03-08-2025

5301CMD303033250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) 1 + + + + ...... ∞ =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2)

(1) ex - 1
(2) ex + 8
(3) 8x + ex - 9
(4) 0

3) The value of sin 480° is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.2 cm/s. The rate of increase of perimeter w.r.t.
time is :

(1) 0.2 cm/s

(2) 0.4 cm/s
(3) 0.6 cm/s
(4) 0.8 cm/s

5)

The path of a moving particle in x–y plane is shown in the figure. The point at which rate of change
of y coordinate w.r.t. time i.e. dy/dt is zero is

(1) A1
(2) A2
(3) A3
(4) A4

6) Maximum value of 5 sinθ – 12 cosθ is:-

(1) 13
(2) 5
(3) 12
(4) None

7)

Which of the following graph shows the correct representation of given equation ?

3y = –4x + 1

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A metallic disc is being heated, at any time t (in sec) its area A = 5t2 + 4t + 8 (m2) The rate of
increase of area at t = 3 sec is

(1) 20
(2) 24
(3) 30
(4) 34

9) The slope of graph as shown in figure at points, 1, 2 and 3 are m1, m2 & m3 respectively then-

(1) m1 > m2 > m3

(2) m1 < m2 < m3
(3) m1 = m2 = m3
(4) m1 = m3 > m2

10) The following curve represents a function y = f(x). Find average value of y when x changes from

0 to 6.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The magnitude of pairs of displacement vectors are given. Which pairs of displacement vectors
cannot be added to give a resultant vector of magnitude 13 cm?

(1) 4 cm, 16 cm
(2) 20 cm, 7 cm
(3) 1 cm, 15 cm
(4) 6 cm, 8 cm

12) Unit vector along will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Unit vector perpendicular to vector and both is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) If so find angle between & :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 120°
(4) 60°

15) Assertion (A) :- If , then and must be coplaner vectors.

Reason (R) :- Resultant of two vectors always lies in the same plane where these two vectors lie.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

16) If then -

(1) is parallel to
(2)
(3)
(4) and are mutually perpendicular
17) If a unit vector is represented by then the value of q is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) If vectors

and
are functions of time, then the value of t at which they are orthogonal to each other is :

(1) t = 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) If and A + B = C, then the angle between and is :

(1) 0°
(2) π/4
(3) π/2
(4) π

20) What is the component of along ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure have the resultant force only along the y-

direction, magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is :-

(1)
N
(2) N
(3) 0.5 N
(4) 1 N

22) Find the resultant of three vectors and shown in the following figure. Radius of the

circle is R :-

(1) 2R
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) If a vector make angles α, β and γ, respectively, with the X, Y and Z axis, then sin2 α + sin2 β +
sin2 γ =

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

24) If & then projection of on will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) An insect moves on a circular path of radius 7m. The maximum magnitude of displacement of the
insect is :-

(1) 7 m
(2) 14π m
(3) 7π m
(4) 14 m
26)

A ball is projected to attain the maximum range. If the height attained is H, the range is :

(1) H
(2) 2H
(3) 4H
(4) H/2

27)

If a train travelling at 72 km/hr is to be brought to rest in a distance of 200 m, then its retardation
should be:

(1) 20 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

28) A body starts from rest and has an acceleration 20 cm/sec2. What is the distance covered by the
body in first 8 sec ?

(1) 160 cm
(2) 640 cm
(3) 1280 cm
(4) 1640 cm

29) A car travel 'x' distance by speed of 60 km/hr and next 'x' distance by 40 km/h find out average
speed of complete journey ?

(1) 50 km/hr
(2) 60 km/hr
(3) 65 km/h
(4) 48 km/hr

30) A point traversed half a circle of radius r during a time interval t0, then its mean speed and
magnitude of mean velocity after half revolution will be, respectively :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
31) A body dropped from the top of a tower covers 5x distance in the last second of its fall. The time
of fall is if x is the distance covered in first second of its fall-

(1) 2 sec
(2) 4 sec.
(3) 3 sec.

(4)
sec

32) Two balls are dropped from different heights at different instants. Second ball is dropped 2
seconds after the first ball. If both balls reach the ground simultaneously after 5 seconds of dropping
the first ball, then the difference between the initial heights of the two balls will be: (g=9.8m/s2)

(1) 58.8 m
(2) 78.4 m
(3) 98.0 m
(4) 117.6 m

33) The ratio of the distances traversed, in successive equal intervals of time by a body falling from
rest, are

(1) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 : ................
(2) 2 : 4 : 6 : 8 : 10 : ................
(3) 1 : 4 : 7 : 10 : 13 : ................
(4) None of these

34) A particle is dropped from a certain height. The time taken by it to fall through successive
distances of 1 km each will be :

(1)
all equal, being equal to second.
(2) in the ratio of the square roots of the integers 1 : :
in the ratio of the difference in the square roots of the integers, i.e.,
(3)
...........

(4)
in the ratio of the reciprocals of the square roots of the integers, ie.,

35) Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap 6 m above the ground. The third drop is leaving
the tap at the instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the second drop
at that instant ?

(1) 1.25 m
(2) 2.50 m
(3) 3.75 m
(4) 4.5 m
36) A body is moving according to the equation x = at + bt2 + ct3 then its instantaneous speed is
given by :-

(1) a + 2bt+3ct2
(2) a + 2b + 3ct
(3) a + 2b – 3ct
(4) None of these

37) vx is the velocity of a particle moving along the x axis as shown. If x = 2.0 m at t = 1.0 s, what is

the position of the particle at t = 6.0 s?

(1) – 2.0 m
(2) + 2.0 m
(3) + 1.0 m
(4) – 1.0 m

38) A stone is thrown upwards from top of a tower 60 m high at a speed of 20 m/s. The correct
position-time graph for the time interval in which it reaches ground, is (g = 10 m/s2 & take origin at
the base of the tower) :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

39) The v – t graph of a rectilinear motion is shown in adjoining figure. The distance travelled from

starting point after 8 seconds is :-

(1) 18 metre
(2) 12 metre
(3) 8 metre
(4) 6 metre

40) A rocket is launched upward from the earth is surface whose velocity time graphs shown in

figure. Then maximum height attained by the rocket is :

(1) 1 km
(2) 10 km
(3) 100 km
(4) 60 km

41) Two similar cannon simultaneously fires two identical cannon balls at target 1 and 2 as shown in
the figure. If the cannon balls have identical initial speeds, which of the following statements is true

(1) Target 2 is hit before target 1

(2) Target 1 is hit before target 2
(3) Both are hit at the same time
(4) information is insufficient
42) The horizontal range of a projectile is times of its maximum height. Its angle of projection
from horizontal will be :-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 30°

43)

A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. elevation angle of projection at its highest
point as seen from the point of projection is :

(1)

(2) 45°
(3) 60°

(4)

44) A man throws a ball making an angle 60° with horizontal. He runs on a level ground and catches
the ball. If he has thrown the ball with speed v. Then avg. velocity of the ball must be:

(1) v
(2) 2v
(3)

(4)

45) Two particle A and B are projected as shown in figure. Maximum height is same for both the

particles. uA and uB are initial speeds of A and B respectively then :-

(1) uA < uB
(2) uA > uB
(3) uA = uB
(4) TB > TA

CHEMISTRY

1) Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is

approximately 67,200. The number of iron atoms (At. wt. of Fe = 56) present in one molecule of
haemoglobin is :-
(1) 6
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 2

2) An organic compound contains 6 × 1023 C-atoms, 1.8 × 1024 H-atoms and 3 × 1023 O-atoms. The
simplest formula of compound is :-

(1) C2H6O
(2) C3H7O2
(3) C2H5O3
(4) C3H6O

3) For following Reaction–

KBrO3 + 5 KBr + 6HNO3 → 6 KNO3 + 3 Br2 + 3H2O how much weight of KBr are required to prepare
0.06 moles of KNO3?
{K = 39 gmol–1 N = 14 gmol–1
Br = 80 gmol–1 H = 19 gmol–1
O = 16 gmol–1

(1) 7.05gm
(2) 16.27gm
(3) 2.9gm
(4) 5.95gm

4) Statement-I : The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.

