10-08-2025

5301CMD303361250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two mirrors labelled L1 for left mirror and L2 for right mirror in the figure are parallel to each
other and 3.0 m apart. A person standing 1.0 m from the right mirror (L2) looks into this mirror and
sees a series of images . The second nearest image seen in the right mirror is situated at a distance

(1) 2.0 m from the person

(2) 4.0 m from the person
(3) 6.0 m from the person
(4) 8.0 m from the person

2) A plane mirror,

(1) always form virtual image

(2) always form real image
(3) may form virtual image
(4) can not form real image

3) If an object is placed unsymmetrically between two plane mirrors, inclined at an angle of 72°,
then the total number of images formed are:

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) infinity

4) Image of the object is formed as shown in figure. If the mirror starts moving towards the object
with velocity v, then velocity of image will be

(1) v towards right

(2) v towards left
(3) 2v towards right
(4) 2v towards left

5) A clock hung on a wall has marks instead of numbers on its dial. On the opposite wall there is a
mirror, and the image of the clock in the mirror if read, indicates the time as 8:20.
What is the time in the clock?

(1) 3 : 40
(2) 4 : 40
(3) 5 : 20
(4) 4 : 20

6) A point object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm. The
image will form at

(1) infinity
(2) pole
(3) focus
(4) 15 cm behind mirror

7) The distance between an object and its doubly magnified image by a concave mirror is :
(assume f = focal length)

(1) 3f/2
(2) 2f/3
(3) 3f
(4) depends on whether the image is real or virtual

8) A concave mirror cannot form :

(1) virtual image of virtual object

(2) virtual image of a real object
(3) real image of a real object
(4) real image of a virtual object

9) Which of the following is correct?

(1) The image and object are never on either side of focus in a spherical mirror.
(2) A virtual image of real object must be erect
(3) An image formed in a plane mirror must have same speed as the object has
(4) Laws of reflection are same for all wavelengths.

10) In the figure shown the angle made by the light ray with the normal in the medium of refractive

index is:

(1) 30º
(2) 60º
(3) 90 º
(4) None of these

11) A man observes a coin placed at the bottom of a beaker which contains two immiscible liquids of
refractive index 1.2 and 1.4 as shown in the fig. The depth of the coin below the surface, as observed

from above, is

(1) 1.6 cm
(2) 7.5 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) none of these

12) An air bubble is inside water. The refractive index of water is 4/3. At what distance from the air
bubble should a point object be placed so as to form a real image at the same distance from the
bubble?

(1) 2R
(2) 3R
(3) 4R
(4) the air bubble cannot form a real image

13) Choose the incorrect statement

(1) Ray goes undeviated in normal incidence from rarer to denser medium
(2) Ray goes undeviated in grazing incidence from rarer to denser medium
(3) Ray goes undeviated in normal incidence from denser to rarer medium
(4) Ray goes undeviated in grazing incidence from denser to rarer medium

14) For a particular angle of incidence the angles of refraction in three media A, B and C are 15º,
25º and 45º respectively. The speed of light in these media va , vb and vc can be related as :

(1) va > vb > vc

(2) va = vb = vc
(3) va < vb = vc
(4) va < vb < vc

15) On an equilateral prism, it is observed that a ray strikes grazingly at one face and if refractive
index of the prism is 2, then the angle of deviation is :

(1) 60º
(2) 120º
(3) 30º
(4) 90º

16) A beam of monochromatic light is incident at i = 50° on one face of an equilateral prism, the
angle of emergence is 40°, then the angle of minimum deviation may be :

(1) 90°
(2) 70°
(3) 50o
(4) 20o

17) Two prisms of angle 1º and 1.5º are made of different material index µ1 and µ2 respectively. For
deviation to be absent in the combination.

(1) 3µ2 - 2µ1 = 1

(2) 2µ1 = 3µ2
(3) 2µ2 + 3µ1 = 0
(4) 3µ2 + 2µ1 = 5

18) An equilateral prism is made of a material of = 1.5. It is submerged in a liquid of = 1.2. A

ray is incident on one of the faces perpendicular to it. The angular deviation of the ray by refraction
by second surface is
(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 120°
(4) 30°

19) If the refractive index of crown glass for red, yellow and violet colours are 1.5140, 1.5170 and
1.5318 respectively and for flint glass these are 1.6434, 1.6494 and 1.6852 respectively, then the
dispersive power for crown and flint glass are respectively

(1) 0.034 and 0.064

(2) 0.064 and 0.034
(3) 1.3 and 0.064
(4) 0.034 and 1.0

20) A bird is flying 3 m above the surface of water. If the bird is diving vertically down with speed
6 m/s, the apparent velocity as seen by a stationary fish under water is :

(1) 8 m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) 12 m/s
(4) 4 m/s

21) A light ray incident on the glass liquid interface at an angle as shown in figure. Here is
slightly greater than the critical angle for glass-air interface .

(1) Light may come out into air if μliquid > μglass.
(2) Light may come out into air if μliquid < μglass.
(3) Light will never come out into air
(4) Critical angle for liquid-air interface is greater than glass-air interface if μliquid > μglass.

22) A small filament is at the centre of a hollow glass sphere of inner and outer radii 8 cm and 9cm
respectively. The refractive index of glass is 1.50. The position of the final image of the filament
when viewed from outside the sphere is:

(1) at a distance of 8 cm from the centre towards right

(2) at a distance of 9 cm from the centre towards right
(3) at the centre of the sphere
(4) at a distance of 8 cm from the centre towards left

23) A parallel beam of light is incident on a transparent sphere of refractive index ‘n’. If the beam
finally gets focused at a point situated at a distance = 2cm (radius of sphere) from the centre of the
sphere, then

(1) n = 1.2
(2) n = 1.5
(3) n = 4/3
(4) none of these

24) A concave spherical surface of radius of curvature 10 cm separates two media X and Y with

refractive indices & respectively. Centre of curvature of the surface lies in the medium X . An
object is placed in medium X .

(1) Image is always real

(2) Image is real if the object distance is greater than 90 cm
(3) Image is always virtual
(4) Image is virtual if the object distance is less than 90 cm

25) A converging lens forms an image of an object on a screen. The image is real and twice the size
of the object . If the positions of the screen and the object are interchanged, leaving the lens in the
original position , the new image size on the screen is :

(1) twice the object size

(2) same as the object size
(3) half the object size
(4) can’t say as it depends on the focal length of the lens

26) A parallel beam of white light falls on a convex lens. Images of blue , red and green light are
formed on other side of the lens at distances x , y and z respectively from the pole of the lens . Then :

(1) x > y > z

(2) x > z > y
(3) y > z > x
(4) none of these

27) Distance of an object from the first focus of an equiconvex lens is 10 cm and the distance of its
real image from second focus is 40 cm. The focal length of the lens is :

(1) 25 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 40 cm

28) Which of the ray diagram is correct (A and B are at distance that is equal to respective focal
length from the pole of the mirror/lens):
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

29) A real image of number 19 written on a card board placed normal to the optical axis of a
converging lens is obtained on a screen. The image will look like

(1) 16

(2)

(3) 61
(4)

30) A luminous point object is placed at O, whose image is formed at I as shown in the figure. AB is
the optical axis. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(1) If a lens is used to obtain image, the lens must be converging

If a mirror is used to obtain image, the mirror must be a convex mirror having pole at the point
(2)
of intersection of lines OI and AB
(3) Position of principal focus of mirror cannot be found
(4) I is virtual image

31) A lens produces a real inverted image which is just half the size of the object . The image is 60
cm from the object .

