64-YN401MA

Home Assignment-02
DURATION: 180 Minutes DATE: 28/08/2025 M.MARKS: 720

Topics Covered

Physics: Syllabus as Coming Milestone Test

Chemistry: Syllabus as Coming Milestone Test
Botany: Syllabus as Coming Milestone Test
Zoology: Syllabus as Coming Milestone Test

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 180 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (four options
with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 45 questions in
each subjects.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
5. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks
are 720.
6. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer
Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
 (PHYSICS)
6. If the position vector of a particle moving in space
1. A body is travelling with uniform acceleration on a is given by r = 2tiˆ − 4t 2 ˆj , then the particle will
straight-line crosses point A with velocity 5 m/s and
move along;
point B with velocity 12 m/s. Velocity of the body
(1) Parabolic path
at the mid-point of A and B is;
(2) Straight line path
(1) 5 2 m/s (2) 7 2 m/s
(3) Elliptical path
13 (4) Circular path
(3) 10 m/s (4) m/s
2
7. The time-velocity of a particle moving in straight
line is shown in figure.
2. If the magnitude of A and B are 5 units and 10 units
respectively and the angle between the two vectors
is 37°, then find A  B
(1) 40 units
(2) 50 units
(3) 20 units
(4) 30 units Acceleration of particle at t = 2 s is;
(1) 1 m/s2
3. Position-time (x-t) graph of a particle moving in (2) 0 m/s2
straight line is shown in figure. Which of the plotted (3) 5 m/s2
graph is not possible? (4) 2 m/s2

(1) 8. A disc starts from rest and has an angular acceleration

(α) given by  = (3t − t 2 ) rad/s2 (where t is in seconds)
Calculate angular velocity of disc after 2 s.
10
(2) (1) rad/s
3
20
(2) rad/s
3
(3) 40
(3) rad/s
3
50
(4) rad/s
3
(4)
9. A person travels a given distance of 50 km with
constant speed of 10 km/hr. Find the time he will
4. A projectile is fired horizontally with a velocity save in covering the same distance with a constant
of 98 ms –1 from the top of a hill 490 m high. Find speed of 30 km/hr.
the time taken by projectile to reach the ground. (1) 100 min
(take g = 9.8 m/s 2) (2) 300 min
(1) 20 s (2) 10 s (3) 150 min
(3) 30 s (4) 40 s (4) 200 min

5. An animal is unexpectedly seen crossing the road by 10. If A = 3iˆ + 2 ˆj + 1kˆ and B = iˆ + ˆj + kˆ , then what is
a driver traveling at 20 m/s. If the vehicle travels 10 m
the value of α for which the scalar product of A and
before the driver applies the brake, the driver’s
reaction time is; B is 2?
(1) 1 s (2) 0.5 s (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 s (4) 1.5 s (3) – 4 (4) – 3
11. If magnitude of average velocity and average speed (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
over an interval of time are same, then; incorrect.
(1) particle must move with zero acceleration. (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) particle must move with uniform acceleration. correct.
(3) particle must move with non-uniform (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
acceleration. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) particle must move in a straight line without incorrect.
turning back.
17. The position-time (s-t) graph of a particle is shown
12. In case of circular motion with increasing speed, if in figure. The magnitude of instantaneous velocity
 is the angle between the linear velocity vector and of particle is maximum at point;
the net acceleration vector, then choose the correct
option.
(1)  is acute
(2)  is obtuse
(3)  is 0°
(4)  is 90°
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
13. A particle has acceleration (a) according to the
graph shown. If velocity of particle at t = 0 is 5 m/s,
18. Two guns on a battleship simultaneously fire two
then velocity of particle at t = 10 s is;
shells with same initial speed at stationary enemy
ships A and B. If the shells follow the parabolic
trajectories as shown in figure, which ship will get
hit first? (Assume both ships A and B in the range of
battleship, neglect air resistance)

(1) 150 m/s (2) 145 m/s

(3) 120 m/s (4) 155 m/s

14. A boat is moving in direction of vector (−4iˆ − 3 ˆj)

with a speed of 10 m/s. Velocity vector of boat (in
(1) A
m/s) is;
(2) B
(1) −8iˆ − 6 ˆj (3) both at same time
4 3 (4) Data Insufficient
(2) − iˆ − ˆj
5 5
(3) −6iˆ − 8 ˆj 19. An object initially at origin moves along +x
direction through a distance of 10 m and then move
(4) −40iˆ − 30 ˆj back a distance of 4m along same path. Net
displacement (in meter) of object is;
15. A particle is moving in a straight line. Its position S (1) −4iˆ (2) +4iˆ
varies with time t as S = (4t 3 + 2t 2 + 5t ) m. The (3) −6iˆ (4) +6iˆ
acceleration of particle at t = 1s is;
(1) 22 m/s2 (2) 24 m/s2 20. The width of river is 1 km. The velocity of boat in
(3) 26 m/s2 (4) 28 m/s2 still water is 5 km/h. The boat covered the width of
river in shortest path in 15 minutes, then the velocity
16. Statement I: For two vector A and B , then of river stream is;
magnitude of resultant of two vectors can have (1) 3 km/h
value only between ( A2 + B 2 ) and ( A2 − B 2 ) . (2) 4 km/h
(3) 1 km/h
Statement II: A + B can also be written as B + A .
(4) 2 km/h
21. Position (x) as a function of time (t) of particle is
given as x = (2t 2 + 3t + 1) m.
(1)
Choose the correct statement/s.
I. Velocity of particle is not constant.
II. Acceleration of particle is variable.
III. At t = 0, speed of particle is 2 m/s.
(1) II only (2)
(2) I only
(3) II and III only
(4) I and III only

22. A stone tied to the end of a 80 cm long string is (3)

whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed.
If the stone makes 14 revolution in 22 s, the
 22 
magnitude of its acceleration is;   = 
 7
(4)
(1) 20 m/s 2

(2) 12.8 m/s2

(3) 9.9 m/s2
(4) 8.4 m/s2
26. Angle between two vectors P and Q lying in same
23. A wheel of radius 1 m rolls forward half a revolution plane as shown in figure is;
on a horizontal ground. The magnitude of the
displacement (in meter) of the point on the rim of
the wheel initially in contact with the ground is then;
(1) 2
(1) 120° (2) 30°
(2) 2
(3) 60° (4) 45°
(3) 2 + 4
(4)  27. A ball is dropped from top of a tower of height
100 m. Simultaneously in same vertical line, another
ball was thrown upward from the bottom of tower
24. A ball is projected with a velocity of 50 m/s at an
with speed 50 m/s. The ball collides in mid-air after
angle of 60° with the vertical direction. The time;
maximum height attained by ball during its motion (1) 10 s (2) 2 s
is; (g = 10 m/s2) (3) 15 s (4) 12 s
(1) 31.25 m
(2) 93.75 m 28. A body is rotating with uniform angular acceleration
(3) 100.25 m covers 200 radian in the first 8 s after it starts from
(4) 50.75 m rest. Its angular acceleration is;
(1) 6.25 rad/s2 (2) 5.25 rad/s2
25. The velocity (v)-time (t) graph for a particle moving (3) 7.25 rad/s2 (4) 3.25 rad/s2
along x-axis is shown in the figure. The
29. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same
corresponding (x)-time (t) is best represented by;
time in a straight line and their positions at time t
are represented by xP (t ) = 5t 2 and xQ (t ) = 2t + 1
respectively. At what time do the cars have the
same velocity.
1
(1) 5 s (2) s
5
1
(3) 2 s (4) s
2
30. The position vector of a moving particle at any time
36. If two projectile are thrown at different angle with
t is given by r = (3tiˆ − 4t 2 ˆj + 2t 3kˆ) m. Its different initial speed, then acceleration of one
acceleration at t = 1 s is; projectile with respect to another projectile when
(1) 108 m/s2 both are in air is (neglect air resistance, take
downward direction as negative)
(2) 308 m/s2
(1) – 10 m/s2
(3) 408 m/s2 (2) – 20 m/s2
(4) 208 m/s2 (3) 0
(4) + 20 m/s2
31. A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes 5 steps
forward and 3 steps backward, followed again by 5 37. A body moves at a speed of 100 ms–1 for 10 s and
steps forward and 3 steps backward, and so on. Each then moves at a speed of 200 ms–1 for next 20 s
step is 1 m long and requires 1 s. How long the along the same direction. The average speed of body
drunkard takes to fall in a pit 13 m away from the start? is;
(1) 49 s (2) 38 s 500 550
(1) m/s (2) m/s
(3) 50 s (4) 37 s 3 3
450 400
(3) m/s (4) m/s
32. Assertion (A): Speed is constant in uniform circular 3 3
motion.
Reason (R): Acceleration is constant in uniform
circular motion. 38. A ship A is moving westwards with a speed of
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true 10 km h–1 and a ship B 100 km south of A, is moving
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Northwards with a speed of 10 km h–1. Shortest
Assertion (A). distance between the two ship is;
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true (1) 40 2 km (2) 20 2 km
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of 100 20
(3) km (4) km
Assertion (A). 2 2
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.
39. A river 2 km wide flows at the rate of 2 km/h. A
33. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of boatman who can row a boat at a speed of 6 km/h in
water is h below the top of the well. If v is velocity still water, goes a distance of 2 km upstream and
of sound, the time T after which the splash is heard then comes back to the same starting point.
is given by; (g is acceleration due to gravity) Choose the correct statement/s.
I. Time taken by boatman to cover 2 km upstream
2h 2h h
(1) T = (2) T = + is 0.5 hr.
v g v
II. Time taken by boatman to cover 2 km
2h h h 2h 1
(3) T = + (4) T = + downstream is hr.
v g 2g v 4
(1) I only
34. The speed of the boat is 5 km/hr in still water. The (2) II only
velocity of river is 3 km/hr. If boat crosses a river of (3) Both I and II
width 2 km, then the time taken by boat to cross the (4) Neither I nor II
river in shortest time is;
(1) 24 min (2) 28 min 40. A car with a vertical windshield moves in a
(3) 32 min (4) 36 min rainstorm at a speed of 40 km/hr. The rain drops fall
vertically with constant speed of 20 m/s. The angle
35. A car travelling at a speed of 30 km/h is brought to at which rain drops strike with respect to the
rest in a distance of 8 m by applying brakes. If the windshield is;
same car is moving at a speed of 60 km/h then it can 5 9
(1) tan −1 (2) tan −1
be brought to rest in; 9 5
(1) 64 m (2) 32 m 3 2
(3) 16 m (4) 10 m (3) tan −1 (4) tan −1
2 3
41. The initial velocity of a particle is u(at t = 0) and the 44. A bird is flying towards north with a velocity
3 40 kmh –1 and a train is moving with constant
acceleration is given by t 2 . Which of the velocity 40 km h–1 towards east. What is the velocity
following relations is valid for velocity v at any time of the bird noted by a man sitting in the train?
t? (α is positive constant) (1) 80 2 km h–1 N-E
3
(1) v = u + t 2 (2) 40 2 km h–1 S-E
3t 3 (3) 40 2 km h–1 N-W
(2) v = u +
2 (4) 80 2 km h–1 S-W
2 5
(3) v = u + t 2 An object is thrown vertically upward from ground
5 45.
5 with initial velocity 10 m/s. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(4) v = u + t 2 Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
option.
42. A body starts from rest with an acceleration of 2 m/s2 List-I List-II
along positive x-axis and 4 m/s 2 along negative A. Time taken by object to I. 1
y-axis. Velocity of particle after 2 s is; reach the ground (in second)
(1) (4iˆ + 8 ˆj) m/s (2) (4iˆ − 8 ˆj) m/s B. Maximum height attained II. 2
by object (in meter)
(3) (8iˆ − 4 ˆj ) m/s (4) (8iˆ + 8 ˆj) m/s
C. Speed of object becomes III. 5
zero after time (in second)
43. A body is moving in a straight line with an initial
D. Magnitude of acceleration IV. 10
velocity 30 m/s and undergoes uniform retardation
of object at t = 1s (in m/s2)
of 4 m/s2. Find the distance travelled by the body in
8th second?
(1) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV
(1) Zero (2) 1 m
(2) A-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
(3) 2 m (4) 112 m
(3) A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I
(4) A-I; B-IV; C-III; D-II
 CHEMISTRY

