:
99. Text Solution:
(A)
(C)
Plastids and mitochondria are double membrane-
Eukaryotic flagella arise from basal bodies and
bound organelles that contain their own DNA,
have a 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules.
enabling them to divide by fission, similar to
Prokaryotic flagella do not have microtubules or
bacteria.
a 9 + 2 arrangement.
Centrioles are non-membrane bound organelles.
Vacuoles and lysosomes are single membrane- 100. Text Solution:
bound organelles. (C)
Gram-negative do not take up the gram stain.
94. Text Solution:
(A) 101. Text Solution:
The golgi apparatus principally performs the (A)
function of packaging materials, to be delivered Ribosomes are about 15 nm by 20 nm in size
either to the intra-cellular targets or secreted Golgi apparatus- 0.5µm to 1.0µm diameter
outside the cell. Chloroplast- length (5-10µm) and width (2-4µm)

95. Text Solution: 102. Text Solution:

(D) (C)
Chromatin contains DNA, histone proteins, non- Theodore Schwann concluded that the presence
histone proteins, and RNA. It appears as a loose of cell wall is a unique character of the plant
and indistinct network of fibres in the interphase cells.
nucleus. 103. Text Solution:
It was stained by the basic dyes and was given (B)
the name chromatin by Flemming. The interphase
 Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie 108. Text Solution:
perpendicular to each other in which each has an (B)
organisation like the cartwheel. It is found in Thylakoids are arranged in stacks like the piles of
animal cell but absent in plant cell. coins called grana (singular: granum) or the
Plasmodesmata are cytoplasmic connections intergranal thylakoids.
between two adjacent cells in plants. The outer
109. Text Solution:
and delimiting structure in animal cells is the
(D)
plasma membrane. Mitochondria are double
Mitochondria are called the powerhouse of the
membrane-bound organelles that contain DNA
cell because they produce ATP, the main energy
and are involved in the synthesis of ATP; they are
currency of the cell, through cellular respiration.
present in both animal and plant cells. The
Although chloroplasts synthesize sugars via
extensive and continuous structure associated
photosynthesis, they are not called the
with the outer membrane of the nucleus is the
powerhouse of the cell.
endoplasmic reticulum (ER), which is present in
110. Text Solution:
both animal and plant cells.
(B)
104. Text Solution: In cilium/flagellum, radial spokes connect one of
(D) the peripheral microtubules to the central sheath.
Peripheral proteins can be easily removed, In centriole, peripheral microtubules triples are
whereas integral proteins cannot be extracted connected with central sheath by radial spokes.
easily.
111. Text Solution:
105. Text Solution: (C)
(D) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is the
Facilitated transport is a passive process. It does major site for synthesis of lipid. Rough
not require energy. Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) has ribosomes
106. Text Solution: attached to its outer surface and is involved in
(A) protein synthesis. Mitochondrion is a double
The metacentric chromosome has middle membrane-bound organelle with cristae and
centromere forming two equal arms of the generates cellular ATP. Golgi Apparatus contains
chromosome. The sub-metacentric chromosome cisternae, vesicles, and tubules involved in
has centromere slightly away from the middle of protein glycosylation and packaging.
the chromosome resulting into one shorter arm 112. Text Solution:
and one longer arm. In case of acrocentric (C)
chromosome the centromere is situated close to The fluid nature of the membrane is also
its end forming one extremely short and one
important from the point of view of functions like
very long arm, whereas the telocentric
cell growth, formation of intercellular junctions,
chromosome has a terminal centromere.
secretion, endocytosis, cell division etc. If fluid
107. Text Solution: nature of the plasma membrane were disrupted,
(D) these functions would be affected.
70S ribosomes, composed of 50S and 30S 113. Text Solution:
subunits, are found in prokaryotes, mitochondria, (C)
and chloroplasts. RER contains 80S ribosomes Centrosome is an organelle usually containing
made of 60S and 40S subunits. two cylindrical structures called centrioles. They
 NEET