Statement-II : The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms
present in a compound.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

5) Assertion : Molarity of pure water is 55.55 M at 298 K.

Reason : Molarity is temperature dependent.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

6) Law of multiple proportion is valid for :-

(1) CaCO3 & SrCO3

(2) NaBr & NaCl
(3) CO & CO2
(4) SO2 & CO2

7) If law of conservation of mass was to hold true, then 20.8 gm of BaCl2 on reaction with 9.8 gm of
H2SO4 will produce 7.3 gm of HCl and BaSO4 equal to -

(1) 11.65 gm
(2) 23.3 gm
(3) 25.5 gm
(4) 30.6 gm

8) A metal oxide has 40% oxygen. The equivalent weight of the metal is :

(1) 12
(2) 16
(3) 24
(4) 18

9) NH3 is produced according to the following reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g). In an experiment
0.25 mol of NH3 is formed when 0.5 mol of N2 is reacted with 0.5 mol of H2. What is % yield ?

(1) 75%
(2) 55%
(3) 33%
(4) 25%

10) 10 g of a piece of marble (CaCO3) was put into excess of dilute HCl acid. When the reaction was
complete, 1120 ml of CO2 was obtained at STP. The percentage of pure CaCO3 in the marble is :-
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2

(1) 10%
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 75%

11) If ALLEN RAIPUR is written by a graphite pencil, it weighs 3.0 × 10–10 g. How many carbon
atoms are present in it ? (NA = 6 × 1023)

(1) 1.5 × 1013

(2) 5 × 1012
(3) 2 × 1033
(4) 1.5 × 1010

12) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
 (a) No of electrons in 18 ml H2O (i)

(b) Volume of 1 g hydrogen gas at STP (ii) 22.4 L

(c) No of atoms in 11.2 L SO2 at STP (iii) 10 NA

Volume of 6.023 × 1023

(d) (iv) 11.2 L
molecules of O2 at STP
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

13) Choose the correct statement.

A. Molecular mass of sugar (C12H22O11) is 182.
B. 1 mole of sugar (C12H22O11) contains 6.02 × 1023 molecules
C. 34.2 g of sugar (C12H22O11) contains 10 moles

(1) A, B, C
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) B and C

14) Assertion : 22.4 L of N2 at NTP and 5.6 L O2 at NTP contain equal number of molecules.
Reason : Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure all gases contain equal number of
molecules.

(1) Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) Equal weight of NaCl and KCl are dissolved separately in equal volumes of solution molarity of
the two solution will be :

(1) Equal
(2) That of NaCl will be less then that of KCl solution
(3) That of NaCl will be more then that of KCl solution
(4) That of NaCl will be half of that of KCl solution

16) Calculate the molarity of acetic acid [CH3COOH] solution having density of 1.5 g mL–1 and the
mass percent of acetic acid in it being 60%?

(1) 6 M
(2) 2 M
(3) 12 M
(4) 15 M
17) 3.65 gm. of pure HCl gas is dissolved in 100 ml. of water. Calculate the molality of the solution:-

(1) 0.2 m
(2) 0.1 m
(3) 1 m
(4) 2 m

18) If 'α' is the degree of dissociation of BaCl2, than the Van't Hoff factor (i) is given by :-

(1) (1 + 3α)
(2) (1 + 2α)
(3) (1 – 3α)
(4) (1 – 2α)

19) Which one of the following is non-ideal solution :

(1) Benzene + toluene

(2) n-hexane + n-heptane
(3) Ethyl bromide + ethyl iodide
(4) CCl4 + CHCl3

20) At high altitudes the partial pressure of oxygen is less than that at the ground level. This leads to

(1) Low concentration of oxygen in the blood & tissue

(2) High concentration of oxygen in the blood & tissue
(3) Release of dissolved gases & formation of bubbles of nitrogen in the blood
(4) Thickening of blood and tissues

21) Mole fraction of the component A in vapour phase is x1 and mole fraction of component A in
liquid mixture is x2 (P°A = vapour pressure of pure A; P°B = vapour pressure of pure B) then total
vapour pressure of the liquid mixture is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) 3mg CaCO3 is present in 100 L Aq.solution then what will be its ppm strength ?
(1) 3 ppm
(2) 0.03 ppm
(3) 30 ppm
(4) 40 ppm

23) Which of the following statement is incorrect :

(1) The value of Kf and Kb depend upon the nature of the solvent.
(2) Mass%, ppm, mole fraction and molality are independent of temperature.
The concentration of pollutants in water or atmosphere is often expressed in terms of μg mL–1 or
(3)
ppm.
(4) Solubility of solid in liquid always increases with increase in temperature.

24) Henry's law constant for molality of methane in benzene at 298 K is 4.27 × 105 mm Hg. The mole
fraction of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg is :–

(1) 1.78 × 10–3

(2) 17.43
(3) 0.114
(4) 2.814

25) The boiling poit of C6H6, CH3OH, C6H5NH2 and C6H5NO2 at 80°C, 65°C, 184°C and 212°C
respectively. Which will show highest vapour pressure at room temperature.

(1) C6H6
(2) CH3OH
(3) C6H5NH2
(4) C6H5NO2

26) V. P. of pure A pºA = 100 mmHg

V. P. of pure B pºB = 150 mmHg
A solution containing 2 moles A and 3 moles B will have total vapour pressure, approximately.

(1) 135 mm
(2) 130 mm
(3) 140 mm
(4) 145 mm

27) The freezing point order of solution of different strength by weight glucose is :

(1) 10% > 3% > 2% > 1%

(2) 1% > 2% > 3% > 10%
(3) 1% > 3% > 10% > 2%
(4) 10% > 1% > 3% > 2%

28) Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in a cold climate. Mass of ethylene glycol which should
be added to 4kg of water to prevent in from freezing at –6°C will be (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg
mol–1 and molar mass of ethylene glycol = 62g mol–1)

(1) 800g
(2) 204.30g
(3) 400.00g
(4) 304.60g

29) Which of the following aqueous solution will have lowest freezing point ?

(1) 1 M urea
(2) 1 M NaCl
(3) 1 M CaCl2
(4) 1 M AlCl3

30) In a 0.2 molal equeous solution of a weak acid HX the degree of ionization is 0.3. The freezing
point of the solution is nearest to (Kf of water = 1.86) :

(1) –0.360ºC
(2) –0.483ºC
(3) –0.260ºC
(4) +0.480ºC

31) Relative decrease in vapour pressure of aqueous solution of NaCl is 0.182. Then number of
moles of NaCl present in 180g of H2O is :-

(1) 2.2 mol

(2) 0.91 mol
(3) 3.2 mol
(4) 4.2 mol

32) 1 mol each of the following solutes are taken in 5 moles water -
(A) NaCl (B) K2SO4
(C) Na3PO4 (D) Glucose
Assuming 100% ionisation of the electrolyte relative lowering in vapour pressure will be in order :-

(1) A < B < C < D

(2) D < C < B < A
(3) D < A < B < C
(4) Equal for all

33) The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44 g of CuCl2 in 1 kg of water using the
following information will be (molecular weight of CuCl2 is 134.4 and Kb = 0.52 Km–1) :-

(1) 0.16
(2) 0.05
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.2

34) A solution containing 4.0 g of PVC in 2 litre of dioxane (industrial solvent) was found to have an
osmotic pressure 3.0 × 10–4 atm at 27°C. The molar mass of the polymer (g/mol) will be :

(1) 1.6 × 104

(2) 1.6 × 105
(3) 1.6 × 103
(4) 1.6 × 102

35) 0.004 molar solution of Na2SO4 is isotonic with 0.01 molar solution of glucose at same
temperature then calculate degree of dissociation of Na2SO4.

(1) 100%
(2) 75%
(3) 25%
(4) 10%

36) Consider the following solutions

I. 1 M aqueous solution of sucrose
II. 0.5 M aqueous solution of KCl
III. 2M aqueous solution of benzoic acid
IV. 0.25M aqueous solution of (NH4)3PO4
Select the correct statement.

(1) All are isotonic

(2) III is hypertonic with respect to I, II and IV
(3) IV is hypotonic with respect to I, II, III
(4) All are hypotonic

37) Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law :-

(1) Acetone – Chloroform

(2) Benzene – methanol
(3) Water – nitric acid
(4) Water – hydrochloric acid

38) Consider the following statements.

(a) The components of azeotropic mixture can not be separated by fractional distillation.
(b) Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water than in warm water.
(c) Solutions showing positive deviation from Raoult's law form minimum boiling azeotrope.
The correct statement is /are :-

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(3) a, c
(4) b, c

39) Number of e– present in 1gm-ion of is

(1) NA
(2) 10NA
(3) 5NA
(4) 2NA

40) Out of 34 g NH3, 3.01 × 1023 molecules were removed. The remaining no. of moles are :

(1) 1 mol
(2) 1.5 mol
(3) 0.15 mol
(4) 0.1 mol

41) 0.01 mol of iodoform (CHI3) reacts with Ag to produce a gas whose volume at NTP is
2CHI3 + 6Ag → C2H2 + 6AgI(s)

(1) 224 mL
(2) 112 mL
(3) 336 mL
(4) None of these

42) 4 g of hydrogen are ignited with 4 g of oxygen. The weight of water formed is -

(1) 0.5 g
(2) 3.5 g
(3) 4.5 g
(4) 2.5 g

43) Assertion :– The amount of the products formed in a reaction depends upon the limiting
reactant.
Reason :– Limiting reactant reacts completely in the reaction.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

44) A solution containing 7 g of a solute (molar mass 210 g mol–1) in 350 g of acetone raised the
boiling point of acetone from 56°C to 56.3°C. The value of ebullioscopic constant of acetone in K kg
mol–1 is:

(1) 2.66
(2) 3.15
(3) 4.12
(4) 2.86

45) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Mixtures can be separated by physical methods.
Statement II : Compound cannot be separated into simpler substances by physical methods.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

BIOLOGY

1) Maximum cell organelles are synthesize in which phase of cell cycle ?

(1) G1
(2) S
(3) G2
(4) Prophase

2) It is significant to note that in the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of human cell, cell
division proper lasts for only about

(1) four hours

(2) 90 minutes
(3) an hour
(4) 10 hours

3) Interphase subdivided in to

(1) M, G, S, G2
(2) G1, S, G2
(3) G1, G0, G2, S
(4) S, G2, M

4) Given below is diagrammatic view of cell cycle indicating formation of two cell from one cell.
Mark the correct one for the events of this cell cycle :-

(1) A G0 Cells is metabolically inactive

(2) B S Amount of DNA per cell doubles but chromosome number remain same

(3) C G2 Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication where cell continuously grows

(4) D G1 Shortest phase of cell cycle in which most of the organelles duplicate

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Select the incorrect match :

(1) G1 - phase — Synthesis of tubulin protein

(2) S-phase — Synthesis of histone
(3) G0-phase — Quiscent stage
(4) G2-phase — Pre-mitotic phase

6) Given below are two statements;

one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Replication of DNA during cell division occur in S-phage of interphase.
Reason (R) : Histone proteins are synthesized during G1 phase of Interphase.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) If (A) & (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) If (A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation (A).

7) Statement-A : In animals, mitotic cell division is seen in the diploid somatic cells.
Statement-B : The plants can show mitotic divisions in both haploid & diploid cells.

(1) Only B is correct

(2) Only A is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

8) Which of the following statements about meiosis is correct ?

(1) During metaphase-II, the bivalents arrange on the equatorial plate.
Leptotene → Zygotene → Diplotene → Diakinesis → Pachytene is the correct sequence of sub
(2)
phases of prophase-I
(3) During anaphase-II, the sister chromatids separate
(4) At the end of meiosis-I, four haploid cells are formed

9)

What will be the ratio of number of chromosomes and amount of DNA in G1 S and G2 phases for a
diploid cell ?

G1 S G2
(1) 1:1 1:1 1:1
(2) 1:1 1:2 1:2
(3) 1:2 1:2 1:2
(4) 1:2 1:1 1:2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the
same species, has :

(1) same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA

(2) twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA
(3) four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
(4) twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA

11) Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence -

(A) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(B) Crossing over
(C) Synapsis
(D) Disjunction of chromosomes
(E) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
The correct sequence is-

(1) A - B - C - D - E
(2) E - D - C - B - A
(3) C - B - D - E - A
(4) C - B - E - A - D

12) During G1 phase -

A. the cell is metabolically active
B. Cell continuously grows
C. Cell replicates its DNA.

(1) Only C is incorrect

(2) Only C is correct
(3) Only A is correct
(4) Only B is correct

13) Chromatin fibres duplication, Genetic material - 4C, Histone protein synthesis, Membranous
organelle duplication, DNA replication, centriole duplication.
How many of the above features are associated with synthesis phase-of cell cycle?

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Six

14) Assertion:- M- phase represent the phase when the actual cell division or mitosis occurs.
Reason:- M- Phase starts with the nuclear division, (karyokinesis) and usually ends with division of
cytoplasm ( cytokinesis)

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

15) Assertion : Mitosis is the equational division.

Reason : In mitosis, chromosomes number of the parent is conserved in the daughter cell.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

16) Assertion : M phase is the most dramatic phase of the cell cycle.
Reason : M phase exhibits a major reorganisation of virtually all components of the cell.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) All the following are the significances of equational division except :

(1) Maintenance of the same number of chromosomes in different cells of an organism

(2) Growth of multicellular organisms
(3) Restoration of nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio of cells
Maintenance the constant number of chromosomes generation after generation in sexually
(4)
reproducing organism

18) If pollen grain contains 30 chromosomes and 50pg DNA, then what will be the number of
chromosome and DNA amount in microspore (pollen) mother cell in G2 phase and in product of
meiosis-I ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) How many events in the list given below occurs in M-phase of meiosis-I.
Replication of DNA, synapsis, bivalent formation, crossing over, terminalization of chiasmata, tubulin
protein synthesis, centriole duplication, seperation of homologous chromosomes, nuclear membrane
disappear, nucleolus disappear.

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

20) In relation to the given diagram of cell division for mitosis, which of the following statements is

incorrect:

(1) This representing the transition of prophase to metaphase

(2) Chromosomes attach to spindle fibre
(3) Spindle fibres are formed and centrioles reach at the poles
(4) Nuclear membrane is present while nucleolus, ER and Golgi complex are disappeared

21) Assertion : Meiosis, increases the genetic variability in the population of organisms from one
generation to the next.
Reason : In meiosis, crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of the homologous
chromosomes.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) Assertion : In early prophase, chromosome which had undergone duplication during interphase
begins to move towards opposite poles of the cell.
Reason : Cells at the begining of prophase, do not show nuclear envelop, when viewed under the
microscope.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

23) During the metaphase of mitosis :-

(1) Chromosomal material starts to condense and forms compact mitotic chromosomes.
(2) Nuclear membrane, nucleolus, ER and golgi body start to disappear.
All the chromosomes come to lie at the equator, with one chromatid of each
(3) chromosome connected by its kinetochore to spindle fibres from one pole and its sister
chromatid connected by its kinetochore to spindle fibres from opposite pole.
(4) Centromere split and chromatid separate.

24) Assertion : Each centrosome radiates out microtubules called asters.

Reason : Centrosome undergo duplication during S phase of interphase.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

25) Assertion : Prophase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material.

Reason : The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the start of the prophase of
mitosis.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true.

(2) Both assertion and reason are false.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

26) If a bacteria divides in every two minutes. A cup is filled completely in one hour. Time taken to
fill half the cup is?

(1) 30 minutes
(2) 58 minutes
(3) 59 minutes
(4) 62 minutes

27) The mitotic spindle is composed of:

(1) Chromatin
(2) Microtubules
(3) Micro filament
(4) All of these

28) Which is the correct order of cell cycle ?

(1) G2 → G1 → S → Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis

(2) S → G1 → G2 → Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis
(3) Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis → S → G2 → G1
(4) G1 → S → G2 → Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis

29) The figure given below represents the stage of cell division. Read the following statements.

(i) Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform

(ii) Chromatids move to opposite pole.
(iii) Activity of recombinase enzyme.
(iv) Homlogous chromosomes separate while sister chromatids associated at their centromere
(v) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle
How many of the above statement are not true with respect to given figure.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two

30) Chromosome number double in :-

(1) Mitosis - Prophase

(2) Mitosis - Metaphase
(3) Mitosis - Telophase
(4) Mitosis - Anaphase

31) The given figure shows a diagramatic view of a stage of mitosis. Find the Correct statements for
that stage :-

(1) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reforms.

(2) Nuclear envelope assembeles arround the chromatin material
(3) The individual chromosomes can not be seen
(4) All of the above statements are correct

32)

How many chromosomes will the somatic cell have at G1, after S and after G2 phase, if gamete
formed by it has 8 chromosome.

(1) 16, 16, 16

(2) 16, 16, 8
(3) 8, 8, 8
(4) 8, 16, 16

33) Which of the following meiotic stage is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata ?

(1) Pachytene
(2) Diakinesis
(3) Diplotene
(4) Zygotene

34) Following are two statements are is labelled as Assertion and other labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : During telophase the chromosome that have reached their respective poles
decondense and lose their individuality.
Reason (R) : Centromere splits and move to opposite pole.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answers from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true and R is false.
(4) R is true and A is false.

35) Significance of meiosis lies in-

(1) production of genetic variability

(2) maintaining the number of chromosomes through generations
(3) forming the basis of evolution
(4) All of the above

36) A multinucleate cell is formed as :-

(1) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis

(2) Cytokinesis is not followed by karyokinesis
(3) Chromosome duplication is not followed by karyokinesis
(4) Chromosome spliting not followed by karyokinesis

37) Assertion : In an animal cell, cytokinesis is achieved by the appearance of a furrow in the
plasma membrane.
Reason : Animal cells however, are enclosed by a relatively inextensible cell wall.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

38) Assertion : Mitosis usually results in the production of diploid daughter cells with identical
genetic complement.
Reason : The growth of multicellular organisms is due to mitosis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

39) Mitosis is usually restricted to the diploid cell only but mitosis also seen in haploid cell of ?

(1) Some lower plants and all insects

(2) All lower plants and some social insects
(3) Some lower plants and some social insects
(4) All lower plants and all social insects

40) Assertion : Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called Meiosis I
and Meiosis II.
Reason : Meiosis involves only a single cycle of DNA replication

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

41) In anaphase-I as compared to metaphase-I, cell possessing :-

(1) Same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids in each chromosome.
(2) Half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids in each chromosomes.
(3) Half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids in each chromosomes
(4) Double number of chromosomes and double number of chromatids in each chromosomes.

42) 20 chromosome are present in root tip cell of maize. How many tetrad are observed in maize
meiocyte during metaphase-I ?

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 10
(4) 5

43) What is the amount of DNA in metaphase-I of a meiocyte if a haploid cell of some plant has 30
pg. of DNA ?

(1) 30 pg.
(2) 60 pg.
(3) 15 pg.
(4) 120 pg.

44) Match the following -

(a) Prophase- II (I) Enclosure of chromosomes innuclear envelope

(b) Metaphase - II (II) Separation of sister chromatids

(c) Anaphase- II (III) Chromosome alignment on equator

(d) Telophase -II (IV) Disappearance of nuclear membrane

(1) a (IV) b (III) c (I) d (II)
(2) a (IV) b (III) c (II) d (I)
(3) a (IV) b (II) c (III) d (I)
(4) a (IV) b (I) c (II) d (III)

45) Which of the following is not a significance of meiosis :-

(1) Formation of gametes

(2) Increase genetic variability
(3) Reduction of chromosome number to half
(4) Replaces old dead and worn out cells

ZOOLOGY

1) Health for a long time, was considered as a state of body and mind where there was a balance of
certain 'humors'. This is what early ____ like "Hippocrates" as well as indian Ayurveda system of
medicine asserted :-

(1) Britishes
(2) Jewishes
(3) Greeks
(4) Americans

2) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) AIDS was first reported in 1981

(2) HIV is a retrovirus
(3) HIV/AIDS spread by mere touch or physical contact
(4) Incubation period for AIDS is 5-10 years

3) Which of the following cell is not related with phagocytic barrier ?

(1) Monocytes
(2) Macrophage
(3) N.K. Cells
(4) Neutrophils

4) Statement-1 : innate immunity is non-specific type of defence.

Statement-2 : Physical barriers include skin and acid in stomach

(1) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect.

(2) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are incorrect.
(3) Both Statement-1 is and Statement-2 are correct.
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is correct.

5) Statement-I : Metastasis is the most feared property of Malignant tumors.

Statement-II : Cancerous cells have property of contact inhibition.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

6) Graft rejection after organ transplantation is due to ?

(1) Cell mediated immunity

(2) Antibody mediated immunity
(3) Innate immunity
(4) Graft rejection is not related to immunity

7) Primary immune response is of ____(A)____ intensity. Subsequent encounter with the same antigen
or pathogen elicits a ___(B)___intensified ___(C)___ response.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) High Low Anamnestic

 (2) Low High Primary

(3) Low High Secondary

(4) High Low Primary

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Hepatitis B vaccine is produced from :

(1) inactivated viruses

(2) yeast
(3) Haemophilus influenzae
(4) Salmonella typhimurium

9)

Which are the site for interaction of lymphocytes with antigen ?

(1) Spleen
(2) Bone Marrow
(3) Thymus
(4) All of these

10) Assertion : Vaccination is based on the property of memory of the immune system.
Reason : In passive immunisation preformed antibodies are injected in the body.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but the reason is true
(4) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion

11)

(1) A–IgA, B–Heparin, C–Steroids

(2) A–IgA, B–Steroids, C–Histamine
(3) A–IgE, B–Histamine, C–Steroid
(4) A–IgG, B–Steroids, C–Histamine

12) Which of the following is not the symptom of allergy?

(1) Watery eyes

(2) Running nose
(3) Sneezing
(4) High fever

13) Humoral immune system works mainly against virus and bacteria present in :-

(1) Digestive tract

(2) Respiratory tract
(3) Any internal organ
(4) Body fluids

14) Which of the following statement is not correct about typhoid

(a) Sustained high fever (39° to 40° C)
(b) lips and nails turn gray to bluish
(c) Stomach pain
(d) Constipation
(e) Blood and mucus in stool.
(f) Intestinal perforation

(1) a, c, d, f
(2) d, e, f
(3) a and f only
(4) b and e

15) Find odd one out wrt disease causative agent

(1) Pneumonia
(2) Common cold
(3) Plague
(4) Diphtheria

16) In which of the following autoimmune disease antibodies are formed against synovial membrane
of joints

(1) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Pernicious anemia
(3) Hashimoto disease
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis

17) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which causes typhoid fever in human
beings.
Reason (R): Salmonella typhi generally enter the large intestine through food and water
contaminated with them and migrate to other organs through blood.
In the light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the following options -
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but reason is False.
(4) Assertion & Reason both are incorrect.

18) Statement-I : Malignant malaria caused by plasmodium vivax is the most serious one and can
even be fatal.
Statement-II : Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of infected
female culex mosquito.

(1) Statement-II correct only

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement-I correct only
(4) Both statements are correct

19) Common cold symptoms are

(1) Cough
(2) Headache
(3) Tiredness
(4) All the above

20) Identify the A, B, C, D in the following life cycle.

Options :-

A B C D

Salivary
(1) Gametocyte Liver Sporozoites
gland

Salivary
(2) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

Salivary
(3) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland
 (4) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte Salivary gland
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Read the following statements (A–E) (A) Gross deformities in genital organs
(B) Elephantiasis
(C) Vector is female Aedes mosquito
(D) Slowly developing chronic inflammation usually of blood vessels of lower limbs
(E) It is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.
How many of the above statements are incorrect about given diagram

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) One

22) Assertion : HIV infected person are prone to opportunists diseases.

Reason : Immune system weakens during HIV infection.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

23) Given below are two statements, choose correct option.

Statement-I :- HIV can cross placenta
Statement-II :- AIDS is a congenital disease

(1) Both statement I & II are true

(2) Both statement I & II are false
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true

24) Match the following column

Column-I Column-II

i. HIV p. Macrophages
 ii. Test for AIDS q. Retrovirus

iii. HIV enters into r. AIDS

iv. Don't die of ignorance s. ELISA

(1) i-s, ii-q, iii-p, iv-r
(2) i-q, ii-p, iii-s, iv-r
(3) i-q, ii-s, iii-p, iv-r
(4) i-p, ii-r, iii-s, iv-q

25) Assertion (A) : Computed tomography (CT) uses X-Rays to generate a three dimensional image
of the internals of an object.
Reason (R) : CT are very useful to detect cancers of the internal organs.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) Given below are two statement as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) ?
Assertion (A) : Antibodies can be used for detection of certain cancer.
Reason (R) : Antibodies can bind with cancer-specific antigens.
In the light of above statement choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

27) Which biological response modifier activates immune system and helps in destroying the tumor ?

(1) α-interferons
(2) Taxol drug
(3) Cytoleukins
(4) Vincristin drug

28) Which of the following is not a vector borne disease

(1) Dengue
(2) Chikungunya
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Malaria

29) Many fungi belonging to genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are
responsible for :-

(1) Filariasis
(2) Ascariasis
(3) Ringworms
(4) Amoebiasis

30)

A person is suffering from following symptoms-

(i) Constipation
(ii) Stool with mucous and blood
(iii) Abdominal cramps
Most likely he is suffering from -

(1) Bacterial infection

(2) Viral infection
(3) Protozoan infection
(4) Allergic reaction

31)

House flies are mechanical carriers of :-

(1) Amoebiasis
(2) Malaria
(3) Common cold
(4) Plague

32) Identify the plant part give in the diagram and select the drug that is obtained from it and its

effect on the body.

(1) Claviceps purpurea – Synthetic drug – Hallucinogen

(2) Cannabis sativa – Bhang – Hallucinogen
(3) Datura – Morphine – Pain killer
(4) Cannabis sativa – Charas – Stimulant

33) All of the following drugs are used to treat mental illness like depression and insomnia, except.

(1) Barbiturates
(2) Benzodiazepines
(3) Amphitamins
(4) Cocain

34) The chronic use of drugs and alcohol results in:

(1) Excess mucous and blood clots

(2) Internal bleeding and muscular pain
(3) Cirrhosis and nervous system damage
(4) Leukaemias and lymphomas.

35) Opioids receptors are found in :

(1) GIT
(2) CNS
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Only brain

36)

Which drug principally interferes transport of dopamine ?

(1) Morphine
(2) Cocaine
(3) Heroin
(4) LSD

37) Statement-I : Adolescent is a bridge linking childhood & Adulthood.

Statement-II : It is process in which child become mature, in their attitude & belief.

(1) Statement-1 correct, Statement-2 incorrect

(2) Statement-1 incorrect, Statement-2 correct
(3) Both correct
(4) Both incorrect

38) All the following are the side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females, except:

(1) Abnormal menstrual cycle

(2) Enlargement of clitoris
(3) Excessive hair growth on the face and body
(4) Enlargement of prostate gland

39) (A) Statement-I : Smack is white, odourless bitter crystalline compound.

(B) Statement-II : Heroin ; obtained by acetylation of morphine which is extracted from latex of
cannabis sativa.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(4) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true

40) Smoking increases ------------------------ content in blood and reduces the concentration of
haembound oxygen. Fill the blank suitably:

(1) Carbon dioxide

(2) Carbamino haemoglobin
(3) Carbon monoxide
(4) Carboxylic acid

41) Which of the following stimulates the secretion of adrenaline ?

(1) Cocaine
(2) LSD
(3) Smack
(4) Tobacco

42)

Cocaine is obtained from-

(1) Erythroxylum
(2) Papaver
(3) Atropa
(4) Cannabis

43) Choose the right symphtoms of Amoebiasis ?

(1) Diarrhoea, Coughing, Abdomanal pain

(2) Constipation, Abdominal pain and Cramps
(3) Fever with chills, Constipation, Abdominal pain.
(4) Diarrhorea, Stool with excess mucous, abdominal pain.

44) Statement-I :- AIDS is a congenital disease.

Statement-II :- HIV is a retro-virus.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is not correct.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct.
(4) Statement-I is not correct but statement-II is correct.

45) In full blown AIDS, opportunistic infections are especially caused by :-

(1) Mycobacterium
(2) Toxoplasma
(3) Viruses and fungi
(4) All of the above
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 4 2 1 1 4 2 2 3 1 1 1 4 4 3 4 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 3 2 4 3 4 2 4 3 3 2 1 3 4 1 4 3 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 4 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 4 1 2 3 2 1 1 3 1 3 3 4 3 4 3 2 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 4 1 2 2 2 1 4 2 2 3 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 1 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 2 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 4 1 2 2 1 1 4 3 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 3 1 3 2 2 4 1 4 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 3 4 2 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 3 3 1 2 1 3 2 1 1 3 4 4 4 2 4 3 2 4 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 1 1 3 3 1 1 1 3 3 3 1 2 4 3 3 2 3 4 2 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 2 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

Ans.-(3)

3) sin (480°) =
sin (450° + 30°) =

cos 30° =

4) If side = a then rate of increase of perimeter w.r.t.

time =

5) =

At A2, = 0 so =0

6)

Let y = 5sinθ – 12 cosθ

Compare with asinθ + bcosθ,
Maximum value =

= =13

7)

y= +
here m = (–) and c = (+) on compairing y = mx + c

8) A = 5t2 + 4t + 8
 (at t = 3)

9)

Ans.-(2)

10)

11) Resultant of two vectors and must satisfy A~ B ≤ R ≤ A + B

12)

13)

Ans.-(1)

14)

Ans.-(1)

15)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking whether three vectors that add up to zero
must lie in the same plane (be coplanar), and whether the reason given about vector addition
explains this assertion correctly.

Underlying Concept: The core concept is vector addition and coplanarity. When two vectors
are added, their resultant vector lies in the plane defined by those two vectors. If a third
vector balances their sum to zero, it must also lie in that plane, making the three vectors
coplanar.

Relevant Formulas: Given: \[ \vec{A} + \vec{B} + \vec{C} = \vec{0} \] Rearranged as: \[

\vec{C} = - (\vec{A} + \vec{B}) \] where: - are vectors - is the zero vector

Tips and Tricks: To check coplanarity when the sum of vectors is zero, express one vector as
the negative sum of the other two. This automatically means all three lie in one plane.
Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to think vectors summing to zero can't be coplanar,
or to assume that three vectors must always be non-coplanar unless specified otherwise.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: If one assumes Reason (R) is incorrect, it neglects the
fundamental property of vector addition. If one assumes (R) does not explain (A), they overlook
that the negative of the sum still lies in the plane, directly supporting the assertion.

16)
⇒ θ = 90°

17)

⇒
⇒ 0.2 + q2 = 1
⇒ q2 = 0.8

18)

cos ωt cos

⇒ ⇒

19) cos θ =

=
∴ θ = 0°

20)

Ans.-(4)

21) Ans.-(4)

22)

X = R + R cos 45° =
Y = R + R sin 45° =

23) cos2α + cos2β + cos2γ = 1

⇒ 1 – sin2α + 1 – sin2β + 1 – sin2γ = 1
⇒ sin2α + sin2β + sin2γ = 2

24) Projection of on =

25)

B. Given Data:

A. Radius of the circular path: 7 meters

C. Concept:

A. Displacement: The shortest distance between the initial and final positions of an object.

B. Circular Motion: In circular motion, the maximum displacement occurs when the insect
moves from one point on the circle to the diametrically opposite point.

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Maximum Displacement:

A. Maximum displacement = Diameter of the circle

B. Maximum displacement = 2 * Radius

C. Maximum displacement = 2 * 7 meters

D. Maximum displacement = 14 meters

E. Final Answer:
The maximum magnitude of displacement of the insect is 14 meters. option 4

26)

Ans.-(3)

27)

Ans.-(4)

28)

Ans.-(2)

29)

30)

Ans.-(3)

31)

n = 3 sec.

32)

= × 9.8 [(5)2 – (3)2]

= 8 × 9.8 = 78.4 m

33)
u = 0 and a = g (const.)
∝ (2n – 1) (here n = 1,2,3.....)
D1 : D2 : D3 : .......... = 1 : 3 : 5 : ..........

34)
∴ tI km ; tII km ; tIII km ;....

35)

By galileo's law of odd number

x + 3x = 6m
4x = 6

x = = 1.5m
Height of 2nd drop from ground

= 3x = 3 × = 4.5m

36) x = at + bt2 + ct3

= a + 2bt + 3ct2

37)

Displacement = Area under v–t graph (t = 1 to 6s)

= ⇒ –3m
s = x2 – x1
⇒ –3 = x – 2 ⇒ x = –1m

38) Ques explanation: to plot a graph between position and time for given position.
Solution: The position-time graph is a downward-opening parabola, starting at 60 m (on y-
axis), reaching a maximum of 80.4 m at 2.04 seconds (on x-axis), and hitting the ground at 6.1
seconds. The graph is symmetric, with a peak at 80.4 m.
Concept: position-time graph
Formula: required

39) distance from starting point

=
= 12 + 6 = 18 meter

40)

Ans.-(4)

41)

∵ Time of flight

For projectile '1' angle of projection is small so time of flight will be less.

42)

θ = 30°

43)

∴
 44)

Average velocity =

Average velocity =

45)

Ans.-(1)

CHEMISTRY

46)

0.33 =

47) C : H : O

: :
1 : 3 : 0.5
2 : 6 : 1 (C2H6O)

48)

Ans.-(4)

49)

Ethene is C2H4

50)

Ans.-(2)

51) Explanation:
Which of the following follow law of multiple proportion.

Concept:
According to this law, if two elements combine of form more than one compound then the
different mass of one one element which combine with a fixed mass of other element bear a
simple ratio to one another.

Final Answer: CO and CO2

Hence, option (3) is correct.

52)

Ans.-(2)

53)

Ans.-(1)

54)

Explanation: The percent yield of the reaction is to be found.

Given data:

A. Balanced chemical equation: N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

B. Moles of N2 reacted: 0.5 mol

C. Moles of H2 reacted: 0.5 mol

D. Moles of NH3 formed (actual yield): 0.25 mol

Concept:

A. Stoichiometry: Using the balanced chemical equation to determine the mole ratios of
reactants and products.

B. Limiting Reactant: The reactant that is completely consumed first and determines the
maximum amount of product that can be formed.

C. Theoretical Yield: The maximum amount of product that can be formed based on the
limiting reactant.

D. Percent Yield: (Actual Yield / Theoretical Yield) x 100

Calculation:

Determine the Limiting Reactant:

A. From the balanced equation, 1 mol of N2 reacts with 3 mol of H2.

B. We have 0.5 mol of N2, which would require 1.5 mol of H2 to react completely.

C. Since we only have 0.5 mol of H2, H2 is the limiting reactant.

Calculate the Theoretical Yield of NH3:

A. From the balanced equation, 3 mol of H2 produce 2 mol of NH3.

B. Therefore, 0.5 mol of H2 would produce (2/3) x 0.5 mol = 0.333 mol of NH3.

Calculate the Percent Yield:

A. Percent Yield = (Actual Yield / Theoretical Yield) x 100

B. Percent Yield = (0.25 mol / 0.333 mol) x 100

C. Percent Yield ≈ 75%

Final answer: The percent yield of the reaction is 75%.

Correct option : 1

55)
weight of CaCO3 = 0.05 × 100
= 5g

% purity =
= 50%

56)

Ans.-(1)

57)
Ans.-(3)

58)

Ans.-(3)

59)

Ans.-(4)

60)

Ans.-(3)

61)

60% (w/w)
moles of CH3COOH = 60/60 = 1

density =

V=

Molarity =

62)

Ans.-(3)

63)

Ans.-(2)

64)

Ans.-(4)

65)

Ans.-(1)

66)

Ans.-(1)
 67)

Ans.-(2)

68) NCERT XII Pg # 3,5,6,19, Part-I

If dissolution is endothermic then solubility increases with rise in temperature and if it is
exothermic then solubility decreases with rise in temperature.

69) Question explanation:

We need to determine the mole fraction of methane in benzene at 298 K under a pressure of
760 mm Hg. given the Henry's law constant for molality of methane in benzene.

Given:

A. Henry's law constant for methane in benzene, KH = 4.27 × 105 mm Hg.

B. Pressure of methane, P = 760mm Hg.
C. Temperature, T = 298K

Concept:
Using Henry's law:

Where C is the molality of the solute (mol / kg) P is the partial pressure, and KH the Henry's law

constant. The mole fraction is calculated as: Calculation:

1. Calculate the molality:

= 1.78 × 10–3 mol/ kg

2. Moles of benzene (assuming 1 kg of solvent):

A. Molar mass of benzene M benzene = 78.12g/mol,

B. Moles of benzene:

nbenxene = 12.8mol 3. Moles of methane:

nCH4 = C × 1 kg = 1.78 × 10–3 mol

4. Mole fraction of methane: 1.78×10-3

Final answer:
The mole fraction of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg is 1.78 x 10–3, so the correct
answer is Option 1.

70) Concept :
The compound which has low boiling point will have high vapour pressure.

CH3OH lowest boiling point (65ºC)

So highest vapour pressure.

Final Answer : CH3OH

Correct option (2)

71)

Ans.-(2)

72)

Ans.-(2)

73)

⇒ w1 = 800 g = 804.32 g

74)

Ans.-(4)

75)

Ans.-(2)

76) Question Explanation: We are given the relative decrease in vapour pressure of an
aqueous NaCl solution and the mass of water used. The goal is to find the number of moles of
NaCl dissolved in water based on this information.

Given:

Relative lowering of vapour pressure = 0.182

Mass of water = 180 g
Options provided:
1. 2.2 mol
2. 1.11 mol
3. 3.2 mol
4. 4.2 mol

Concept:

The formula for relative lowering of vapour pressure is: Where i is the van't
+ –
Hoff factor (for NaCl, i = 2 since it dissociates into Na and CI ), nsolute is the number of moles
of NaCl, and nsolvent is the number of moles of water. Moles of water = 180/18 = 10 mol.

Calculation:

Using the formula: 0.182 = ⇒ 0.182 = ⇒ 2nNaCl = 1.82 ⇒ nNaCl = 0.91mol Since
0.91 mol is not among the given options, we compare with the closest value. Try Option 2 (1.11
mol):

This is the closest to 0.182 among all given options.

Final Answer: Option (2) 1.11 mol

77)

Ans.-(3)

78)

Ans.-(1)

79)

= 164200
= 1.6 × 105

80) Na2SO4 = Glucose

i × C RT = CR × T
i × 0.004 RT = 0.01 × RT
i = 2.5
i = 1 – α + nα
2.5 = 1 – α + 3α
2.5 = 1 + 2α
2α = 1.5

α=
= 75%

81)

I. Conc. × vont hoff factor = 1 × 1 = 1

II. C × i = 0.5 × 2 = 1
III. C × i = 2 × i(>1) > 2
IV. C × i = 0.25 × 4 = 1
So III is hypertonic with respect to I, II, & IV

82)

Question Explanation:
To determine which of the following shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law.
Solution/Explanation/Calculation :-
The solution AA - Interaction or B–B interaction greater than A – B interaction.
 of Hg
of Hg ; of Hg
nA = 1 mol ; nB = 3 mol
nTotal = 4 mol

Ps
(Ps)Th. = 85
(Ps)exp > (Ps)Th. ;
It is positive deviation From Raoults law.
follow all properties.

Hence, option (2) is correct.

83)

Ans.-(1)

84) e– = mole × NA × (e– in 1 ion)

No. of e– = 1 × NA × 10
No of e– = 10 NA

85)

Ans.-(2)

86)

2 CHI3 + 6 Ag CH CH + 6 AgI
2 mol 1 mol
∵ 2 mol iodoform produces 1 mol of a gas
= 22400 mL.
∴ 0.01 mol iodoform produces 1 mol of a
gas = 112 mL.

87)

1. Write the Balanced Chemical Equation:

2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l)

2. Calculate Moles of Reactants:

A. Moles of H₂ = 4 g / 2 g/mol = 2 moles

 B. Moles of O₂ = 4 g / 32 g/mol = 0.125 moles

3. Determine the Limiting Reactant:

From the balanced equation, 2 moles of H₂ react with 1 mole of O₂.

A. If we use 2 moles of H₂, we need 1 mole of O₂. We only have 0.125 moles of O₂, so O₂ is
the limiting reactant.

4. Calculate Moles of Water Formed:

From the balanced equation, 1 mole of O₂ produces 2 moles of H₂O.

A. Moles of H₂O = 0.125 moles O₂ * (2 moles H₂O / 1 mole O₂) = 0.25 moles H₂O

5. Calculate Mass of Water Formed:

A. Mass of H₂O = 0.25 moles * 18 g/mol = 4.5 g

Therefore, the weight of water formed is 4.5 g.

88)

Ans.-(1)

89)

Explaining : Calculate the value of ebullioscopic constant of acetone.

Concept : This question is based on ebullioscopic constant.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

90)

1. Question Asking :

Find correct statement

2. Concept:
 A. Mixtures:

3. Solution:

A. Statement I: "Mixtures can be separated by physical methods." This is TRUE. The

components of a mixture are not chemically bonded, so their individual properties can be
exploited to separate them.

Statement II: "Compounds cannot be separated into simpler substances by physical methods."
This is also TRUE. Because the elements in a compound are chemically bonded, you need to
break those bonds to separate them. Physical methods cannot do this. You need a chemical
reaction.
B. Therefore, the correct answer is 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

BIOLOGY

91)

The synthesis of cell organelles primarily occurs in the G1 phase of the cell cycle.
• G1 phase (Gap 1 phase): The cell grows in size and actively synthesizes proteins, enzymes,
and most organelles required for the next phases. This is the main phase for organelle
biosynthesis.
Final Answer:
Option 1: G1 phase.

92) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 163

93)

SOLUTION —
Interphase is the phase of the cell cycle where the cell prepares for division. It is subdivided
into three stages:

A. G1 (Gap 1) – Cell growth and normal functions.

B. S (Synthesis) – DNA replication occurs.

C. G2 (Gap 2) – Further growth and preparation for mitosis.

The Go (G-zero) phase is not technically part of interphase, but it's a resting phase that some
cells enter from G1, where they are not actively dividing.

The correct answer is: OPTION(2) G1, S, G2.

 94) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

95) NCERT Pg.#163

96)

Ans.-(2)

97) NCERT Pg # 163

98)

NCERT Pg # 171, Para-2

99) Diploid cell

No. of chromosome - 2n
Amount of DNA - 2c

100)

Explanation :

A. Gametes (n) have half the chromosome number compared to somatic cells (2n).

B. A somatic cell is normally diploid (2n, 2C DNA).

C. After the S phase, DNA replication occurs, doubling the DNA content to 4C while
keeping the chromosome number 2n.

Compared to a haploid gamete (n, C DNA), the somatic cell in G2 phase (after S phase) has twice the
chromosomes (2n vs. n) and four times the DNA (4C vs. C).

Correct Answer: 2 (Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA)

101) NCERT page 163

102) NCERT Pg.# 121

103)
NCERT-XI Pg. # 121

104) NCERT pn. 163, pg. 10.1.1

105) NCERT Pg. # 171

106) NCERT Pg. # 164

107) NCERT Page No. 167

108)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 164

109) NCERT Pg. # 168-169

110)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 165

111) NCERT Pg#170

112) NCERT Page No. 164, 165, 10.2.1

113) NCERT XI pg.# 165

114) NCERT Pg. # 122 (E), 123 (H)

115) NCERT Pg # 122

116) NCERT Pg. # 122, 123

117) NCERT Pg # 164-165

118)

NCERT, Pg.# 164

119) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 166

120)

Explain Question : You are being asked to identify the specific phase of mitosis during which
the chromosome number doubles.

Concept : This question is based on process of mitosis

Explanation :

chromosome number doubling happens in anaphase, not because new DNA is made, but
because each chromatid is now counted as a full chromosome.
Final answer : 4
(Mitosis - Anaphase)

121)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 166

122)

NCERT XI, Page # 164-165

123) NCERT XI Page No. 168

124)

NCERT, Pg. No. # 166

125) NCERT XI, Eng. Pg.# 170 (Significance of Meiosis)

िहदी पे ज # 170 (आिखरी पे राग ाफ)

126)

NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2.5

127) NCERT Pg # 124

128) NCERT Page No. # 167, 10.3

129) NCERT Pg # 125

130) NCERT XII Pg. # 167

131) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 168, 169

 132)

- Root tip cell is '2n'

- 2n = 20 (acc. to Question)
- Meiocyte is also 2n
Meiocyte (2n) ⇒ 20
- Tetrad is a palt of homologous chromosomes.
So, tetrad = 10

133)

C = 30pg
2C = 60pg

In metaphase Ι = 4C = 120 pg

134)

SOLUTION—

The correct matching of meiotic phases with their events is:

(a) Prophase-II:

(IV) Disappearance of the nuclear membrane

(b) Metaphase-II:

(III) Chromosome alignment on the equator

(c) Anaphase-II:

(II) Separation of sister chromatids

(d) Telophase-II:

(I) Enclosure of chromosomes in the nuclear envelop

The correct answer is:OPTION(2)a(IV), b(III), c(II), d(I).

135) NCERT Pg. # 170

ZOOLOGY

136)

Ans.-(3)
137) NCERT, Page 154, 155

138)

Ans.-(3)

139)

Ans.-(1)

140) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 157

141)

Ans.-(1)

142)

Ans.-(3)

143)

Ans.-(2)

144)

NCERT XII, Pg # 151

145) NCERT Pg. # 149

146) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 153, Para. # 8.2.5

147)

Ans.-(4)

148)

Ans.-(4)

149)

P.g. No. 146

 150) Explanation :
The odd one out is common cold. Here's why
Pneumonia, Plague, and Diphtheria are all caused by bacterial or specific pathogen types:

A. Pneumonia can be caused by bacteria (e.g., Streptococcus pneumoniae), viruses, or fungi.

B. Plague is caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis.
C. Diphtheria is caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

On the other hand, Common cold is primarily caused by viruses, most commonly the rhinovirus. So,
the Common cold is the odd one out because it's typically viral, while the others are primarily
bacterial in origin.

Answer : (2)

151) NCERT Pg. # 137

152) NCERT Pg. No. # 146

153) NCERT Pg#131

154)

Ans.-(4)

155) Question Explanation: identify A, B, C, D.

Concept : Protozoal disease

Solution :
(A) → Sporozoit
(B) → Liver
(C) → Salivary gland
(D) → Gametocyte

Final Answer : option (3).

156)

NCERT Pg. 133

157)

Ans.-(1)

158) NCERT Pg.# 138

159) NCERT Pg. # 140

160) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 157 (E), 172 (H)

161) NCERT Pg # 157

162)

Ans.-(1)

163) Ans.-(3)
Arboviral disease are viral diseases that are spreaded by arthropodes.

164)

NCERT-XII, Page # 149 (E), 161(H)

165)

NCERT Page # 148

166)

Ans.-(1)

167)

Ans.-(2)

168)

Ans.-(4)

169)

Ans.-(3)

170)

Ans.-(3)

171)

Ans.-(2)
172) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 144-145

173)

Ans.-(4)

174) NCERT Pg.# 142,143 (New)

175)

Ans.-(3)

176) NCERT-XI Pg. # 160

177)

Ans.-(1)

178) NCERT Pg # 149

180)

Concept:
AIDS
Solution:
In full-blown AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency System becomes very weak due to the loss of
T-helper cells, This allows many disease - causing micorbes and to cause serious infections.
They are commonly caused by-
• Mycobacterium (causes TB)
• Toxoplasma (a protozen)
• viruses and fungi (like herpes virus, candida and pneumocystis)
Correct option: (4)