46. A dye absorbs a photon of wavelength 𝜆 and re- 52. Rutherford's scattering experiment is related to the
emits the same energy into two photons of size of:
wavelength 𝜆1 and 𝜆2 respectively. The (1) Neutron (2) Proton
wavelength 𝜆 is related with 𝜆1 and 𝜆2 as: (3) Electron (4) Nucleus
𝜆1 +𝜆2 𝜆 𝜆
(1) 𝜆 = 𝜆1 𝜆2
(2) 𝜆 = 𝜆 1+𝜆2
1 2
53. An electron revolves round 𝐿𝑖 2+ nucleus at a
𝜆21 𝜆22 𝜆1 𝜆2
(3) 𝜆 = (4) 𝜆 = (𝜆1 +𝜆2 )2 distance of 1.587\AA . The speed of electron
𝜆1 +𝜆2
should be
47. Which one is the wrong statement? (1) 2.188 × 106 𝑚/𝑠
ℎ (2) 6.564 × 106 𝑚/𝑠
(1) The uncertainty principle is Δ𝐸 × Δ𝑡 ≥
4𝜋
(3) 7.293 × 105 𝑚/𝑠
(2) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have
(4) 7.293 × 106 𝑚/𝑠
greater stability due to greater exchange
energy, greater symmetry and more balanced
54. The circumference of the third orbit of 𝐻𝑒 +ion is
arrangement
𝑥 𝑚 . The de Broglie wavelength of electron
(3) The energy of 2𝑠 orbital is less than the
revolving in this orbit will be
energy of 2𝑝 orbital in case of hydrogen like 𝑥
(1) 3 𝑚 (2) 3𝑥 𝑚
atoms
𝑥
(4) de-Broglies wavelength is given by 𝜆 = 𝑚𝑣,
ℎ (3) 9
𝑚 (4) 9𝑥 𝑚

where 𝑚 = mass of the particle, 𝑣 = group

velocity of the particle 55. Calculate the uncertainty in the position of
an electron (mass 9.1 × 10−28 𝑔 ) moving with a
48. A gas of monoatomic hydrogen is excited by an velocity of 3 × 104 𝑐𝑚sec −1 , if the uncertainity
energy of 12.75 eV/atom. Which spectral lines of in velocity is 0.011% ?
the following are formed in Lyman, Balmer and (1) 1.92 𝑐𝑚 (2) 7.68 𝑐𝑚
Paschen series respectively. (3) 0.175 𝑐𝑚 (4) 3.84 𝑐𝑚
(1) 3, 2, 1 (2) 2, 3, 1
(3) 1, 3, 2 (4) 1, 2, 3 56. Which of the following have maximum
wavelength?
49. The wave number for the longest wavelength (1) Cosmic rays (2) γ-rays
transition in the Balmer series of atomic hydrogen (3) Micro waves (4) Radio waves
is:
(1) 15.2 × 106m–1 (2) 13.6 × 106m–1 57. The atomic numbers of the metallic and non-
(3) 1.5 × 10 m 6 –1
(4) 1.3 ×106m–1 metallic elements which are liquid at room
temperature respectively are :
50. Suppose the mass of electron is decreased by (1) 55, 87 (2) 33, 87
25%.How will it affect the Rydberg constant? (3) 35, 80 (4) 80,35
(1) It remains unchanged.
(2) It becomes one-fourth. 58. The maximum probability of finding electron in
(3) It reduces to 75% of its original value. the 𝑑𝑥𝑦 orbital is -
(4) It is doubled. (1) Along the 𝑥 axis
(2) Along the 𝑦 axis
51. The uncertainties in the velocities of two particles, (3) At an angle of 45∘ from the 𝑥 and 𝑦 axis
𝐴 and 𝐵 are 0.05 and 0.02 𝑚𝑠 −1 , respectively. (4) At an angle of 90∘ from the 𝑥 and 𝑦 axis
The mass of 𝐵 is five times to that of the mass of
Δ𝑥
𝐴. What is the ratio of uncertainties (Δ𝑥𝐴 ) in their 59. Applying Bohr’s model when electron of H-atom
𝐵 comes from n = 4 to n = 2, calculate its
positions? wavelength.
(1) 2 (2) 0.25 (1) 4866 Å (2) 5272 Å
(3) 4 (4) 1 (3) 4634 Å (4) 5084 Å
60. In which one of the following pairs, the two 67. The ratio between the neutrons in 𝐶 and 𝑆𝑖 with
species are both isoelectronic and isotopic? respect to atomic masses 12 and 28 is
(Atomic number: 𝐶𝑟 = 24 , 𝐴𝑟 = 18, 𝐾 = (1) 2: 3 (2) 3: 2
19, 𝑀𝑔 = 12, 𝐹𝑒 = 26, 𝑁𝑎 = 11) (3) 3: 7 (4) 7: 3
(1) 24 𝑀𝑔2+ and 40 𝐴𝑟
(2) 39 𝐾 + and 40 𝐾 + 68. The energy required to excite an electron of 𝐻-
(3) 24 𝑀𝑔2+ and 25 𝑀𝑔 atom from first orbit to second orbit is
3
(4) 23 𝑁𝑎 and 24 𝑁𝑎+ (1) of its ionisation energy
4
1
(2) of its ionisation energy
61. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 2
1
(1) The concepts of "penetration" and (3) 4
of its ionisation energy
"shielding" are important in deciding the (4) None of these
energetic ordering of orbitals in multi-
electron atoms 69. Meitnerium is IUPAC official name of an
(2) A wave-function can have positive and element with atomic number
negative values (1) 113 (2) 118
(3) "Radial nodes" can appear in radial (3) 104 (4) 109
probability distribution functions
(4) The shape of an orbital is given by the 70. Which one of the following is the reason behind
principal quantum number. fluorine has lower electron affinity than chlorine?
(1) Smaller radius of fluorine, high electron
62. A 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of density.
wavelength 400nm. Calculate the number of (2) Smaller radius of chlorine, high electron
photons emitted per second by the bulb. density.
(1) 20.12 × 1020 𝑠 −1 (3) Bigger radius of fluorine, less electron
(2) 2.012 × 1020 𝑠 −1 density.
(3) 4.969 × 10−19 𝑠 −1 (4) Smaller radius of chlorine, less electron
(4) 49.69 × 10−19 𝑠 −1 density.