(1)
The lens is convex of focal length cm

(2)
The lens is concave of focal length cm
(3) The lens is convex of focal length 40 cm
(4) The lens is concave of focal length 40 cm

32) The focal length of an equiconvex lens in air is equal to either of its radii of curvature. The
refractive index of the material of the lens is

(1) 4/3
(2) 2.5
(3) 0.8
(4) 1.5

33) A bi-concave glass lens having refractive index 1.5 has both surfaces of same radius of curvature
R. On immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75. It will behave as a :

(1) convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R

(2) convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
(3) Divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
(4) Divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R

34) Find the focal length of a plano-convex lens, the radius of the curved surface being 10 cm
(µ=1.5)

(1) 10 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 25 cm

35) The power (in diopters) of an equiconvex lens with radii of curvature of 10 cm and refractive
index of 1.6 is :

(1) – 12
(2) + 12
(3) + 1.2
(4) – 1.2

36) A point object O can move along vertical line AB as shown in figure. When image of the object is
first visible to D then it is released at t = 0 from rest from A. The time for which object is visible to D
is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) t →

37) A ray reflected successively from two plane mirrors inclined at a certain angle (< 90°) undergoes
a deviation of 300°. The number of images observable are :

(1) 10
(2) 11
(3) 12
(4) 14

38) A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror along a vector The normal on incidence point
is along . Unit vector along reflected ray is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A light ray travelling parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror strikes the mirror at angle
of incidence θ. If radius of curvature of the mirror is R, then after reflection, the ray meets the
principal axis at distances d from the centre of curvature, then d is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) For concave mirror, a graph between –v and –u is as shown in figure. A line drawn at angle 45º

from the origin intersects it at the point P, coordinates of P will be

(1) (–2f, –f)

(2) (–2f, –2f)

(3)

(4) (–f, –2f)

41) A concave mirror has a focal length 20 cm. The distance between the two positions of the object
for which the image size is double of the object size is

(1) 20 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 60 cm

42) A spherical mirror forms images of the same size when an object is placed at a distance of 8
cm or 16 cm from the mirror . Determine the radius of curvature of the mirror. Is it concave or
convex?

(1) 24 cm concave
(2) 24 cm convex
(3) 12 cm convex
(4) 48 cm concave

43) A luminous point object is moving along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 12
cm towards it. When its distance from the mirror is 20 cm its velocity is 4 cm/s. The velocity of the
image in cm/s at that instant is :
(1) 6 towards the mirror
(2) 6 away from the mirror
(3) 9 away from the mirror
(4) 9 towards the mirror

44) A ray R1 is incident on the plane surface of the glass slab (kept in air) of refractive index at
an angle of indicence equal to the critical angle for this air glass system. The refracted ray
R2 undergoes partial reflection and refraction at the other surface. The angle between reflected ray

R3 and the refracted ray R4 at that surface is :

(1) 45º
(2) 135º
(3) 105º
(4) 75º

45) A plano-convex lens fits exactly into a plano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to
each other. If the lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices μ1 and μ2 and R is the
radius of curvature of curved surface of the lenses, then find the focal length of the combination.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

CHEMISTRY

1)
Identify (A), (B) and (C)

(1) Mn2O3, MnO2, Mn2O7

(2) MnO2, K2MnO4, KMnO4
(3) FeCr2O4, K2Cr2O7, K2CrO4
(4) CuSO4, Cu2, V2O5

2) When acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 is shaken with aqueous solution of FeSO4 then-

(1) ion is reduced to Cr3+ ions

(2) ion is converted to ions
(3) ion is reduced to Cr
(4) ion is converted to CrO3

3) Which of the following can be used for the conversion of potassium manganate to potassium
permanganate?

(1) O3
(2) Cl2
(3) CO2
(4) All

4) A : Mercurous ion is Hg2+.

B : Mercuric ion is .
C : General electronic configuration of Lanthanoids is (n–2)f1–14 (n–1)s2p6d10 ns2.
D : Dy+3 is paramagnetic.
E : K2Cr2O7 is orange coloured compound.
Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) D, E
(2) Only C
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, C, E

5) Assertion (A) :- HCl is not used in permanganate titrations.

Reason (R) :- In permanganate titrations HCl is oxidised to chlorine.

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

6) Select incorrect match of d-block elements and their uses :-

(1) Ni catalyst used in hydrogenation of fats.

(2) PdCl2 used in photographic industry.
(3) AgBr used in photographic industry.
(4) Ziegler catalysts used to manufacture polyethene.

7) The statement that is INCORRECT about the interstitial compounds is :

(1) they are chemically reactive

(2) they are very hard
(3) they have metallic conductivity
(4) they have high melting points

8) Which element among the following has the highest melting point ?

(1) Cr
(2) Fe
(3) Cu
(4) Mo

9) The electronic configuration of Cu (II) is 3d9 whereas that of Cu (I) is 3d10. Which of the following
is correct for aqueous solution ?

(1) Cu (II) is more stable

(2) Cu (II) is less stable
(3) Cu (I) and Cu (II) are equally stable
(4) Stability of Cu (I) and Cu (II) depends on nature of copper salt.

10) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
reason (R) :-
(A) : In aqueous solution Cr+2 is reducing while Mn+3 is oxidising in nature.
(R) : Extra stability to half filled electronic configuration is observed than incompletely filled
electronic configuration.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below
:-

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

11) Which of the following statement is incorrect :

(1) Zn, Cd, Hg are not transition elements

(2) Fe3O4 is not mixed oxide
(3) CrO3 > MoO3 > WO3 (order of oxidizing power)
(4) CoF3 exists but CoI3 does not exist

12) Which of the following statement is incorrect :

(1) Bronze is Cu + Sn
(2) KMnO4 is purple coloured
–2
(3) All bond lengths are identical in Cr2O7
(4) Ce+4 is stronger oxidizing agent

13)

Which does not contain X–X bond ?

(X = Non metal)
(1) H2S2O5
(2) H2S2O6
(3) H2S2O7
(4) H4P2O6

14) Which of the following is planar due to back bonding :-

(1) CH4
(2) N(CH3)3
(3) N(SiH3)3
(4) PF3

15) Choose incorrect match :-

Compound dimer form through

(1) NO2 2C-2e– bond

(2) BH3 3C-2e– bond

(3) AlCl3 2C-2e– bond

(4) CH3COOH Hydrogen bond

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) First compound for Xe synthesized was –

+ –
(1) [XeF ] [Xe PtF5]
(2) [XeO2]
(3) Xe[PtF6]
(4) O2[XeF6]

17) Highest catenation property is observed in :-

(1) C
(2) Ge
(3) Si
(4) Pb

18) Which factor is most responsible for the increase in boiling points of noble gases from He to Xe?

(1) decrease in I.E.

(2) Monoatomic nature
(3) decrease in polarisability
(4) increase in polarisability

19) Be2C + H2O → Be(OH)2 + X

CaC2 + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Y
Then X & Y are respectively.

(1) CH4, CH4

(2) CH4, C2H6
(3) CH4, C2H2
(4) C2H2, CH4

20) Which of the following noble gas found in pitchblende & monazite mineral ?

(1) Ar
(2) He
(3) Kr
(4) All of the above

21) In the structure of diborane :-

(1) All hydrogen atoms lie in one plane and boron atoms lie in a plane perpendicular to this plane.
2 boron atoms and 4 terminal hydrogen atoms lie in the same plane and 2 bridging hydrogen
(2)
atoms lie in the perpendicular plane.
4 bridging hydrogen atoms and boron atoms lie in one plane and two terminal hydrogen atoms
(3)
lie in a plane perpendicular to this plane.
(4) All the atoms are in the same plane.