are surrounded by amorphous pericentriolar Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound

materials. The centrioles form the basal body of organelles and a true nucleus. Prokaryotes have
cilia or flagella, and spindle fibres that give rise circular, naked DNA and lack membrane-bound
to spindle apparatus during cell division in animal organelles. The presence of a cell wall is not
cells. exclusive to eukaryotes (e.g., bacteria have cell
walls).
114. Text Solution:
(A) 120. Text Solution:
rRNA is synthesised in the nucleolus and then
transferred from the nucleoplasm to the
cytoplasm for the formation of ribosomes.

115. Text Solution:

(D)
Lysosomes are single membrane-bound vesicular Diagram showing comparison of eukaryotic cell
structures formed by the process of packaging in with other organisms
the Golgi apparatus.
121. Text Solution:
116. Text Solution: The golgi apparatus principally performs the
(B) function of packaging materials, to be delivered
Viruses (0.02–0.2 µm), PPLO (~0.1 µm), and either to the intra-cellular targets or secreted
typical bacteria (1–2 µm) are all smaller than the outside the cell. Materials to be packaged in the
5 µm filter pore size, so they pass through. form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the cis
Typical eukaryotic cells are larger and get face of the golgi apparatus and move towards
retained. the maturing face. Golgi apparatus is the
117. Text Solution: important site of formation of glycoproteins and
In addition to the genomic DNA (the single glycolipids. The content of nucleolus is
chromosome/circular DNA), many bacteria have continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm as it
small circular DNA outside the genomic DNA. is not a membrane bound structure. It is a site for
These smaller DNA are called plasmids. The active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
plasmid DNA confers certain unique phenotypic 122. Text Solution:
characters to such bacteria. One such character is Lysosomes primarily perform intracellular
resistance to antibiotics. So, if plasmids are lost, digestion, while vacuoles in plant cells maintain
the first affected trait would be resistance to turgor pressure and store sap.
antibiotics.
123. Text Solution:
118. Text Solution: Reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in
Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis. They the cytoplasm in the form of inclusion bodies.
are present in cytoplasm of all cells. The These are not bound by any membrane system
mitochondrial matrix also possesses single and lie free in the cytoplasm, e.g., phosphate
circular DNA molecule, a few RNA molecules, granules, cyanophycean granules and glycogen
ribosomes (70S) and the components required granules. Many membrane bound minute vesicles
for the synthesis of proteins. The stroma of the called microbodies that contain various enzymes,
chloroplast contains enzymes required for the are present in both plant and animal cells.
synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins.
124. Text Solution:
119. Text Solution:
 Algae have cell wall, made of cellulose, which ATP is utilised and is called active
galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium transport, e.g., Na+/K+ Pump.
carbonate, while in other plants it consists of
cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins and proteins. The
middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium
pectate which holds or glues the different
neighbouring cells together. Therefore, enzyme
that digests calcium pectate will disrupt it first.

125. Text Solution:

Unicellular organisms are capable of
(i) independent existence and
(ii) performing the essential functions of life.
Anything less than a complete structure of a cell 127. Text Solution:
does not ensure independent living. Hence, cell is The cell wall of a young plant cell, the primary
the fundamental structural and functional unit of wall is capable of growth, which gradually
all living organisms. Cell theory as understood diminishes as the cell matures and the secondary
today is: wall is formed on the inner (towards membrane)
(i) all living organisms are composed of cells and side of the cell. The middle lamella is a layer
products of cells. mainly of calcium pectate which holds or glues
(ii) all cells arise from pre-existing cells. the different neighbouring cells together.