63. The total spin and magnetic moment for the atom 71. The element Californium belongs to the family
with atomic number 7 are of:
(1) ±3, √3𝐵𝑀 (2) ±1, √8𝐵𝑀 (1) Actinoids series (2) Alkali metals
3
(3) ± 2 , √15𝐵𝑀 (4) 0, √8𝐵𝑀 (3) Lanthanoid series (4) Alkali Earth metals

72. Which of the following statements is not correct?

64. Angular momentum in second Bohr orbit of 𝐻-
(1) Ionization energy increases on going down a
atom is 𝑥 . Then find out angular momentum
group in the periodic table.
in 𝐼 𝑠𝑡 excited state of 𝐿𝑖 +2 ion (2) Among alkaline earth metals, reducing
(1) 3𝑥 (2) 9𝑥 character increases down the group.
𝑥
(3) 2 (4) 𝑥 (3) Fluorine is the most electronegative element.
(4) Metallic character increases on going down a
65. For single electron species, the correct order of group in the periodic table.
energy of the orbitals;
(1) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p = 3d < 4s < 4d 73. Finding size of an atom (isolated) is a lot more
(2) 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s = 4p complicated due to
(3) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d (1) Isolation of single atom is complicated
(4) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s (2) The electron cloud surrounding the atom does
not have a sharp boundary
66. Calculate total number of electron present in 𝐶𝑟 (3) Both
having 𝑛 + 𝑙 + 𝑚 = 7. (4) Isolated atom does not exist
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 5 (4) 6
74. Which represents alkali metals based on (IE) 1 and 81. The amount of energy released on the addition of
(IE) )2 values? an electron in outermost shell of an isolated atom
(1) 𝑋 100 110 (2) 𝑌 95 120 is called :
(3) Z 195 500 (4) M 200 250 (1) Ionization enthalpy
(2) Hydration enthalpy
75. Directions : (3) Electronegativity
In the following questions a statement of (4) Electron gain enthalpy
Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason
(𝑅) is given. 82. The first four I.E. values of an element are 284,
Choose the correct answer out of the following 412, 656 and 3210 𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 . The number of
choices : valence electrons in the element are
Assertion (A) : Oxygen has less negative electron (1) one (2) two
gain enthalpy than sulphur. (3) three (4) four
Reason (R) : Oxygen has a compact nature.
(1) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are correct; 𝑅 is the correct 83. Compared to the first ionisation enthalpy, the
explanation of 𝐴. value of second ionisation enthalpy of an element
(2) Both A and R are correct; R is not the correct is.
explanation of A. (1) Negligible
(3) 𝐴 is correct; 𝑅 is incorrect. (2) Smaller
(4) 𝑅 is correct; 𝐴 is incorrect. (3) Greater
(4) Double
76. Which one of the following is an incorrect
statement?
84. Select the correct order of ionic radii:
(1) The ionisation potential of nitrogen is greater
(1) 𝑂2− > 𝑆 2− > 𝑆𝑒 2− > 𝑇𝑒 2−
than that of oxygen
(2) 𝑇𝑒 2− > 𝑆 2− > 𝑂2− > 𝑆𝑒 2−
(2) The electron affinity of fluorine is greater
(3) 𝑂2− > 𝑇𝑒 2− > 𝑆 2− > 𝑆𝑒 2−
than that of chlorine
(3) The ionization potential of beryllium is (4) 𝑇𝑒 2− > 𝑆𝑒 2− > 𝑆 2− > 𝑂2−
greater than that of boron
(4) The electronegativity of fluorine is greater 85. The formation of oxide ion O2–(g), from oxygen
than that of chlorine atom requires first an exothermic and then an
endothermic step as shown below
77. The correct order of increasing ionic radii of the 𝑂(𝑔) + 𝑒 − → 𝑂− (𝑔); Δ𝐻∘ = −141 kJmol−1
following isoelectronic species is: 𝑂− (𝑔) + 𝑒 − → 𝑂2− (𝑔); Δ𝐻∘ = +780 kJ mol−1
(1) 𝑆 2− < 𝐶𝑙 − < 𝑃3− < 𝐾 + Thus, process of formation of O2– in gas phase is
(2) 𝐶𝑙 − < 𝑆 2− < 𝑃3− < 𝐾 + unfavourable even though O2– is isoelectronic
(3) 𝐾 + < 𝐶𝑙 − < 𝑆 2− < 𝑃3− with neon. It is due to the fact that
(4) 𝐾 + < 𝑆 2− < 𝐶𝑙 − < 𝑃3− (1) oxygen is more electronegative
(2) addition of electron in oxygen results in
78. Which of the following has largest atomic radius? larger size of the ion
(1) 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 (3) electron repulsion outweighs the stability
(2) 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝1 gained by achieving noble gas configuration
(3) 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝3 (4) O2– ion has comparatively smaller size than
(4) 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝5 oxygen atom

79. The third ionization energy is maximum for: 86. Amongst the following elements, the highest
(1) Aluminium (2) Boron ionization energy is :
(3) Magnesium (4) Beryllium (1) [𝑁𝑒]3𝑠 2 3𝑝1
(2) [𝑁𝑒]3𝑠 2 3𝑝3
80. The process requiring the absorption of energy is (3) [𝑁𝑒]3𝑠 2 3𝑝2
(1) 𝐹 → 𝐹 − (2) 𝐻 → 𝐻 − (4) [𝐴𝑟]3𝑑10 4𝑠 2 4𝑝3
−
(3) 𝐶𝑙 → 𝐶𝑙 (4) 𝑂 → 𝑂2−
87. The IP of oxygen is less than nitrogen. Reason is (iii) 1 𝑠 2 2 𝑠 2 2𝑝5
(1) electronegativity of oxygen is more than (iv) 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠1 is
nitrogen (1) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) (2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) It is easier to remove the fourth 2𝑝 electron (3) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) (4) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
from oxygen due to increased electron-
electron repulsion 89. Select the correct sequence of increasing radius
(3) 𝑍eff of nitrogen is more (left to right)
(4) Oxygen has more stable electronic (1) Se2–, O2–, F¯ (2) Ca2+, Ar, K+
configuration (3) Se, As, Ge (4) Fe, Fe2+, Fe3+

88. The order of increasing electron affinity of the 90. Which of the following compounds is the most
electronic configurations likely to be amphoteric
(i) 1𝑠 2 2𝑠 2 2𝑝6 3𝑠 2 3𝑝5 (1) 𝐿𝑖2 𝑂 (2) 𝑃𝑏𝑂2
(ii) 1 𝑠 2 2 𝑠 2 2𝑝3 (3) 𝑀𝑔𝑂 (4) 𝑃4 𝑂10
 (BOTANY)
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
91.
101. During _______ stage, the chromosomes become
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
gradually visible under the light microscope.
correct.
(1) pachytene
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) zygotene
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) leptotene
incorrect.
(4) diplotene

98.
108. The interphase lasts ______ of the cell cycle
92.
102. All organisms start their life from;
duration.
(1) single cell.
(1) <50% (2) >95%
(2) three cells.
(3) about 30% (4) only 10%
(3) two cells.
(4) many cells.
99. The nuclear membrane disappears by the end of;
109.
(1) anaphase II.
93.
103. Mitosis is divided in ____ stages of nuclear
(2) metaphase II.
division.
(3) prophase II.
(1) one (2) two
(4) telophase II.
(3) three (4) four

100. In animal cells, centrioles duplicate during;

110.
94.
104. The beginning of diplotene is characterized by;
(1) G1 phase. (2) S-phase.
(1) occurrence of crossing over.
(3) G2 phase. (4) M-phase.
(2) occurrence of synapsis.
(3) dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
101. The stage of prophase I which may last for upto
111.
(4) formation of tetrad.
months or years in oocytes of some vertebrates is;
95. Movement of sister
105. chromatids toward opposite
(1) diakinesis.
(2) diplotene.
poles is achieved by;
(3) zygotene.
(1) shortening of microtubules attached to
(4) pachytene.
centromere.
(2) shortening of microtubules attached to 102. In mitosis, each centrosome radiates
112. out
kinetochores.
microtubules called asters during;
(3) elongation of microtubules attached to
(1) telophase. (2) prophase.
kinetochores.
(3) anaphase. (4) metaphase.
(4) elongation of microtubules attached to
centromere.
103. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
113.
96.
106. Human cells in culture divide once in approximately
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: During cell growth, the ratio between
every;
the nucleus and the cytoplasm gets disturbed.
(1) 12 hours.
Reason R: It is essential for the cell to divide to
(2) 60 minutes.
restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
(3) 30 minutes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) 24 hours.
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false.
97. Given below are two statements:
107.
(2) A is false but R is true.
Statement I: The growth of multicellular
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
organisms is due to mitosis.
explanation of A.
Statement II: Cell division is a very important
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
process in all living organisms.
explanation of A.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
114. In cell cycle, the phase of actual cell division is;
104. 111. During which of the given phases, homologous
121.
(1) G1 phase. chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids
(2) M phase. remain associated at their centromere?
(3) G2 phase. (1) Metaphase II
(4) S phase. (2) Anaphase II
(3) Anaphase I
105.
115. The exchange of genetic material between two (4) Metaphase I
homologous chromosomes during cell division is
known as; 112.
122. The stage of prophase I of meiosis that involves
(1) recombination nodule. recombinase enzyme is;
(2) crossing over. (1) leptotene.
(2) zygotene.
(3) synapsis.
(3) pachytene.
(4) bivalent formation.
(4) diplotene.

106.
116. _________ occurs only during one specific stage in
113. An average duration of cell cycle in yeast is;
123.
the cell cycle.
(1) 60 minutes.
(1) Protein synthesis
(2) 90 minutes.
(2) Metabolic activity
(3) 20 minutes.
(3) Cell growth (4) 30 minutes.
(4) DNA synthesis
114.
124. Given below are two statements:
107.
117. Cell(s) that divide by mitosis is/are; Statement I: Cell growth (in terms of cytoplasmic
(1) upper layer of epidermis. increase) is a continuous process which occurs
(2) cells of the lining gut. during cell cycle.
(3) blood cells. Statement II: The events of cell cycle are under
(4) all of these. genetic control.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
108.
118. During telophase; appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. chromosome cluster at opposite spindle poles. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
B. two daughter nuclei are formed. incorrect.
C. chromosome's identity is lost as discrete (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
elements. correct.
The correct statement(s) is/are: (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(1) A and B only (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) B and C only incorrect.
(3) C only
115.
125. Choose the correct statement with respect to G0
(4) A, B and C
phase.
109.
119. Identify the correct sequence of stages of prophase (1) Cells that do not divide further exit G2 phase to
enter this phase.
I from initial to later.
(2) Cells of this stage remain metabolically
(1) Leptotene → Diplotene → Zygotene
inactive and no longer proliferate.
(2) Zygotene → Pachytene → Leptotene
(3) Cells of this stage remain active but no longer
(3) Diplotene → Zygotene → Pachytene proliferate unless called to do so depending on
(4) Leptotene → Zygotene → Pachytene the requirement of organism.
(4) This phase is also known as active stage.
110.
120. In prophase I, the chiasmata formation occurs
during; 116. Condensation of chromosome is completed by;
126.
(1) leptotene. (1) telophase.
(2) zygotene. (2) prophase.
(3) pachytene. (3) anaphase.
(4) diplotene. (4) metaphase.
117.
127. Identify the incorrect statement. 123.
133. Mitotic apparatus is formed of;
(1) Mitosis increases genetic variability in (1) spindle fibres only.
organisms from one generation to the next. (2) two asters together with spindle fibres.
(2) Mitosis is usually restricted to the diploid cells (3) asters only.
only. (4) one aster with spindle fibre.
(3) In some lower plants and in some social insects
haploid cells also divide by mitosis. 124.
134. The longest phase of meiosis is;
(4) A very significant contribution of mitosis is (1) prophase I. (2) anaphase I.
cell repair. (3) prophase II. (4) metaphase II.

118.
128. Match List-I with List-II. 125.
135. Given below are two statement(s): one is labelled as
List-I List-II Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(A) Leptotene (I) Chromosomes start pairing Assertion A: At the time of cytoplasmic division,
together organelles like mitochondria and plastids get
(B) Diakinesis (II) Compaction of chromosome distributed between the two daughter cells.
(C) Zygotene (III) Appearance of Reason R: In a plant cell, cytokinesis is achieved by
recombination nodules the appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane.
(D) Pachytene (IV) Terminalisation of In the light of the above statements, choose the
chiasmata correct answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) A is true but R is false.
below. (2) A is false but R is true.
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III explanation of A.
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I explanation of A.

119.
129. If the amount of DNA at G1 phase is denoted as 2C
then after the S phase amount of DNA will be ____. 126.
136. Meiosis involves sequential cycles of;
(1) 2C (1) two nuclear divisions and two cell divisions.
(2) 8C (2) two nuclear divisions and one cell division.
(3) C (3) one nuclear division and one cell division.
(4) 4C (4) one nuclear division and two cell divisions.

120.
130. Cytokinesis follows which phase to form a dyad of 127.
137. The stage at which morphology of chromosomes is
cells? most easily studied is;
(1) Anaphase I (1) anaphase. (2) metaphase.
(2) Prophase I (3) prophase. (4) telophase.
(3) Telophase I
(4) Metaphase I 128.
138. Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under the
microscope, do not show;
121.
131. Meiosis II is initiated immediately after; (1) golgi complexes.
(1) telophase I. (2) endoplasmic reticulum.
(2) prophase I. (3) nucleolus.
(3) cytokinesis. (4) all of these.
(4) interphase.
129.
139. Match List-I with List-II.
122.
132. Given below are two statements: List-I List-II
Statement I: There is no replication of DNA during (A) G1 phase (I) Proteins are synthesised
interkinesis. in preparation for mitosis
Statement II: Interkinesis is generally short lived. (B) S phase (II) Interval between mitosis
In the light of the above statements, choose the most and initiation of DNA
appropriate answer from the options given below: replication
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (C) G2 phase (III) DNA replication
incorrect. (D) Cytokinesis (IV) Division of cytoplasm
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Choose the correct answer from the options given
correct. below.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
incorrect. (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
140. In animal cells, the centriole duplicates in the;
130. 140.
133. Given below are two statements:
(1) golgi complexes.
Statement I: Prophase follows the S and G2 phases
(2) endoplasmic reticulum.
of interphase.
(3) cytoplasm.
Statement II: In the S and G2 phases the new DNA
(4) nucleus.
molecules formed are distinct and intertwined.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
141. Identify the incorrect statement.
131.
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
meiosis I.
incorrect.
(2) In some organisms, karyokinesis is not
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
followed by cytokinesis leading to
correct.
multinucleate condition.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Variations are very important for the process of
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
evolution.
incorrect.
(4) Cell-plate represents the middle lamella
between the walls of two adjacent cells.
141.
134. Chromosomes are spread through the cytoplasm of
cell in;
132.
142. Interkinesis is followed by;
(1) prophase.
(1) prophase II.
(2) metaphase.
(2) prophase I.
(3) anaphase.
(3) telophase I.
(4) telophase.
(4) metaphase II.
142.
135. Prophase I is divided into how many phases based
on the chromosomal behaviour?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Five
 ZOOLOGY

136. Which of the following is not present in ‘ash’? (2) Starch forms helical secondary structure.
(1) Calcium (2) Magnesium (3) In a polysaccharide chain, left end is called
(3) Sodium (4) Carbon reducing end.
(4) Ribulose bisphosphate Carboxylase-
137. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Oxygenase is the most abundant protein in
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: the whole of the biosphere.
Assertion (A): Nucleic acid is the genetic material
of all organisms without exception. 142. Inulin is a polymer of:
Reason (R): In majority of organisms genetic (1) fructose. (2) sucrose.
material is deoxyribonucleic acid. (3) glycogen. (4) none of these.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 143. I. Small organic molecules.
correct answer from the options given below II. Difficult to remove without denaturing the
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, enzyme.
and Reason (R) is correct explanation of III. Haem is an example of it.
Assertion (A) The above characters are related to which of the
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, following?
but Reason (R) is not correct explanation of (1) Metal ions (2) Coenzyme
Assertion (A) (3) Prosthetic group (4) Apoenzyme
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true 144. Which of the following statements regarding
enzymatic inhibitors is incorrect?
138. Study the following statements (1) Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site
(a) The substrate binds to the active site of the of an enzyme.
enzyme (2) Competitive inhibitor closely resembles the
(b) Enzymes isolated from thermophilic substrate in its molecular structure.
organisms get denaturated at 50∘ 𝐶 (3) Competitive inhibitors are often used in the
(c) The active site of enzyme breaks the chemical control of bacterial pathogens.
bonds of the product (4) Competitive inhibitors increase the rate of
(d) Prosthetic groups are tightly bound to the enzyme-catalysed reactions.
apoenzyme
Select the option which includes all correct 145. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. enzyme.
statements (1) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (c) and (d) malonate, here malonate is a competitive
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d) inhibitor.
(2) Enzyme increases the rate of reaction by
139. The shape of folded protein is often determined by decreasing the activation energy.
(1) its tertiary structure (3) Zinc is a cofactor for the enzyme carbonic
(2) the sequence of its amino acids anhydrase.
(3) the number of peptide bonds (4) Competitive inhibitors are often used in the
(4) the Chargaff's rule control of bacterial pathogens.

140. All the following statements are true with regard 146. Identify the basic amino acid
to coconut oil, except (1) Glutamic Acid (2) Lysine
(1) it is composed of medium chain triglycerides. (3) Valine (4) Tyrosine
(2) it contains mainly saturated fatty acids.
(3) has a higher iodine number than human fat. 147. Choose the type of enzyme involved in the
(4) contains cholesterol. following reaction.
𝑆 − 𝐺 + 𝑆′ → 𝑆 + 𝑆′ − 𝐺
141. Select the incorrect statement. (1) Dehydrogenase (2) Transferase
(1) Cellulose does not produce colour with 𝐼2 (3) Lyase (4) Hydrolase
148. An allosteric inhibitor of the enzyme acts by Statement II: Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon
binding to the atoms including the carboxyl carbon.
(1) substrate In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) product most appropriate answer from the options given
(3) catalytic site of enzyme below:
(4) noncatalytic site of enzyme. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
149. Which one is correct? (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) Cofactor plays crucial role in catalytic correct.
activity of the enzymes (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) 𝑍𝑛 is activator of carboxypeptidase (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) Catalase and peroxidase have haem as incorrect.
prosthetic group 154. Inorganic catalyst work efficiently at temperature
(4) All and pressure.
(1) high, low (2) Iow, Iow
150. Statement I: Among other nitrogenous bases only (3) low, high (4) high, high
adenine is the heterocyclic compound in the
nucleic acid. 155. What is the role of GLUT-4?
Statement II: Guanine is the substituted purine. (1) To transport lipids into cells
(1) Both Statement are correct. (2) To transport amino acids into cells
(2) Both statements are incorrect. (3) To transport glucose into cells
(3) Statement I incorrect and Statement II is (4) None of these
correct
(4) Only statement II is correct 156. All the following are composed exclusively of
glucose except
151. Select the option which is not correct with respect (1) Lactose (2) Amylose
to enzyme action (3) Cellulose (4) Maltose
(1) Addition of a lot of succinate does not reverse
157. Glycogen from glucose is formed by the process
inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
of
malonate
(1) glycogenolysis (2) glycogenesis
(2) A non competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme (3) glycolysis (4) gluconeogenesis
at a sight distinct from that which binds the
substrate 158. Read the given statements and select the option
(3) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of that correctly identifies them as true (T) or false
succinic dehydrogenase (F).
(4) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site. I. All enzymes are proteinaceous in nature.
II. Enzymes bring down activation energy
152. Which one of the following biomolecules is barrier making the transition of substrate to
correctly characterised? product more easily.
(1) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride found III. Thermal stability is the quality of enzymes
in cell membrane isolated from thermophilic organisms.
(2) Palmitic acid-An unsaturated fatty acid with IV. Glycolysis is a 20 steps anabolic pathway.
18 carbon atoms (1) I-T, II-F, III-F, IV-T
(3) Adenylic acid - Adenosine with a glucose (2) I-F, II-T, III-T, IV-F
phosphate molecule (3) I-F, II-F, III-T, IV-T
(4) Alanine-Amino acid contains an amino group (4) I-T, II-T, III-T, IV-F
and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule
159. Enzymes catalysing removal of group and
153. Given below are two statements: formation of double bonds are
Statement I: Amino acids have ionisable groups (1) Ligases
(2) Lyases
that change their structure in different pH
(3) Transferases
solutions.
(4) Oxidoreductases.
160. The most abundant protein in plants is found in
(1) Chlorophyll (2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria (4) Glycogen

161. The secondary order of protein structure is

(1) the sequence of amino acids in the (1) (a) (2) (b)
polypeptide (3) (c) (4) (d)
(2) the formation of peptide bonds between
amino acids 166. Ovarioles are
(3) the coiling of the polypeptide chain (1) structural units of ovaries of female
(4) the folding of the coiled polypeptide chain cockroach
(2) structural units of gonads of male cockroach
162. Essential amino acid includes (3) equivalent to uterus in function
(1) Leucine (2) Valine (4) the ligaments that connect ovaries to the
(3) Tryptophan (4) All of the above abdominal walls

163. Arrange the steps of catalytic action of an enzyme 167. Which of the following is correct regarding
in order and choose the correct option. female reproductive system of cockroach?
I. The enzyme releases the products of the (1) Ootheca is a dark reddish to blackish brown
reaction and gets free for another substrate. capsule about 3/8′′ 𝑚𝑚 long.
II. The active site of enzyme is in close (2) The female cockroaches produce 9-10
proximity of the substrate and breaks ootheca, each containing 14 to 16 eggs.
chemical bonds of the substrate. (3) The development of P. americana is
III. The binding of substrate induces the enzyme paurometabolous through the nymphal stage.
to alter its shape, fitting more tightly around (4) All of these
the substrate.
IV. The substrate binds to the active sites of the 168. Labial palp is a ...... organ
enzyme, fitting into the active sites. (1) Defense (2) Sense
(1) IV → III → II → I (3) Reproduction (4) Poisonous
(2) III → II → I → IV
(3) IV → II → I → III 169. Select the correct option with respect to
(4) II → I → IV → III cockroaches.
(1) The fore wings are tegmina which are used in
164. Which of the following is the compound that flight.
represents the shown figure? (2) Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous
wastes into urea.
(3) Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal
styles which are absent in females.
(4) Nervous system comprises of a dorsal
nervecord and ten pairs of ganglion.
(1) A purine (Adenine)
(2) A pyrimidine (Uracil)
170. The nervous system in cockroach
(3) A purine (Uracil)
(1) Is spread throughout the body
(4) A pyrimidine (Adenine)
(2) Is represented by segmentally arranged
ganglia and ventral nerve cord
165. Which of the following options correctly identifies
(3) Both a and b are correct
the structural formulae shown in figure?
(4) Consists of supra-oesopharyngeal ganglia in
head and dorsal nerve cord

171. In cockroach, food is crushed into fine

particles inside
(1) Midgut (2) Colon
(3) Gizzard (4) Pharynx
172. Select the correct sequence of organs in the In the light of the above statements, choose the
alimentary canal of the cockroach starting from most appropriate answer from the options given
the mouth. below:
(1) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard (1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
→ Ileum → Colon → Rectum incorrect.
(2) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Crop (2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
→ Ileum → Colon → Rectum correct.
(3) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Grizzard → (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Ileum → Crop →Rectum (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop → incorrect.
Gizzard → Colon → Rectum
177. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t frogs.
173. Match List-I with List-II w.r.t. cockroach. (1) Digestive system consists of alimentary canal
List-I List-II and digestive glands.
(2) Frogs are carnivores.
(A) Periplaneta (I) Hepatic caeca
(3) Alimentary canal is long.
americana
(4) Mouth opens into buccal cavity.
(B) A ring of 6-8 (II) Phylum
blind tubules Arthropoda 178. Which among the following statements is
(C) Vascular system (III) Spiracles incorrect?
(D) 10 pairs of small (IV) Open type (1) In female frogs, ovaries are located near
holes kidneys and have functional connection with
the kidneys
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) In male frogs, vasa efferentia arising from the
below:
testes enters the kidneys and opens into the
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Bidders canal.
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) In female frogs, oviducts open into the
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
cloaca.
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) In male frogs, Bidder's canal communicates
with urinogenital duct that comes out of the
174. Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues
kidneys and opens into the cloaca.
to beat for sometime. Select the best option from
the following statements.
179. Which of the following is mismatched w.r.t. Rana
(1) Frog is a poikilotherm.
tigrina?
(2) Frog does not have any coronary circulation.
(1) Hepatic portal system : Special venous
(3) Heart is myogenic in nature.
connection between liver and intestine
(4) Heart is autoexcitable.
(2) Renal portal system : Special venous
(1) Only (4) (2) (1) and (2)
connection between kidneys and lower parts
(3) (3) and (4) (4) Only (3)
of the body
(3) RBCs : Enucleated and contain haemoglobin
175. Fertilization in frogs takes place in:
(4) Lymphatic system : Consists of lymph,
(1) water. (2) fallopian tube.
lymph channels and lymph nodes
(3) uterus. (4) oviduct.

180. Disappearance of the tadpole tail during

176. Given below are two statements.
metamorphosis is brought about by
Statement I: Frogs have a short alimentary canal
(1) endoplasmic reticulum
due to their carnivorous diet.
(2) Golgi bodies
Statement II: . Eyes in a frog are a pair of
(3) lysosomes
spherical structures situated in the orbit in skull.
(4) Peroxisomes
 64-YN401MA

Home Assignment-02
DURATION: 180 Minutes DATE: 28/08/2025 M.MARKS: 720

ANSWER KEY
(PHYSICS)

1. (4) 10. (4) 19. (4) 28. (1) 37. (1)

2. (4) 11. (4) 20. (1) 29. (2) 38. (3)
3. (3) 12. (1) 21. (2) 30. (4) 39. (3)
4. (2) 13. (4) 22. (2) 31. (4) 40. (1)
5. (2) 14. (1) 23. (3) 32. (3) 41. (3)
6. (1) 15. (4) 24. (1) 33. (2) 42. (2)
7. (2) 16. (2) 25. (1) 34. (1) 43. (2)
8. (1) 17. (3) 26. (3) 35. (2) 44. (3)
9. (4) 18. (2) 27. (2) 36. (3) 45. (2)

(CHEMISTRY)

46. (2) 55. (3) 64. (4) 73. (3) 82. (3)
47. (3) 56. (4) 65. (2) 74. (3) 83. (3)
48. (1) 57. (4) 66. (2) 75. (1) 84. (4)
49. (3) 58. (3) 67. (3) 76. (2) 85. (3)
50. (3) 59. (1) 68. (1) 77. (3) 86. (2)
51. (1) 60. (2) 69. (4) 78. (1) 87. (2)
52. (4) 61. (4) 70. (1) 79. (4) 88. (1)
53. (1) 62. (2) 71. (1) 80. (4) 89. (3)
54. (1) 63. (3) 72. (1) 81. (4) 90. (2)

(BOTANY)

91. (3) 100. (2) 109. (4) 118. (2) 127. (2)
92. (1) 101. (2) 110. (4) 119. (4) 128. (4)
93. (4) 102. (2) 111. (3) 120. (3) 129. (3)
94. (3) 103. (4) 112. (3) 121. (3) 130. (3)
95. (2) 104. (2) 113. (2) 122. (3) 131. (1)
96. (4) 105. (2) 114. (3) 123. (2) 132. (1)
97. (3) 106. (4) 115. (3) 124. (1) 133. (1)
98. (2) 107. (4) 116. (4) 125. (1) 134. (2)
99. (3) 108. (4) 117. (1) 126. (1) 135. (4)

(ZOOLOGY)

136. (4) 145. (3) 154. (4) 163. (1) 172. (1)
137. (2) 146. (2) 155. (3) 164. (1) 173. (2)
138. (4) 147. (2) 156. (1) 165. (3) 174. (3)
139. (2) 148. (4) 157. (2) 166. (1) 175. (1)
140. (4) 149. (4) 158. (2) 167. (4) 176. (3)
141. (3) 150. (3) 159. (2) 168. (2) 177. (3)
142. (1) 151. (1) 160. (2) 169. (3) 178. (1)
143. (3) 152. (1) 161. (3) 170. (3) 179. (3)
144. (4) 153. (1) 162. (4) 171. (3) 180. (3)
 Hints & Solutions
(PHYSICS)
8. (1)
1. (4) d
= = 3t − t 2
2 2
V +V dt
Speed at mid-point = A B
 t
2
 d  =  (3t − t )dt
2

(5)2 + (12)2 13 0 0
= = m/s. 3t 2 t 3
2 2  = −
2 3
2. (4) 10
 at s,  = rad/s.
3
A  B = A B sin 
= 5  10  sin 37 = 30 units. 9. (4)
50
t1 = = 5 hr
3. (3) 10
50 5
t2 = = hr
30 3
5 10
t1 − t2 = 5 − = hr = 200 min.
3 3

10. (4)
A.B = (3iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ).(iˆ + ˆj + kˆ)
At a time t ' , two positions x1 and x2 of a particle 2 = 3+ 2+ 
are not possible. 2−5= 
 = −3
4. (2)
1 11. (4)
sy = u y t + ay t 2
2 Total distance
Average speed =
s y = −490 m, u y = 0 m/s total time taken
Total displacement
1 Average velocity =
− 490 =  (−9.8)t 2 Total time taken
2
Given Average speed = Average velocity
t = 10 s.
Hence, Total distance = Total displacement
5. (2) This is only possible when particle moves in
Reaction time straight line without turning back.
Distance travelled before applying brake
=
speed of vehicle 12. (1)
10
= = 0.5 s
20

6. (1)
x = 2t
x2 = 4t 2 ……(i)
If speed is increasing, tangential acceleration and
y = −4t 2
……(ii) velocity vector are in same direction, and  is
From (i) and (ii) always acute.
y = − x2 (represent parabolic path)
13. (4)
Area under a – t graph = change in velocity
7. (2)
(5 10) + (5  20) = vat 10s − vat 0s
Velocity of particle is constant, hence acceleration
is zero at t = 2 s. 50 + 100 = v − 5
150 + 5 = v
v = 155 m/s.
14. (1) 21. (2)
A = −4iˆ − 3 ˆj x = 2t 2 + 3t + 1
−4iˆ − 3 ˆj −4iˆ − 3 ˆj v=
dx
= 4t + 3
Aˆ = = dt
(−4)2 + (−3)2 5
Velocity depends on time.
 −4iˆ − 3 ˆj  v(t = 0) = 4(0) + 3 = 3 m/s
Velocity vector of boat = 10   
 5  dv
a= = 4 m/s2 (constant)
= −8iˆ − 6 ˆj dt

15. (4) 22. (2)

14  2 28 22
v=
ds
= 12t 2 + 4t + 5 = =  = 4 rad/s
dt 22 22 7
dv ac = R = 0.8 16 = 12.8 m/s2.
2

a= = 24t + 4
dt
a(t =1) = 24 + 4 = 28 m/s2 23. (3)
After half revolution, the point p moves at the point
p'
16. (2)
Rmax = A + B  pp ' = (2R)2 + (R)2 = R 2 + 4 = 2 + 4
Rmin = A − B
A − B  Resultant  A + B
A + B can also be written as B + A

17. (3)
The slope of s – t graph is maximum at C, so
instantaneous velocity is maximum at C. 24. (1)
u 2 sin 2 
18. (2) H max =
2g
2u sin 
Total time of flight = (50)2 sin 2 30 2500 1
g = = 
2  10 20 4
B  A , so, TB  TA
= 31.25 m.
 Shell hits ship B first.
25. (1)
19. (4)
dx
Displacement s = x f − xi v=
dt
= 6iˆ − 0iˆ = 6iˆ

20. (1)
d
t=
vb cos 

From A to B: Velocity is positive and increasing

Hence slope of x-t graph is positive and
increasing.
From B to C: Velocity is negative and
15 1 decreasing, hence slope of x-t graph is negative
= and its magnitude is decreasing.
60 5cos 
4 26. (3)
cos  =   = 37
5
vb sin  = vR
5sin37 = vR
3
vR = 5  = 3 km/hr. Angle between two vector is measured either from
5
tail to tail or head-to-head.
27. (2) 35. (2)
H 100 u2
t= = =2s ds =  ds  u 2
u1 + u2 50 + 0 2a
u ' = 2u
28. (1) d ' (2u)2
1 = 2
 = i t + t 2 d u
2 d'
1  =4
200 = (8)2 8
2  d ' = 32 m
400
=
64
 = 6.25 rad/s2 36. (3)
a1 = −g
29. (2)
d a2 = −g
vP = ( xP ) = 10t a1/2 = −g − (−g) = 0 m/s2.
dt
d
vQ = ( xQ ) = 2
dt 37. (1)
10t = 2 total distance
Average speed =
1 time taken
t= s
5
=
(100 10) + ( 200  20))
30
30. (4)
500
r = 3tiˆ − 4t 2 ˆj + 2t 3kˆ = m/s
3
= 3iˆ − 8tjˆ + 6t 2 kˆ
dr
v=
dt 38. (3)
a = = −8 ˆj + 12kˆ
dv 10
tan  = =1
dt 10
a = (−8)2 + (12)2 = 208 m/s2.

31. (4)
Drunkard walk 2 m forward in 8 second.
So, he cover 8 m forward in 32 second.
After 8 m, he moves 5 steps forward in 5 s and
reach to pit and fall into it.
Total time = 32 + 5 = 37 s
BC
32. (3) sin  =
AB
In uniform circular motion, speed is constant.
Magnitude of centripetal acceleration is constant 1 BC 100
= , BC = km.
but its direction changes continuously. 2 100 2

33. (2) 39. (3)

Time taken by stone to reach the bottom of well (t1) Distance covered
2h Tupstream =
t1 = Vb − VR
g 2 2
Time taken by sound wave to reach the top of well = = = 0.5 hr
6−2 4
h
(t2 ) = Distance covered
v Tdownstream =
Vb + VR
2h h
T = t1 + t2 = + 2 2
g v = =
6+2 8
1
34. (1) = hr.
d 2 4
tmin = = hr = 24 minute.
vb 5
40. (1) 43. (2)
5 u 30
vC 40  18 Stopping time =
a 4
= = 7.5 s
tan  = =
vR 20 Distance travelled in 8th second
= 2 × (displacement in 7 s to 7.5 s)
1 1
= 2    4   = 1m.
2 4

44. (3)
vb = 40 ˆj
25 5 vT = 40iˆ
tan  = =
18 9 vb/T = vb −vT
5
 = tan −1   = 40 ˆj − 40iˆ
9
vb/T = (40)2 + (−40)2
41. (3) = 40 2 km/hr
3
a = t 2

v t

 dv =  adt
u 0
v t 3
  dv =  t 2
dt 40
u 0 tan  =
t 40
 5   = 45 (North-West)
 t2 
v − u =  
5  45. (2)
2 0 2u 2 10
5 • T= = =2s
2t 2 g 10
v=u+
5 u2 100
• H max = = = 5m
2 g 2 10
42. (2) • v = u + at
vx = 0 + (2iˆ  2) = +4iˆ 0 = 10 − 10t
t = 1 s.
vy = 0 + (−4iˆ)(2) = −8 ˆj
• Magnitude of acceleration at any time t is 10 m/s2
 CHEMISTRY

46. Text Solution: Video Solution:

Since the photon of wavelength 𝜆 (energy ℎ𝑐/𝜆)
re‐emits as two photons of wavelengths 𝜆1 and 𝜆2
(energies ℎ𝑐/𝜆1 and ℎ𝑐/𝜆2 ), energy conservation
gives:
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 1 1 1
= + ⇒ = +
𝜆 𝜆1 𝜆2 𝜆 𝜆1 𝜆2
𝜆1 + 𝜆2
= . 50.
𝜆1 𝜆2
Video Solution:
Hence,
𝜆1 𝜆2
𝜆= .
𝜆1 + 𝜆2
Video Solution:

51.
Video Solution:

47. Text Solution:

(C) The energy of 2𝑠 orbital is less than the energy
of 2𝑝 orbital in case of hydrogen like atoms
Video Solution:

52. Text Solution:

Nucleus
Explanation:
Rutherford scattering experiment is related to the
size of the nucleus.
He defined that atom consists of large space where
48. Text Solution:
α- particles pass through but only at small region
By supplying 12.75 eV, the electron in H is
they reflect back that is the nucleus.
excited from 𝑛 = 1 to 𝑛 = 4.
Video Solution:
• Lyman lines (down to 𝑛 = 1 ): possible
transitions from 𝑛 = 4,3,2 → 1, giving 3 lines.
• Balmer lines (down to 𝑛 = 2 ): possible
transitions from 𝑛 = 4,3 → 2, giving 2 lines.
• Paschen lines (down to 𝑛 = 3): only 𝑛 = 4 → 3,
so 1 line. Hence, 3, 2, 1.
Video Solution:
53.
Video Solution:

49.
54.
Video Solution:

58.
Video Solution:
55. Text Solution:

1. Convert given data into consistent CGS units:

• Electron mass: 𝑚 = 9.1 × 10−28 g
• Electron velocity: 𝑣 = 3 × 104 cm s−1
• Uncertainty in velocity ( Δ𝑣 ) = 0.011% of
3 × 104
59. Text Solution:
Δ𝑣 = 3 × 104 × 0.00011 = 3.3 cm s −1 . 4866 Å
2. Heisenberg principle (Δ𝑥 Δ𝑝 ≈ ℎ⁄4𝜋 ) in CGS Video Solution:
form becomes
ℎ
Δ𝑥 ≈ .
4𝜋 𝑚 Δ𝑣

3. Planck’s constant ℎ ≈ 6.626 × 10−27 erg s

(1 erg = 1 g cm2 s−2).
4. Substituting:
6.626 × 10−27 60. Text Solution:
Δ𝑥 = (B) 39 𝐾 +and 40 𝐾 +
4𝜋 × 9.1 × 10−28 g × 3.3 cm s −1
Video Solution:
≈ 0.175 cm.