22) XeF6 on partial hydrolysis gives :

(1) XeF2
(2) XeOF4
(3) XeO3
(4) XeOF2

23) XeF6 on reaction with CsF gives :

+ –
(1) [XeF5] [CsF2]
(2) XeF8
2+ 2–
(3) [XeF4] [CsF3]
+ –
(4) Cs [XeF7]

24) Fluorine is strongest oxidising agent due to

(1) High bond energy

(2) High hydration energy
(3) Low electron affinity
(4) Maximum electronegativity

25) Which is not monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer.

(1) PhSiCl3
(2) MeSiCl3
(3) Me2SiCl2
(4) Me3SiCl

26) Select the incorrect statement about graphite ?

(1) The bond order of C–C bond is greater than one

(2) Good conductor of electricity
(3) All C atoms are sp2 hybridised
(4) It is harder than diamond

27) Match the following columns and choose the correct option from the codes given below-

Column-I Column-II

(A) A poisonous gas (1) Phosgene

(B) Abrasive (2) White lead

(C) An ore of tin (3) Cassiterite

(D) A white pigment (4) Diamond

(1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(3) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(4) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

28) Incorrect about buckminster fullerene

(1) sp2 hybridisation

(2) purest form of carbon
(3) number of five member ring is greater than six member ring
(4) aromatic in nature
29) Phosphorus compound used as drying agent and desicating agent is –

(1) PCl3
(2) PCl5
(3) P4O10
(4) P4O6

30) Consider the following statements

(a) Borax dissolves in water to give an alkaline solution
(b) Boric acid is a weak monobasic protonic acid
(c) H3BO3 has layer structure in which BO3 units are joined by hydrogen bonds
The incorrect statement(s) is/are

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (c) only

31) For the complex showing the square planar structure the d-orbital involved in the hybridisation.

(1) dx2–y2
(2) dz2
(3) dxy
(4) dxz

32) Select the correct order of oxidising nature ?

(1) [Mn(CO)5] > [Fe(CO)5]

(2) [V(CO)6] > [Ni(CO)4]
2+ 3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6] > [Co(NH3)6]
(4) (1) & (2) both

33)

Which of the following compounds show optical Isomerism :-

(i) Cis-[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (ii) trans-[Co(en)2Cl2]+

(iii) Cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ (iv) [Co(en)3]3+
(1) (i) & (ii)
(2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (iii) & (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) & (iv)

34)

Compound Total stereoisomers

 (A) [Co(en)2Br2]+ (M) 2

(B) K3[Co(OX)3] (N) 3

(C) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (O) 4

+
(D) [Pt(NH3)3Br3] (P) 5

Correct is :
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) O M O O

(2) N M M M

(3) M O M M

(4) N N M M
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Choose incorrect stability order :

2+ 2+ 2+
(1) [Cu(NH3)4] < [Cu(en)2] < [Cu(trien)]
3+ 3– 3+
(2) [Fe(H2O)6] < [Fe(NO2)6] < [Fe(NH3)6]
3+ 3+ 3+
(3) [Co(H2O)6] < [Rh(H2O)6] < [Ir(H2O)6]
1+ 2+ 3+
(4) [Cr(NH3)6] < [Cr(NH3)6] < [Cr(NH3)6]

36) Select the correct M–C, Bond Strength?

– –2
(1) [Ni(CO)4] > [Co(CO)4] > [Fe(CO)4]
– –2
(2) [Ni(CO)4] < [Co(CO)4] < [Fe(CO)4]
– –2
(3) [Ni(CO)4] < [Co(CO)4] = [Fe(CO)4]
– –2
(4) [Ni(CO)4] = [Co(CO)4] = [Fe(CO)4]

37) “Crystal field splitting energy” (CFSE = “Δ0”) for [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is 242 kJ/mol. Then the “Crystal
field stabilisation energy” in kJ/mol will be

(1) 96.80 kJ/mol

(2) –96.80 kJ/mol
(3) 242 kJ/mol
(4) –242 kJ/mol

38) Statement-I : [Co(NH3)6]3+ is a homoleptic complex whereas [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ is a heteroleptic

complex.
Statement-II : Complex [Co(NH3)6]3+ has only one kind of ligand but [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ has more than
one kind of ligand

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

39) IUPAC name of [Co(NH3)6] [Co(ONO)6] :-

Hexaamminecobalt(II)
(1)
hexanitrito-Ncobaltate(II)
Hexaamminecobalt(III)
(2)
hexanitrito-Ncobaltate(III)
Hexaamminecobaltate(II)
(3)
hexanitrito-Ncobaltate(II)
Hexaamminecobalt(III)
(4)
hexanitrito-Ocobaltate(III)

40) Correct statement about crystal field theory ?

For octahedral complex d4 to d7 coordination entities are more stable for strong field as
(1)
compared to weak field.
(2) For tetrahedral complex high spin complex are rarely observed.
(3) Splitting in tetrahedral complex more than octahedral complex.
In the octahedral complex, three orbitals of higher energy t2g set and two orbital of lower
(4)
energy, eg set

41) Match the column :

(i) CoCl3.6NH3 (P) Green

(ii) CoCl3.5NH3 (Q) Purple

(iii) CoCl3.4NH3 (R) Yellow

(iv) CoCl3.3NH3 (S) Violet

(1) (i)- P, (ii)-Q, (iii)-R, (iv)-S
(2) (i)- Q, (ii)-R, (iii)-P, (iv)-S
(3) (i)- R, (ii)-Q, (iii)-P, (iv)-S
(4) (i)- R, (ii)-P, (iii)-Q, (iv)-S

42) Which of the following order is correct in spectrochemical series of ligands ?

– – 2– – –
(1) Cl < F < C2O4 < NO2 < CN
– 2– – – –
(2) NO2 < C2O4 < Cl < F < CN
2– – – – –
(3) C2O4 < F < Cl < NO2 < CN
– – – – 2–
(4) F < Cl < NO2 < CN < C2O4
43)

Order of number of chelate ring is correct for :-

(i) [Pt(Ox)2 (H2O)2] (ii) [Co(en)2(Ox)]+

(iii) [Ca(EDTA)]–2
(1) iii > i > ii
(2) iii > ii > i
(3) ii > iii > i
(4) None of these

44) For the system, the value of magnetic moment (µ) is :-

(1) 2.83 B.M.

(2) 1.73 B.M.
(3) 3.87 B.M.
(4) 4.92 B.M.

45) Find the value of 'a'. [a = x + y – z]

(I) [Co(en)2Cl2]+1 → Total no. of stereoisomer's is 'x'.
(II) [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4] → Total no. of structural isomer's is 'y'.
(III) [Pt(NH3)(Py)ClBr] → Total no. of optical isomer's is 'z'

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 7
(4) 5

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following statements are true regarding the features of human genome?
(a) About 5 percent of the genome codes for proteins.
(b) Repeated sequences make up very small portion of the human genome.
(c) Chromosome 1 has most genes.
(d) Average gene consists of 3000 bases.

(1) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Only (a) and (c)
(3) Only (c) and (d)
(4) Only (b) and (d)

2) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Process of translation is easy to conceptualise on the basis of complementarity.
Statement II: Nirenberg's cell-free system for protein synthesis finally helped the code to be
deciphered.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most approprite answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

3) Which of the following are correct for DNA double-helix structure.

A. It is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the bases project outside.
B. The two chains have anti-parallel polarity.
C. The bases in two strands are paired through H-bonds forming base pairs.
D. The two chains are coiled in a right-handed fashion.