126. Text Solution: 128. Text Solution:

One of the most important functions of the The mitochondrial matrix possesses single
plasma membrane is the transport of the circular DNA molecule, a few RNA molecules,
molecules across it. The membrane is selectively ribosomes (70S) and the components required
permeable to some molecules present on either for the synthesis of proteins.
side of it. Many molecules can move briefly 129. Text Solution:
across the membrane without any requirement Chromosomes carry genetic information in the
of energy and this is called the passive transport. form of DNA, serving as the blueprint for the
Neutral solutes may move across the membrane cell's structure and function including cell
by the process of simple diffusion along the division and replication of DNA.
concentration gradient, i.e., from higher
130. Text Solution:
concentration to the lower. Water may also move
Cell theory created a sense of mystery around
across this membrane from higher to lower
living phenomena, i.e., physiological and
concentration. Movement of water by diffusion is
behavioural processes. This mystery was the
called osmosis. As the polar molecules cannot
requirement of integrity of cellular organisation
pass through the non-polar lipid bilayer, they
for living phenomena to be demonstrated or
require a carrier protein of the membrane to
observed. In studying and understanding the
facilitate their transport across the membrane. A
physiological and behavioural processes, one
few ions or molecules are transported across the
can take a physico-chemical approach and use
membrane against their concentration gradient,
cell-free systems to investigate. This approach
i.e., from lower to the higher concentration. Such
enables us to describe the various processes in
a transport is an energy dependent process, in
molecular terms. The approach is established by
 analysis of living tissues for elements and Most prokaryotic cells, particularly the bacterial
compounds. cells, have a chemically complex cell envelope.
The cell envelope consists of a tightly bound
131. Text Solution:
three layered structure i.e., the outermost
While each of the membranous organelles is
glycocalyx followed by the cell wall and then the
distinct in terms of its structure and function,
plasma membrane. Glycocalyx differs in
many of these are considered together as an
composition and thickness among
endomembrane system because their functions
different bacteria. It could be a loose sheath
are coordinated. The endomembrane system
called the slime layer in some, while in others it
include endoplasmic reticulum (ER), golgi
may be thick and tough, called the capsule. The
complex, lysosomes and vacuoles. Since the
cell wall determines the shape of the cell and
functions of the mitochondria, chloroplast and
provides a strong structural support to prevent
peroxisomes are not coordinated with the above
the bacterium from bursting or collapsing. The
components, these are not considered as part of
plasma membrane is selectively permeable in
the endomembrane system.
nature and interacts with the outside world. This
132. Text Solution:
membrane is similar structurally to that of the
The electron microscopic study of a cilium or the
eukaryotes.
flagellum show that they are covered with
plasma membrane. Their core called the 135. Text Solution:

axoneme, possesses a number of microtubules The chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and

running parallel to the long axis. The axoneme carotenoid pigments which are responsible for

usually has nine doublets of radially arranged trapping light energy essential for

peripheral microtubules, and a pair of centrally photosynthesis. In the chromoplasts, fat soluble

located microtubules. Such an arrangement of carotenoid pigments like carotene, xanthophylls

axonemal microtubules is referred to as the 9+2 and others are present. This gives the part of the

array. plant a yellow, orange or red colour. The

leucoplasts are the colourless plastids of varied
133. Text Solution:
shapes and sizes with stored nutrients:
At a number of places the nuclear envelope is
Amyloplasts store carbohydrates (starch), e.g.,
interrupted by minute pores, which are formed
potato; elaioplasts store oils and fats whereas the
by the fusion of its two membranes. These
aleuroplasts store proteins. The space limited by
nuclear pores are the passages through which
the inner membrane of the chloroplast is called
movement of RNA and protein molecules takes
the stroma. A number of organised flattened
place in both directions between the nucleus and
membranous sacs called the thylakoids, are
the cytoplasm. The sub-metacentric chromosome
present in the stroma. Thylakoids are arranged in
has centromere slightly away from the middle of
stacks like the piles of coins called grana
the chromosome resulting into one shorter arm
(singular: granum) or the intergranal thylakoids.
and one longer arm. In case of acrocentric
chromosome the centromere is situated close to
its end forming one extremely short and one
very long arm.
ncert-100,101

134. Text Solution: