All India Test Series (2024-25)

AITS Practice Test

DURATION
DURATION:: 200
90 Minutes
Minutes DATE: 08/09/2024 M. MARKS: 720

Topics Covered

Physics: Units and Measurements, Mathematical Tools

Chemistry: Structure of Atom, Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Botany: Cell: The Unit of Life
Zoology: Structural Organization in Animals (including Frog)

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four options with a single
correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two
sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185).
All Questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200).
In section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the question paper. In the
event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks are 720.
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc.
inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the
candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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 [AITS Practice Test | 11th-NEET | 08-09-2024]
Units and Measurements, Mathematical Tools

(PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 6. In the measured value 0.0021020, the number of
zeroes that are significant is/are
1. For the straight-line y = 2x + 3, the x intercept is:
(1) 4 (2) 5
(1) 3 (2) –3
(3) 2 (4) 1
3 3
(3) − (4)
2 2
7. Integrate  (sin x + cos x) dx . (c is integration
2. The value of 2sin15° cos15° after simplification is: constant)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) cosx + sinx + c
3 1 (2) – cosx – sinx + c
(3) (4)
4 2 (3) cosx – sinx + c
(4) – cosx + sinx + c
3. An experiment measures quantities a, b and c, and
8. If in a new system of units, the unit of length is
ab2
X is calculated from X = 3 . If the percentage 10 m, mass is 10 kg and time is 1 minute then what
c
is the unit of linear momentum in this new system?
error in a, b and c are ±1%, ±3% and ±2%
5
respectively, the percentage error in X will be: (1) kg-m/s
3
(1) ±13%
3
(2) ±7% (2) kg-m/s
(3) ±4% 5
(4) ±1% 4
(3) kg-m/s
3
4. A circular arc AB of radius 7 cm has an arc length 3
(4) kg-m/s
of  cm. The angle  subtended by the arc at the 4
centre is:
9. Simplify: log2 8 + log2 2 + log2 (4)2 .
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 8

10. The value of cos 150° is:

1 1
   (1) (2) −
(1)   2 2
7
3 3
 7  (3) − (4)
(2)   2 2
 
 11. What is the sum of infinite terms of the series
(3) rad
7 1 1
7 1, , .... ?
(4) rad 8 64
 7 4
(1) (2)
5 3
5. What is the sum of the roots of the quadratic 8 5
equation 2x2 – x – 3 = 0? (3) (4)
7 4
1
(1) 1 (2)
2 12. The order of magnitude of 5 × 107 is:
1
(3) 2 (4) − (1) 8 (2) 7
2 (3) 6 (4) 9
13. Differentiate: y = e x + x + 1 with respect to x. 18. Find the perimeter of the triangle ABC given
below.
1
(1) e x +
2 x
1
(2) e x + +1
2 x
1
(3) e x − (1) 10 cm (2) 12 cm
2 x
(3) 9 cm (4) 14 cm
1
(4) e x − +1
2 x 19. Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is
1%. The error in the measurement of its volume is:
(1) 1% (2) 5%
14. The area under the curve y = x2 + a (a is constant)
(3) 3% (4) 8%
11
and x axis from x = 0 to x = 2 is units, then the
3 20. What is the double derivative of the function
value of a is: y = sint – cost with respect to t?
1 (1) –sint – cost
(1) (2) 2
2 (2) – sint + cost
1 (3) sint – cost
(3) − (4) 1 (4) sint + cost
2

15. If n represents the numerical value and u is the unit 21. Integrate the given function:  (t 2 + t + 1) dt
in a measurement, then the correct graph is: t3 t 2 t3 t 2
(1) + +c (2) + +t +c
3 2 3 2
(1) (2)
t3 t2
(3) + 2t + c (4) 3t 3 + +t +c
3 2

(3) (4) 22. The area of a rectangle of size 1.23 cm × 2.345 cm

is:
(1) 2.88 cm2
(2) 2.884 cm2
16. A dimensionless quantity;
(3) 2.9 cm2
(1) never has a unit (4) 2.88435 cm2
(2) always has a unit
(3) may have a unit 23. The maximum value of y = 4sin – 4 cos is:
(4) does not exist (1) 4 2 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 5
x
17. Differentiate y = with respect to x?
x +1 24. Statement I: The measured value 286.5 cm has
x four significant figures in which 2, 8 , 6 are certain
(1)
( x + 1)2 and 5 is uncertain.
Statement II: A change of units for a measured
2x + 1
(2) value, changes the number of significant figures in
( x + 1)2 a measurement.
1 (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3)
( x + 1)2 incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
2x + 1
(4) correct.
x +1
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
25. Which of the following option is correct? 32. Which of the following relations are correct?
(1) A dimensionally incorrect equation may be A. sin(A – B) = sinA cosB – cosA sinB
correct. B. cos2A = cos2A – sin2A
(2) A dimensionally correct equation is always C. cos (A + B) = cosA cosB + sinA sinB
correct. (1) A, B only
(3) A dimensionally incorrect equation is always (2) B, C only
incorrect. (3) A, C only
(4) None of these (4) A, B, C

26. Find the slope of tangent to the curve y = x2 – 2x + 8 33. If A and B have different dimensions, then which
at x = 1. of the following operations may be correct?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) A + B (2) A – B
(3) 0 (4) 8 A  A
(3) (4) sin  
B  B
27. A screw gauge has the least count of 0.01 mm and
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The 34. What is the slope of a straight line passing through
pitch of the screw gauge is: the points (2, 1) and (–1, –2)?
(1) 0.25 mm (1) 1
(2) 0.5 mm (2) –1
(3) 1.0 mm 1
(4) 0.01 mm (3)
3
(4) –3
28. Assertion A: The number 4.365 when rounded off
to three significant figures will become 4.36.
35. Two resistors R1 = (24.0  0.5)  and
Reason R: In rounding off if the insignificant digit
is 5 and its preceding digit is even then the R2 = (8.0  0.3)  are joined in series. Their
insignificant digit is simply dropped. equivalent resistance is:
(1) A is true but R is false (1) 32.0 ± 0.33 
(2) A is false but R is true (2) 32.0 ± 0.8 
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) 32.0 ± 0.2 
explanation of A. (4) 32.0 ± 0.5 
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
SECTION-B
correct explanation of A.

29. Solid angle is measured in units of 36. The value of integral  (sin x) dx is:
−
(1) radian
2
(2) steradian
(1) 0 (2) 2
(3) degrees
1
(4) All of these (3) (4) 1
2
30. What is the dimensional formula for power which
37. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as
is ratio of energy with time?
fundamental quantities, then the dimensional
(1) [ML2T–3]
formula of mass will be:
(2) [ML2T–2]
(1) [FVT–2] (2) [FVT–1]
(3) [MLT–2]
(3) [FV–1T–1] (4) [FV–1T]
(4) [ML2T–1]

31. If the speed of a body (v) is given by v = v0 e–at 38. The derivative of y = sin( x ) with respect to x is:
where t is time, then the dimensional formula of cos( x ) − cos( x )
(1) (2)
[av0] will be: 2 x 2 x
(1) [L–1T2] (2) [LT–1]
(3) cos( x ) (4) − cos( x )
(3) [L] (4) [LT–2]
39. In an experiment, the values of two resistances 45. What is the radius of the circle given by equation
were measured as R1 = (5.0  0.2)  and x2 + y2 = 16?
R2 = (10.0  0.1)  , their combined resistance in (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 16
parallel is:
(1) (4.4 ± 6%)
46. Find approximate value of: (1.005)12
(2) (3.3 ± 7%)
(1) 1.005
(3) (5.5 ± 5%)
(2) 1.060
(4) (3.3 ± 3%)
(3) 1.025
(4) 1.020
1 
40. Solve   + e x  dx .
x  47. Displacement (x) of a particle is given as
1
(1) e x − 2 + c A
x = (1 − e− Bt ) where, B is a positive constant.
x B
1 The dimensions of A and B are, respectively
(2) e x + 2 + c
x (1) [M0LT0] and [T]
(3) e x + ln x + c (2) [M0LT–1] and [LT–2]
(3) [M0LT–2] and [T]
(4) e x − ln x + c
(4) [M0LT–1] and [T–1]

41. The initial temperature of a liquid is (80.0 ± 0.1)°C.

48. A body travels a distance of (12.0 ± 0.2) m in a time
After it has been cooled, its temperature is
(4.0 ± 0.1) s with constant speed. Its speed with
(10.0 ± 0.1)°C. The fall in temperature in degree
error limits is:
centigrade is:
(1) (3.0 ± 0.3) m/s
(1) 70.0
(2) (3.0 ± 0.6) m/s
(2) 70.0 ± 0.3
(3) (4.0 ± 0.2) m/s
(3) 70.0 ± 0.2
(4) (3.0 ± 0.1) m/s
(4) 70.0 ± 0.1

49. The angle of 1 (minute of arc) in radian is nearly

42. A vernier calipers has 20 divisions on the vernier
equal to:
scale which coincide with 19 divisions on the main
(1) 2.91 × 10–4 rad
scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm.
(2) 4.85 × 10–4 rad
The main scale divisions are of;
(3) 4.80 × 10–6 rad
(1) 0.5 mm (2) 1 mm
(4) 1.75 × 10–2 rad
1
(3) 2 mm (4) mm
4
50. In an experiment, the value of refractive index of
glass was found to be 1.540, 1.530, 1.440 and
43. A mass of 12.00 g occupies a volume 2.4 cm3, then
1.450 in successive measurements. Match the
the density of the substance keeping significant
quantities in List-I with its value in List-II.
figures in view is:
(1) 5 g/cm3 (2) 5.000 g/cm3
List-I List-II
(3) 5.00 g/cm3 (4) 5.0 g/cm3
(A) Mean value of refractive (I) 0.030
index
44. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
(B) Mean absolute error (II) 3
used to measure the diameter of a wire.
Main scale reading = 0.00 mm (C) Relative error (III) 0.045
Circular scale reading = 52 divisions (D) Percentage error (in %) (IV) 1.490
Given that: 1 mm on the main scale corresponds to
100 divisions of the circular scale. (1) A - IV; B - III; C - II; D - I
The diameter of the wire from the above data is: (2) A - IV; B - I; C - III; D - II
(1) 0.026 cm (2) 0.0054 cm (3) A - IV; B - III; C - I; D - II
(3) 0.52 cm (4) 0.052 cm (4) A - IV; B - I; C - II; D – III
 [AITS Practice Test | 11th-NEET | 08-09-2024]
Structure of Atom, Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

(CHEMISTRY)

SECTION-A 56. The mass of hydrogen gas required to produce 3

moles of ammonia through Haber’s process is:
51. The momentum of a particle having de Broglie
wavelength of 2.208 Å will be: N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g)
[Given: Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js] (1) 5g
(1) 3 × 10–24 kg m s−1 (2) 9g
(2) 1 × 10–24 kg m s−1 (3) 6g
(3) 5 × 10–24 kg m s−1 (4) 18 g
(4) 6 × 10–24 kg m s−1
57. An element with atomic number 11 and mass
52. The total number of neutrons present in 36 g of number 23 will have;
water is: (1) 11 electrons and 23 neutrons
(1) 24 NA (2) 32 NA (2) 12 protons and 12 neutrons
(3) 16 NA (4) 20 NA (3) 12 electrons and 12 neutrons
(4) 11 electrons and 12 neutrons
53. In a hydrogen atom, if energy of an electron in
ground state is ‘−x’ eV, then energy of electron in 58. If the volume of a water drop is 0.018 mL, then the
the first excited state of He+ is: number of hydrogen atoms present in a drop of
(1) −x eV (2) −2x eV water at room temperature is;
(3) −4x eV (4) −3x eV [Given: density of water = 1.00 g/mL]
(1) 6.022 × 1023
54. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (2) 1.2044 × 1022
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (3) 6.022 × 1020
Assertion A: Number of moles of CO2(g) present in (4) 1.2044 × 1021
0.224 L at STP is 0.1.
Reason R: 22.4 L of CO2 (g) at STP contains 6.022 59. In a sample of hydrogen atom, if transition of
× 1023 molecules. electron takes place from 4th to 1st orbit, then the
In the light of the above statements, choose the total number of spectral lines obtained in the
correct answer from the options given below: electromagnetic spectrum are;
(1) A is true but R is false. (1) 3
(2) A is false but R is true. (2) 6
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) 10
explanation of A. (4) 15
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A. 60. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: An empirical formula represents the
55. Match List-I with List-II. simplest whole number ratio of various atoms
List-I (Azimuthal List-II (Maximum present in a compound.
quantum numbers) number of electrons Statement II: The reactant which gets consumed
in the subshell) first, limits the amount of product formed and is
A. 0 I. 2 called the limiting reagent.
B. 1 II. 6 In the light of the above statements, choose the most
C. 3 III. 10 appropriate answer from the options given below:
D. 2 IV. 14 (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Choose the correct answer from the options given incorrect.
below: (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III correct.
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III incorrect.
61. The set of quantum numbers which is not possible 68. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
for an electron is; regarding given reaction?
1 CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
(1) n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, s = −
2 (A) NA molecules of CH4(g) reacts with 2NA
1 molecules of O2(g) to give NA molecules of
(2) n = 3, l = 2, m = +1, s = +
2 CO2(g).
1 (B) 22.4 L of CH4(g) at STP reacts with 22.4 L of
(3) n = 3, l = 1, m = −2, s = − O2(g) to give 22.4 L of CO2(g).
2
1 (C) 16 g of CH4(g) reacts with 64 g of O2(g) to give
(4) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 44 g of CO2(g).
2
(1) A and C (2) B and C
(3) A and B (4) A, B and C
62. If 6.022 × 1022 molecules are removed from a
container containing 16 g of O2(g), then the number
69. Given below are two statements:
of moles of O2(g) left in the container are;
Statement I: During photoelectric effect, electrons
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.2
are ejected from the metal surface as soon as the
(3) 0.3 (4) 0.4
beam of light strikes the surface.
Statement II: For each metal, there is a
63. The shape of an orbital with zero orbital angular
characteristic minimum frequency, 0 (also known
momentum is:
as threshold frequency) below which photoelectric
(1) spherical
effect is not observed.
(2) double dumb-bell
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(3) dumb-bell
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(4) complex
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
64. An organic compound (molar mass = 200 g/mol)
incorrect.
contains 14% by mass of nitrogen. Number of atoms
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
of nitrogen in one molecule of organic compound is;
correct.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) 4 (4) 5 incorrect.

65. For the ground state of F atom (Z = 9), the number 70. The S.I. unit of amount of substance is;
of electrons in a subshell with the azimuthal (1) mol (2) g
quantum numbers = 1 and 2 are respectively: (3) kg (4) g mol–1
(1) 5 and 1 (2) 1 and 5
(3) 5 and 0 (4) 2 and 5 71. The correct decreasing order of energy for the
orbitals having following set of quantum numbers
66. A 1000 mL solution contains 14.3 g of is;
Na2CO3·10H2O. The molarity of solution is; A. n = 5, l = 0, m = 0
(Molar mass of Na2CO3·10H2O = 286 g mol–1) B. n = 4, l = 1, m = +1
(1) 0.5 M (2) 0.01 M C. n = 6, l = 0, m = 0
(3) 0.1 M (4) 0.05 M D. n = 4, l = 2, m = –2
(1) D > B > C > A
67. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (2) B > D > C > A
(1) The cathode rays start from cathode and move (3) C > D > A > B
towards the anode. (4) B > C > D > A
(2) In the absence of electrical or magnetic field,
cathode rays travel in straight lines. 72. Average atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5 u. It has
(3) Cathode rays consist of negatively charged two isotopes having atomic masses 35u and 37u.
particles. What is the percentage of the lighter isotope in the
(4) The characteristics of cathode rays depends sample?
upon the material of electrodes and the nature (1) 50 % (2) 80 %
of the gas present in the cathode ray tube. (3) 25 % (4) 75 %
73. According to Bohr’s theory, angular momentum of 81. Among the following, energy of which orbital is
an electron in 6th orbit is; maximum for Hydrogen atom?
2.5h 6h (1) 2s (2) 3d
(1) (2)
  (3) 3p (4) 4s
3h 2.5h
(3) (4)
 2 82. What is the volume occupied by 5.2 g of a gas at
STP?
74. The percentage of hydrogen and oxygen in samples (Given: Vapour density of gas is 11.2)
of H2O obtained by different methods were found to (1) 5.2 L (2) 2.24 L
be the same. This illustrates the: (3) 22.4 L (4) 1.12 L
(1) Law of definite proportions
(2) Law of conservation of mass 83. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
(3) Law of multiple proportions
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(4) Avogadro’s law
Assertion A: The given electronic configuration
violate Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity.
75. If radius of nth Bohr’s orbit of H atom is 0.529 Å,
1s 2s 2p
the value of ‘n’ is equal to ;
(1) 1 (2) 2     
(3) 3 (4) 4 Reason R: Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity
states that ‘pairing of electrons in the orbitals
76. For the reaction: 2X + Y → 5C, belonging to the same subshell does not take place
When 8 moles of X react with 10 moles of Y, the until each orbital belonging to that subshell is singly
maximum moles of C formed is: occupied.’
(1) 13 mol In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) 15 mol correct answer from the options given below:
(3) 20 mol (1) A is true but R is false
(4) 18 mol (2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
77. The series of lines corresponding to the given wave explanation of A.
number for H-atom is;
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
1 1 
 = 109,677  2 − 2  cm−1 explanation of A.
3 n 
(1) Lyman series 84. The empirical formula of a compound with
(2) Balmer series molecular mass 150 u is CH2O. The molecular
(3) Paschen series formula of the compound is;
(4) Brackett series (1) C2H4O2
(2) C4H8O4
78. Which of the following contains maximum number
(3) C3H6O3
of molecules?
(4) C5H10O5
(1) 5 g CO2 (2) 5 g N2
(3) 5 g O2 (4) 5 g H2
85. The valence shell electronic configuration of copper
79. Which of the following electronic configuration is (Z = 29) is;
not possible? (1) 3d104s1
(1) 1s22s22p4 (2) 3d94s2
(2) 1s22s4 (3) 4d95s2
(3) 1s22s22p2 (4) 4d105s1
(4) 1s22s1 SECTION-B

80. The number of atoms present in 3 g-molecule of 86. How many molecules of O2 will weigh equal to 10
NH3 is: molecules of CH4?
(1) 4 NA (2) 3 NA (1) 10 (2) 5
(3) 6 NA (4) 12 NA (3) 15 (4) 8
87. Which of the following is not a feature of 93. The radiations having the lowest energy among the
Thomson’s model of atom? following is;
(1) Thomson considered mass to be uniformly (1) Microwaves (2) -rays
spread across the atom. (3) UV rays (4) X-rays
(2) Thomson's model of atom explained the overall
94. 11.2 L of a gas at STP weighs 23 g. The gas could
neutrality of atom.
be;
(3) Thomson stated that electrons are embedded
(1) H2 (2) CO2
into the positively charged sphere. (3) NO2 (4) NO
(4) Thomson’s model explained about the concept
of atomic orbitals. 95. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Azimuthal quantum number determines the
88. Match the List-I with List-II. shell, size of the orbital.
List-I List-II (2) An orbital is designated by 4 quantum
(Sample) (Number of electrons) numbers.
A. 0.1 mole of H2 I. 5 NA (3) Number of lobes in dxy orbital is equal to that
of px orbital.
B. 2 moles of He II. 20 NA
+
(4) The possible values of ‘ml’ for d-orbital can be
C. 0.5 mole of Na III. 0.2 NA −2, −1, 0, +1, +2.
D. 2 moles of H2O IV. 4 NA
Choose the correct answer from the options given 96. Rearrange the following sample in the correct
below: increasing order of masses;
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (A) 6.022 × 1022 molecules of CO2
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (B) 0.1 mole of N2(g)
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (C) 2.8 L of H2(g) at STP
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (1) A < B < C (2) B < A < C
(3) C < B < A (4) B < C < A

89. Velocity of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is;

97. Ultraviolet light of 7.5 eV falls on cesium surface
(1) directly proportional to ‘n2’ (work function = 1.8 eV). The kinetic energy of the
(2) inversely proportional to ‘n’ fastest electron emitted is;
(3) inversely proportional to ‘n2’ (1) 6.9 eV (2) 7.2 eV
(4) directly proportional to ‘n’ (3) 5.7 eV (4) 2.8 eV

90. The number of significant figures in 235600 is: 98. The incorrect statement among the following is:
(1) 4 (1) One atomic mass unit is defined as a mass
(2) 6 exactly equal to one-twelfth of the mass of one
carbon – 12 atom.
(3) 5
(2) Molecular mass is the sum of atomic masses of
(4) 3
the elements present in a molecule.
(3) Molar mass is mass of one mole of a substance.
91. The correct expression for Heisenberg’s (4) Molar mass is mass of one molecule of a
uncertainty principle is; substance.
h h
(1) x × mvx  (2) x × 2mvx ≤
4 4 99. The ratio of the energy of a photon of wavelength,
h 180 Å to that of a photon of wavelength 240 Å is:
(3) x × px ≥ (4) x × mvx ≤ 2πh (1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 4
2
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 3
92. The mole fraction of H2 in the mixture containing
100. Temperature dependent and temperature
equal masses of O2 and H2 is;
independent concentration terms respectively are:
2 16 (1) Molality and mass percent
(1) (2)
9 17 (2) Mass percent and molarity
1 2 (3) Molarity and molality
(3) (4)
3 5 (4) Molality and molarity
 [AITS-Practice Test | 11th -NEET | 08-09-2024]
Cell : The Unit of Life

(BOTANY)
SECTION-A 108. Structure that is absent in almost all plant cells
101. ‘Presence of cell wall is a unique character of the is;
plant cells’ was concluded by; (1) cell wall.
(1) Theodore Schwann. (2) centriole.
(2) Matthias Schleiden. (3) vacuole.
(3) Rudolf Virchow. (4) golgi complex.
(4) Robert Brown.
109. The position of cell wall in the envelope of
102. All the following organelles are present prokaryotes is;
exclusively in eukaryotic cells, except; (1) between glycocalyx and cell membrane.
(1) endoplasmic reticulum. (2) inside cell membrane.
(2) lysosomes. (3) outside glycocalyx.
(3) mitochondria. (4) outermost when compared to cell membrane
(4) ribosomes. and glycocalyx.

103. The main arena of cellular activities in plant and 110. The genomic DNA in prokaryotic cell is/are;
animal cells is; (1) multiple chromosomes and linear DNA.
(1) golgi apparatus. (2) single chromosome and linear DNA.
(2) mitochondria. (3) single chromosome and circular DNA.
(3) cytoplasm. (4) multiple chromosomes and circular DNA.
(4) nucleoplasm.
111. All of the following are the functions of
104. The thin outer layer of cells reported by Theodore mesosome, except;
Schwann is nowadays known as; (1) cell wall formation.
(1) middle lamella. (2) digestion.
(2) plasma membrane. (3) respiration.
(3) glycocalyx. (4) DNA replication.
(4) cell wall.
112. ______ determines the shape of the cell and
105. The proportion of lipids and proteins in the provides a strong structural support to prevent the
membrane of erythrocytes in human beings bacterium from bursting or collapsing.
respectively are; (1) Cell wall
(1) 52, 40 (2) 42, 60 (2) Cell membrane
(3) 60, 42 (4) 40, 52 (3) Capsule
(4) Slime layer
106. Material inside the nucleus was stained by basic
dyes and named as ________ by Flemming. 113. Which among the following structures is/are
(1) chromatin. (2) chromosome. surrounded by amorphous pericentriolar
(3) nucleoplasm. (4) nucleoli. materials?
(1) Lysosomes
107. The quasi-fluid nature of lipids in a plasma (2) Centrioles
membrane enables; (3) Cilia
(1) lateral movement of lipids within the overall (4) Flagella
bilayer.
(2) lateral movement of proteins within the 114. The size of the prokaryotic ribosomes ranges
overall bilayer. about;
(3) lateral movement of cholesterol within the (1) 5 nm by 10 nm.
overall bilayer. (2) 15 nm by 20 nm.
(4) lateral movement of sugar within the overall (3) 20 nm by 25 nm.
bilayer. (4) 5 nm by 15 nm.
115. Lysosomes are membrane bound vesicular 121. The number of chloroplasts in a mesophyll cell is;
structures formed by the process of packaging in (1) 40-70.
the; (2) 200-400.
(1) RER (3) only 1.
(2) mitochondria. (4) 20-40.
(3) SER.
(4) golgi apparatus. 122. All of the following organelles are double-
membrane bound, except;
116. ______ contains water, sap, excretory product and (1) chloroplast.
other materials not useful for the cell. (2) vacuole.
(1) Mesosome (3) mitochondria.
(2) Vacuole (4) nucleus.
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Lysosome 123. Flat membranous tubules connecting the
thylakoids of the different grana in a chloroplast is
117. In Amoeba the contractile vacuole is important for; called;
(1) respiration. (1) stroma lamellae.
(2) secretion. (2) plasmodesmata.
(3) osmoregulation. (3) middle lamellae.
(4) DNA replication. (4) grana lamellae.

118. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes 124. Ribosomes are composed of;
is; (1) RNA and proteins.
(1) ribosome. (2) carbohydrates and proteins.
(2) peroxisome. (3) lipids and proteins.
(3) lysosome. (4) DNA and proteins.
(4) centrosome.
125. _____ have cell wall, made of cellulose, galactans,
119. The smaller subunit of prokaryotic ribosomes is; mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate.
(1) 30S. (1) Fungi
(2) 50S. (2) Plants
(3) 60S. (3) Bacteria
(4) 40S. (4) Algae

120. Given below are two statements: 126. Na+/K+ Pump is an example of;
Statement I: The major lipids in cell membrane (1) passive transport.
are phospholipids that are arranged in a bilayer. (2) active transport.
Statement II: The lipids in the cell membrane are (3) simple diffusion.
arranged within the membrane with the polar head (4) osmosis.
towards the outer sides and the hydrophobic tails
towards the inner part. 127. Both plant and animal cells have;
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) cell membrane and nucleolus.
most appropriate answer from the options given (2) cell membrane and cell wall.
below: (3) nucleolus and chloroplast.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (4) nucleus and cell wall.
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 128. The largest isolated single cell is;
correct. (1) RBC.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) the egg of an ostrich.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) WBC.
incorrect. (4) nerve cell.
129. Identify A in the figure given below. 133. All of the following are correct w.r.t centrioles in
the centrosome, except;
(1) they lie perpendicular to each other.
(2) they lie parallel to each other.
(3) each centriole has an organisation like the
cartwheel.
(4) they are made up of nine evenly spaced
peripheral fibrils of tubulin protein.

134. The site of active ribosomal RNA synthesis is;

(1) E.R.
(2) peroxisome.
(1) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (3) nucleolus.
(2) Maturing face of golgi apparatus (4) cytoplasm.
(3) Forming face of golgi apparatus
(4) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum 135. Which organelle usually remains continuous with
the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope?
130. The organelles that are included in the (1) Ribosomes
endomembrane system are; (2) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(1) golgi complex, mitochondria, ribosomes and (3) Nucleolus
lysosomes. (4) Chromatin
(2) endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex,
lysosomes and vacuoles. SECTION-B
(3) endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria,
136. Nucleus was discovered by;
ribosomes and lysosomes.
(1) Robert Brown.
(4) golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum,
(2) Matthias Schleiden.
mitochondria and lysosomes.
(3) Schleiden and Schwann.
(4) Anton von Leeuwenhoek.
131. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
137. All of the following organelles contain DNA,
Assertion (A): In plants, the concentration of ions
except;
and other materials is significantly higher in the
(1) nucleus.
vacuole than in the cytoplasm.
(2) golgi apparatus.
Reason (R): In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the
(3) mitochondria.
transport of a number of ions and other materials
(4) chloroplast.
against concentration gradients into the vacuole.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
138. ATP is utilised during;
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) simple diffusion.
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) movement of molecules along their
(2) A is false but R is true.
concentration gradient.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) passive transport.
explanation of A.
(4) movement of molecules against their
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
concentration gradient.
correct explanation of A.

139. Membrane proteins can be classified as integral

132. The ‘power house’ of the cell is;
and peripheral depending on the;
(1) golgi apparatus.
(1) polarity of the proteins.
(2) mitochondrion.
(2) chemical nature of the proteins.
(3) plastid.
(3) ease of extraction.
(4) endoplasmic reticulum.
(4) percentage of proteins in the membrane.
140. The middle lamella is mainly made up of; 144. Centromere is situated close to its end forming one
(1) galactans. extremely short and one very long arm in;
(2) calcium pectate. (1) acrocentric chromosome.
(3) cellulose. (2) telocentric chromosome.
(4) calcium carbonate. (3) sub-metacentric chromosome.
(4) metacentric chromosome.
141. Match List I with List II.
List-I List-II 145. Starch in potato is stored in;
A. Centromere I. Basic proteins of chromatin (1) elaioplasts.
B. Kinetochores II. Primary constriction of the (2) amyloplasts.
chromosome (3) chromoplasts.
C. Satellite III. Disc shaped structures on (4) aleuroplasts.
the sides of the centromere
D. Histone IV. Small fragment beyond 146. Tonoplast is the;
secondary constriction of (1) outer membrane of mitochondria.
chromosomes (2) inner membrane of chloroplast.
(3) membrane of the vacuole.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) membrane of the peroxisome.
below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 147. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I rocks and / or host tissues are;
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (1) fimbriae.
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) filament.
(3) hook.
142. Read the following statements and choose the (4) pili
correct option.
A. Reserve materials in prokaryotic cells are 148. Choose the correctly matched pair w.r.t basic
stored in the cytoplasm in the form of shapes of bacteria.
inclusion bodies. (1) Bacillus - spiral
B. Inclusion bodies are bound by a single (2) Coccus - spherical
membrane. (3) Vibrio - rod like
C. Cyanophycean granules and glycogen (4) Spirillum - comma shaped
granules are examples of inclusion bodies.
D. Gas vacuoles are found in blue green and 149. The stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes
purple and green photosynthetic bacteria. required for;
(1) Only B and C are correct (1) the breakdown of lipids.
(2) A, B and D are correct (2) cellular respiration.
(3) Only B and D are correct (3) the synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins.
(4) A, C and D are correct (4) the breakdown of glucose.

143. The space between the two membranes of the 150. “Omnis cellula- e cellula” was postulated by;
nuclear envelope is; (1) Theodore Schwann.
(1) 5 to 10 nm. (2) Matthias Schleiden.
(2) 60 to 90 nm. (3) Rudolf Virchow.
(3) 10 to 50 nm. (4) Robert Brown.
(4) 50 to 90 nm.
 [AITS Practice Test | 11th-NEET | 08-09-2024]
Structural organisation in Animals

(ZOOLOGY)

SECTION-A 157. Triangular shaped head of cockroach is formed by

the fusion of;
151. Which type of muscles are responsible for intestinal
(1) six segments.
contractions?
(2) ten segments.
(1) Striated muscles
(3) eleven segments.
(2) Smooth muscles
(4) three segments.
(3) Cardiac muscles
(4) Skeletal muscles 158. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Lymph is the main circulating fluid in our body
152. Which type of epithelium plays a key role in that helps in transport of various substances.
clearing trapped dust particles from the respiratory (2) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground
tract? substance rich in collagen fibres and calcium
(1) Squamous epithelium salts.
(2) Glandular epithelium (3) Most of cartilage in vertebrate embryos are
(3) Ciliated epithelium replaced by bones in adult.
(4) Compound epithelium (4) Areolar tissue is present beneath the skin.

153. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. cell 159. Which of the following tissue acts as a lining for the
junction and its function? body cavities, ducts and tubes?
(1) Tight junction  Promotes leaking of (1) Muscular tissue
substances across a tissue (2) Connective tissue
(2) Adhering junction  Keep neighbouring cells (3) Simple epithelial tissue
together (4) Nervous tissue
(3) Gap junction  Helps in rapid transfer of ions
and small molecules 160. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) Gap junction  Facilitates the cells to List-I List-II
A. Adipose tissue I. Nose
communicate with each other
B. Areolar tissue II. Blood
C. Cartilage III.Present beneath
154. Which of the following is correct for biceps muscle
the skin
present in our forelimbs?
D. Fluid connective IV. Fat storage
(1) It cannot be contracted just by thinking about it.
tissue
(2) It exhibits alternating light and dark bands.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) It has tapering ends.
below:
(4) It contains a single nucleus located at its center.
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
155. Which of the following represents the example of
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
dense irregular connective tissue? (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(1) Dermis layer of skin
(2) Tendon 161. In frog, cutaneous respiration occurs;
(3) Ligament (1) on both land and water.
(4) Muscle (2) only on land.
(3) only in water.
156. In which type of muscle fibers would you expect to (4) only during hibernation.
find intercalated discs, crucial for synchronized
contractions? 162. How many spiracles are present in cockroach?
(1) Smooth muscle fibres (1) 9 pairs
(2) Skeletal muscle fibres (2) 10 pairs
(3) Cardiac muscle fibres (3) 12 pairs
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) 14 pairs
163. Which type of tissue is responsible for managing 170. Which of the following is the function of frog’s skin?
and coordinating the body's responses to stimuli (1) Diffusion of respiratory gases.
effectively? (2) Absorption of water.
(1) Nervous tissue (2) Muscular tissue (3) Excretion of nitrogenous waste in the form of
(3) Epithelial tissue (4) Connective tissue uric acid.
(4) Both (1) and (2)
164. Malpighian tubule in cockroaches are present at the
171. Which of the following is false about the frog?
junction of; (1) Eyes are covered by a nictitating membrane
(1) foregut and midgut and help in the secretion of that protect them while in water.
digestive enzymes. (2) On the either side of the eyes a membranous
(2) midgut and hindgut and help in grinding the tympanum receives sound signals.
food particles. (3) The forelimb and hindlimb help in swimming,
(3) foregut and midgut and help in the removal of walking, leaping and burrowing.
excretory products from haemolymph. (4) Fore limbs are larger and muscular than hind
(4) midgut and hindgut and help in the removal of limbs.
excretory products from haemolymph.
172. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Compound epithelium is multilayered.
165. Cockroaches excretes nitrogenous waste in the form
(2) Columnar epithelium is made of a single thin
of _________.
layer of flattened cells with irregular
(1) uric acid (2) urea boundaries.
(3) ammonia (4) amino acid (3) Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get
specialised for secretion and are called
166. Which of the following pairs of structures in a frog glandular epithelium.
are well-organized? (4) Some glands secrete hormone whereas some
(1) Eyes and internal ears secretes enzymes and other cell products.
(2) Eyes and sensory papillae
(3) Internal ears and taste buds 173. Which of the following tissues is most abundant and
(4) Taste buds and sensory papillae widely distributed in the body of complex animals?
(1) Neural tissue
(2) Muscular tissue
167. In cockroach, labium and hypopharynx are
(3) Connective tissue
commonly called; (4) Epithelial tissue
(1) upper lip and crop respectively.
(2) upper lip and tongue respectively. 174. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(3) lower lip and tongue respectively. regarding simple cuboidal epithelium?
(4) lower lip and jaw respectively. (1) It is composed of single layer.
(2) It is composed of cube-like cells.
168. Given below are two statements: (3) It is found in the walls of blood vessels and air
Statement I: A mature female frog can lay 2500 to sacs of lungs.
3000 ova at a time. (4) Its main functions are secretion and absorption.
Statement II: Vasa efferentia in frog are 10-12 in
175. Which among the following difference is incorrect
number that arise from cloaca.
between bone and cartilage?
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
Bone Cartilage
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Intercellular material Intercellular material is
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is is hard and pliable solid and non-pliable
incorrect. (2) Composed of Composed of
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct. osteocytes chondrocytes
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect. (3) It is the main tissue Present in tip of nose,
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is that provides structural outer ear joints, between
correct. frame to the body. adjacent bones of the
vertebral column etc.
169. Which part of alimentary canal of cockroach is used (4) In adult vertebrates, the In vertebrate’s embryo,
for storing of food? number of bones is more cartilages are more
(1) Crop (2) Gizzard than cartilage than bones
(3) Stomach (4) Gastric caeca
176. Which of the following epithelial tissue provides 183. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
protection against chemical and mechanical stresses? as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
(1) Squamous epithelium Reason R:
(2) Columnar epithelium Assertion A: Frogs do not have a constant body
(3) Compound epithelium temperature; their body temperature varies with the
(4) Ciliated epithelium temperature of the environment.
Reason R: Frogs are poikilotherms.
177. In the digestive system of cockroach hepatic caeca In the light of the above statements, choose the
is present at the junction of; correct answer from the options given below:
(1) midgut and hindgut. (1) A is true but R is false.
(2) hindgut and foregut. (2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) foregut and mouth.
explanation of A.
(4) foregut and midgut.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
178. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which
part of the reproductive system?
184. The nervous system of cockroach consists of a series
(1) Mushroom glands
of fused, segmentally arranged ganglia joined by;
(2) Testes
(1) paired longitudinal connectives on the ventral
(3) Vas deferens
side.
(4) Seminal vesicles (2) paired longitudinal connectives on the dorsal
side.
179. On the basis of structural modification of cells, (3) paired transverse connectives on the dorsal side.
simple epithelium is further divided into how many (4) unpaired longitudinal connectives on the
types? ventral side.
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two (4) Five 185. If you were tracing the path of sperm through the
male reproductive system of a frog, which of the
180. In cockroach, first pair of wings arises from; following sequences would be correct?
(1) Metathorax (2) Mesothorax (1) Testis → Bidder's canal → Vasa efferentia →
(3) Neck (4) Abdomen Urinogenital duct → Cloaca → Cloacal aperture
(2) Testis → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal →
181. Match List-I with List-II regarding frog. Urinogenital duct → Cloaca → Cloacal aperture
(3) Testis → Urinogenital duct → Bidder's canal→
List-I List-II
Vasa efferentia → Cloaca → Cloacal aperture
A. Touch I. Nasal epithelium
(4) Testis → Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct →
B. Smell II. Foramen magnum Bidder's canal → Cloaca → Cloacal aperture
C. Cranial nerves III. Sensory papillae
D. Medulla IV. Peripheral nervous SECTION-B
oblongata system 186. In male cockroach, genital pouch is present at the
Choose the correct answer from the options given hind end of abdomen which is bound;
below: (1) dorsally by 9th and 10th terga and ventrally by
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III the 9th sternum.
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) dorsally by 9th tergum and ventrally by 9th and
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 10th sterna.
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (3) dorsally by 9th sternum and ventrally by 9th
tergum.
(4) dorsally by 10th tergum and ventrally by 9th and
182. Which of the following statements are incorrect
10th sterna.
regarding blood vascular system of cockroach?
(1) Circulatory system is of open type. 187. In frog, a triangular structure called ____A____
(2) Blood vessels are poorly developed. joins the right _____B______.
(3) Heart of cockroach consists of elongated A B
muscular tube lying along ventral line of thorax (1) conus arteriosus ventricles
and abdomen. (2) conus arteriosus atrium
(4) Haemolymph is composed of colourless (3) sinus venosus atrium
plasma and haemocytes. (4) sinus venosus ventricle
188. Match List-I with List-II. 192. Which of the following statements (A-D) are
List-I List-II correct for neuroglia?
(Epithelial tissue) (Location) A. Provide protection to neurons.
A. Cuboidal I. Inner lining of blood B. They are excitable cells of neural tissue.
vessels C. Support neurons.
D. Make up more than one-half the volume of
B. Ciliated II. Inner surface of stomach
neural tissues.
C. Columnar III. Inner lining of fallopian
(1) A, B and C (2) A, C and D
tube (3) B, C and D (4) A and B only
D. Squamous IV. Lining of ducts of gland
Choose the correct answer from the options given 193. Which of the following is false about the respiration
below: of frog?
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (1) Frogs use the same method to respire both on
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I land and in water.
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ.
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (3) Dissolved oxygen in water is exchanged
through the skin by diffusion.
189. Which of the following is a correct sequence for the (4) On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act
as respiratory organs.
path of food through the alimentary canal of a
cockroach?
194. All of the following are correct for anal styles in
(1) Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop →
cockroach, except;
Gizzard → Midgut → Caecum →Colon →
(1) Also called caudal style.
Rectum → Anus (2) A pair of short, thread-like structure.
(2) Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard (3) Present on 9th sternum.
→ Crop → Proventriculus → Midgut → Ileum (4) Present in both male and female cockroach.
→ Colon → Rectum → Anus
(3) Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → 195. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Proventriculus → Midgut → Ileum → Colon Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
→ Rectum → Anus Assertion A: Cardiac muscle fibres are the only
(4) Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Stomach type of muscle fibres that act involuntarily.
→ Crop → Midgut → Hepatic caeca → Anus Reason R: Actions of cardiac muscles cannot be
controlled by our conscious will.
190. Which of the following statement is false? In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Fertilisation is external in frog.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) In frog, development involves larval stage
explanation of A.
called tadpole.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(3) Tadpole undergoes metamorphosis to form the explanation of A.
adult frog. (3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Development in frog is direct. (4) A is false but R is true.

191. Match List-I with List-II regarding cockroach. 196. Given below are two statements:
List-I List-II Statement I: In unicellular organisms all functions
A. Alary muscles I. Helps in digestion are performed by a single cell.
B. Hepatic caeca II. Bundles of sperm Statement II: In complex multicellular animals, the
C. Spermatophore III. Helps in circulation basic functions are carried out by different groups
of cells.
D. Testes IV. 4th - 6th abdominal
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
segments
appropriate answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
below: (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II incorrect.
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV correct.
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
197. Which of the following features is not related to 199. Which of the following is correct for type of
cockroach? muscles present in the wall of internal organs like
(1) Body is divided into head, thorax and blood vessels and stomach?
abdomen. (1) Involuntary, fusiform and non-striated
(2) Two pairs of wings are found. (2) Non-striated and voluntary
(3) Head lies posteriorly at right angles to the (3) Voluntary, multinucleated and cylindrical
longitudinal body axis. (4) Multinucleated, involuntary and spindle-shaped
(4) Presence of anal cerci in both sexes.
200. In a cockroach's vision, which of the following
198. Refer to the figure given below and identify the scenarios would best describe the concept of mosaic
structures A, B and C respectively. vision?
(1) More sensitivity and less resolution.
(2) More sensitivity and more resolution.
(3) Less sensitivity and less resolution.
(4) Less sensitivity and more resolution.

(1) A: RBCs, B: WBCs, C: Platelets

(2) A: WBCs, B: Platelets, C: RBCs
(3) A: Platelets, B: WBCs, C: RBCs
(4) A: WBCs, B: RBCs, C: Platelets

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