(1) A, B, C & D
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A only

4) Select the true and false statements

(i) If the DNA molecule has 2000 base pairs then the number of sugar will be 6000 and of phosphate
will be 3000
(ii) A nucleotide molecule consist of a nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and a phosphate molecule
(iii) Site of DNA replication in a eukaryotic cell is cytoplasm
(iv) Semiconservative replication of DNA has been proved in bacteria as well as in plants

(1) T,T,F,T
(2) F,T,F,T
(3) T,T,F,F
(4) F,T,T,F

5) Select the correct features about Lac operon

(a) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation
(b) Lac operon is under control of positive regulation as well
(c) B-galactosidase is coded by Lac z gene

(1) Only (a)

(2) Both (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) , (b) and (c)
(4) Only (b)

6) Select the correct option :

(a) The RNA polymerase only capable of catalysing the process of elongation.
(b) In it's active state Ribosome have 2 subunit
(c) RNA polymerase III is responsible for transcription of tRNA.
(d) tRNAs are specific for each amino acid.
How many statements are incorrect :

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

7) Select the incorrect statements of the following:

(A) The DNA polymerases can initiate DNA replication on their own.
(B) All reference point while defining a transcription unit is made with coding strand.
(C) Inheritance of a character is not affected by the regulatory sequences of a structural gene.
(D) RNA polymerase catalyses the opening of DNA helix during transcription.

(1) A and C
(2) B and C
(3) A and B
(4) A and D

8) Select the correct set of statements :

(i) The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as mini-satellite.
(ii) DNA from a single cell is enough to perform DNA fingerprinting.
(iii) DNA from different tissue from an individual shows different degree of polymorphism.
(iv) DNA polymorphism is the basis of DNA fingerprinting.

(1) (i) and (ii) only

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(4) (i) and (iv) only

9) Read the following statements carefully

(a) RNA polymerase associates transiently with initiation factor (ρ) and termination factor (σ) to
initiate and terminate the transcription respectively.
(b) In actual structure, the tRNA is a compact molecule which looks like clover leaf like.
(c) The UTRs are present at both 5' end (after start codon) and at 3' end (before stop codon).
(4) Development and differentiation of embryo into adult organisms is also a result of the co-
ordinated regulation of several sets of genes.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Only (d) correct

(2) Only (a), (b) & (d) are correct
(3) Only (b) & (d) are correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) & (d) all are correct

10) What is correct about deoxythymidine ?

(1) It is N-base
(2) Ribose + Thymine
(3) Deoxyribose + Thymine + Phosphate
(4) It is nucleoside

11) Which of the following statement is correct about Lac operon.

(A) A polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a separate promoter and regulatory genes.
(B) It was Elucidate by geneticist Monod and biochemist Jacob.
(C) The a gene code for trans acetylase.
(D) The genes present in the operon are needed together to function in the same or related
metabolic pathway.

(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) C, D
(4) D, A

12) Which of the following statement is correct :-

Process of translation requires transfer of genetic information from a polymer of nucleosides to

(1)
synthesise a polymer of amino acids.
(2) Some amino aids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is degenerate.
(3) 64 codons code for 20 amino acids.
(4) Both (1) & (2)

13) Which of the following statements about Griffith’s experiment are correct?
I. S-strain have mucus (polysaccharide) coat.
II. S-strain are virulent and cause pneumonia infection, while R-strain do not.
III. Transforming principle is associated with genetic material of R-strain.
IV. Transformation of R-strain into S-strain can take place in a test tube.

(1) I and III

(2) III and IV
(3) I, II and IV
(4) II, III and IV

14) Find the correct statement w.r.t. transcription:-

There is single DNA dependent RNA polymerse that catalyses transcription of all types of RNA
(1)
in plant cell.
(2) Elongation is controlled by sigma factor.
(3) Rho factor terminates the transcription, when it associates with DNA polymerase enzyme.
(4) The promoter and terminator flank the structural gene in a transcription unit.

15) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA to be less specific.
(b) The split gene arrangement represents advance feature of the genome.
(c) The process of splicing represents the dominance of RNA-world.
(d) The presence of introns in split gene is reminiscent of antiquity.

(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) c and d
(4) b, c and d

16) Which one of the following statement is incorrect :-

(1) In many virus the flow of information is reverse

There are some important biochemical reaction in living system that are catalysed by RNA
(2)
catalyst
(3) RNA has evolved from DNA with chemical modification
(4) Both (1) & (3)

17) Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) AUG has dual functions, it codes for methionine and it also act as initiator codon
(2) The codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous fashion
(3) tRNA has an anticodon loop that has basis complementary to the code present on mRNA
(4) The order and sequence of amino acids are defined by the sequence of bases in DNA

18) Choose incorrect step about transcription.

(1) RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiate transcription.

(2) Nucleotide triphosphate act as substrate and polymerization in a template independent fashion.
(3) A short stretch of RNA remains bound to enzyme.
(4) Last step is termination.

19) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) 23 's' r-RNA in bacteria also behave as ribozyme.

(2) In tailing, adenylate residues (300-500) are added to 3' end
(3) mRNA undergoes additional processing called as capping and tailing.
(4) Both (1) & (3)

20) Statements-I : Introns or intervening sequences appear in mature or processed RNA in

eukaryotes.
Statements-II : In eukaryotes, the polycistronic structural genes have interrupted coding
sequences.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

21) Two statements are given below -

Statements I - The promoter is located towards 5' end (upstream) of the structural gene.
Statements II - Additional regulatory sequences that may be present further upstream or
downstream to the terminator.

(1) Statement I & II both are correct

(2) Statement I & II both both are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

22) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I : The DNA sequence coding for t-RNA or r-RNA molecules also define a gene.
Statement-II : A segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide, is called cistron.
Choose most appropriate answer from given below options :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

23) Statement-I : In ESTs identification of all the genes that are expressed as RNA occur
Statement-II : In sequence annotation sequences were arranged based on some non overlapping
regions present in them.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

24)

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : RNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation in template independent manner in 5' → 3'
direction.
Statement-II : In prokaryotes the translation can begin much before the mRNA is fully transcribed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

25) Assertion A: The primary transcripts are non-functional because they contain both exons and
introns.
Reason R: Splicing is a process where introns are removed and exons are joined in a defined order to
make the transcript functional.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

26) Assertion A: The genetic code consists of combinations of three nucleotides to code for the 20
different amino acids.
Reason R: George Gamow proposed that since there are only 4 different bases in DNA, a
combination of three nucleotides is necessary to code for all 20 amino acids.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

27) Assertion : The transcription and translation can be coupled in bacteria.

Reason : In bacteria, m-RNA doesn't require processing to become active and also transcription &
translation take place in same compartment.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Assertion (A) : Genetic code is nearly universal.

Reason (R) : It is same for all organism except in mitochondria & some protozoans.
Choose the correct answer:-

(1) (A) is correct while (R) is incorrect

(2) (A) is incorrect while (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

29)

Identify A, B, C & D in the following figure

(1) A-Polyadenylation; B-Intron: C-mRNA; D-RNA splicing

(2) A-mRNA; B-Intron; C-RNA splicing; D-Polyadenylation
(3) A-Capping; B-Intron; C-Polyadenylation; D-mRNA
(4) A-Intron; B-RNA splicing; C-mRNA; D-Polyadenylation

30) Correctly identify A,B,C in transcription unit:-

 A-Promoter, B-Terminator,
(1)
C-Template strand
A-Promoter, B-Template strand,
(2)
C-antisense strand
A-Promoter, B-Template strand,
(3)
C-coding strand
A-Promoter, B-Sense strand,
(4)
C-coding strand

31) Which one of the following is the sequence on corresponding coding strand, if the sequence of
mRNA formed is as follows :
5' AUCGACGGCUCAACACAGAUCGAA 3'

(1) 3' ATCGACGGCTCAACACAGATCGAA 5'

(2) 5' ATCGACGGCTCAACACAGATCGAA 3'
(3) 5' AACGACGGCACAACACAGAACGAA 3'
(4) 3' ATCGACGGCTCAACACAGACCGAA 5'

32) Read the following statements w.r.t lac operon.

(a) Can also viewed as regulation of enzyme synthesis by its substrate
(b) Genes codes for metabolism of lactose
(c) Operon regulated by the amount of lactose present in the medium, where the bacteria grown.
Find the correct Statement from given below.

(1) b & c only

(2) a & b only
(3) a & c only
(4) a, b & c

33) (I) O2 helps in releasing metabolic energy essential for growth activities
(II) Nutrients (micro and macroelements) are required by plants for the synthesis of protoplasm as
well as act as source of energy
(III) Optimum temperature for plant growth is needed
(IV) Environmental signal like light and gravity affect certain phases of growth
Choose the correct option

(1) All are correct

(2) I, II and III are correct
(3) I, II and IV are correct
(4) I and IV are correct

34) Identify the option having correct match of hormones with their respective function
(A) Apical dominance
(B) Xylem differentiation
(C) Increases malt yield
(D) Delayed ripening

(1) A and C – Cytokinin

(2) B and C – Gibberellins
(3) C and A – ABA
(4) A and B – Auxin

35) Identify the correct set of statements :

(a) A sigmoid curve is a characteristic of living organisms growing in a natural environment.
(b) Differentiated cells can regain the capacity to divide is termed as dedifferentiation.
(c) The plant growth regulators are small simple molecules of diverse chemical composition.
(d) Auxin was isolated by F.W. Went from tips of coleoptiles of oat seedlings.
Choose the correct answer from options given below :

(1) a, b and c only

(2) b, c and d only
(3) a, c and d only
(4) a, b, c and d

36) Select the incorrect match from the following :

Composition Phytohormones

(1) Terpenes Gibberellins

(2) Adenine derivatives Kinetin

Derivative of
(3) Auxins
carotenoids

(4) Indole compounds IBA

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

37) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I :- Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form
different kinds of structures. This ability is called plasticity.
Statement-II :- In cotton, coriander and larkspur the leaves of the juvinile plant are different in
shape from those in mature plants.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
38) Read the following & select correct statements :-
(A) Ethephon used as source of ethylene.
(B) ABA plays an important role in seed development, maturation & dormancy.
(C) Gibberellins promote bolting in beet, cabbages & many plants with rosette habit.
(D) 2, 4 - D widely used to kill monocot plants.

(1) A, B & D
(2) A, B & C
(3) B, C & D
(4) Both C and D

39) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Increased vacuolation is one of the characteristics of elongation phase of growth

(2) Growth and differentiation in plant is open
(3) Development is considered as the sum of growth and differentiation
(4) Plant growth regulators are extracellular factor for growth

40) Which of the following statements are correct?

a. Axillary bud inhibits the growth of apical buds. This phenomenon is called apical dominance.
b. Ethylene break seed and bud dormancy
c. Gibberellins extend the market period of fruits.
d. Abscisic acid helps seeds to withstand desiccation.
Options :

(1) c and b only

(2) b, c, and d only
(3) a and c only
(4) b and c only

41) Which of the following statements are correct ?

I. Growth in plants can be indeterminate or determinate
II. The final structure at maturity of a cell/ tissue is determined by the location in the plant body.
III. The act leading to maturation of meristems is termed as dedifferentiation.
IV. All differentiated cells can undergo dedifferentiation

(1) I, II, III only

(2) I, II, III, IV
(3) III, IV only
(4) I, II only

42) Assertion: Ethylene increases the yield in cucumber.

Reason: Ethylene promotes female flower in cucumber.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

43) (i) Formation of new leaves

(ii) Formation of adventious shoot
(iii) Formation of new roots
(iv) Apical dominance
(v) Delay in senescence
How many physiological roles are carried by cytokinin.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

44) Fill in the blanks

I. Spraying sugarcane crop with __A__ increases in length of the stem
II. __B__ enhances the respiration rate during ripening of the fruit.
III, _C_ does not occur naturally in plants.
IV. Search for natural substances with cytokinin like activities led to the isolation of __D__ from corn
kernels and coconut milk.

(1) A–Auxin, B–ABA, C–NAA, D–Kenetin

(2) A–Gibberellins, B–Ethylene, C–Kinetin, D–Zeatin
(3) A–Ethylene, B–Gibberellins, C–Kinetin, D–Zeatin
(4) A–Auxin, B–NAA, C–ABA, D–Cytokinin

45) Select the correct option for given diagram-

(1) Relative growth of leaf A is equal to relative growth of leaf B.
(2) Relative growth of leaf A is less then to relative growth of leaf B.
(3) Absolute growth of leaf A is equal to relative growth of leaf B.
(4) Relative growth of leaf A is greater then relative growth of leaf B.

46) Mark the given statements true(T) or False(F)

(i) Stellar distance are measured in light year
(ii) The universe is 200 billion years old
(iii) Big-Bang theory explain origin of earth
(iv) The earth was supposed to have been formed about 4.5 billion year back.

(1) (i)–T, (ii)–F, (iii)–F, (iv)–T

(2) (i)–T, (ii)–F, (iii)–T, (iv)–F
(3) (i)–F, (ii)–T, (iii)–F, (iv)–T
(4) (i)–T, (ii)–T, (iii)–T, (iv)–F

47) Which of the following connotations are not included in the theory of special creation :-

In the solar system of the milky way galaxy, the earth was supposed to have been formed about
(1)
4.5 billion years back
(2) The diversity was always the same since creation and will be the same in future also
(3) The earth is about 4000 years old
(4) All living organisms (species & types) that we see today were created as such

48) Which sequence is correct during course of evolution ?

A - Heterotrophic eukaryotes,
B-Photoautotrophic prokaryotes,
C - Chemoheterotrophic prokaryotes and
D - Chemoautotrophic prokaryotes

(1) C → D → B → A
(2) B → C → D → A
(3) A → D → B → C
(4) C → B → D → A
49) Which of the following amino acid was not formed during simulation experiment of stanley
miller?

(1) Alanine
(2) Aspartic acid
(3) Glycine
(4) Glutamic acid

50) Who proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic
molecules?

(1) SL Miller
(2) Oparin and Haldane
(3) Charles Darwin
(4) Alfred Wallace

51) The Mesozoic era is known as

(1) Age of mammals and modern flora

(2) Age of reptiles and gymnosperms
(3) Age of amphibia and bryophytes
(4) Age of marine invertebrates

52) Which organisms probably evolved into first amphibians?

