Vision WBCS Education

WBCS 2024 (Mains) Mock Test

Full Mock Test-22
DAY-151
(PAPER-IV: General Science, Technology, EVS, Static Gk & Current Affairs)

Q. No- 1) In which of the following situations, the state of weightlessness can be observed?
[A] When objects fall freely under gravity
[B] When a satellite revolves in its orbit around the earth
[C] When bodies are at null points in outer space
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer: D [All of the above]
Notes:
The weight of a body is the force with which it is attracted towards the centre of earth. Weightlessness is a situation when
the observed weight of the body becomes zero. Some of the situations of state of weightlessness are: 1. When objects fall
freely under gravity 2. When a satellite revolves in its orbit around the earth 3. When bodies are at null points in outer
space

Q. No- 2) What happens to the orbital velocity of a satellite when the radius of orbit is increased?
[A] it decreases
[B] it increases
[C] it remains same
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: A [it decreases]
Notes:
The orbital velocity of a satellite decreases when the radius of orbit is increased or height of the satellite is increased.

Q. No- 3)The rate of change of momentum of a body equal of the resultant:

(a) energy
(b) power
(c) force
(d) impulse
Ans. (c)
Explanation:Newton's 2nd Law - The rate of Change of momentum always acts in the direction of resultant force acting
on a body (F) =ma) (where m = mass; a = acceleration)

Q. No- 4)Which of the following represents the Density of a material?

[A] Mass/weight
[B] Mass/Length
[C] Mass/Volume
[D] Mass/Area
Correct Answer: C [ Mass/Volume ]
Notes:
Density is the ratio of mass to volume. It is a measure of material‘s compactness. Density = Mass/Volume

Q. No- 5)What is the motion in which a body moves to and fro repeatedly about a fixed point in a definite interval
of time known as?
[A] Circulatory Motion
[B] Rotary Motion
[C] Linear Motion
[D] Oscillatory Motion
Correct Answer: D [Oscillatory Motion]
Notes:
Oscillatory or vibratory motion is that motion in which a body moves to and fro or back and forth repeatedly about a fixed
point in a definite interval of time. In such a motion, the body is confined with inwell defined limits on either side of mean
position.

Q. No- 6)Which of the following is the correct equivalent of 1 atmosphere?

[A] 1 atmosphere = 1.013 × 105Pa
[B] 1 atmosphere = 1.013 × 104Pa
[C] 1 atmosphere = 1.013 × 103Pa
[D] 1 atmosphere = 1.013 × 102Pa
Correct Answer: A [1 atmosphere = 1.013 × 105Pa]
Notes:
A common unit of pressure is the atmosphere (atm), i.e. the pressure exerted by the atmosphere at sea level (1 atm = 1.013
× 105Pa).

Q. No- 7)Food in the pressure cooker is cooked faster, as

(a) the boiling point increases due to an increase inpressure
(b) the boiling point decreases due to an increase inpressure
(c) more steam is available at 100°C
(d) more pressure is available at 100°C
Ans. (a)
Explanation:The pressure cooker works on the principle of Gay- Lusaac's Law which states that at constant volume,
pressure is directly proportional to temperature. So when we heat the cooker, the inside temperature increases, thereby
increasing the pressure and thus, cooking the food faster.
Q. No- 8)Which of the following electromagnetic waves in the EM spectrum has the highest wavelength?
[A] X-rays
[B] Visible
[C] Infrared
[D] UV-rays
Correct Answer: C [Infrared]
Notes:
The electromagnetic spectrum when arranged from longest wavelength to shortest includes radio waves, microwaves,
infrared, optical, ultraviolet, X-rays, and gamma-rays.

Q. No- 9)A metal sheet with a circular hole is heated. The hole
(a) gets larger
(b) gets smaller
(c) remains of the same size
(d) gets deformed
Ans. (a)
Explanation:A metal sheet with a circular hole when heated results in expansion of the hole. Assuming that the sheet is
uniform and isotropic, the hole will expand in the same ratio as the metal according to thermal expansion equation.
This applies to all lengths associated with the metal including the circumference of the hole since the edge of the hole is
made of metal. Thus, if the circumference of the hole expands, so does the diameter.

Q. No- 10)Which of the following conditions will not show any Doppler effect?
[A] When source and listener both are at rest
[B] When medium alone is moving
[C] When source and listener are moving in mutually perpendicular directions
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer: D [All of the above]
Notes:
Conditions for no Doppler effect : (i) When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest. (ii) When medium alone is
moving. (iii) When S and L move in such a way that distance between S and L remains constant. (iv) When source S and
listener L, are moving in mutually perpendicular directions
Q. No- 11) If a liquid is heated in space under no gravity, the transferof heat will take place by process of
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) can not be heated in the absence of gravity
Ans. (c)
Explanation:Radiation is the heat transfer by electromagnetic waves or photons. It does not need a propagating medieval.
The heat radiated by the sun can be exchanged between the solar surface and the Earth's surface without heating the
transitional space.While, convection happens when a substance that can flow, likewater or air is heated in the presence of
gravity. On the other hand, conduction is the flow of heat through solids and liquids by vibration and collision of
molecules and free electrons.

Q. No- 12) Transformer is used

(a) for converting AC into DC
(b) forcoverting DC into AC
(c) to step up DC voltages
(d) to step up or step down AC voltages
Ans. (d)
Explanation:A transformer is an electrical device that transfers energy from one circuit to another by magnetic coupling
with no moving parts. It comprises of two or more coupled windings, or a single topped winding, and a magnetic core to
concentrate magnetic flux. These are used to convert between high and low voltages, to change impedance, and to provide
electrical isolation between circuits.

Q. No- 13) What happens to the frequency of the pendulum if it is suspended from the ceiling of the lift moving up
ward with constant acceleration?
[A] it decreases
[B] it increases
[C] may increase or decrease
[D] No change
Correct Answer: B [it increases]
Notes:
If the lift is moving up ward with constant acceleration a then the time period of the pendulum decreases and frequency
increases.

Q. No- 14) Which of the following waves is produced when inner shell electrons in atoms move from one energy
level to a lower level?
[A] Infrared
[B] X-rays
[C] Ultraviolet
[D] Microwaves
Correct Answer: C [Ultraviolet]
Notes:
Ultraviolet rays are produced when the Inner shell electrons in atoms move from one energy level to a lower level.

Q. No- 15) Which gas is used in filling electric bulbs?

(a) Neon
(b) Argon
(c) Radon
(d) Krypton
Ans. (b)
Explanation:Electric bulbs are generally filled with argon gas because this gas is able to burn very intensely and produce
bright light.

Q. No- 16) Candles contains a mixture of

(a) Bees wax and paraffin wax
(b) Bees wax and stearic acid
(c) Paraffin wax and stearic acid
(d) Higher fatty acid
Explanation:Ans. (c) Candles contain a mixture of paraffin wax and stearic acid.

Q. No- 17) An iron ball is heated. The percentage increase will be largest in
(A) density
(B) surface area
(C) diameter
(D) volume
Ans. (D) volume
Explanation:Since the radius increment is a linear expansion, which is directly proportional to the temperature
change. Similarly, the area change and volume change are directly proportional to the temperature change.
Density change (Δ d) = Mass (m)/Change in volume (ΔV)
Since the density change is inversely proportional to volume change, so the density will have a minimum
percentage increase and volume will have a maximum percentage increase.

Q. No- 18) Which quantity is increased in step-down transformer?

(A) Voltage
(B) Current
(C) Wattage
(D) Frequency
Ans. (B) Current
A transformer is a passive electrical device which transfers one electrical circuit to another. It consists of two
electrically isolated coils and works Faraday's principle of mutual inductance. It transforms electrical energy to
the magnetic energy on the primary side and again from magnetic energy to the electrical energy on the
secondary side.
A step-down transformer can be defined as an object which transforms the high voltage and low current to low
voltage and high current. The number of turns of wire in the coil on the primary side is high and the number of
turns of wire in the coil on the secondary side is less.

Q. No- 19) Pure silicon at 0 K is

(A) semiconductor
(B) metal
(C) insulator
(D) superconductor
Ans. (C) insulator

Silicon is a group IV material.

In its outer orbit, it has four valence electrons which are held by covalent bonds with the valence electrons of
other silicon atoms.
These valence electrons are not available for electricity.
So, at 0 K intrinsic silicon behaves like an insulator.
But as the temperature is increased valence electrons receives the energy and leave the silicon atom hence
creating a hole.
If the temperature is greater than 0 K some of the valence electrons in the semiconductor crystal gain sufficient
energy to jump to the conduction band from the valance band.
This energy is approximately equal to 1.2 eV at room temperature (i.e. at 300oK) which is equal to the bandgap
energy of silicon.
The bandgap of a semiconductor is the minimum energy required to excite an electron that is stuck in its bound
state into a free state where it can participate in conduction.
Once the electron becomes excited into the conduction band, it is free to move about the semiconductor and
participate in conduction.

Q. No- 20) The solar cooker works on the same principle as

(A) Bolometer
(B) Pyrometer
(C) Greenhouse
(D) Solar PV cell
Ans. (C) Greenhouse
The solar cooker works on the same principle as the Greenhouse effect.
Solar cooker works on the principle to convert sunlight into heat energy and the heat energy trapped is used for
cooking.
Similarly, Greenhouse gases trap the sunlight in the earth's atmosphere and convert this sunlight into heat thus
raising the global average temperature on the earth's surface.

Q. No- 21) The spectrum of color in Compact Disc (CD) is due to

(A) Refraction
(B) Reflection
(C) Diffraction
(D) Polarization
Ans. (C) Diffraction
Diffraction:
Light tends to bend around an opaque object and not walk in a straight line – an effect known as the diffraction
of light.
The different colours bend at different angles due to different wavelengths forming a band of colours
(spectrum).
The separation of visible light into various colours is known as dispersion.
Examples:
The spectrum of colour in Compact Disc (CD)
Water passing from a small gap

Q. No- 22) The waves produced by motor boat sailing on water are
(A) transverse
(B) longitudinal
(C) longitudinal and transverse
(D) stationary
Ans. (C) longitudinal and transverse

The waves produced by a motorboat sailing on the water are of both transverse and longitudinal types.
Transverse waves are produced on the surface and longitudinal waves are produced deep inside the water.

Q. No- 23) Speed of sound is the maximum In

(A) vacuum
(B) gases
(C) liquids
(D) solids
Ans. (D) solids
The speed of the sound depends on the density of the medium through which it is travelling.
The particles in the solid medium are closely packed. Hence, the density is high. Information from one molecule
to another molecule travels faster in the solid medium.
In liquid, the molecules are farther apart than in solids. Hence, the density is low for liquids.
In gas, the molecules are very loosely dispersed. The speed of the sound wave will be maximum in steel.

Q. No- 24) TV remote control uses

(A) Infrared frequency
(B) Radio frequency
(C) Visible frequency
(D) Ultraviolet frequency
Ans. (A) Infrared frequency
About Infrared Frequency:
It is known as the Electromagnetic radiation (EMR) with wavelengths longer than those of Visible Light
Infrared.
Infrared Frequency is a portion of the Electromagnetic Spectrum that extends from the Long-wavelength, or
Red color, end of the Visible Light Range to the Microwave Range.
it can be detected as a Sensation of Warmth on the skin and Invisible to the eye.
The Infrared Frequency range is usually divided into Three Regions they are:
The Near-Infrared Frequency (nearest the visible spectrum), with Wavelengths of 0.78 to about 2.5
micrometers.
The Middle Infrared Frequency, with Wavelengths of 2.5 to about 50 micrometres.
The far Infrared Frequency, with Wavelengths of 50 to 1,000 micrometres.
Q. No- 25) Voice of your friend can be recognized by its
(A) pitch
(B) quality
(C) intensity
(D) velocity
Ans. (B) quality
The Voice of your friend can be recognized by its quality.
A person's voice is mostly based on range, vocal registers, speech level, tessitura, weight and transition point.
Among the given parameters, Voice weight and voice range play a vital role in the recognition of an individual's
voice.
Note that sound pitch, loudness, and intensity generally characterize the sound.
But it is the sound quality which enables an ear to distinguish sounds which have the same pitch, loudness and
intensity.

Q. No- 26) At magnetic poles, the angle of dip is

(A) 45°
(B) 30°
(C) Zero
(D) 90°
Ans. (D) 90°
At magnetic poles, the angle of dip is 90°.
The angle of dip is the angle in a vertical plane aligned with the magnetic north between the local magnetic field
and the horizontal.
It is also known as Magnetic dip or Magnetic inclination.
The dip ranges from South Magnetic Pole is (-90) degrees and in the North Magnetic Pole (+ 90) degrees.
The variation in the angle of dip provides information about the magnetic field of the earth.
It plays a vital role in fields of field mapping and geological field applications.

Q. No- 27) If we add salt to pure water, its boiling point will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remains same
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a) increase
Adding salt to a pot of water on the stove will make it boil faster.
Salt increases the boiling temperature, but not by very much. If you add 20 grams of salt to five litres of water,
instead of boiling at 100° C, it'll boil at 100.04° C.
Not only salt but any solute added to pure water leads to the variation in the bonding of Hydrogen in H2O.
When NaCl is added to water, it separates into Na+ and Cl- ions.
These ions align themselves with the H2O bonding thereby increasing the intermolecular attraction.
Now, more energy is needed to break these bondings and therefore, there is a rise in the boiling point of the
water.

Q. No- 28) A drop of water is broken into two drops. The sum of which property of the drops is equal to
that of the single one?
(A) Radius
(B) Surface area
(C) Surface energy
(D) Volume
Ans. (D) Volume
When a single drop of water is divided into two smaller drops, the volume of the original drop is conserved.
This is because volume is an extensive property, meaning it is directly proportional to the amount of substance
present and remains constant in a closed system without any addition or removal of material. The radius,
surface area, and surface energy of the drops will change, as these properties depend on the shape and size of
the drops. Specifically, the combined surface area and surface energy of the two new drops will generally be
greater than that of the original drop due to the increase in the total surface area exposed. However, the total
volume of the two smaller drops will equal the volume of the original drop, adhering to the principle of
conservation of mass
Q. No- 29) The radiation carrying maximum energy –
(A) UV rays
(B) Gamma rays
(C) X-rays
(D) IR rays
Ans. (B) Gamma rays

Gamma rays have the highest energies, the shortest wavelengths, and the highest frequencies.
Radio waves, on the other hand, have the lowest energies, longest wavelengths, and lowest frequencies of any
type of EM radiation.
In order from highest to lowest energy, the sections of the EM spectrum are named: gamma rays, X-rays,
ultraviolet radiation, visible light, infrared radiation, and radio waves.
Microwaves (like the ones used in microwave ovens) are a subsection of the radio wave segment of the EM
spectrum.

Q. No- 30) A pendulum clock that keeps correct time on the earth, is taken to the moon. It will then run
(A) at correct rate.
(B) 6 times faster.
(C) √6 times faster.
(D) √6 times slower.
Ans. (D) √6 times slower.
Period of Pendulum T = 2π √L/√g
The period is inversely proportional to acceleration due to gravity (g).
Acceleration due to gravity on the moon =1/6th of the acceleration due to gravity on earth.
Hence Te/ Tm = 1/√6
Tm = √6 Te
The period on the moon will be √6 times to period on earth.
Hence it will be √6 times slower on the moon as compared to earth.

Q. No- 31) The compound used in prickly-heat powder to prevent excessive sweating is:
[A] Boric acid
[B] Phosphoric acid
[C] Carbonic acid
[D] Sulphonic acid
Correct Answer: A [Boric acid]
Notes:
Boric acid (H3BO3), also called hydrogen borate, boracic acid, orthoboric acid and acidumboricum, is used in prickly
heat powders to prevent excessive sweating. Boric acid is also used as an antiseptic for minor burns or cuts and is
sometimes used in dressings or salves. As an antibacterial compound, boric acid can also be used for acne treatment and
in facial powder.

Q. No- 32) Which one of the following compounds is used as a sedative?

(a) Potassium bromide
(b) Calcium chloride
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Phosphorus trichloride
Explanation:Ans.(a) Potassium bromide is used as sedative.

Q. No- 33) The rate of a chemical reaction depends upon

[A]temperature
[B]period of the reaction
[C]unit of the reaction
[D] All of these
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Factors that influence the reaction rates of chemical reactions include the concentration of
reactants, temperature, pressure, the physical state of reactants and their dispersion, the solvent and the presence of
a catalyst.

Q. No- 34) An example of a weak base is

[A]NaOH
[B]Sr (OH)2
[C]Ba(OH)2
[D] Cu(OH)2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A base which gets completely ionised in water and produces large amount of hydroxide ions is called
strong base. A base which gets partially ionised in water and produces small amount of hydroxide ions is called a weak
base, e.g., copper hydroxide.
Q. No- 35) Examples of ionic compounds are
[A]NaCl, KCI, MgF2, CaCl2,
[B] H2, Cl2, O2, N2, CH4
[C] SO2, SO3, O3
[D] H2O, NH3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Table salt is an example of an ionic compound. Sodium and chlorine ions come together to form sodium
chloride, or NaCl. The sodium atom in this compound loses an electron to become Na+, while the chlorine atom gains an
electron to become Cl-. ... Potassium oxide, or K2O, is another example of an ionic compound.

Q. No- 36) The modulus of rigidity is the ratio of

[A]longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain
[B]volume stress to volume strain
[C]shearing stress to shearing strain
[D] tensile stress to tensile strain
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Shear Modulus Of Rigidity. Shear modulus also known as Modulus of rigidity is the measure of
the rigidity of the body, given by the ratio of shear stress to shear strain.

Q. No- 37) Gold and silver are called noble metals because
[A]they do not, normally, react in their natural environment
[B]ladies of royalty wear them as jewellery
[C]they are worn by noblemen
[D] even acids cannot dissolve them without strong heat
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Gold and silver are called noble metals because these metals do not corrode when exposed to atmosphere
These metals are highly unreactive and remains unaffected by air, water vapour and other gases present in the atmosphere.
Gold does not tarnish and retains its lusture. When silver objects are kept in air, they get tarnished and gradually turn
black. Since, silver is a highly unreactive metal, so it does not react with the oxygen of air easily. But silver objects
combine slowly with the hydrogen sulphide gas present in air to form a black coating of silver sulphide (Ag S).

Q. No- 38) Ethanol containing 5% water is known as:

[A] Dilute alcohol
[B] Power alcohol
[C] Rectified spirit
[D] Absolute alcohol
Correct Answer: C [Rectified spirit]
Notes:
A rectified alcohol is highly concentrated ethanol which has been purified by means of repeated distillation, a process that
is called rectification. It typically contains 95% alcohol by volume and 5% water. Normally, ethanol with 5% water is
known as pure alcohol.

Q. No- 39) Which one of the following is not an explosive matter?

(a) Trinitro toluene
(b) Dinitroglycerine
(c) CycloTrimethylenetrinitramine
(d) Nitrochloroform
Explanation:
Ans. (d) Nitrochloroform is a broad-spectrum antimicrobial whichis used as a fungicide, herbicide, insecticide and
nematicide. It is alsoknown as Chloropicrin
Q. No- 40) The percentage content of carbon is found to be maximum in
[A]bituminous
[B]lignite
[C]peat
[D] anthracite
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Anthracite has the highest carbon content of about 85−98% of carbon.

Q. No- 41) The latest discovered state of matter is

[A] solid
[B] Bose-Einstein condensate
[C]plasma
[D] liquid
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The latest discovered state of matter is Bose-Einstein condensate. It is a state of matter in which separate
atoms or subatomic particles, cooled to near absolute zero, coalesce into a single quantum mechanical entity.

Q. No- 42) A bond formed by sharing of electrons between atoms of the same or different element is called
[A]hydrogen bond
[B]ionic bond
[C]covalent bond
[D] coordinate bond
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A bond formed by sharing of electrons between atoms of the elements is called covalent bond.

Q. No- 43) Which one of the following elements exists in liquid state at room temperature?
[A] Mercury
[B] Lead
[C]sodium
[D] Iron
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:Mercury exists in liquid state at room temperature. Bromine(Br) also exists as liquid at room temperature
however it is a non-metal. Some other metals like caesium, gallium and rubidium exists as liquid slightly above room
temperature.

Q. No- 44) What happens when dilute sulphuric acid is poured on silver plate?
[A]silversulphate is formed
[B] So2 gas is evolved
[C] No reaction takes place
[D] Hydrogen gas is evolved
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Those metals which are more reactive than hydrogen, that is, those metals which lose electrons more easily
than hydrogen, displace hydrogen from dilute acids to produce hydrogen gas. The metals like copper and silver which are
less reactive than hydrogen, do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids. This is because they do not provide electrons
required for the reduction of hydrogen ions present in acids.
Q. No- 45) To neutralize too acidic soil, what is used?
[A] quick lime
[B] slaked lime
[C] Both quick and slaked lime
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: C [Both quick and slaked lime]
Notes:
Plants do not grow well in acidic or basic soil. Hence, to neutralize the acidity ofsoil, quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked
lime (calcium hydroxide) is added to soil. To neutralize excess basicity, soils are treated with organic matter, containing
organic acids.

Q. No- 46) Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Most of food preparations are colloidal in nature
(b) Most drugs, which are insoluble in water, areadministered as colloidal dispersions
(c) Latex is colloidal solution of negatively chargedcolloidal rubber particles
(d) All of the above
Explanation:
Ans. (d) Colloids are a mixture in which one substance is divided into minute particles (called colloidal particles) and
dispersed throughout a second substance. The substances are present as larger particles than those found in solution, but
are too small to be seen with a microscope.

Q. No- 47) When an incandescent electric bulb glows

[A]the electric energy is completely Converted into light
[B]the electric energy is party Converted into light energy and partly into heat energy
[C]the light energy is converted into electric energy
[D] the electric energy is converter into magnetic energy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The filament of an electric bulb glows because of the heating effect of electric current. As the current
passes through the bulb it heats the filament which gives off light. ... The filament then heats up and becomes red-hot as a
result of this it begins to glow, turning electrical energy into light energy.

Q. No- 48) Which of the following alkaline earth metals is used in the manufacture of aeroplane parts?
[A]Sr
[B]Ca
[C] Mg
[D] Be
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The alloy magnelium can alloy of aluminium with magnesium is too light that‗s why it is frequently used in
manufacturing of aircrafts and commercial weight balance. The ore duralium is also light and soft which is used in the
manufacturing of aircrafts, etc

Q. No- 49) Difference in properties of solution, colloids and suspensions are due to
[A]different particle size
[B]appearance
[C]nature of solution
[D] diffusion
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The dispersed particles of a colloid are intermediate in size between those of a solution and
a suspension. Colloids are distinguishable from solutions because of the light scattering phenomenon called the Tyndall
effect.

Q. No- 50) By which process does the smell of cooking spread to all the rooms in a house?
[A] Decomposition
[B] Diffusion
[C] Displacement
[D] Distillation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: If someone is cooking in the kitchen, the smell travels around the house to other rooms. This is because of
diffusion , the movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
Q. No- 51) Isotonic solutions have the same
[A]normality
[B]molar concentration
[C]strength
[D] density
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Isotonic solutions have same osmotic pressure and same concentration. ... As the molar concentration
is same for isotonic solutions, so elevation in boilling point and depression in freezing point of istonic solutions must
be same.

Q. No- 52) Baking soda is

(a) sodium carbohydrate
(b) sodium bicarbonate
(c) sodiumsulphate
(d) sodium hydroxide
Explanation:
Ans. (b) Baking soda is sodium bicarbonate with chemical formula NaHCO,. It is primarily used in baking industries as a
leavening agent.

Q. No- 53) What type of chemical reaction is used to extract metals from their naturally occurring compounds like
oxides or chlorides by electrolysis?
[A] Displacement reaction
[B] Decomposition reaction
[C] Combination reaction
[D] Oxidation reaction
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In process of metallurgy, more complex metal oxides or chlorides are broken down into their simple parts.
Therefore process involves decomposition reactions. Electrolysis of metal salts to extract metal, is also a decomposition
reaction.

Q. No- 54) The word kinetics is derived from

[A] Greek word ‗kinesis‘
[B] Latin word ‗kinesis‘
[C] Greek word 'kinesis‘
[D] Latin word ‗kinetics‘
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word kinetics is derived from the Greek word ‗kinesis‘ meaning movement. Chemical kinetics is the
branch of chemistry, which deals with the study of the reaction rates, the factors affecting the rate of reactions and the
mechanism by which the reactions proceed. In other words, 'chemical kinetics is the study of chemical reactions with
respect to reaction rates, effect of various variables, rearrangement of atoms and formation of intermediates.‖

Q. No- 55) A solution which contains the maximum amount of the solute that can be dissolved in a given amount
of solvent at a particular temperature is called
[A]saturated solution
[B]unsaturated solution
[C]supersaturated solution
[D] None of these
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Saturated solution contains the maximum amount of dissolved solute for a given amount of solvent at a
specific pressure and temperature. In a saturated solution, solvation and crystallization are in equilibrium (They are
happening at equal rates at the same time.)
Q. No- 56) A reversible reaction is the one in which
[A]the reactants are completely converted into products
[B]half of the reactants are used up
[C]the rates of both the forward and the reverse reactions are unequal
[D] the concentration of reactants and products become fixed at equilibrium
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Reversible reactions that happen in a closed system eventually reach equilibrium. At equilibrium,
the concentrations of reactants and products do not change. But the forward and reverse reactions have not stopped - they
are still going on, and at the same rate as each other.

Q. No- 57) 'Freon' used as refrigerants is chemically known as

(a) chlorinated hydrocarbon
(b) fluorinated hydrocarbon
(c) chlorofluoro hydrocarbon
(d) fluorinated aromatic compound
Explanation:
Ans. (c) Chlorofluoro carbon (CF2C12) is also known as freon. It is used as refrigerants in refrigerators and air conditions.
It is also used as propellant in aerosols and foams.
Q. No- 58) The purest form of an allotrope of the carbon is
[A]diamond
[B]lamp black
[C]graphite
[D] charcoal
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Lump black o soot is the purest form of an allotrope of the carbon which has nearly 95% carbon If a carbon
containing substance is heated inside a blanket then from the collection of smokes of such heating lamp black or soot is
obtained This (soot) is used in making printing ink, black colour shoes polish, etc.

Q. No- 59) The chemical reaction in which heat energy is released is called
[A] endothermic reactions
[B]combination reactions
[C]exothermic reactions
[D] photochemical reactions
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Those reactions in which energy is released in the form of heat are called Exothermic Reactions. (1) All
combustion reactions e.g. (2) Thermite reactions e.g. Combinations are generally exothermic in nature.

Q. No- 60) The plot given by Lothar Meyer, for then known elements, was between their atomic volume and
[A] atomic number
[B]atomic mass
[C]density
[D] ionisation energy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Lothar Meyer plotted a graph between the atomic volumes and atomic weights of the elements and
observed that the elements with similar properties occupied similar positions on the curve. ... The most
electronegative elements, i.e., halogens (F,CI,Br,etc.)

Q. No- 61) Which one of the following materials is very hard and very ductile?
[A]Carborundum
[B] Tungsten
[C] Cast iron
[D] Nichrome
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The material which is very hard and very ductile is Nichrome. Nichrome (nickel-chrome or chrome-nickel)
is in the form of various alloys of nickel, chromium, and iron.
Q. No- 62) What is the pH value of pure water?
(a) 1
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 10
Explanation:Ans. (c)
Pure water is neutral in nature hence, the pH value of pure water is 7.

Q. No- 63) White phosphorus is always kept under

[A]benzene
[B]kerosene
[C]ether
[D] water
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: White phosphorus is highly reactive, and spontaneously ignites at about 30°C in moist air. It is usually
stored under water, to prevent exposure to the air.

Q. No- 64) In Mendeleev's periodic table, gaps were left for the elements to be discovered later. Which of the
following elements found a place in the periodic table later?
[A] Germanium
[B] Chlorine
[C] Oxygen
[D] Silicon
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Germanium element found a place in the periodic table later in the place of Eka–silicon in Mendeleev's
periodic table.

Q. No- 65) Essential constituent of all organic compounds is

[A]nitrogen
[B]sulphur
[C]carbon
[D] halogen
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The element which is an essential constituent of all organic compounds is carbon. It has the electronic
configuration (2, 4). It is found in group 14.
Q. No- 66)A gene is a functional unit of ___?
[A] Life
[B] Cell
[C] DNA
[D] Chromosomes
Correct Answer: D [Chromosomes]
Notes:
A gene is a functional unit of chromosomes. They are made up of DNA. Some genes also act as instructions to make
molecules called proteins. However, not all genes code for proteins.

Q. No- 67) Thinking part of the brain is

[A]midbrain
[B]hindbrain
[C]forebrain
[D] cerebrum
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Brain is widest and uppermost part of CNS which lies perfected against mechanical injury and shock by a
fluid filled balloon. It is divided into three parts. i.e., forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain. Forebrain contains olfactory lobes
and cerebrum which controls neural activities. Forebrain is also the thinking part of brain as it has specialised lobes for
speech, pain, taste, smell, hearing, memory, sight and emotion. Hindbrain is again divided into three part, i.e., cerebellum,
pons and medulla.

Q. No- 68) Term Biology' was coined by

[A] Lamarck and Treviranus
[B] Lamarck and Darwin
[C] Lamarck and Hugo de Vries
[D] Darwin and Hugo de Vries
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The term biology in its modern sense appears to have been introduced independently by Thomas Beddoes
(in 1799), Karl Friedrich Burdach (in 1800), Gottfried Reinhold Treviranus (BiologieoderPhilosophie der lebendenNatur,
1802) and Jean-Baptiste Lamarck (Hydrogéologie, 1802).

Q. No- 69) In which form is glucose stored in our body?

[A] Insulin
[B] Glucose
[C] Glycogen
[D] Fat
Correct Answer: C [Glycogen]
Notes: Glucose is stored in the body as glycogen. The liver stores glucose in the form of glycogen which is released when
it is needed. Also, fat can be converted into glucose when needed. Only the glycogen stored in the liver can be made
accessible to other organs.

Q. No- 70) Villi is present in

[A] small intestine
[B]large intestine
[C]stomach
[D] Both a‗ and 'b‗
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The mucosal wall of the small intestine forms millions of tiny finger-like projections known as villi. These
villi increase the surface area for more absorption of nutrients. Villi are present in the small intestine to increase the
surface area of absorption.

Q. No- 71) The word ‗Taxonomy‘ was coined by

[A] de Candolle
[B]Carolus Linnaeus
[C] Aristotle
[D] H Santapau
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: AP De Candolle was a Swiss Botanist and he coined the term "Taxonomy".

Q. No- 72) How many arteries are present in Human Umbilical Cord?
[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 4
Correct Answer: B [2]
Notes:
The umbilical cord contains Wharton‘s jelly, a gelatinous substance made largely from mucopolysaccharides which
protects the blood vessels inside. It contains one vein and two arteries that carries oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
respectively.
Q. No- 73) After going through the processes of scouring and bleaching, 99% of cotton is made up of which
polymer?
[A] Epoxy
[B] Teflon
[C] Cellulose
[D] Proteins
Correct Answer: C [Cellulose]
Notes:
To prepare the cotton fabric for dyeing, printing and finishing process, scouring and bleaching is the fundamental step.
After scouring and bleaching, cotton is 99% cellulose. Cellulose is a macromolecule- a polymer made up of a long chain
of glucose molecules linked by C-1 to C-4 oxygen bridges with elimination of water (glycoside bonds).

Q. No- 74) The gastric glands of stomach release

[A]ptyalin
[B]pepsin
[C]renin
[D] enterokinase
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:

Q. No- 75) Which of the following solution(s) is/are used to stain the cell?
[A] Iodine solution
[B] Methylene blue
[C]Safranin solution
[D] All of these
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Safranin is mainly used to stain plant cells. It stains plant cells red. Methylene blue can be used to stain
animal cells.

Q. No- 76) During photosynthesis, green plants use energy from sunlight to synthesize ____________ with carbon
dioxide and water.
(a) Sucrose
(b) Glucose
(c) galactose
(d) fructose
Explanation:Sol. (b) Plants use energy from sunlight to turn water and carbon dioxide into an energy rich sugar called
glucose. This process is called photosynthesis. Photosynthesis takes place inside capsules in the leaf cells, called
Chloroplasts.

Q. No- 77) The red colour of human blood is due to ____:

[A] Myoglobin
[B] Haemoglobin
[C] Haptoglobin
[D] Immunoglobulin
Correct Answer: B [Haemoglobin ]
Notes:
Human blood is red because hemoglobin, which is carried in the blood and functions to transport oxygen, is iron-rich and
red in color. In its oxygenated state it is called oxyhemoglobin and is bright red. In the reduced state it is called
deoxyhemoglobin and is purple-blue. Each hemoglobin molecule is made up of four heme groups surrounding a globin
group. Heme contains iron and gives a red color to the molecule.

Q. No- 78) Which of the plant products is used in leather industry?

[A] Resin
[B] Tannin
[C] Latex
[D] Mucilage
Correct Answer: B [Tannin]
Notes:
A tannin is an astringent, bitter plant polyphenolic compound that binds to and precipitates proteins and various other
organic compounds including amino acids and alkaloids. It refers to the use of wood tannins from oak in tanning animal
hides into leather.

Q. No- 79) Which organ has finger like outgrowths which are called as Villi (Singular Villus)?
[A] Stomach
[B] Bladder
[C] Large Intestine
[D] Small Intestine
Correct Answer: D [Small Intestine]
Notes:
The inner walls of the small intestine have thousands of finger-like outgrowths called villi (singular villus). The villi
increases the absorption of the digested food. Each villus has a network of thin and small blood vessels close to its
surface. The surface of the villi absorbs the digested food materials.

Q. No- 80) Which of the following vitamin functions as both, hormone and visual pigment?
[A] Thiamine
[B] Retinal
[C] Riboflavin
[D] Folic acid
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Vitamin A is also known as retinal, it is isoprenoid alcohol and essential for vision, growth, reproduction,
and maintenance of epithelial tissues.

Q. No- 81)Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

[A] Vitamin B
[B] Vitamin C
[C] Vitamin C
[D] Vitamin K
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble.

Q. No- 82) Hypokalaemia is caused by the deficiency of ________.

(a) Iodine
(b) Potassium
(c) Iron
(d) Calcium
Explanation:Sol. (b) In hypokalemia, the level of potassium in blood is too low. A low potassium level can make
muscles feel weak, cramp, twitch, or even become paralyzed, and abnormal heart rhythms develop as well. It can cause
cardiac arrest as well.

Q. No- 83) Which of the following are flowerless plants that produce cones and seeds in which seeds are not
encased within an ovary?
(a) Gymnosperms
(b) Angiosperms
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Hydrophytes
Explanation:Sol. (a) Gymnosperms- They are flowerless plants that produce cones and seeds in which seeds are not
encased within an ovary. Bryophytes are flowerless plants that produce cones and seeds in which seeds are not encased
within an ovary. Angiosperms-In angiosperms seed is produced by flowering plants and is enclosed within an ovary. They
rely on animals for their reproduction

Q. No- 84) Which hormone regulates adrenocorticotropin release in the pituitary gland?
[A] Thyrotropin releasing hormone
[B] Corticotropin releasing hormone
[C] Gonadotropin releasing hormone
[D] Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Correct Answer: B [Corticotropin releasing hormone]
Notes: The corticotropin-releasing hormone regulates adrenocorticotropin release in the pituitary gland.

Q. No- 85) Which of the following vitamins serves as a hormone precursor?

[A] Vitamin A
[B] Vitamin C
[C] Vitamin D
[D] Vitamin K
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The hormone precursor, vitamin D , can be obtained from the diet or synthesized from 7-
dehydrocholesterol in skin in a UV light-dependent reaction
Q. No- 86)Herbivores have longer small intestine than carnivores because
[A]to digest protein
[B]to digest cellulose
[C]for increasing the rate of absorption
[D] for increasing the rate of digestion
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The small intestine is longer in herbivore than in carnivore because herbivores eat only grass which is full
of cellulose and the digestion of cellulose takes a long time. ... Herbivores need a longer small intestine to allow cellulose
to be digested as taken from green plants.

Q. No- 87) A test is used to determine the sex of the fetus:

[A] Amniocentesis
[B] Amyliodogenesis
[C] Amnionic
[D] FluidicHide Answer
Correct Answer: A [Amniocentesis]
Notes: A test is used to determine the sex of the fetus is Amniocentesis.

Q. No- 88) In a living cell, what is the site of ribosome formation?

[A] Golgi bodies
[B] Endoplasmic reticulum
[C] Plasma membrane
[D] Nucleolus
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Nucleolus receives the ribosomal proteins from the cytoplasm, and the IRNA and ribosomal proteins
combine to form ribosomal subunits. So, it is also called as ribosome producing machine or factory.

Q. No- 89) Leaf is the means of vegetative propagation in

[A]potato
[B]rose
[C]Bryophyllum
[D] garlic
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In Bryophyllun, at margins of leaves, notches are present. Adventitious buds arise from the notches.
Adventitious buds can be separated and fully grow into a individual plants.

Q. No- 90) An aquatic plant 'water hyacinth‘ is the most invasive weed found in standing water reproduce by
[A] runner
[B]offset
[C]rhizome
[D] cutting
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Water hyacinth reproduces vegetatively by short runner stems (stolons) that radiate from the base of
the plant to form daughter plants, and also reproduces by seed. Its roots are purplish black and feathery.

Q. No- 91) The oil obtained from which of the following is suitable for use as biodiesel?
[A] Mustard seed oil
[B]Asafoetida
[C] Cotton seed oil
[D] All of these
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mustard is related to canola which is used for biodiesel, but mustard can grow in dried areas and need fewer
pesticides and other agricultural inputs than canola. Therefore, it can potentially be grown more cheaply. Mustard yields
about 61 gallons of oil per acre.

Q. No- 92) Which of the following is a communicable disease?

(a) Measles
(b) Scurvy
(c) Asthma
(d) Diabetes
Explanation:Sol. (a)
Measles: is a communicable disease. It is caused by a virus. Encephalitis, inflammation of the brain is a serious disease
which is caused by measles. Scurvy: a disease caused by the lack of vitamin C (ascorbic acid). Asthma: it is an incurable
disease but it can be controlled. Its symptoms are chest pain,breathing problems etc. Diabetes: too much spike in blood
sugar level is termed as diabetes. In Diabetes pancreas doesn't secrete enough insulin or it doesn't utilize it effectively.

Q. No- 93) What is Rancidity?

[A] Deterioration of Fat
[B] Deterioration of Glucose
[C] Deterioration of Protein
[D] Deterioration of Vitamins
Correct Answer: A [Deterioration of Fat]
Notes: The process of oxidation of oily and Fatty food, which changes its taste and smell is known as Rancidity.
Rancidity generally occurs in Fat.

Q. No- 94) Robert Hooke is known for which of the following works?
[A] how messages pass between nerve cells in mammals
[B] first use of the word cell
[C] theory of punctuated equilibrium
[D] aquatic ape theory
Correct Answer: B [first use of the word cell]
Notes: Robert Hooke is known for his discovery of the law of elasticity (Hooke‘s law), for his first use of the word cell in
the sense of a basic unit of organisms, and for his studies of microscopic fossils, which made him an early proponent of a
theory of evolution.

Q. No- 95) Which among the following is called ant sterility vitamin ?
[A] Vitamin A
[B] Vitamin D
[C] Vitamin E
[D] Vitamin K
Correct Answer: C [Vitamin E]
Notes: Vitamin E is called ant sterility vitamin. Vitamin E, a fat soluble vitamin, is found naturally in some foods, added
to others, and available as a dietary supplement.

Q. No- 96) Radiations are harmful as it

A. causes skin cancer
B. causes anemia
C. alters body tissues
D. is unstable
Answer: Option A
Solution: Radiation poisoning happens when a radioactive substance gives off particles that get into a person's
body and cause harm. Different radioactive substances have different characteristics. They can harm and help
people in different ways, and some are more dangerous than others.

Q. No- 97) The pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is

A. Always upright
B. May be upright or invented
C. Always inverted
D. None of the above
Answer: Option A
Solution: An energy pyramid (sometimes called a trophic pyramid or an ecological pyramid) is a graphical
representation, showing the flow of energy at each trophic level in an ecosystem. The base of the energy
pyramid indicates the energy available within primary producers.

Q. No- 98) The Salim Ali Bird sanctuary is located at

A. Pondicherry,
B. Thattekad,
C. Anakkatti
D. Kalakkad
Answer: Option B
Solution: The Thattekkad Bird Sanctuary has a rich and varied birdlife. Several species of birds, both forest
birds as well as the water birds, visit the sanctuaries
Q. No- 99) Pollutants that are introduced into the environment by human activity are called as
A. qualitative pollutants
B. quantitative pollutants
C. anthropogenic pollutants
D. all of these
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Anthropogenic pollution is not new—humans have contributed to the environmental burden since they learned
to control fire and smelt metals. However, the nature and distribution of contaminants in the environment has
changed in recent history as new compounds have been created

Q. No- 100) The occurrence of pesticides like DDT in higher trophic levels is termed as
A. bioremediation
B. biomagnification
C. biological enhancement
D. biopollution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Biomagnification, also known as bioamplification or biological magnification, is any concentration of a toxin,
such as pesticides, in the tissues of tolerant organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain.

Q. No- 101) The study of food chains and food webs is observed in the phenomenon known as
A. biological chain
B. ecosystem
C. biological magnification
D. energy flow
Answer: Option B
Solution: Food webs consist of many interconnected food chains and are more realistic representation of
consumption relationships in ecosystems.

Q. No- 102) Which book written by Rachel Carson resulted in banning DDT in USA?
A. Silent spring
B. The environmentalism
C. Biomagnification
D. Food chain
Answer: Option A
Solution: Mocked for Being a 'Woman Studying Genetics,' How Rachel Carson Got DDT Banned. Considered
one of Carson's most exceptional and groundbreaking books that marked a new public awareness about the use
of chemical pesticides, especially DDT, Silent Spring was published on September 27, 1962.

Q. No- 103) Energy resources derived from natural organic materials are called
A. geothermal energy sources
B. fossil fuels
C. biomass
D. all of these
Answer: Option B
Solution: Energy resources derived from natural organic materials are called fossil fuels.

Q. No- 104) Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species?
A. Mammals
B. Fishes
C. Birds
D. Reptiles
Answer: Option A
Solution: Mammals have 177 endangered species among vertebrates which represents 3.8% of all the species.

Q. No- 105) If there is no atmosphere, the colour of the sky will be

A. white
B. colourless
C. blue
D. black
Answer: Option D
Solution: If the Earth had no atmosphere then the sky would have looked dark. The original colour of the
sky(or space) is black. Just the atmosphere of the Earth gives the colour white, blue and dark blue.

Q. No- 106) What is an Incinerator?

A. Furnace used for burning solid waste
B. Furnace used for treating liquid waste
C. Both a & b
D. None of the above
Answer: Option A
Solution: Incineration is a waste treatment process that involves the combustion of organic substances
contained in waste materials. Incineration and other high-temperature waste treatment systems are described as
"thermal treatment". Incineration of waste materials converts the waste into ash, flue gas and heat.

Q. No- 107) The outermost zone of a biosphere reserve is

A. manipulation zone
B. core zone
C. buffer zone
D. all the above

Answer: Option A
Solution: The outermost zone of a biosphere reserve is manipulation zone. The transition area is the outermost
part of a biosphere reserve. This is usually not delimited one and is a zone of cooperation where conservation
knowledge and management skills are applied and uses are managed in harmony with the purpose of the
biosphere reserve.
Q. No- 108) The Native Place of Redwood trees?
A. Australia
B. Amazon
C. California
D. Thailand
Answer: Option C
Solution: Though they once thrived throughout much of the Northern Hemisphere, today redwoods are only
found on the coast from central California through southern Oregon. They do not live more than 50 miles
inland, and are usually found in long belts, rather than small groves.

Q. No- 109) At night, low clouds:

A. Enhance the atmospheric greenhouse effect
B. Weaken the atmospheric greenhouse effect
C. Are often caused by the atmospheric greenhouse effect
D. Have no effect on the atmospheric greenhouse effect
Answer: Option A
Solution: At night the reflection effect is zero so the greenhouse effect and reflection of thermal radiation
dominate and the low thick clouds have a warming effect.
The greenhouse effect could at most return 50 percent of the outgoing radiation back to the Earth

Q. No- 110) Which of the following gases has role an important in maintaining atmospheric temperature?
A. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Argon
D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: Option D
Solution: Carbon dioxide is an important greenhouse gas that helps to trap heat in our atmosphere. Without it,
our planet would be inhospitably cold. However, a gradual increase in CO 2 concentrations in Earth's
atmosphere is helping to drive global warming, threatening to disrupt our planet's climate as average global
temperatures gradually rise.

Q. No- 111) The term Ecosystem was coined by

A. Odum
B. Clements
C. Arthur G Tansley
D. Elton
Answer: Option C
Solution: The term ecosystem was first used in 1935 in a publication by British ecologist Arthur Tansley.
Tansley devised the concept to draw attention to the importance of transfers of materials between organisms and
their environment.
Q. No- 112) Cement factory labourers are prone to
A. leukemia
B. bone marrow disease
C. asbestosis
D. cytosilicosis
Answer: Option D
Solution: Silicosis is a form of occupational lung disease caused by inhalation of crystalline silica dust. It is
marked by inflammation and scarring in the form of nodular lesions in the upper lobes of the lungs.

Q. No- 113) The state which constituted green bench

A. Kerala
B. Tamilnadu
C. Assam
D. Madhya Pradesh
Answer: Option B
Solution: The constitution of the Calcutta bench was followed by another in Chennai. On September 2,1996,
while passing an interim order in the Tamil Nadu tanneries case, a full bench of the SC comprising Justices
Kuldip Singh, Falzan-uddin and K Venkataswami asked the chief justice of the Chennai High Court to
constitute a special green bench to deal with environmenal matters - including the tanneries case - in that state.

Q. No- 114) The one-horned Rhinoceros is now restricted to which state?

A. Maharashtra
B. Gujarat
C. Assam
D. Uttar Pradesh
Answer: Option C
Solution: Today this survivor from the prehistoric times is found only in pockets in the north eastern state of
Assam and in Nepal. In Assam, their Rhino habitat is limited to just two national parks - Kaziranga and Manas
Q. No- 115) The largest annual ranges of temperatures are found:
A. At polar latitudes over land
B. At polar latitudes over water
C. At middle latitudes near large bodies of water
D. At the Equator
Answer: Option A
Solution: The largest annual ranges of temperatures are found at polar latitudes over land.

Q. No- 116) Who was the first Chief Justice of the Calcutta High Court?
(A) Sir Rechard Couch
(B) Sir Barnes Peacock
(C) Sir George Ranking
(D) Sir Harold Derbyshire
Ans. (B) Sir Barnes Peacock
Barnes Peacock was the first Chief Justice of the High Court. He assumed the charge when the court was founded on 1
July 1862. Romesh Chandra Mitter was the first Indian officiating Chief Justice and Phani Bhushan Chakravartti was the
first Indian permanent Chief Justice of the court.

Q. No- 117) Who scripted Gandhiji‘s favorite song ―Vaishnav Jan to Tene Kahiye…
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Premanand
(C) Meera Bai
(D) Chunilal
Ans. (C) Meera Bai
Meera Bai scripted Gandhiji‘s favorite song ―Vaishnav Jan to Tene Kahiye…‖.

Q. No- 118) Which one is the India‘s multi-purpose river valley?

(A) Vakra Nangal
(B) Damodar Valley
(C) Tungabhadra
(D) Nagarjuna Sagar
Ans. (A) Vakra Nangal
The largest multipurpose river valley project in India is this one. It consists of a straight gravity dam that spans the Sutlej
at Bhakra and is 518 meters long and 226 meters high. The project's canal system now irrigates 14.8 lakh hectares.

Q. No- 119) Who can declare a financial emergency in India?

(A) Governor of RBI
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Finance Minister
Ans. (C) President
Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he/she is
satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is
threatened.

Q. No- 120) In which year Satyajit Ray‘s first film Pather Panchali was released?
(A) 1951
(B) 1955
(C) 1958
(D) 1960
Ans. (B) 1955
Pather Panchali, released in 1955, is the first film of director Satyajit Ray's Apu trilogy. The film is a serene and beautiful
depiction of a little boy's childhood in the Indian countryside in the 1950s.Satyajit Ray directed 36 films, including feature
films, documentaries, and shorts. Ray's first film, Pather Panchali (1955), won eleven international prizes, including the
inaugural Best Human Document award at the 1956 Cannes Film Festival.

Q. No- 121) On which river has the central government approved ‗Kirru Hydro Power Project‘?
(A) Mahananda
(B) Chenab
(C) Teesta
(D) Jhelum

Ans. (B) Chenab

Kiru Hydroelectric Power Project is a run of the river scheme being developed over the Chenab River in the Kishtwar
Tehsil of Doha district in Jammu and Kashmir (J&K). The Project is being developed by Jammu & Kashmir State Power
Development Corporation (JKSPDC, 49%) and Power Trading Corporation (PTC, 2%), Chenab Valley Power Projects
(CVPP), and a joint venture between National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC, 49%). The Kiru Hydroelectric
Project will include the construction of a concrete gravity dam on the Chenab River.

Q. No- 122) The permanent decrease in population number occurs due to

(A) Migration
(B) Natality
(C) Emigration
(D) Mortality
Ans. (D) Mortality
Mortality is the state of being death. It reduces the component of population and thus causes the permanent decrease in
population number.

Q. No- 123) Asteroid belt is situated between the orbit of

(A) Mercury and Venus
(B) Mars and Jupiter
(C) Jupiter and Saturn
(D) Uranus and Neptune
Ans. (B) Mars and Jupiter
The asteroid belt is a torus-shaped region in the Solar System, centered on the Sun and roughly spanning the space
between the orbits of the planets Jupiter and Mars. It contains a great many solid, irregularly shaped bodies called
asteroids or minor planets.

Q. No- 124) Veer Savarkar International Airport is situated at

a) Mangalore
b) Kochi
c) Gaya
d) Port Blair
Ans. d) Port Blair
The Veer Savarkar International Airport is a custom airport that serves Port Blair, Andaman, and the Nicobar Islands. It
was originally called Port Blair Airport but was renamed Veer Savarkar International Airport in 2002.

Q. No- 125) What type of river bridge Rabindra Setu is?

(a) Beam Bridge
b) Truss Bridge
c) Cantilever Bridge
d) Arch Bridge
Ans. c) Cantilever Bridge
The Howrah Bridge / Rabindra Setu is a cantilever bridge with a suspended span over the Hooghly River in West Bengal,
India. Commissioned in 1943, the bridge was originally named the New Howrah Bridge, because it replaced a pontoon
bridge at the same location linking the two cities of Howrah and Kolkata (Calcutta).

Q. No- 126) National Defence Academy of India is situated at

a) Khadakwasla
b) Dehradun
c) Jabalpur
d) Wellington
Ans. a) Khadakwasla
The National Defence Academy is situated at Khadakwasla near Pune in Maharashtra. Established on 7 December 1954, it
is the first tri-service academy in the world.
Q. No- 127) Which is the official Flower of West Bengal?
a) Lotus
b) Palash
c) Shephali
d) Rhododendron
Ans.c) Shephali (Night-flowering jasmine)
The flower of Nyctanthes arbor-tristis is the official state flower of West Bengal and is called shiuli or shefali. The "shiuli"
flowers bloom during the autumn season in Bengal and are offered to goddess Durga on the festival of Durga Puja. The
flowers are associated with the autumn season and Durga Puja in Bengal.

Q. No- 128) When did Pondicherry become a part of India?

a) 1961
b) 1962
c) 1963
d) 1964
Ans. c) 1963
Pondicherry was handed over to India by the French. When it became the part of India, the Government of India issued
the citizenship order 1962, under citizenship act 1955.All the regions of Puducherry were under the French rule for 138
years. On November 1, 1954, the French possessions in India were de facto transferred to the Indian Union and became a
Union Territory. But only in 1963, Puducherry became officially an integral part of India.

Q. No- 129) Which State of India touches the boundary or maximum States?
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Telangana
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Punjab
Ans. c) Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh touches the border of maximum states in India. It is a landlocked state and shares boundaries with eight
states and a Union Territory of India including: Rajasthan, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Delhi, Uttarakhand, Bihar,
Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Chhattisgarh.

Q. No- 130) Tashkent Pact between India and Pakistan was signed in
a) 1960
b) 1961
c) 1965
d) 1966
Ans.d) 1966
Tashkent Declaration, accord signed on January 10, 1966, by India's Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri (who died the
next day) and Pakistan's Pres

Q. No- 131) Who wrote ―The Last Moghul‖?

a) William Darlymple
b) Bipan Chandra
c) Chetan Bhagat
d) Orphan Pamuk
Ans. a) William Darlymple
The Last Mughal: The Fall of a Dynasty, Delhi 1857 is a 2006 historical book by William Dalrymple. It deals with the life
of poet-emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar (1775–1862) and the unsuccessful Indian Rebellion of 1857, which he participated
in, challenging the British East India Company's rule over India.

Q. No- 132) ―ISBN‘ stands for

a) International Standard Business Number
b) International Standard Book Number
c) International Standard Bond Number
d) International Service Book Number
Ans.b) International Standard Book Number
ISBN is an acronym that stands for International Standard Book Number. This is a 13 or 10 digit number assigned to all
books and book-like publications that are published internationally.

Q. No- 133) Ghoomar is the folk dance form of

a) Karnataka
b) Gujarat
c) Rajasthan
d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. c) Rajasthan
Ghoomar or ghumar is a traditional folk dance of Rajasthan. It was the Bhil tribe who performed it to worship Goddess
Saraswati which was later embraced by other Rajasthani communities. The dance is chiefly performed by veiled women
who wear flowing dresses called ghaghara.

Q. No- 134) Which University has produced highest number of Nobel laureates?
a) Oxford University
b) Harvard University
c) Cambridge University
d) Yale University
Ans. b) Harvard University
Harvard is among the most prestigious universities in the world and the oldest in the United States. There have reportedly
been 150 Harvard Nobel laureates who graduated from its halls. Politicians, authors, economists, and others are among
them.

Q. No- 135) ―Deuce. Smash, Drop, Love, Let, Fault‖— these terms are related to
a) Badminton
b) Wrestling
c) Table Tennis
d) Boxing
Ans. a) Badminton
Shuttlecock, Service court, Double fault, Fore-hand, Back Hand, Smash, Hit, Drop, Net, Love, Game, Service court,
Halfcourt Shot, Kill, Let, Long Service Line, Match, Midcourt, etc.

Q. No- 136) What is the measurement of a Kabaddi field?

a) 13 mts x 10 mts
b) 13.40 mts x 5.18 mts
c) 18 mts x 9 mts
d) 34 mts x 16 mts
Ans. a) 13 mts x 10 mts
In the international team version of kabaddi, two teams of seven members each occupy opposite halves of a court of 10 by
13 metres (33 ft × 43 ft) in case of men and 8 by 12 metres (26 ft × 39 ft) in case of women.

Q. No- 137) Rumtek Monastery is located in

a) Sikkim
b) Arunachal Pradesh
c) Meghalaya
d) Manipur
Ans. a) Sikkim
Rumtek Monastery is one of the oldest monastery located in Sikkim, founded by Wangchuk Dorjee in 1966. It is also
related to Karmapa controversy. Famous Monasteries located in Jammu Kashmir is Alchi Monastery, Basgo Monastery,
Chemrey Gompa, Dikshit Monastery. Famous Temples located in Himachal Pradesh is Sankat Mochan Temple, Tara Devi
Temple Jakhoo Temple, Hidimba Temple, Maa Sharvari Temple, Vashisht Temple, Naina Devi Ji. Famous Monasteries
located in Arunachal Pradesh is Tawang Monastery, Bomdila Monastery, Urgelling Monastery

Q. No- 138) How many languages are recognised by Constitution of India?

a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
Ans. c) 22
There are 22 official languages in India and they are covered under the 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution.

Q. No- 139) Bharatanatyam is classical dance form of

a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Karnataka
d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. b) Tamil Nadu
Bharatanatyam is a dance of Tamil Nadu in southern India. It traces its origins back to the Natyashastra, an ancient treatise
on theatre written by the mythic priest Bharata. Originally a temple dance for women, bharatanatyam often is used to
express Hindu religious stories and devotions.
Q. No- 140) A sports term ―Bull‘s Eye‖ is related to
a) Wrestling
b) Rifle Shooting
c) Rugby
d) Polo
Ans. b) Rifle Shooting
Bullseye shooting is a term used to describe shooting sports disciplines where the objective is to score points by hitting
around shooting the target as close to the center as possible.

Q. No- 141) Agha Khan Cup is associated with

a) Football
b) Hockey
c) Lawn Tennis
d) Badminton
Ans. b) Hockey
The 'Agha Khan Cup' is associated with hockey. It is one of the best and most colorful tournaments in India and attracts
entries from all over the world. Another name of the Aga Khan cup is Beighton Cup.

Q. No- 142) Red Square is located in

a) China
b) Venezuela
c) Vietnam
d) Moscow
Ans. d) Moscow
Red Square, open square in Moscow adjoining the historic fortress and centre of government known as the Kremlin
(Russian: Kreml). The Kremlin and Red Square were added to UNESCO's World Heritage List in 1990.

Q. No- 143) Corbett National Park is located in

a) Uttarpradesh
b) Uttarakhand
c) Gujarat
d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. b) Uttarakhand
Jim Corbett National Park is a national park in India located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand state. The first national
park in India, it was established in 1936 during the British Raj and named Hailey National Park after William Malcolm
Hailey, a governor of the United Provinces in which it was then located.

Q. No- 144) The Headquarter of WHO is situated at

a) Rome
b) Paris
c) Geneva
d) The Hague
Ans. c) Geneva (Switzerland)
The World Health Organization is an agency of the United Nations which aims to achieve ―the highest possible level of
health.‖ Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.

Q. No- 145) The study of coins and medals is known as

a) Philately
b) Numismatics
c) Notaphily
d) Deltiology
Ans. b) Numismatics
Numismatics is referred to as currency analysis or collection, comprising coins, tokens, paper money, and similar things.
Modern Numismatics. The study of the coins from the mid 17th century period is known as Modern numismatics.

Q. No- 146) ―Old Glory‖ is the nickname of

a) Scotland Flag
b) U.K. Flag
c) Canada Flag
d) U.S.A. Flag
Ans. d) U.S.A. Flag
The name ―Old Glory‖ was first applied to the U.S. flag by a young sea captain who lived in Salem, Mass.

Q. No- 147) Northern Rhodesia is now known as:

a) Zaire
b) Congo
c) Zambia
d) Zimbabwe
Ans. c) Zambia
Africa's 36th independent country was born here today. The former portectorate of Northern Rhodesia became
the Republic of Zambia, ending 73 years of British rule.

Q. No- 148) The Parliament of USA is known as

a) Congress
b) House of Commons
c) House of Lords
d) Parliament
Ans. a) Congress
Name of Parliament of US is Congress. It is Bicameral. The Lower House is called House of Representatives and Upper
house is Senate.

Q. No- 149) Which is the capital of Ecuador?

a) Maputo
b) Bangui
c) Quito
d) Rabat
Ans.c) Quito
Quito, the capital of Ecuador, was founded in the 16th century on the ruins of an Inca city and stands at an altitude of
2,850 m. Despite the 1917 earthquake, the city has the best-preserved, least altered historic centre in Latin America.

Q. No- 150) International Yoga Day is celebrated on

a) 21 June
b) 5 September
c) 11 May
d) 7 December
Ans. a) 21 June
The International Day of Yoga is a day in recognition of Yoga, that is celebrated around the world annually on 21 June,
following its adoption by the United Nations in 2014.

Q. No- 151) Who is the first Indian woman to become Miss World?
a) Zeenat Aman
b) Rita Faria
c) Aditi Gowitrikar
d) Diana Hayden
Ans.b) Rita Faria
Reita Faria Powell born to Goan parents in British Bombay is an Indian model, doctor and the winner of the Miss World
1966 pageant, to become the first Asian woman to win the event.

Q. No- 152) Dr. Baba Saheb Ambedkar International Airport is situated at

a) Nagpur
b) Pune
c) Kohiapur
d) Nashik
Ans. a) Nagpur
Babasaheb Ambedkar International Airport (IATA: NAG, ICAO: VANP) is an international airport serving the city of
Nagpur, Maharashtra, India. The airport is located at Sonegaon, 8 km (5 mi) southwest of Nagpur.

Q. No- 153) Who wrote ―Canterbury Tales‖?

a) Geoffrey Chaucer
b) Charles Dickens
c) William Wordsworth
d) John Milton
Ans. a) Geoffrey Chaucer (1476)
The Canterbury Tales, frame story by Geoffrey Chaucer, written in Middle English in 1387–1400. The framing device for
the collection of stories is a pilgrimage to the shrine of Thomas Becket in Canterbury, Kent.
Q. No- 154) What is the currency of Bhutan?
a) Dong
b) Vatu
c) Lempira
d) Ngultrum
Ans. d) Ngultrum
The Ngultrum is subdivided into 100 Chetrum and is available as paper money and coins. The coins are currently
available in denominations of 5, 10, 25, and 50 Chetrums and 1 Ngultrum. The paper money is available in 5, 10, 20, 50,
100, 500, and 1,000 Ngultrum denominations.

Q. No- 155) The lower layer Atmosphere is known as

(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Ozonosphere
(D) Thermosphere
Ans. (A) Troposphere
The troposphere is the lowest layer of our atmosphere. Starting at ground level, it extends upward to about 10 km (6.2
miles or about 33,000 feet) above sea level. We humans live in the troposphere, and nearly all weather occurs in this
lowest layer.

Q. No- 156) Humidity is the result of

(A) Evaporation
(B) Transpiration
(C) Presence of heat
(D) Moisture content in the air
Ans. (D) Moisture content in the air
Humidity is the amount of water vapor in the air. If there is a lot of water vapor in the air, the humidity will be high. The
higher the humidity, the wetter it feels outside. On the weather reports, humidity is usually explained as relative humidity.

Q. No- 157) The sobriquet ‗Man of Destiny‘ stands for:

(A) Benito Mussolini
(B) Napoleon Bonaparte
(C) Adolf Hitler
(D) Lord Mountbatten
Ans. (B) Napoleon Bonaparte
Napoleon Bonaparte Napoleon Bonaparte is called the 'Man of Destiny'. He was the military and political leader of
France. He changed the political history of Europe. He was the product of the French revolution. He was the emperor of
France from 1804 to 1814. The laws created by him were so important until the time of the 1960s. Many countries in the
world had adopted them and used them as the basis of their own laws

Q. No- 158) Find the incorrect match :

(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report : 1957
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee Report : 1977
(C) GVK Rao Committee Report : 1986
(D) LM Singhvi Committee Report : 1987
Ans. (C) GVK Rao Committee Report : 1986
The chronological order is-
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee – 1957
Ashok Mehta Committee -1977
G V K Rao Committee -1985
L M Singhvi Committee -1986
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957):

Q. No- 159) The Sangeet Natak Akademi was established in

(A) 1952
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956
Ans. (A) 1952
The Sangeet Natak Academy was established on 31 May 1952 by a resolution of the Ministry of Human Resource
development. The Akademi was officially inaugurated on 28 January 1953 by the first President of India Rajendra Prasad
and PV Rajmannar was appointed as its first Chairman.

Q. No- 160) Who among the following is associated with Tabla?

(A) Ali Akbar Khan
(B) Ali Vilayat Khan
(C) Bismillah Khan
(D) Ahmad Jan Thirkuwa
Ans. (D) Ahmad Jan Thirkuwa
Ustad Ahmed Jan Khan "Thirakwa" was an Indian tabla player, who was considered the most prominent tabla player of
the 20th century

Q. No- 161) Who is the writer of Solo?

(A) Rana Dasgupta
(B) Upamanyu Chatterjee
(C) Shobhaa De
(D) Rahul Mehta
Ans. (A) Rana Dasgupta
Rana Dasgupta is the writer of Solo.

Q. No- 162) Who authored ‗The God Man Jesus and the Scoundrel Christ‘?
(A) Kitty Kelley
(B) Javier Moro
(C) Philip Pullman
(D) Aamer Hussein
Ans. (C) Philip Pullman
The Good Man Jesus and the Scoundrel Christ by Philip Pullman.

