Previous Year Question Paper of NEET (AIPMT) Exams

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Test Booklet Code

No. :
AGAJHA
M4 This Booklet contains 28 pages.

.C
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :

S
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on OFFICE Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options

S
with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions
in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :

LA
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos – 1 to 35,
51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos – 36 to 50, 86 to 100,
136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out
of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start

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attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first
ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each

Y
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer
Sheet.
G
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE
Copy) to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test
LO

Booklet with them.

7. The CODE for this Booklet is M4. Make sure that the CODE printed on the Original Copy of
the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should
immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/
IO

Answer Sheet.
9. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
10. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
11. No candidate, without special permission of the centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
12. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
B

Invigilator on duty and sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not
signed the Attendance Sheet second time, will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer
Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
Y

13. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

14. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in
the Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations
S

of this examination.
15. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
A

16. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the
Attendance Sheet.
.E

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Roll Number : in figures

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: in words

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

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Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Facsimile signature stamp of

Centre Superintendent :

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3 M4
8. A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave 12. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density

.C
lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine
same axis with a distance ‘d’ between them. If a becomes constant after some time. If the density
parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a
parallel beam, then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be : of glycerine is d , then the viscous force acting on
2

S
(1) 25 the ball will be :
Mg
(2) 15 (1)

S
2
(3) 50
(2) Mg
(4) 30

LA
Ans. 2 3
(3) Mg
2
9. If force [ F ], acceleration [ A ] and time [ T ] are (4) 2 Mg Ans. 1
chosen as the fundamental physical quantities.
Find the dimensions of energy. 13. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in

C
x-direction, which one of the following combination
(1) [F] [A] [T]
gives the correct possible directions for electric
(2) [ F ] [ A ] [ T2 ] field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively ?

Y
(3) [ F ] [ A ] [ T−1 ] ∧ ∧ ∧ ∧
(1) j+k, j +k
(4) [ F ] [ A−1 ] [ T ] ∧ ∧ ∧ ∧

10.
Ans. 2

A cup of coffee cools from 908C to 808C in t minutes,

G (2)

(3)
− j+k, − j−k
∧ ∧
j +k, − j−k
∧ ∧
LO
when the room temperature is 208C. The time
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ Ans. 2
taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 808C (4) − j+k, − j+k
to 608C at a room temperature same at 208C is :
14. Column - I gives certain physical terms associated
13 with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
(1) t
10 Column - II gives some mathematical relations
IO

involving electrical quantities. Match

13
(2) t Column - I and Column - II with appropriate
5 relations.
Column - I Column - II
B

10
(3) t
13 m
(A) Drift Velocity (P)
ne2 ρ
Y

5
(4) t
13 Ans. 2 (B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd
S

11. A particle is released from height S from the eE

(C) Relaxation Period (R) τ
surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic m
A

energy is three times its potential energy. The

E
height from the surface of earth and the speed of (D) Current Density (S)
the particle at that instant are respectively : J
.E

(1) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)

S 3gS (2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
(1) ,
4 2 (3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
Ans. 1
W

(4) (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P)

S 3gS
(2) ,
4 2 15. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The
time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg
W

S 3gS is suspended by it is :
(3) ,
2 2 (1) 0.0628 s
(2) 6.28 s
S 3gS Ans. 4
(3) 3.14 s
(4)
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2 4 (4) 0.628 s
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M4 4
16. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric 20. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
→ capacitance C and a resistor of resistance ‘R’ are
field ‘ E ’ in the space between the plates. If the
connected in series to an ac source of potential
distance between the plates is ‘d’ and the area of
difference ‘V’ volts as shown in figure.

.C
each plate is ‘A’, the energy stored in the capacitor
is : (ε0=permittivity of free space) Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V,
10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of
1
(1) ε E2 current flowing through LCR series circuit is
2 0

S
10 2 A. The impedance of the circuit is :
(2) ε0EAd

S
1
(3) ε E2 Ad
2 0

LA
E2 Ad Ans. 3
(4) ε0

17. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a (1) 4 2 Ω

current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving

C
with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. (2) 5 2 Ω
The perpendicular distance between the electron
(3) 4Ω

Y
and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant.
Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced (4) 5Ω Ans. 4
by the electron at that instant.
G 21. The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v.
The escape velocity from the surface of another
planet having a radius, four times that of Earth
LO

and same mass density is :

(1) v
(2) 2v

(1) 4×10−20 N (3) 3v

Ans. 4
(4) 4v
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(2) 8π×10−20 N
(3) 4π×10−20 N
22. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
(4) 8×10−20 N used to measure the diameter of a wire
Ans. 4
18. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is Main scale reading : 0 mm
B

best suited as an objective of an astronomical Circular scale reading : 52 divisions

telescope since :
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to
Y

(1) a large aperture contributes to the quality 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter
and visibility of the images. of the wire from the above data is :
(2) a large area of the objective ensures better
S

(1) 0.52 cm
light gathering power.
(2) 0.026 cm
(3) a large aperture provides a better resolution.
A

(4) all of the above. (3) 0.26 cm

Ans. 4
(4) 0.052 cm
A Ans. 4
19. A radioactive nucleus undergoes spontaneous
.E

ZX
23. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of
decay in the sequence
15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
A
X → Z −1B → Z −3C → Z − 2 D , where Z is the frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How
Z
much power is generated by the turbine ?
W

atomic number of element X. The possible decay

particles in the sequence are : (g=10 m/s2)
(1) α, β−, β+ (1) 10.2 kW
α, β+, β−
W

(2) (2) 8.1 kW

(3) β+, α, β− (3) 12.3 kW
(4) β−, α, β+ Ans. 3 (4) 7.0 kW Ans. 2

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5 M4
24. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined 27. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives
plane, starting from rest at time t=0. Let Sn be balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another
the distance travelled by the block in the interval cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at
Sn what length of the wire, the balance point occurs ?

.C
t=n−1 to t=n. Then, the ratio is :
Sn+1 (1) 60 cm
2n−1
(1) (2) 21.6 cm
2n
(3) 64 cm

S
2n−1
(2) (4) 62 cm
2n+1 Ans. 1

S
2n+1 28. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and
(3) 2n−1 R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of

LA
2n surface charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is :
(4) 2n−1 Ans. 2
R1
25. Polar molecules are the molecules : (1) R2
(1) having zero dipole moment.
(2) acquire a dipole moment only in the presence R2

C
of electric field due to displacement of (2) R1
charges.
(3) acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic
 R1 

Y
field is absent. Ans. 4  
(3)
(4) having a permanent electric dipole moment.  R2 
26. A thick current carrying cable of radius ‘R’ carries
G
current ‘I’ uniformly distributed across its R12
cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) (4) Ans. 2
due to the cable with the distance ‘r’ from the axis R22
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of the cable is represented by :

29. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength ‘λ’ is
incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible
work function. If ‘m’ mass is of photoelectron
emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength
IO

(1) λd, then :

 2m  2
(1) λ= λd
 hc 
B

 2mc  2
(2) λd= λ
 h 
Y

(2)  2mc  2
(3) λ= λd
 h 
S

 2h  2 Ans. 3
(4) λ= λd
 mc 
A

30. The electron concentration in an n-type

.E

(3) semiconductor is the same as hole concentration

in a p-type semiconductor. An external field
(electric) is applied across each of them. Compare
the currents in them.
W

(1) current in n-type=current in p-type.

(2) current in p-type > current in n-type.
(3) current in n-type > current in p-type.
W

(4)
(4) No current will flow in p-type, current will
Ans. 3 only flow in n-type.
Ans. 3

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M4 6
31. The number of photons per second on an average Section - B (Physics)
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of
3.3×10−3 watt will be : (h=6.6×10−34 Js)

.C
(1) 1018 36. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2
(2) 1017 are placed in the same plane with their centres
coinciding. If R1> > R2 , the mutual inductance M
(3) 1016

S
between them will be directly proportional to :
(4) 1015 Ans. 3

S
R1
32. If E and G respectively denote energy and (1)
E R2
gravitational constant, then has the dimensions

LA
G
of :
R2
(1) [ M2 ] [ L−1 ] [ T0 ] (2) R1
(2) [ M ] [ L−1 ] [ T−1 ]
(3) [ M ] [ L0 ] [ T0 ]

C
2
(4) [ M2 ] [ L−2 ] [ T−1 ] R1
Ans. 1 (3)
R2

Y
33. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that
consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of 2
cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω. What R2
G (4)
will be the effective resistance if they are connected R1
in series ? Ans. 4
LO

(1) 0.25 Ω
(2) 0.5 Ω
37. In the product
(3) 1Ω
Ans. 4
(4) 4Ω
→
( → →
)
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F =q v × B
34. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours.
The fraction of original activity that will remain
after 150 hours would be :
→
( ∧
=q v × B i +B j +B0 k
∧ ∧
)
(1) 1/2
B

→ ∧ ∧ ∧
1 For q=1 and v =2 i +4 j+6 k and
(2)
2 2 → ∧ ∧ ∧
Y

F=4 i −20 j+12 k

2
S

(3) →
3
What will be the complete expression for B ?
2 Ans. 2
A

(4)
3 2 ∧ ∧ ∧
(1) −8 i −8 j−6 k
.E

35. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two

fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is ∧ ∧ ∧
(2) −6 i −6 j−8 k
7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The
W

total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is :

(1) 0.9 MeV ∧ ∧ ∧
(3) 8 i +8 j−6 k
(2) 9.4 MeV
W

(3) 804 MeV

Ans. 4 ∧ ∧ ∧
(4) 216 MeV (4) 6 i +6 j−8 k Ans. 2

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7 M4
38. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are 40. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A
be the output at the terminal y ? mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm
and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from

.C
the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure.
Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in
equilibrium. (g=10 m/s2)

S
S
LA
1
(1) kg
2
1
(2) kg

C
3
1
(3) kg

Y
6
1
(4) kg Ans. 4
G 12

41. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from

a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane
LO

mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis

of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the
final image would be formed at a distance of :
(1)
IO

(2)
B

(3)
(1) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real
image.
Y

(4) (2) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real

image.
S

Ans. 3 (3) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a

virtual image.
39. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor,
(4) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a
A

80 µF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to

230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular virtual image. Ans. 4
frequencies of the source at which power
A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2.
.E

42.
transferred to the circuit is half the power at the
At t=4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a
resonant angular frequency are likely to be :
person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and
acceleration of the ball at t=6 s ?
(1) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
W

(Take g=10 m/s2)

(2) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s (1) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2
(2) 20 m/s, 0
W

(3) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s (3) 20 2 m/s, 0

(4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s (4) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2 Ans. 4

Ans. 3

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M4 8
43. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 47. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a
220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop. revolution.

.C
(1) 660 V
If this particle were projected with the same speed
(2) 1320 V at an angle ‘θ’ to the horizontal, the maximum
height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of

S
(3) 1520 V projection, θ, is then given by :

(4) 1980 V Ans. 4

S
1
−1 
 gT2  2
(1) θ=cos 
 π2 R 

LA
44. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and  
resistance ‘R’ is wound up as a current carrying
coil in the shape of,
1
 π2 R  2
(i) an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’. θ=cos −1
 
(2)  gT2 

C
 
(ii) a square of side ‘a’.

The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each

Y
1
case respectively are :  π2 R  2
(3) θ=sin−1  
 gT2 
 
(1) 3 Ia2 and 3 Ia2
G
(2) 3 Ia2 and Ia2 1
 2gT2 
LO

2
−1
(3) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2 (4) θ=sin  
 π2 R 
 
(4) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2
Ans. 4
Ans. 1
IO

45. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 48. A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity
10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same v=kVe(k < 1) from the surface of the earth.
height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to
the ball is (g=10 m/s2) nearly : (Ve=escape velocity)
B

(1) 0 kg m/s
The maximum height above the surface reached
Y

(2) 4.2 kg m/s by the particle is :

(3) 2.1 kg m/s

S

2
 k 
(4) 1.4 kg m/s (1) R 
 1−k 
Ans. 2
A

46. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains 2

 k 
.E

supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W (2) R 

lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer,  1+k 
what is the current in the primary circuit ?
R2 k
W

(1) 0.2 A (3)

1+k
(2) 0.4 A
W

(3) 2A Rk2
(4)
Ans. 1 1−k2 Ans. 4
(4) 4A

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9 M4
49. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 Section - A (Chemistry)
are connected as shown in the given circuit. The
i 51. Which one among the following is the correct option
ratio 3 of currents in terms of resistances used for right relationship between CP and CV for one

.C
i1
mole of ideal gas ?
in the circuit is :
(1) CP+CV=R
(2) CP−CV=R

S
(3) CP=RCV Ans. 2
(4) CV=RCP

S
52. The correct option for the number of body centred
unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit
cells is :

LA
(1) 7
(2) 5
(3) 2
Ans. 4
r1
(1) r2 +r3 (4) 3

C
53. Noble gases are named because of their inertness
towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect
r2 statement about them.

Y
(2) r2 +r3 (1) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
(2) Noble gases have very high melting and
G boiling points.
r1 (3) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
(3) r1+r2 (4) Noble gases have large positive values of
LO

electron gain enthalpy. Ans. 2

r2 54. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation

(4) reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This
r1+r3
product formation is based on ?
IO

(1) Saytzeff’s Rule

Ans. 2 (2) Hund’s Rule
(3) Hofmann Rule
50. From a circular ring of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ an (4) Huckel’s Rule Ans. 1
B

arc corresponding to a 908 sector is removed. The

moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring 55. The compound which shows metamerism is :
about an axis passing through the centre of the (1) C5H12
Y

ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is (2) C3H8O

‘K’ times ‘MR2’. Then the value of ‘K’ is : (3) C3H6O
(4) C4H10O Ans. 4
S

3 56. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound.

(1) Hybridization and number of electrons around the
A

4
central atom, respectively are :
(1) sp3 and 4
.E

7 (2) sp3 and 6

(2) (3) sp2 and 6 Ans. 3
8
(4) sp2 and 8
W

1 57. The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect

(3) is exhibited by”, is :
4
(1) NaCl solution
W

(2) Glucose solution

1 (3) Starch solution
(4)
8 (4) Urea solution Ans. 3
Ans. 1

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M4 10
58. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, 61. Which one of the following polymers is prepared
one which is covalent and soluble in organic by addition polymerisation ?
solvents is :

.C
(1) Calcium chloride
(2) Strontium chloride (1) Teflon
(3) Magnesium chloride

S
(4) Beryllium chloride Ans. 4 (2) Nylon-66

S
59. Which one of the following methods can be used to
obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room

LA
temperature ? (3) Novolac
(1) Electrolysis
(2) Chromatography
(4) Dacron
(3) Distillation

C
Ans. 1
(4) Zone refining Ans. 3

Y
60. For a reaction A→B, enthalpy of reaction is
−4.2 kJ mol−1 and enthalpy of activation is
9.6 kJ mol−1. The correct potential energy profile
G
for the reaction is shown in option. 62. The major product of the following chemical
reaction is :
LO

(1)
IO
B

(1)
(2)
Y
S

(2)
A

(3)
.E

(3)
W
W

(4) Ans. 2
(4)
Ans. 1

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11 M4
63. Choose the correct option for graphical 66. The maximum temperature that can be achieved
representation of Boyle’s law, which shows a graph in blast furnace is :
of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different (1) upto 1200 K
temperatures : (2) upto 2200 K

.C
(3) upto 1900 K Ans. 2
(4) upto 5000 K
67. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving

S
(1) 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1),
10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and
10 g of sucrose (C 12 H 22 O 11 ) in 250 ml of

S
water (P3). The right option for the decreasing
order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :

LA
(1) P2 > P1 > P3
(2) P1 > P2 > P3
(3) P2 > P3 > P1 Ans. 1
(4) P3 > P1 > P2
(2) 68. Zr (Z=40) and Hf (Z=72) have similar atomic and

C
ionic radii because of :
(1) belonging to same group
(2) diagonal relationship

Y
(3) lanthanoid contraction Ans. 3
(4) having similar chemical properties
G 69. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and
CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16
and 91.0 S cm2 mol−1 respectively. The molar
LO

(3) conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is.

Choose the right option for your answer.
(1) 201.28 S cm2 mol−1
(2) 390.71 S cm2 mol−1
(3) 698.28 S cm2 mol−1 Ans. 2
IO

(4) 540.48 S cm2 mol−1

70. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and
octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell
are :
(4)
B

(1) 8, 4
(2) 6, 12
(3) 2, 1
Y

Ans. 4 (4) 12, 6 Ans. 4

71. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi,
S

64. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
is : The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
(1) 1208 emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light,
A

(2) 1808 c=3.0×108 ms−1]

(3) 608 (1) 219.3 m
Ans. 4 (2) 219.2 m
.E

(4) 08
(3) 2192 m Ans. 1
65. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon (4) 21.92 cm
and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right 72. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
W

option for the empirical formula of this compound (1) Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two
is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] “N” donor atoms
(1) CH (2) Unidentate ligand
(3) Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms
W

(2) CH2
(3) CH3 (4) Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor
atoms
(4) CH4 Ans. 3
Ans. 1

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M4 12
73. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of ‘C–X’ bond 78. Statement I :
is : Acid strength increases in the order given as
(1) CH3−F < CH3−Cl < CH3−Br < CH3−I HF << HCl << HBr << HI.

.C
(2) CH3−F > CH3−Cl > CH3−Br > CH3−I Statement II :
(3) CH3−F < CH3−Cl > CH3−Br > CH3−I As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases
(4) CH3−Cl > CH3−F > CH3−Br > CH3−I down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl,
Ans. 2 HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength

S
74. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid increases.
are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate In the light of the above statements, choose the

S
solution is : correct answer from the options given below.
(1) 8.50 (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are

LA
true.
(2) 5.50
(3) 7.75 (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false.
(4) 6.25 Ans. 3
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II
75. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state is false.

C
and vapour phase, are : (4) Statement I is incorrect but
(1) Chain and dimer, respectively Statement II is true.
Ans. 1

Y
(2) Linear in both
(3) Dimer and Linear, respectively 79. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg’s
reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
(4) Chain in both Ans. 1
G
76. Given below are two statements : (1)
LO

Statement I :
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of
narcotic analgesics. (2)
Statement II :
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. (3)
IO

In the light of the above statements, choose the

correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4)
true.
Ans. 3
B

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are

false.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II 80. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound
Y

is false. formed in the following chemical reaction ?

(4) Statement I is incorrect but
(i) C2H5MgBr , dry Ether Product
S

Statement II is true. Ans. 2 Acetone  →

(ii) H2O, H+
77. Match List - I with List - II. (1) 2-methyl propan-2-ol
A

List - I List - II (2) pentan-2-ol

(a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal (3) pentan-3-ol
.E

(b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar (4) 2-methyl butan-2-ol

(c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral Ans. 4
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal 81. Which of the following reactions is the metal
displacement reaction ? Choose the right option.
W

Choose the correct answer from the options given

∆
below. (1) 2KClO3 → 2KCl+3O2
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) ∆
(2) Cr2O3+2Al → Al2O3+2Cr
W

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3) Fe+2HCl → FeCl2+H2↑
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) Ans. 1 (4) 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO+4NO2+O2↑
Ans. 2

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13 M4
82. The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene Section - B (Chemistry)
is :

.C
(1) 86. Match List - I with List - II.

S
List - I List - II

S
(2) (a) 2SO2(g)+O2(g) → (i) Acid rain
2SO3(g)

LA
(b) hν
HOCl(g)  (ii) Smog
→
i i
(3) OH+Cl

C
(c) CaCO3+H2SO4→ (iii) Ozone
CaSO4+H2O+CO2 depletion

Y
(4)
(d) hν
NO2(g)  (iv) Tropospheric
Ans. 1 →
G NO(g)+O(g) pollution
83. The incorrect statement among the following
is : Choose the correct answer from the options given
LO

below.
(1) Actinoid contraction is greater for element
to element than Lanthanoid contraction.
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are
colorless in the solid state.
IO

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(3) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and
electricity. (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) Actinoids are highly reactive metals,
B

especially when finely divided. (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Ans. 2 Ans. 3
Y

84. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :

(1) Vitamin B12 NaOH, + ?
S

87. CH3CH2COO−Na+  → CH3CH3+

(2) Vitamin B6 Heat
Na2CO3.
A

(3) Vitamin B1

(4) Vitamin B2 Consider the above reaction and identify the

.E

Ans. 1 missing reagent/chemical.

85. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits

(1) B2H6
which of the following particles ?
W

(1) Beta (β−) (2) Red Phosphorus

(2) Alpha (α)
W

(3) CaO
(3) Gamma (γ)
(4) Neutron (n) (4) DIBAL-H Ans. 3
Ans. 1

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M4 14
88. The product formed in the following chemical 91. The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of chemical
reaction is : reaction is :

.C
S
(1) H2O
(2) CH3CH2OH

S
(3) HI
(1) (4) CuCN/KCN Ans. 2

LA
92. Choose the correct option for the total pressure
(in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined
in a total volume of one litre at 08C is :
[Given R=0.082 L atm mol−1K−1, T=273 K]

C
(2) (1) 2.518
(2) 2.602

Y
(3) 25.18
(4) 26.02
Ans. 3
G
(3) 93. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in
nature ?
LO

(1) POCl3
(2) CH2O
(3) SbCl5
Ans. 3
(4) NO2
(4)
IO

Ans. 4
94. In which one of the following arrangements the
given sequence is not strictly according to the
89. Match List - I with List - II. properties indicated against it ?
B

List - I List - II (1) HF < HCl : Increasing acidic

(a) [Fe(CN)6]3− (i) 5.92 BM < HBr < HI strength
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM (2) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa
Y

< H2Se < H2Te values

(c) [Fe(CN)6]4− (iii) 4.90 BM
(3) NH3 < PH3 : Increasing
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM
S

< AsH3 < SbH3 acidic character

Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (4) CO2 < SiO2 : Increasing
< SnO2 < PbO2 oxidizing power
A

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) Ans. 2

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) 95. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure
.E

(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) of a solution at 458C with benzene to octane in
molar ratio 3 : 2 is :
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Ans. 4 [At 458C vapour pressure of benzene is
90. From the following pairs of ions which one is not 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg.
W

an iso-electronic pair ? Assume Ideal gas]

(1) O2−, F− (1) 160 mm of Hg
(2) Na+, Mg2+ (2) 168 mm of Hg
W

(3) Mn2+, Fe3+ (3) 336 mm of Hg

Ans. 3
(4) Fe2+, Mn2+ Ans. 4 (4) 350 mm of Hg

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15 M4
96. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 99. The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the following
20 S cm 2 mol −1. What is the dissociation chemical reaction is :
constant of acetic acid ? Choose the correct option.

.C
 Λ
= 350 S cm2 mol −1 
 H+ 
Λ
50 S cm 2
mol −1 
 CH COO− =


S
3
(1)
(1) 1.75×10−4 mol L−1

S
(2) 2.50×10−4 mol L−1
(3) 1.75×10−5 mol L−1
(2)

LA
(4) 2.50×10−5 mol L−1
Ans. 3

 1
97. The slope of Arrhenius Plot  ln k v/s  of first
 T

C
order reaction is −5×103 K. The value of Ea of
(3)
the reaction is. Choose the correct option for your
answer.

Y
[Given R=8.314 JK−1mol−1]
(1) 41.5 kJ mol−1
G (4)
(2) 83.0 kJ mol−1
(3) 166 kJ mol−1 Ans. 1
LO

Ans. 1 100. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under

(4) −83 kJ mol−1
isothermal condition, the correct option is :
(1) ∆U=0, ∆Stotal=0
98. Match List - I with List - II.
(2) ∆U ≠ 0, ∆Stotal ≠ 0
List - I List - II
(3) ∆U=0, ∆Stotal ≠ 0
IO

(4) ∆U ≠ 0, ∆Stotal=0 Ans. 3

(a) (i) Hell-Volhard-
Zelinsky reaction
Section - A (Biology : Botany)
B

101. In the equation GPP−R=NPP

R represents :
(b) (ii) Gattermann-Koch
(1) Radiant energy
Y

reaction
(2) Retardation factor
(3) Environment factor
Ans. 4
S

(c) R−CH2−OH (iii) Haloform

(4) Respiration losses
+R'COOH reaction
Conc. H SO 102. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature,
→
A

2 4
which mechanism the competing species might
(d) R−CH2COOH (iv) Esterification have evolved for their survival ?
.E

(i) X /Red P
(1) Resource partitioning

2 → (2) Competitive release
(ii) H2O
(3) Mutualism
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) Predation Ans. 1
W

below.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) 103. Amensalism can be represented as :
(1) Species A (−) ; Species B (0)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
W

(2) Species A (+) ; Species B (+)

(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (3) Species A (−) ; Species B (−)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) Ans. 4 (4) Species A (+) ; Species B (0) Ans. 1

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M4 16
104. Match List - I with List - II. 109. Which of the following is an incorrect
statement ?
List - I List - II
(1) Mature sieve tube elements possess a
Cells with active cell Vascular

.C
(a) (i) conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
division capacity tissues
organelles.
Tissue having all cells
Meristematic (2) Microbodies are present both in plant and
(b) similar in structure (ii)
tissue animal cells.
and function

S
(3) The perinuclear space forms a barrier
Tissue having
(c) (iii) Sclereids between the materials present inside the
different types of cells
nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.

S
Dead cells with highly
(4) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins
(d) thickened walls and (iv) Simple tissue
and RNA molecules in both directions

LA
narrow lumen
between nucleus and cytoplasm. Ans. 1
Select the correct answer from the options given
below. 110. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (2) 7-nucleate and 8-celled

C
(3) 7-nucleate and 7-celled
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) 8-nucleate and 8-celled Ans. 1
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Y
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) Ans. 1 111. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
is :
105. The production of gametes by the parents,
G (1) IAA
formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be (2) NAA
understood from a diagram called :
(3) 2, 4-D
LO

(1) Bullet square (4) IBA Ans. 3

(2) Punch square
112. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen ?
(3) Punnett square
(1) Green algae
(4) Net square Ans. 3 (2) Brown algae
IO

106. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium (3) Red algae
Ans. 3
bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear (4) Blue-green algae
as :
113. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :
B

(1) Yellow bands

(1) Kinetin
(2) Bright orange bands
(2) Infrared rays
Y

(3) Dark red bands (3) Gamma rays

(4) Bright blue bands Ans. 2
(4) Zeatin Ans. 3
S

107. Gemmae are present in : 114. Match List - I with List - II.
(1) Mosses List - I List - II
A

(2) Pteridophytes (a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency

(3) Some Gymnosperms (b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato
.E

(4) Some Liverworts Ans. 4 (c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones

(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
108. Plants follow different pathways in response to Choose the correct answer from the options given
environment or phases of life to form different
W

below.
kinds of structures. This ability is called :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Elasticity
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) Flexibility
W

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) Plasticity (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) Maturity Ans. 3 (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Ans. 2

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17 M4
115. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves 122. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
division of centromere ?
(1) Metaphase I
(1) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;

.C
(2) Metaphase II
(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
(3) Anaphase II
(2) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication;
(4) Telophase II Ans. 3 (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
116. Match List - I with List - II. (3) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;

S
(c)-Translation; (d)-Protein
List - I List - II (4) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; Ans. 3
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen

S
(c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition 123. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases (1) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally

LA
(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm inverted.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
below. upright.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (4) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland

C
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) ecosystem is upright. Ans. 2
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 124. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as
Ans. 2

Y
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) reserve food material ?
(1) Ectocarpus
117. The site of perception of light in plants during (2) Gracilaria
photoperiodism is :
G (3) Volvox
(1) Shoot apex (4) Ulothrix Ans. 1
(2) Stem 125. During the purification process for recombinant
LO

(3) Axillary bud DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol

Ans. 4 precipitates out :
(4) Leaf
(1) RNA
118. Which of the following plants is monoecious ? (2) DNA
(1) Carica papaya (3) Histones
Ans. 2
IO

(2) Chara (4) Polysaccharides

(3) Marchantia polymorpha 126. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a
(4) Cycas circinalis Ans. 2 population is :
(1) Natural selection
119. When the centromere is situated in the middle of
B

(2) Genetic recombination

two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome (3) Mutation
is referred as : (4) Genetic drift Ans. 4
Y

(1) Metacentric 127. Match List - I with List - II.

(2) Telocentric
List - I List - II
(3) Sub-metacentric
S

More attraction in
(4) Acrocentric Ans. 1 (a) Cohesion (i)
liquid phase
120. Which of the following is not an application of PCR Mutual attraction
A

(Polymerase Chain Reaction) ? (b) Adhesion (ii) among water

(1) Molecular diagnosis molecules
.E

(2) Gene amplification Water loss in liquid

(c) Surface tension (iii)
(3) Purification of isolated protein phase
(4) Detection of gene mutation Ans. 3 (d) Guttation (iv)
Attraction towards
polar surfaces
W

121. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two Choose the correct answer from the options given
kinds of spores. Such plants are known as : below.
(1) Homosorus (a) (b) (c) (d)
W

(2) Heterosorus (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(3) Homosporous (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Heterosporous (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) Ans. 1
Ans. 4

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M4 18
128. Diadelphous stamens are found in : 134. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
(1) China rose phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
(2) Citrus given time, is referred as :
(1) Climax

.C
(3) Pea
(4) China rose and citrus Ans. 3 (2) Climax community
(3) Standing state
129. Which of the following are not secondary Ans. 3
(4) Standing crop
metabolites in plants ?

S
(1) Morphine, codeine 135. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum
(2) Amino acids, glucose is :

S
(3) Vinblastin, curcumin (1) Pyruvic acid
(4) Rubber, gums Ans. 2 (2) Oxaloacetic acid

LA
(3) Succinic acid
130. Match List - I with List - II. Ans. 2
(4) Phosphoglyceric acid
List - I List - II
Primary constriction in Section - B (Biology : Botany)
(a) Cristae (i)
chromosome

C
Disc-shaped sacs in 136. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(b) Thylakoids (ii)
Golgi apparatus (1) Both ATP and NADPH+H + are
Infoldings in synthesized during non-cyclic

Y
(c) Centromere (iii) photophosphorylation.
mitochondria
Flattened membranous (2) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack
NADP reductase.
(d) Cisternae (iv) sacs in stroma of
G
plastids (3) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both
LO

below. PS I and PS II. Ans. 4

(a) (b) (c) (d) 137. Identify the correct statement.
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (1) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) is added to the 39 end of hnRNA.
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to
IO

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Ans. 3 terminate the process of transcription in
bacteria.
131. When gene targetting involving gene amplification
(3) The coding strand in a transcription unit is
is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat
copied to an mRNA.
B

disease, it is known as :
(4) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
(1) Biopiracy
prokaryotes. Ans. 2
(2) Gene therapy
Y

(3) Molecular diagnosis 138. Match Column - I with Column - II.

(4) Safety testing Ans. 2 Column - I Column - II
S

132. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from (a) (i) Brassicaceae
anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant
A

which, during pollination, brings genetically (b) (ii) Liliaceae

different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
(1) Xenogamy (c) (iii) Fabaceae
.E

(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Chasmogamy (d) (iv) Solanaceae
(4) Cleistogamy Ans. 1 Select the correct answer from the options given
W

133. Which of the following is a correct sequence of below.

steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
W

(2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Ans. 1
(4) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Ans. 1

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19 M4
139. Select the correct pair. 143. Match List - I with List - II.

(1) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells List - I List - II

cells in the epidermis Proteins are

.C
of grass leaves (a) S phase (i)
synthesized
(2) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive (b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
bundles are surrounded tissue
Interval between

S
by large thick-walled
cells (c) Quiescent stage (iii) mitosis and initiation
of DNA replication

S
(3) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular
that form part of cambium (d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
cambial ring

LA
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy below.
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma (a) (b) (c) (d)
and forming a lens-
shaped opening in bark (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

C
Ans. 3 (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

140. In the exponential growth equation (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Y
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Nt=Noert, e represents : Ans. 3
(1) The base of number logarithms
G 144. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(2) The base of exponential logarithms (1) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
LO

(3) The base of natural logarithms (2) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile
on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
(4) The base of geometric logarithms
(3) Organisms that depend on living plants are
Ans. 3 called saprophytes.
141. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the (4) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
IO

process of transcription in eukaryotes ? nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath

cells.
(1) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S) Ans. 2
(2) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA 145. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
B

(3) Transcribes precursor of mRNA (1) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is
limited to the terminal stage.
Y

(4) Transcribes only snRNAs

Ans. 2 (2) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one
molecule of NADH+H + gives rise to
S

142. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise
within gene amp R that confers ampicillin to 3 ATP molecules.
resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a
A

(3) ATP is synthesized through complex V.

gene for β-galactoside production and the
recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain (4) Oxidation-reduction reactions produce
proton gradient in respiration.
.E

(1) it will not be able to confer ampicillin Ans. 2

resistance to the host cell. 146. In some members of which of the following pairs
(2) the transformed cells will have the ability of families, pollen grains retain their viability for
W

to resist ampicillin as well as produce months after release ?

β-galactoside. (1) Poaceae ; Rosaceae
(3) it will lead to lysis of host cell. (2) Poaceae ; Leguminosae
W

(4) it will be able to produce a novel protein with (3) Poaceae ; Solanaceae
dual ability. (4) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae Ans. 4
Ans. 1

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M4 20
147. Match Column - I with Column - II. Section - A (Biology : Zoology)
Column - I Column - II
151. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow
(a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
and pneumatic long bones ?

.C
Conversion of
(b) Rhizobium (ii) (1) Neophron
ammonia to nitrite
Conversion of nitrite (2) Hemidactylus
(c) Thiobacillus (iii)
to nitrate (3) Macropus
Ans. 1

S
Conversion of (4) Ornithorhynchus
(d) Nitrobacter (iv) atmospheric nitrogen

S
to ammonia 152. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro
Choose the correct answer from options given muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening
below. and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :

LA
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Arthritis
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (2) Muscular dystrophy
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Ans. 1 (4) Gout Ans. 3
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

C
148. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated 153. Which one of the following is an example of
gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe Hormone releasing IUD ?

Y
to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of (1) CuT
cells, followed by its detection using
(2) LNG 20
autoradiography because :
G
(1) mutated gene partially appears on a (3) Cu 7
photographic film. (4) Multiload 375
Ans. 2
LO

(2) mutated gene completely and clearly

appears on a photographic film. 154. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect
(3) mutated gene does not appear on a with respect to cockroach ?
photographic film as the probe has no (1) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the
complimentarity with it. junction of midgut and hind gut.
(4) mutated gene does not appear on (2) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed
IO

photographic film as the probe has by the mouth parts.

complimentarity with it. Ans. 3 (3) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a
149. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences genital pouch.
in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears
B

(4)
as : a pair of anal cerci. Ans. 1
(1) Satellite DNA
Y

(2) Repetitive DNA 155. Select the favourable conditions required for the
(3) Single nucleotides formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
(4) Polymorphic DNA (1) High pO 2 , low pCO 2 , less H + , lower
Ans. 2
S

temperature
150. Match List - I with List - II.
(2) Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher
List - I List - II
A

temperature
(a) Protein (i) C=C double bonds
(3) High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher
Unsaturated
(b) (ii) Phosphodiester bonds temperature
.E

fatty acid
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds (4) Low pO2 , low pCO2, more H +, higher
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds temperature Ans. 1
Choose the correct answer from the options given
W

156. Sphincter of oddi is present at :

below.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Ileo-caecal junction
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (2) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and
W

(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) duodenum

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (3) Gastro-oesophageal junction
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) Ans. 1 (4) Junction of jejunum and duodenum
Ans. 2

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21 M4
157. The organelles that are included in the 162. Which of the following statements wrongly
endomembrane system are : represents the nature of smooth muscle ?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, (1) These muscle have no striations

.C
Ribosomes and Lysosomes (2) They are involuntary muscles
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, (3) Communication among the cells is
Lysosomes and Vacuoles performed by intercalated discs
(3) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and

S
(4) These muscles are present in the wall of
Lysosomes blood vessels
Ans. 3
(4) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum,

S
Mitochondria and Lysosomes Ans. 2 163. Match the following :
List - I List - II

LA
158. Match List - I with List - II.
(a) Physalia (i) Pearl oyster
List - I List - II (b) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of War
(a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata (c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
(b) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora (d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm

C
(c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida Choose the correct answer from the options given
(d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera below.

Y
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
G
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) Ans. 3
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
LO

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 164. Succus entericus is referred to as :
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) Ans. 3 (1) Pancreatic juice
(2) Intestinal juice
159. A specific recognition sequence identified by
(3) Gastric juice
IO

endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions

(4) Chyme Ans. 2
within the DNA is :
(1) Degenerate primer sequence 165. Which of the following is not an objective of
(2) Okazaki sequences Biofortification in crops ?
B

(3) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences (1) Improve protein content

(4) Poly(A) tail sequences (2) Improve resistance to diseases
Y

Ans. 3
(3) Improve vitamin content
160. Which of the following RNAs is not required for
(4) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
S

the synthesis of protein ? Ans. 2

(1) mRNA 166. Veneral diseases can spread through :
A

(2) tRNA (a) Using sterile needles

(3) rRNA (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
.E

(4) siRNA Ans. 4 (c) Infected mother to foetus

(d) Kissing
161. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) (e) Inheritance
and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of
W

Choose the correct answer from the options given

diffusion) are : below.
(1) pO2=104 and pCO2=40 (1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) pO2=40 and pCO2=45 (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
W

(3) pO2=95 and pCO2=40 (3) (b) and (c) only

(4) pO2=159 and pCO2=0.3 (4) (a) and (c) only Ans. 3
Ans. 1

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M4 22
167. With regard to insulin choose correct options. 173. Read the following statements.
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
has C-peptide.

.C
animals.
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide. (c) Round worms have organ-system level of
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are body organization.
interconnected by disulphide bridges. (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in

S
Choose the correct answer from the options given digestion.
below. (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
(1) (b) and (d) only Echinoderms.

S
(2) (b) and (c) only Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only below.
Ans. 3

LA
(4) (a) and (d) only (1) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
168. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. (3) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
During interphase of Mitosis if the number of (4) (b), (c) and (e) are correct Ans. 4
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the

C
number of chromosomes after S phase ? 174. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :
(1) 8 (1) CFCs
(2) 16 (2) Stratosphere

Y
(3) 4 (3) Ozone
Ans. 3
(4) 32 Ans. 1 (4) Troposphere
G
169. Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability” 175. During the process of gene amplification using
to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained
in the process of transcription in prokaryotes ? in the beginning, then which of the following steps
LO

(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase of PCR will be affected first ?

(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (1) Annealing
(3) DNA Ligase (2) Extension
(4) DNase Ans. 2 (3) Denaturation
(4) Ligation Ans. 3
IO

170. In a cross between a male and female, both

heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what 176. Identify the incorrect pair.
percentage of the progeny will be diseased ? (1) Alkaloids - Codeine
(1) 50%
(2) Toxin - Abrin
B

(2) 75%
(3) Lectins - Concanavalin A
(3) 25%
(4) Drugs - Ricin Ans. 4
(4) 100% Ans. 3
Y

171. For effective treatment of the disease, early 177. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as
diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology “Universal recipients”. This is due to :
S

is very important. Which of the following (1) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface
molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for of RBCs
early detection ?
A

(2) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma

(1) Western Blotting Technique (3) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B,
(2) Southern Blotting Technique on RBCs
.E

(3) ELISA Technique

(4) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in
(4) Hybridization Technique plasma Ans. 4
Ans. 3
172. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows 178. Which one of the following belongs to the family
W

terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive Muscidae ?

feature ?
(1) Fire fly
(1) Leptotene
(2) Grasshopper
W

(2) Zygotene
(3) Diakinesis (3) Cockroach
(4) Pachytene Ans. 3 (4) House fly Ans. 4

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23 M4
179. The centriole undergoes duplication during : 184. Match List - I with List - II.
(1) S-phase List - I List - II

.C
(2) Prophase Entry of sperm through
(a) Vaults (i)
Cervix is blocked
(3) Metaphase
(b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas deferens
(4) G2 phase
Ans. 1

S
Phagocytosis of sperms
(c) Vasectomy (iii)
within the Uterus
180. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are

S
present on : (d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube

(1) Corona radiata Choose the correct answer from the options given

LA
(2) Vitelline membrane below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Perivitelline space
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) Zona pellucida
Ans. 4 (2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

C
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
181. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of
inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ? (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Ans. 2

(1) Thrombin

Y
185. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what
(2) Renin
G will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and
Cytosine in it ?
(3) Epinephrine
(1) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
LO

(4) Thrombokinase (2) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30

Ans. 1
(3) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
182. Match List - I with List - II.
(4) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
Ans. 3
List - I List - II
IO

(a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid

Section - B (Biology : Zoology)
(b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid
(c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid
186. Which of the following secretes the hormone,
B

(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy ?

Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Graafian follicle
Y

below. (2) Corpus luteum

(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) Foetus Ans. 2
S

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) Uterus

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A

187. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) the leakage of the substances across a tissue and
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) Ans. 1 facilitation of communication with neighbouring
.E

cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.

(1) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
183. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. respectively.
formation is produced by :
W

(2) Tight junctions and Gap junctions,

(1) Alpha cells of pancreas respectively.
(2) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis (3) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
W

respectively.
(3) The cells of bone marrow
(4) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
(4) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney respectively.
Ans. 4 Ans. 2

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M4 24
188. Which one of the following statements about 192. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple
Histones is wrong ? Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
(1) Histones are organized to form a unit of (MOET) ?
8 molecules.

.C
(1) Cow is administered hormone having LH
(2) The pH of histones is slightly acidic. like activity for super ovulation
(3) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine (2) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
and Arginine. (3) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination

S
(4) Histones carry positive charge in the side
(4) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate
chain. Ans. 2 mothers at 8-32 cell stage

S
189. Which of these is not an important component of Ans. 1
initiation of parturition in humans ? 193. Statement I :

LA
(1) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and
(2) Synthesis of prostaglandins phenylalanine.
(3) Release of Oxytocin Statement II :
(4) Release of Prolactin Ans. 4 ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the amino
acid lysine.

C
190. Match List - I with List - II. In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.

Y
List - I List - II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(a) Allen's Rule (i) Kangaroo rat true
Physiological
(b) (ii) Desert lizard
G (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
adaptation
false
Behavioural
(c) (iii) Marine fish at depth (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II
adaptation
LO

Biochemical
is false
(d) (iv) Polar seal
adaptation (4) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true
Choose the correct answer from the options given Ans. 4
below.
194. Match List - I with List - II.
IO

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) List - I List - II
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
B

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
Ans. 3 (d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone
Y

191. Match List - I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given
List - I List - II below.
S

Haemophilus (a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) Filariasis (i)
influenzae (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
A

(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
.E

(d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Ans. 4
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
195. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into :
W

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Dysfunction of Immune system
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) Parkinson’s disease
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
W

(3) Digestive disorder

(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Ans. 2 (4) Addison’s disease
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) Ans. 1

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25 M4
196. Assertion (A) : 199. During muscular contraction which of the
A person goes to high altitude and experiences following events occur ?
‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing (a) ‘H’ zone disappears

.C
difficulty and heart palpitations.
(b) ‘A’ band widens
Reason (R) :
(c) ‘I’ band reduces in width
Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude,
the body does not get sufficient oxygen. (d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP

S
In the light of the above statements, choose the and Pi
correct answer from the options given below. (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards

S
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Choose the correct answer from the options given
correct explanation of (A) below.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the

LA
(1) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true Ans. 1 (3) (b), (c), (d), (e) only

197. Match List - I with List - II.

(4) (b), (d), (e), (a) only Ans. 1

C
List - I List - II 200. Following are the statements about prostomium
Selection of resistant of earthworm.

Y
Adaptive varieties due to excessive (a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
(a) (i)
radiation use of herbicides and
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which
pesticides
G
it can crawl.
Convergent Bones of forelimbs in Man
(b) (ii) (c) It is one of the sensory structures.
evolution and Whale
LO

Divergent Wings of Butterfly and (d) It is the first body segment.

(c) (iii)
evolution Bird Choose the correct answer from the options given
Evolution by below.
(d) anthropo- (iv) Darwin Finches
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
genic action
IO

(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) (b) and (c) are correct
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Ans. 1
B

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Ans. 1
Y

(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) -o0o-

198. Following are the statements with reference to
S

‘lipids’.
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
unsaturated fatty acids.
A

(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.

(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
.E

(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including

carboxyl carbon.
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
W

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below.
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (c) and (d) only
W

(3) (b) and (c) only Ans. 3

(4) (b) and (e) only

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 NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY
National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (UG) - 2021
Final Answer Keys on which the Result Declared on 01.11.2021
BOOK : M4 EXAM DATE: 12.09.2021
1 3 51 2 101 4 151 1
2 1 52 4 102 1 152 3
3 2 53 2 103 1 153 2
4 2 54 1 104 1 154 1
5 1 55 4 105 3 155 1
6 2 56 3 106 2 156 2
7 3 57 3 107 4 157 2
8 2 58 4 108 3 158 3
9 2 59 3 109 1 159 3
10 2 60 2 110 1 160 4
11 4 61 1 111 3 161 1
12 1 62 1 112 3 162 3
13 2 63 4 113 3 163 3
14 1 64 4 114 2 164 2
15 4 65 3 115 3 165 2
16 3 66 2 116 2 166 3
17 4 67 1 117 4 167 3
18 4 68 3 118 2 168 1
19 3 69 2 119 1 169 2
20 4 70 4 120 3 170 3
21 4 71 1 121 4 171 3
22 4 72 1 122 3 172 3
23 2 73 2 123 2 173 4
24 2 74 3 124 1 174 3
25 4 75 1 125 2 175 3
26 3 76 2 126 4 176 4
27 1 77 1 127 1 177 4
28 2 78 1 128 3 178 4
29 3 79 3 129 2 179 1
30 3 80 4 130 3 180 4
31 3 81 2 131 2 181 1
32 1 82 1 132 1 182 1
33 4 83 2 133 1 183 4
34 2 84 1 134 3 184 2
35 4 85 1 135 2 185 3
36 4 86 3 136 4 186 2
37 2 87 3 137 2 187 2
38 3 88 4 138 1 188 2
39 3 89 4 139 3 189 4
40 4 90 4 140 3 190 3
41 4 91 2 141 2 191 2
42 4 92 3 142 1 192 1
43 4 93 3 143 3 193 4
44 1 94 2 144 2 194 4
45 2 95 3 145 2 195 1
46 1 96 3 146 4 196 1
47 4 97 1 147 1 197 1
48 4 98 4 148 3 198 3
49 2 99 1 149 2 199 1
50 1 100 3 150 1 200 1
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