(1) Synapsids
(2) Sauropsids
(3) Coelacanth
(4) Ichthyosaurs

53) Fossils of Archaeopteryx was found as print on Mesozoic rock. This was :

(1) Dinosaurs
(2) Missing link
(3) A reptile
(4) A mammal

54) Which animal evolves into fish like reptiles :

(1) Archeopteryx
(2) Tyranosaurus rex
(3) Icthyosaurs
(4) Pelycosaurs

55) Flipper of penguin and flipper of dolphins are example of :-

(1) Homologous organ
(2) Analogous organ
(3) Atavistic organ
(4) Vestigial organ

56) In evolution the studies can be made at molecular level. For example, the proteins present in the
blood of man and ape are similar. The base sequence in nucleic acids and amino acids sequence in
proteins of related organism is alike. These are the examples which are specifically referred to in :

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Molecular analogy
(3) Molecular homology
(4) Homoplastic appearance

57) Process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and
literally radiating to other areas of geography is called as :-

(1) Parallel evolution

(2) Speciation
(3) Adaptive convergence
(4) Adaptive radiation

58) Mole and Marsupial mole both are fossorial mammals and provide good examples of :-

(1) Homology
(2) Analogy
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) (2) and (3) both

59) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita represents :

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Analogous organs
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Parallel evolution

60) Peripatus is connecting link between :

(1) Mollusca and Arthropoda

(2) Flat worms and annelida
(3) Annelida and Arthropoda
(4) Annelida and Mollusca

61) Evolution of heart from one or two, three and four chambered proves

Recapitulation theory
(1)

Allen's law
(2)

Hardy Weinberg's law

(3)

(4) Neo Darwinism

62) In embryonic stage general characters appear firstly and specialized characters appear later.
This statement states :-

(1) Biogenetic law

(2) Recapitulation theory
(3) Baer's law
(4) Neolamarkism

63)

Biogeographical evidences are the evidences which belong to:

(1) Dead remains of past organisms

(2) Vestigial organs found in human
(3) Distribution of fauna and flora
(4) Atavistic structures

64) The figure shows :

(1) Adaptive radiation in marsupials of Australia

(2) Adaptive radiation in placental mammals of Australia
(3) Natural selection
(4) Convergent evolution

65) The ultimate source of variation is :

(1) Mutation
(2) Sexual reproduction
(3) Natural selection
(4) Hormonal action

66) Key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution are :-

(1) Natural selection

(2) Branching descent
(3) Mutation
(4) Both 1 and 2

67) Impression or remains of hard parts of life-forms found in rocks called

(1) Palaeontology
(2) Fossils
(3) Petrification
(4) Preservation

68) Weismann’s theory of continuity of germplasm disproves the theory of:

(1) Theory of Lamarck

(2) Theory of biogenesis
(3) Theory of Darwin
(4) Theory of mutation

69) Saltation is referred as-

(1) Single step small mutation

(2) Multiple step small mutation
(3) Single step large mutation
(4) None of these

70) If the change in gene frequency in a population occurs by chance, it is called as :-

(1) Genetic drift

(2) Genetic equilibrium
(3) Gene flow
(4) Hybridisation

71) The movement of new genes into a population as a result of migration or hybridization is called
(1) founder principle
(2) selection
(3) gene flow
(4) bottleneck effect

72) Genetic drift occurs when few individuals of a parent population colonize in a geographically
distinct area, the phenomenon is

(1) bottleneck effect

(2) assortative mating
(3) founder’s effect
(4) random mating

73) The factor which favours the Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium in a population:

(1) Natural selection

(2) Random mating
(3) Gene recombination
(4) Gene flow

74) Assertion (A): Industrial melanism is example of disruptive selection.

Reason (R): Disruptive selection favours selection of members with mean value only

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

75) Match the column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(A) Homo habilis (P) Ate meat

(B) Homo erectus (Q) 650–800 cc

(C) Neanderthal (R) 900cc

East and central

(S)
Asia
(1) (A)–Q, (B)–P,R, (C)–S
(2) (A)–Q, (B)–P, S (C)–R
(3) (A)–R, (B)–Q, (C)–P, S
(4) (A)–P, S (B)–Q, (C)–R

76) Who is considered as the connecting link between apes and man?

(1) Dryopithecus
(2) Ramapithecus
(3) Australopithecus
(4) Shivapithecus

77)

The normal value of GFR is approximately :-

(1) 650 ml/min

(2) 180 ml/min
(3) 180 ml/day
(4) 125 ml/min

78) Assertion :- Uricotelism is terrestrial adaptation.

Reason :- Uric acid is least toxic and can be removed with a minimum loss of water.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

79) The renal cortex extends between the medullary pyramids are

(1) Renal pelvis

(2) Renal corpuscle
(3) Columns of Bertini
(4) Calyx

80) Statement-I : Each kidney has nearly one million complex tubular structure called nephrons.
Statement-II : The renal tubule begins with a double walled cup-like structure called glomerulus.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I correct and Statement-II incorrect.
(4) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II correct.

81) Match the terms given in Column I with their physiological functions given in Column II and
choose the correct answer.
(1) a–iv, b–v, c–iii, d–ii, e–i
(2) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–v, e–ii
(3) a–i, b–iii, c–ii, d–v, e–iv
(4) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–v, e–ii

82) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(I) Cockroaches (a) Nephridia

(II) Prawns (b) Protonephridia

(III) Earthworm (c) Green gland

(IV) Flatworms (d) Malpighian tubules

(1) I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-d
(2) I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a
(3) I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-d
(4) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b

83) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in :-

(1) Nephrons having too short loop of Henle.

(2) 85% of nephrons (majority of nephrons).
(3) Cortical nephrons.
(4) All of the above

84) Glucose is reabsorbed from glomerular filterate through

(1) Active transport

(2) Passive transport
(3) Osmosis
(4) Diffusion

85) Statement I: The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water but almost
impermeable to electrolytes.
Statement II: The ascending limb is impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolytes
actively of passively

(1) Both statement are correct

(2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

86) Which of the following option shows correct match of all three columns ?

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) ANF Atria of heart Vasocontriction

(ii) ADH Neurophypohysis Prevent diuresis

(iii) RAAS Low blood pressure Juxta glomerular apparatus

(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) only
(4) (ii) only

87) During micturition :-

(1) Contraction of smooth muscles of the bladder and relaxation of urethral sphincter
(2) Contraction of urethral sphincter and relaxation of smooth muscles of the bladder.
(3) Contraction of smooth muscles of the bladder and No relaxation of urethral sphincter.
(4) Relaxation of urethral sphincter and No contraction of smooth muscles of the bladder.

88) Dialysis fluid contain all the constituents as in plasma except :

(1) Glucose
(2) Electrolytes
(3) Nitrogenous wastes
(4) Proteins

89) Assertion : In vertebrates, the liver is also referred as an accessory excretory organ.
Reason : Liver helps kidneys in the secretion of urine.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

90) Match the abnormal conditions given in column I with their explanation given in column II and
Choose the correct option.

(1) A - i B - iii C- ii D-iv

(2) A - iii B - ii C- iv D-i
(3) A - iv B - iii C- ii D-i
(4) A - iv B - ii C- iii D-i
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 1 4 1 4 1 1 2 1 2 4 2 4 2 4 1 2 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 4 3 1 3 3 3 3 1 1 4 1 3 3 1 2 4 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 3 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 4 1 4 2 1 4 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 1 4 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 4 2 4 4 3 3 3 2 1 4 3 2 2 2 2 4 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 2 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 3 2 3 4 1 3 1 4 3 2 3 4 3 4 4 2 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 2 3 2 1 1 4 3 3 2 4 1 4 4 3 4 2 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 2 2 4 1 1 1 4 2 2 3 2 3 2 3 4 4 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 3 1 1 4 2 1 3 1 3 3 2 4 1 3 4 2 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 4 1 1 4 1 3 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 2.0 m from the person

2)

may form virtual image

3)

Ans. 5

4)

2v towards left

5)

3 : 40

6)

15 cm behind mirror

7)

3f/2

8)

virtual image of virtual object

9)

A virtual image of real object must be erect

10)

Ans. 30º

11)
7.5 cm

12)

the air bubble cannot form a real image

13)

Ray goes undeviated in grazing incidence from rarer to denser medium

14)

va < vb < vc

15)

Ans. 120º

16)

Ans. 20o

17)

3µ2 - 2µ1 = 1

18)

Ans. 60°

19)

Ans. 0.034 and 0.064

20)

Ans. 8 m/s

21)

Light will never come out into air

22)

at the centre of the sphere

23)

none of these

24)

Image is always virtual

25)

twice the object size

26)

y>z>x

27)

20 cm

28)

29)

Ans. 61

30)

If a lens is used to obtain image, the lens must be converging

31)

The lens is convex of focal length cm

32)
Ans. 1.5

33)

convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R

34)

Ans. 20 cm

35)

Ans. + 1.2

36)

Ans.