Video Solution:

61.
Video Solution:
56.
Video Solution:

62.
Video Solution:
57.
Video Solution:
 Therefore, 𝑁𝑒𝑢𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑛𝑠 = 𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 −
𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑠 = 12 − 6 = 6
Now for Silicon, Atomic Number is
Therefore, 𝑁𝑒𝑢𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑛𝑠 = 𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 −
𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑠 = 28 − 14 = 14
Hence, The ratio between the neutrons of
𝐶 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑆𝑖 = 6: 14 𝑜𝑟 3: 7.
63. Text Solution: So, the correct answer is option-(C).
Total spin 𝑆 = 68.
± 3⁄2 and Magnetic moment = √15 BM. Video Solution:
• For atomic number 7 (nitrogen), the ground‐state
configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p³, i.e., three unpaired
electrons in p orbitals.
• Thus total spin 𝑆 = 1⁄2 + 1⁄2 + 1⁄2 = 3⁄2.
• The spin‐only magnetic moment is 𝜇 =
√𝑛(𝑛 + 2) BM = √3 × 5 = √15 BM.
Video Solution: 69. Text Solution:
Meitnerium (Mt) is the official IUPAC name for
the element with atomic number 109. It is named
in honor of the physicist Lise Meitner.
Video Solution:

64.
Video Solution:

70. Text Solution:

Fluorine has a smaller atomic radius compared to
chlorine because as we move down a group, the
atomic number increases causing the number of
electrons and shells to increase. This results in an
65. Text Solution: increase in atomic radius down the group.Because
For H like atom order of energy of the orbitals of this smaller radius, the electrons in fluorine are
1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s = 4p closer together and experience more repulsion
66. Text Solution: from each other.When an additional electron is
2 added to a fluorine atom, it experiences
Video Solution: significant electron-electron repulsion due to the
high electron density around the small fluorine
nucleus.This repulsion makes it less energetically
favorable for fluorine to gain an electron
compared to chlorine, which has a larger atomic
radius and thus lower electron density, resulting in
less repulsion. Thus, the high electron density
around the small fluorine nucleus makes the
67. Text Solution: electron affinity of fluorine lower than that of
We know the atomic Number of Carbon is 6. chlorine.
Therefore, we can say that, Atomic Number Video Solution:
Electrons Protons=6
And given atomic mass or mass number is 12.
71. Text Solution: 76.
• Californium (Cf, Z = 98) belongs to the Video Solution:
actinoid series, part of the f-block elements.
• Actinoids include elements from atomic
number 89 (Actinium) to 103 (Lawrencium).
• It is not an alkali, alkaline earth, or
lanthanoid element.
Video Solution:
77. Text Solution:
For isoelectronic species;
Negative charge
Ionic size ∝ Positive charge
Thus, correct ionic size order is:
𝐾 + < 𝐶𝑙 − < 𝑆 2− < 𝑃3−
78. Text Solution:
72. Text Solution: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 ⇒ Mg, 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
Ionisation energy actually decreases down a ⇒ Al, 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 ⇒ S, 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
group because atomic size increases and the outer = Cl
electrons are less strongly attracted to the nucleus. On moving along the period, size will decrease.
The other statements are correct. So, largest size ⇒ Mg
Video Solution: Video Solution:

73. 79. Text Solution:

Video Solution: After removing two electrons, Be²⁺ is 1s², so the
third ionization must remove a 1s electron (core),
resulting in a very large jump (NCERT XI, Ch. 4).
Video Solution:

74. Text Solution:

Sudden jump in between first and second IE in
alkali metal Z.
75. 80.
Video Solution: Video Solution:
 Video Solution:

81. Text Solution:

The amount of energy released on the addition of 86.
an electron in outermost shell of an isolated atom Video Solution:
is called electron gain enthalpy.
Video Solution:

87.
Video Solution:
82.
Video Solution:

88.
Video Solution:

83. Text Solution:

After one electron has been removed, the ion bears
a positive charge and the remaining electrons are
held more tightly; thus removing the next electron
always requires more energy than the first.
Answer: Greater
Video Solution:
89. Text Solution:
Ge > As > Se
90. Text Solution:

• Li₂O and MgO are strongly basic oxides.

• P₄O₁₀ is an acidic oxide (phosphorus pentoxide).
• PbO₂ (lead dioxide) typically shows amphoteric
84. behavior, reacting with both acids and strong
Video Solution: bases.
Video Solution:

85.
 (BOTANY)
110.
100. (2)
101. (3)
91.
In animal cells, during the S phase, DNA
During leptotene stage the chromosomes become
replication begins in the nucleus, and the centriole
gradually visible under the light microscope.
duplicates in the cytoplasm.

102. (1)
92. 101. (2)
111.
All organisms, even the largest, start their life from In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can last
a single cell. for months or years.

93.
103. (4) 112.
102. (2)
Mitosis is divided into four stages namely During prophase stage of mitosis, each centrosome
prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. radiates out microtubules called asters.

104. (3)
94. 113.
103. (4)
The beginning of diplotene is recognized by the Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio between
dissolution of the synaptonemal complex. the nucleus and the cytoplasm. It therefore
becomes essential for the cell to divide to restore
105. (2)
95. the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
Anaphase II: It begins with the simultaneous
splitting of the centromere of each chromosome 104. (2)
114.
(which was holding the sister chromatids together), The M Phase represents the phase when the actual
allowing them to move toward opposite poles of cell division or mitosis occurs and the interphase
the cell by shortening of microtubules attached to represents the phase between two successive M
kinetochores. phases.

96.
106. (4) 105. (2)
115.
A typical eukaryotic cell cycle is illustrated by Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material
human cells in culture. These cells divide once in between two homologous chromosomes.
approximately every 24 hours.
106. (4)
116.
DNA synthesis occurs only during one specific
107. (3)
97.
stage in the cell cycle.
The growth of multicellular organisms is due to
mitosis. Cell division is a very important process in
117.
107. (4)
all living organisms.
A very significant contribution of mitosis is cell
repair. The cells of the upper layer of the epidermis,
108. (2)
98.
cells of the lining of the gut, and blood cells are
The interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration
being constantly replaced.
of the cell cycle.

118.
108. (4)
109. (3)
99.
During telophase, chromosomes cluster at
The nuclear membrane disappears by the end of
opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as
prophase II. discrete elements. Nuclear envelope develops
around the chromosome clusters at each pole
forming two daughter nuclei.
119. (4)
109. 127.
117. (1)
The correct sequence of stages in prophase I from Meiosis increases the genetic variability in the
initial to later is: population of organisms from one generation to the
Leptotene → Zygotene → Pachytene next.

120.
110. (4) 118. (2)
128.
Chiasmata formation occurs in diplotene stage of Leptotene Compaction of chromosome
prophase I. Diakinesis Terminalisation of chiasmata
Zygotene Chromosomes start pairing
121.
111. (3) together
Anaphase I: The homologous chromosomes Pachytene Appearance of recombination
separate, while sister chromatids remain associated nodules
at their centromeres
129.
119. (4)
112. (3)
122. S or synthesis phase marks the period during which
Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material DNA synthesis or replication takes place. During
between two homologous chromosomes. It takes this time the amount of DNA per cell doubles. If
place in pachytene. Crossing over is also an the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it
enzyme-mediated process and the enzyme increases to 4C.
involved is called recombinase.
130.
120. (3)
113. (2)
123. During telophase I, the nuclear membrane and
Yeast can progress through the cell cycle in only nucleolus reappear, cytokinesis follows and this is
about 90 minutes. called as dyad of cells.

124. (3)
114. 131.
121. (3)
Although cell growth (in terms of cytoplasmic Meiosis II is initiated immediately after
increase) is a continuous process, DNA synthesis cytokinesis, usually before the chromosomes have
occurs only during one specific stage in the cell fully elongated.
cycle. The replicated chromosomes (DNA) are
then distributed to daughter nuclei by a complex 122.
132. (3)
series of events during cell division. These events There is no replication of DNA during interkinesis.
are themselves under genetic control. Interkinesis is generally short lived.

125.
115. (3) 133.
123. (2)
Some cells in the adult animals do not appear to The two asters together with spindle fibres form a
exhibit division (e.g., heart cells) and many other mitotic apparatus.
cells divide only occasionally, as needed to replace
cells that have been lost because of injury or cell 134.
124. (1)
death. These cells that do not divide further exit G1 Prophase of the first meiotic division is typically
phase to enter an inactive stage called quiescent longer and more complex when compared to
stage (G0) of the cell cycle. prophase of mitosis.

126.
116. (4) 135.
125. (1)
By metaphase stage, condensation of In an animal cell, cytokinesis is achieved by the
chromosomes is completed and they can be appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane.
observed clearly under the microscope.
 134.
144. (2)
The complete disintegration of the nuclear
136.
126. (1)
envelope marks the start of the second phase
Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of
(metaphase) of mitosis, hence the Chromosomes
nuclear and cell division called meiosis I and
are spread through the cytoplasm of cell in it.
meiosis II but only a single cycle of DNA
replication.
145.
135. (4)
Prophase I has been subdivided into the five
137.
127. (2)
phases based on chromosomal behaviour, i.e.,
Metaphase is the stage at which morphology of
Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene and
chromosomes is most easily studied.
Diakinesis.

138.
128. (4)
Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under
the microscope, do not show golgi complexes,
endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear
envelope.

139.
129. (3)
G1 phase Interval between mitosis and
initiation of DNA replication
S phase DNA replication
G2 phase Proteins are synthesised in
preparation for mitosis
Cytokinesis Division of cytoplasm

130. (3)
140.
In animal cells, during the S phase, DNA
replication begins in the nucleus, and the centriole
duplicates in the cytoplasm.

141.
131. (1)
Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis
II.

142.
132. (1)
Interkinesis is followed by prophase II.

143.
133. (1)
Prophase which is the first stage of karyokinesis
of mitosis follows the S and G 2 phases of
interphase. In the S and G 2 phases the new DNA
molecules formed are not distinct but
intertwined.
 ZOOLOGY

136. Text Solution: In a polysaccharide chain, right end is called

Carbon is not present in ash. reducing end and left end is called non-reducing
137. Text Solution: end.
Video Solution:
• Nucleic acid is the genetic material of all
organisms without exception.
• In majority of organisms genetic material is
deoxyribonucleic acid.
Video Solution:

142. Text Solution:

The correct answer is:
(A) Fructose
Explanation:
Inulin is a polysaccharide composed of fructose
138. Text Solution: units linked by β-2,1-glycosidic bonds. It serves as
The substrate binds to the active site of the a storage carbohydrate in plants, particularly in
enzyme. roots and tubers of plants like dahlia and chicory.
Prosthetic groups are tightly bound to the Unlike glycogen (which is a glucose polymer),
apoenzyme. inulin is indigestible by human enzymes and is
Video Solution: used as a dietary fiber.
Video Solution:

139.
Video Solution: 143.
Video Solution:

140.
Video Solution: 144. Text Solution:
(4)
• Competitive inhibitor closely resembles the
substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits
the activity of the enzyme.
• Due to its close structural similarity with the
substrate, the inhibitor competes with the
substrate for the substrate-binding site of the
141. Text Solution: enzyme.
(3) • Consequently, the substrate cannot bind and as a
result, the enzyme action declines.
 [New NCERT Class 11th Page No. 117]
Video Solution:

148.
Video Solution:
145.
Video Solution:

149.
Video Solution:
146. Text Solution:
Basic amino acids have an extra amino (-NH₂)
group in their side chains, making them positively
charged at physiological pH. Lysine is a basic
amino acid because it contains an additional
amino (-NH₂) group in its side chain.
Other options are incorrect:
• Glutamic acid (A): Acidic amino acid, 150. Text Solution:
contains an extra carboxyl (-COOH) group. • Statement I is incorrect – Adenine is not the
• Valine (C): Non-polar, neutral amino acid, only heterocyclic compound in nucleic acids.
with a hydrophobic side chain. All nitrogenous bases (adenine, guanine,
• Tyrosine (D): Aromatic amino acid, cytosine, thymine, and uracil) are heterocyclic
containing a hydroxyl (-OH) group but not basic. compounds.
Thus, option B (Lysine) is correct. • Statement II is correct – Guanine is a
Video Solution: substituted purine, meaning it has a purine ring
structure with an attached functional group
(carbonyl and amino group modifications).
Thus, the correct answer is (C) Statement I
Incorrect and Statement II Is correct.
Video Solution:

147. Text Solution:

Transferase enzymes catalysing a transfer of a
group, G (other than hydrogen) between a pair of
substrate S and S’ e.g.,
𝑆 − 𝐺 + 𝑆′ → 𝑆 + 𝑆′ − 𝐺
(NCERT 11th Edition (2025-26) Page No. 117) 151.
Video Solution: Video Solution:
 found in organic molecules, is used in
organocatalysis to speed up chemical reactions.
5). In many aspects, enzymes are different from
inorganic catalysts. While enzymes are destroyed
at high temperatures, inorganic catalysts operate
effectively under high pressures and
temperatures.
152. 6). Enzymes extracted from organisms that
Video Solution: typically thrive in extremely hot environments,
such as those found in hot vents and sulphur
springs, are stable and maintain their catalytic
power even at high temperatures.
Video Solution:

153. Text Solution:

• Amino acids have ionisable groups that change

their structure in different pH solutions.
• Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including 155. Text Solution:
carboxyl carbon. GLUT4 is expanded as Glucose transporter
protein type 4. It is primarily accountable for the
[NCERT (2025-26) Class 11th Page No. 106]
Video Solution: transportation of glucose into the cells.
156. Text Solution:
The correct answer is:
(A) Lactose
Explanation:
• Lactose is a disaccharide composed of glucose
and galactose, so it is not composed
exclusively of glucose.
154. Text Solution: Why other options are correct:
1). A catalyst is a substance that speeds up a • Amylose (B) → A polysaccharide made
chemical reaction without being altered by the entirely of glucose (a component of starch).
reaction itself. Enzymes enable a variety of • Cellulose (C) → A structural polysaccharide
chemical processes to take place within the limits composed only of glucose.
of a living system's homeostasis. • Maltose (D) → A disaccharide consisting of
As organic catalysts, enzymes. two glucose molecules.
2). The majority of enzymes are protein-based. As
Thus, Lactose is the only option that contains
a result of proteins becoming denatured at high
another sugar (galactose), making it the correct
temperatures, enzyme activity is decreased. While
answer.
inorganic catalysts can often function effectively
Video Solution:
under both high pressure and high temperature
conditions.
3). As organic catalysts, enzymes do their job. A
substance used in a chemical reaction is a catalyst.
An organocatalyst is any organic chemical that
acts as a catalyst.
4). An organic catalyst, also known as an
organocatalyst, which is made up of different
157.
elements like carbon, hydrogen, sulphur,
Video Solution:
phosphorus, and other non-metal components
 • Valine – Essential amino acid, involved in
muscle metabolism and tissue repair.
• Tryptophan – Essential amino acid, precursor
for serotonin and melatonin.
Since all three (Leucine, Valine, and
Tryptophan) are essential amino acids, option
D is correct.
158. This follows NCERT Biomolecules, Chapter 9.
Video Solution: Video Solution:

159. 163.
Video Solution: Video Solution:

160. 164. Text Solution:

Video Solution:
• The structure shows a double-ring system,
characteristic of purines.
• Adenine is a purine with an amino group (-NH₂)
at position 6.
[New NCERT Class 11 Page No. 145]
165.
Video Solution:
161.
Video Solution:

166.
Video Solution:
162. Text Solution:
The correct answer is:
(4) D - All of the above
Explanation:
Essential amino acids are those that cannot be
synthesized by the human body and must be
obtained from the diet.
• Leucine – Essential amino acid, important for
167. Text Solution:
protein synthesis and muscle repair.
 In the female reproductive system, the sperms (1) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop →
fertilise the eggs and then fertilised eggs are Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
encased in the capsules called as ootheca which is This is the correct sequence of organs in the
a dark reddish to blackish brown capsule about alimentary canal of cockroach starting from the
3/8′′ 𝑚𝑚 long. Female produces 9-10 ootheca, mouth.
containing 14-16 eggs. The development of the Video Solution:
cockroach is through nymphal stage
(Paurometabolous).
168.
Video Solution:

173. Text Solution:

List-I List-II
Periplaneta americana Phylum
arthropoda
169. Text Solution:
(C) A ring of 6-8 blind Hepatic caeca
tubules
• Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous wastes
into uric acid. Vascular system Open type
• A cockroach's nervous system is made up of a 10 pairs of small holes Spiracles
double ventral nerve cord and multiple pairs of th
[Old NCERT, 11 , Page No. 114, 115]
ganglia. Video Solution:
• The forewings of a cockroach, called tegmina,
are not used for flight.
[Old NCERT 11th Page no. 112, 114]
170.
Video Solution:

174.
Video Solution:

171. Text Solution:

In cockroaches, the gizzard (proventriculus) is a
thick-walled muscular structure that helps in
grinding food into fine particles. It contains
chitinous teeth that mechanically break down the 175. Text Solution:
food before it enters the midgut for digestion. • Fertilisation is external and takes place in water.
Video Solution: • The female frog lays her eggs in water, and the
male frog releases sperm, which fertilizes the
eggs in the water.
Video Solution:

172. Text Solution:

The correct answer is:
 Video Solution:

176. Text Solution:

(C) 179. Text Solution:
• Eyes in a frog are a pair of spherical structures RBCs : Nucleated and contain haemoglobin.
situated in the orbit in skull. Video Solution:
• Frogs have a short alimentary canal due to their
carnivorous diet.
[New NCERT Class 11𝑡ℎ Page no. 81, 83]
177. Text Solution:
(C)
The alimentary canal is short because frogs are
carnivores and hence the length of intestine is
180.
reduced.
Video Solution:
[Old NCERT Class 11th Page No. 116]
178. Text Solution:
In female frogs, the ovaries are located near the
kidneys but do not have a functional connection
with them. The oviducts open separately into
the cloaca, unlike in males, where the vasa
efferentia pass through the kidneys before
reaching the cloaca.
Thus, option A is incorrect, making it the correct
choice for this question.