37)

Ans. 11

38)

Ans.

39)

Ans.

40)

(–2f, –2f)

41)

Ans. 20 cm

42)

24 cm concave
 43)

9 away from the mirror

44)

105º

45)

Ans.

CHEMISTRY

46)

MnO2, K2MnO4, KMnO4

47) ion is reduced to Cr3+ ions

48)

O3
Cl2
CO2

49)

D, E

50) NCERT, Pg. # 108

Permanganate titrations in presence of HCl are unsatisfactory.

51) NCERT, Pg. # 114

In the wacker process the oxidation of ethyne to ethanal is catalysed by PdCl2.

52) Interstitial compounds are inert, i.e., they are chemically non-reactive.

53) Answer - Option(4)

Explanation - To determine which element has the highest melting point among the given
options (Cr, Fe, Cu, Mo), let's look at their melting points
Concept - (4) Molybdenum (Mo) has the highest melting point at 2623°C.
 Molybdenum has a very high melting point due to its strong metallic bonding and a high
number of unpaired d-electrons, leading to strong cohesion in its crystal lattice.

54)

Asking for: The relative stability of Cu(I) (3d¹⁰) and Cu(II) (3d⁹) ions in aqueous solution.

Concept: The stability of ions in aqueous solution is determined by a balance of factors,

including electronic configuration, hydration energy, and the nature of the counterion (in the
case of salts). While a d¹⁰ configuration suggests higher stability due to a completely filled d
subshell, hydration energy plays a significant role for ions in solution.

Formula: The overall stability can be thought of in terms of the energy changes involved in
the formation of the hydrated ions from the metal.

Solution/Explanation:

A. Cu(I) (3d¹⁰): This ion has a completely filled d subshell, which is generally associated with
high stability due to exchange energy and symmetrical electron distribution. However, Cu(I)
has a higher charge density compared to other +1 ions due to its smaller size and higher
effective nuclear charge than alkali metals. This leads to a relatively high polarizing power but
not necessarily exceptionally high hydration energy compared to Cu(II).

B. Cu(II) (3d⁹): This ion has one unpaired electron in the d subshell. Although a completely filled
d subshell is considered stable, Cu(II) has a higher charge (+2) compared to Cu(I) (+1).
Higher charge leads to a significantly greater attraction for polar water molecules, resulting in
a much higher hydration energy for Cu(II) than for Cu(I). The high hydration energy released
upon dissolving Cu(II) salts in water often outweighs the stability gained by the d¹⁰
configuration of Cu(I).

In aqueous solution, Cu(II) forms hydrated ions like [Cu(H₂O)₆]²⁺. The strong ion-dipole
interactions between the Cu²⁺ ion and water molecules release a substantial amount of energy
(high hydration energy). This high hydration energy stabilizes Cu(II) in aqueous solution to a
greater extent than the electronic stability of the 3d¹⁰ configuration stabilizes Cu(I), whose
hydration energy is lower due to its smaller charge.

Furthermore, Cu(I) in aqueous solution is known to be unstable and tends to disproportionate

into Cu(0) and Cu(II): 2Cu⁺(aq) → Cu(s) + Cu²⁺(aq)

This disproportionation reaction indicates that Cu(II) is thermodynamically more stable than
Cu(I) in aqueous solution under standard conditions.

Therefore, Cu(II) is more stable in aqueous solution than Cu(I).

Answer : Option : 1

55)

Explanation - The question asks you to analyze an assertion (A) and a reason (R) regarding
the redox properties of Cr²⁺ and Mn³⁺ ions, and then determine if:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true.
B. (R) correctly explains (A).

Concept - (Redox Properties of Cr+ & Mn3+)

Cr²⁺, with d⁴ configuration, readily loses an electron to achieve stable d³ (half-filled t₂g),
making it a reducing agent.

Mn³⁺, also d⁴, gains an electron for stable d⁵ (half-filled d), acting as an oxidizing agent.

Half-filled configurations gain extra stability. This stability explains Cr²⁺ reducing and Mn³⁺
oxidizing behavior.

Therefore, both assertion and reason are true, with the reason correctly explaining the
assertion.

Final Answer - Option (2)

56)

Fe3O4 is not mixed oxide

57)

All bond lengths are identical in Cr2O7–2

58)

Concept : (Non-metal-Non-metal bond in compounds H 2 S 2 O 5 , H 2 S 2 O 6 , H 2 S 2 O 7 &

H4P2O6)

A. H2S2O5 (Pyrosulfurous acid):

A. It contains an S–S bond.

B. H2S2O6 (Dithionic acid):

 A. It contains an S–S bond.

B. H2S2O7 (Pyrosulfuric acid or Oleum):

A. It contains an S–O–S bond, not an S–S bond.

B. H4P2O6 (Hypophosphoric acid):

A. It contains a P–P bond.

Therefore, the compound that does not contain an X–X bond is

H2S2O7.
Final Answer : (3) H2S2O7

59)

60) Explanation : The question is asking to identify the incorrect match of compounds and
their imerization form.
Concept : (Dimerisation & 2C– 2e– bond)
"AIC13 – 2C–2e– bond". When AICl3 forms a dimer, it does so through 3C-2e- bonds, not 2C-2e–

bonds.
Final Answer : Option (3)

61) Explain Question: Which was the first synthsized compounds of Xe?
Concept: General properties of noble gases
Solution: Xe[PtF6] was the first compound synthesized by Neil Bartlett in 1962.
Final Answer: (3) Xe[PtF6]

62) Question Explain : Which element show highest catenation

Content: This question based on Calenation
Solution: Carbon shows the highest catenation due to strong C – C bonds, small size, and
ability to form long stable chain and rings.
Final Answer : option (1) C

63)

Explain Question : Identify the correct factor

Concept : This question is based on Boiling point.

Solution : Boiling point increase from He to Xe due to increasing polarisability, Causing

stronger London dispersion force between atoms.
Stronger vander waal's forces → Higher boiling point.

Final Answer : option (4)

64) Be2C + 4HOH → 2Be (OH)2 + CH4

CaC2 + 2HOH → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2

65)

Explain Question:
Identify a noble gas which is found is pitch blends and monazite minral.

Concept: Geneal properties of noble gases.

Solution: He is the noble gas found is pitchblende and monazite, formed from the radioactive
decay of elements within them.

Final Answer: (2) He

66) Explain Question: Identify the correct statement for diborane
Concept: This question based on Diborane
Solution:

Answer: (2) 2 boron atoms and 4 terminal hydrogen atoms lie in the same plane and 2
bridging hydrogen atoms lie in the perpendicular plane.

67) XeF6 XeOF4

68) CsF + XeF6 —→ Cs+[XeF7]–

69)

Explain Question : Identify, correct reason for the given statement

Concept : This question is based on oxidising and reducing nature

Solution : Fluorine is the strongest oxidising agent due to the high hydration energy of F– ion.

Final Answer : option (2)

70) Theory Based

Me3SiCl → forms dimer only

71) Diamond is naturally occuring hardest substance.

72)

A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

73) NCERT-XI PART-2, Pg#318

74)

P4O10

75)

(b) only
 76)

dx2–y2

77)

(1) & (2) both

78) Explaining the question : Identify which of the listed cobalt complexes are chiral and
thus exhibit optical isomerism.
Concept : Optical Isomerism Solution : Cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ is chiral due to the adjacent
arrangement of ligands lacking a plane of symmetry. [Co(en)3​]3+ is also chiral as the tris-
chelated structure is non-superimposable on its mirror image.

79)

As per concept

80)

Explanation:
The question asks you to identify the incorrect stability order among the given sets of
coordination complexes.

Concept: (Stability chelate effect, ligand strength, Metal ion size, Metal oxidation
state of coordination compounds)

A. Chelate effect: Polydentate ligands (en, trien) create more stable complexes. (Correct)
B. Ligand strength: Stronger field ligands (NO2–) create more stable complexes than weaker
ones (NH3, H2O). (Incorrect)
C. Metal ion size: Stability increases down a group for similar complexes.
D. Metal oxidation state: Higher oxidation states generally increase complex stability.

Final Answer: Option (2)

81) M–C B.O./C–O B.L. –ve charge

82)

CFSE ⇒ –0.4Δ0 × 1 = –0.4 Δ0

⇒ –0.4 × 242 = –96.80 kJ/mol

83)

Explanation: The question asks to verify the correctness of two statements regarding the
classification of coordination complexes as homoleptic or heteroleptic based on their ligands.
Concept: (Homoleptic & Hetero leptic Complexes)
A. Homoleptic complexes contain only one type of ligand.
B. Heteroleptic complexes contain more than one type of ligand.
C. [Co(NH3)6]3+ has only NH3 ligands, making it homoleptic.
D. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ has both NH3 and Cl- ligands, making it heteroleptic.
E. Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Final Answer - Option (4)

84)

Hexaamminecobalt(III)
hexanitrito-Ocobaltate(III)

85)

For octahedral complex d4 to d7 coordination entities are more stable for strong field as
compared to weak field.

86)

(i)- R, (ii)-Q, (iii)-P, (iv)-S

87) Explain Question:

Identify the correct order of spectrochemical series of lignds
Concept: This question based on spectrochemical series.
Solution:
Spectrochemical series order -
Cl– < F– < C2O42– < NO2– < CN–
Final Answer (1) Cl– < F– < C2O42– < NO2– < CN–

88) Explanation :
The question asks you to determine the correct order of the number of chelate rings present in
three given coordination complexes.

Concept :
Chelate effect

Solution :
The number of chelate rings are (i) (from 2 oxidates, (ii) 3 (from 2 en and 1 oxalate, and (iii) 5
(from 1 EDTA). Therefore, the correct decreasing order of the number of chelate rings is iii >
ii > i.

89)

Asking for : Magnetic moment (μ) for a t2g6​eg2​ system.

Concept : (Magnetic moment of [t2g6​eg2])

 Magnetic moment is calculated using unpaired electrons (n) in the spin-only formula:
μ=n(n+2)​ BM.

Solution : In t2g6​eg2​ system​, all t2g​ set of orbitals are filled (0 unpaired electrons). In eg set of
orbitals​, there are 2 unpaired electrons (one in each eg​ orbital). Thus, n = 2. μ = 2(2+2) ​=8​.
μ≈2.83 BM.

Final Answer : Option : 1

90) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ → Total no. of stereoisomer's = 3

[Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4] → Total no. of structural isomer's = 4
[Pt(NH3)(Py)ClBr] → Total no. of optical isomer's = 0

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Page no. 120

92) NCERT Pg No. 112

93) XII-NCERT Pg. 97

94) NCERT_99_2021-22

95) NCERT_117_2021-22

96) NCERT Pg. # 94, 98

97)

NCERT :2021-2022 Pg No: 90,92,93

98) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 121,122

99) XIIth New NCERT, Pg - 94, 98, 99, 100

100)

NCERT XII Pg. # 96

101) NCERT XII, Pg. # 100

102) NCERT, Pg. # 95, 96

103) NCERT, Pg. # 100-Search for Genetic Material

104) NCERT Pg # 110

105) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 93-94

106) NCERT Pg. # 88

107) NCERT Pg. # 96, 98

108)

Ncert Pg No: 109

109)

NCERT Pg. # 111

110) NCERT XII Pg#109(E), 119(H)

111) NCERT Pg. # 95

112) NCERT Pg. # 93

113) NCERT XII, Pg. # 94

114) NCERT (XII) Pg # 110

115) The assertion is true as primary transcripts do contain both exons and introns, making
them non-functional. The reason is also true because splicing is indeed the process by which
introns are removed and exons are joined in a defined order, which is necessary to create a
functional mRNA molecule. Therefore, R is the correct explanation of A.

116) The assertion is true as the genetic code is indeed made up of combinations of three
nucleotides, known as codons, which code for the 20 different amino acids. The reason is also
true and is the correct explanation for the assertion. George Gamow's contribution was
significant in suggesting that a triplet code was necessary to provide enough unique
combinations for all 20 amino acids, given that there are only 4 different nucleotide bases in
DNA.
117) NCERT XII Pg # 94

118) NCERT XII Pg.# 96

119)

NCERT Page # 94 (Fig 5.11)

120) NCERT-XII Pg. No. # 84

121) NCERT-XII Pg#108

122)

Ncert Pg No: 124

123)

NCERT pg no.171

124) Increase malt yield and delayed ripening are GA effects.

Fact NCERT Page No: 248

125) NCERT Page no. 243, 247

126) Auxins are chemically Indole compounds.

Fact NCERT Page No: 247

127) NCERT Pg. # 246

128)

NCERT pg no.176,177,178

129)

NCERT XI Pg.# 169, 170, 174

130)

NCERT pg no.175,176,178
131) Explanation about Growth in organisms (MODULE)

132)

Ncert page 177.

133) NCERT Pg. # 249

134) NCERT Pg.# 248, 249, 250

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 167

136)

(i)–T, (ii)–F, (iii)–F, (iv)–T

137)

In the solar system of the milky way galaxy, the earth was supposed to have been formed
about 4.5 billion years back

138)

C→D→B→A

142)

NCERT (XII) Pg # 139/148(H) Para : 7.8

143)

Missing link

144) NCERT Pg.#151

145) Analogous organ

147) Explaining the Question:

Definition of Adaptive radiation.

Concept:
Evidences of evolution

Solution:
Process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and
literally radiating to other areas of geography is called as Adoptive Radiation.

Final Answer:
Option (4) Adaptive radiation

149) NCERT (XII) Bio Pg # 131

152)

NCERT Pg no 113

153) NCERT (XII) Pg # 129 Para:7.3

155)

The answer to the question is 1. Mutation.

Mutations are the ultimate source of genetic variation. They are random changes in the DNA
sequence that can introduce new alleles into a population. These new alleles can be beneficial,
harmful, or neutral, and they provide the raw material for natural selection to act upon.

156) NCERT XII, Page # 134

160) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 137 (E); Pg. # 148(H)

162)

163)

NCERT (XII) Pg # 137/148(H) Para : 7.7

166) Australopithecus

168)

Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

170) NCERT Pg. # 292

172)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 291, Para-IIIrd

176)

(ii) only

178) NCERT XI, Pg 298-299

180)

Asks to match the abnormal conditions in Column I with their correct explanations in Column
II.
Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER:
(A) Glycosuria: The presence of glucose in urine. This matches with (iv).
(B) Renal calculi: Mass of crystallized salts within the kidney. This matches with (iii).
(C) Glomerular nephritis: Inflammation in glomerulus. This matches with (ii).
(D) Gout: Accumulation of uric acid in joints. This matches with (i).
Therefore, the correct matching is:
A - iv
B - iii
C-ii
D-i
This corresponds to option 3: A iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i.