Q. No- 163) Who wrote the book ―Utopia‖?

(A) Machiavelli
(B) Erasmus
(C) Thomas More
(D) Cervantes
Ans. (C) Thomas More
The word was coined by Sir Thomas More in Greek for his 1516 book Utopia (in Latin), describing a fictional island
society in the Atlantic Ocean.

Q. No- 164) The first newspaper in the world was started in

(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) USA
(D) India
Ans. (B) China
China is widely recognized as the country where the first newspaper in the world was started.

Q. No- 165) World War II began when Germany invaded

(A) Russia
(B) Austria
(C) France
(D) Poland
Ans. (D) Poland
World War II began in Europe on September 1, 1939, when Germany invaded Poland. Great Britain and France responded
by declaring war on Germany on September 3.

Q. No- 166) Battle of Waterloo was fought in the year

(A) 1800
(B) 1805
(C) 1807
(D) 1815
Ans. (D) 1815
The Battle of Waterloo was fought on 18 June 1815 between Napoleon's French Army and a coalition led by the Duke of
Wellington and Marshal Blücher.

Q. No- 167) With which one of the following is the Tennis Court Oath associated?
(A) English Revolution
(B) American Revolution
(C) French Revolution
(D) Russian Revolution
Ans. (C) French Revolution
Tennis Court Oath, (June 20, 1789), dramatic act of defiance by representatives of the nonprivileged classes of the French
nation (the Third Estate) during the meeting of the Estates-General (traditional assembly) at the beginning of the French
Revolution.

Q. No- 168) Which article of the Constitution of India is the ‗heart and soul of the Constitution‘, according to Dr.
B. R. Ambedkar ?
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 226
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 32
Ans. (D) Article 32
Ambedkar called Article 32 of the Indian Constitution i.e. Right to Constitutional remedies as ' the heart and soul of the
Constitution'.

Q. No- 169) Federation Cup is associated with

(A) Cricket
(B) Football
(C) Tennis
(D) Hockey
Ans. (C) Tennis
Federation Cup or Fed Cup is the former name of the premier world team competition in women's tennis. Federation Cup
may also refer to: Capital Football Federation Cup, an Australian territory-based association football tournament.

Q. No- 170) India won its first Olympic hockey gold in

(A) 1918
(B) 1928
(C) 1936
(D) 1932
Ans.(B) 1928
Indian Men's Hockey team won its first Olympic gold medal in 1928. Indian hockey team won a gold medal at the
Amsterdam Olympics in 1928 against the Netherlands. Jaipal Singh was the captain of the Indian hockey team at that
time.

Q. No- 171) Who Has Won Men‘s Single Title At ‗2024 French Open‘ ?
A. Novak Djokovic
B. Ivan Dodig
C. Austin Krajicek
D. Carlos Alcaraz
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Carlos Alcaraz defeated Alexander Zverev in the final, 6–3, 2–6, 5–7, 6–1, 6–2 to win the men's singles
tennis title at the 2024 French Open. It was his third major title. The event took place at Stade Roland Garros tennis
complex in Paris, France from 26 May to 9 June.

Q. No- 172) Nagi and Nakti Bird sancturies are located in Which State?
A. Rajasthan
B. Bihar
C. Gujarat
D. Karnataka
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Two wetlands in Bihar, Nagi and Nakti Bird Sanctuaries, have been added to the global list of wetlands of
international importance under the Ramsar Convention, boosting bird conservation efforts.

Q. No- 173) Who Has Honored with Prestigious Pen Pinter Prize 2024?
A. Ravish Kumar
B. Chetan Bhagat
C. Arundhati Roy
D. Ruskin Bond
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Renowned Indian author Arundhati Roy has been honored with the prestigious PEN Pinter Prize for 2024.
The award ceremony will take place on October 10, 2024, at the British Library. Roy will receive the award and deliver a
speech at a ceremony co-hosted by the British Library on October 10.

Q. No- 174) Mark Rutte Appointed as Next Secretary General of ________?

A. WHO
B. UNICEF
C. NATO
D. ADB
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: NATO Allies decided to appoint Dutch Prime Minister Mark Rutte as the next Secretary General of
NATO, succeeding Jens Stoltenberg.

Q. No- 175) Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary (GSWS) Is Located In Which State ?
A. Gujarat
B. Manipur
C. MP
D. Assam
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary situated on the northern boundary of Mandsaur and Nimach
districts in Madhya Pradesh, India. It is spread over an area of 368.62 km² adjoining Rajasthan state in India. It was
notified in 1974 and more area was added in 1983.

Q. No- 176) Who became the New Vice Chief of Army Staff ?
A. Upendra Dwivedi
B. R Hari Kumar
C. Amar Preet Singh
D. N. S. Raja Subramani
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Lieutenant General NS Raja Subramani assumed the charge as the Vice Chief of Army Staff on 1 July
2024.

Q. No- 177) 53rd meeting of GST Council held in which of the following City
A. New Delhi
B. Chandigarh
C. Pune
D. Mumbai
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The recommendations of the 53rd GST Council meeting, held on June 22, 2024 in New Delhi, include
several measures to lessen the tax and legal burdens on taxpayers in India as well as steps that can be taken to facilitate
trade.

Q. No- 178) Which ountry Hosted ―2024 International Labour Conference‖?

A. France
B. USA
C. Switzerland
D. UK
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The 112th Session of the International Labour Conference (ILC) is being held at the International Labour
Organization (ILO) Headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland, in June 2024.

Q. No- 179) Pt. Rajeev Taranath Was Releted to Which musical instrument?
A. Guitar
B. Sarod
C. Violin
D. Flute
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Rajeev Taranath (17 October 1932 – 11 June 2024) was an Indian classical musician who played the sarod.
Q. No- 180) Which Country Will Host ‘16th BRICS summit 2024‘?
A. India
B. South Africa
C. Russia
D. China
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Russia will hold the BRICS Summit in Kazan from October 22 to 24, 2024.

Q. No- 181) India‘s 1st Biosphere in a Tiger Reserve Has Been created in which state?
A. Uttrakhand
B. MP
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Gujarat
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: India's first biosphere in a tiger reserve, called the Rajaji Raghati Biosphere (RRB) within the Rajaji
National Park in Uttarakhand was created.

Q. No- 182) When Is ‗World No Tobacco Day Celebrated‘?

A. 31 May
B. 2 June
C. 3 June
D. 4 June
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Every year, on 31 May, WNTD is celebrated, with a different theme to cover the broad range of measures
within the WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (WHO FCTC)

Q. No- 183) Surama Padhy Elected as Assembly Speaker Of which state?

A. Odisha
B. Bihar
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Goa
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Senior BJP leader Surama Padhy was on June 20 elected unopposed as the Speaker of the Odisha
Assembly. Ms. Padhy, a two-time MLA from the Ranpur in Nayagarh district, was the lone candidate for the post. She
was elected unopposed as there was no other candidate in the fray.

Q. No- 184) Who Won men‘s single title at 2024 Australian Open (badminton)?
A. Lee Zii Jia
B. He Jiting
C. Ren Xiangyu
D. None
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lee Zii Jia came through an epic against Naraoka Kodai in the final of the BWF Australian Open 2024 in
Sydney on Sunday (16 June) to clinch his second title of the season. The third seed from Malaysia needed an hour and 18
minutes to come out on top, winning 21-19, 11-21, 21-18, having won last month's Thailand Open.16 Jun 2024

Q. No- 185) Cyril Ramaphosa Became Second time President Of Which Country?
A. Srilanka
B. South Africa
C. Sudan
D. Nigeria
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: On 14 June 2024, the National Assembly of South Africa elected Ramaphosa to a second term as president
of South Africa.
Q. No- 186) Who Is The author Of a book Titled ‗Source Code: My Beginnings‘ ?
A. Elon Musk
B. Ruskin Bond
C. Bill Gates
D. Narendra Modi
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Bill Gates is a technologist, business leader, and philanthropist. In 1975, he co-founded Microsoft with his
childhood friend Paul Allen and today he is chair of the Gates Foundation.

Q. No- 187) What is the current Repo Rate as fixed by the RBI
A. 5.5 %
B. 6.5 %
C. 6.6 %
D. 6.7 %
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Repo Rate full form is Repurchase Agreement or Repurchasing Option. Banks obtain loans from the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) by selling qualifying securities. The current Repo Rate in India, fixed by RBI is 6.50%. As
per the latest news, the repo rate remained unchanged, as announced on 7th June 2024.

Q. No- 188) Sabah Al-Khalid Al-Sabah Became Crown Prince Of Which Country?
A. UAE
B. S Arabia
C. Kuwait
D. Oman
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sabah Al Khalid Al Sabah is the Crown Prince of the State of Kuwait.

Q. No- 189) Who has become the first person to complete 1000 days in space?
A. Anand Kumar
B. Oleg Kononenko
C. Mae Jemison
D. None
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A Russian cosmonaut became the first person to spend a cumulative 1,000 days in space, Russia's space
agency Roscosmos announced Wednesday. Oleg Kononenko, 59, reached the record while on his current mission aboard
the International Space Station (ISS).

Q. No- 190) Who launched ‗Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam‘ Campaign?

A. Amit Shah
B. PM Modi
C. Rajnath Singh
D. None
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: On June 5, marked as World Environment Day, PM Narendra Modi launched the 'Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam'
campaign and planted a Peepal tree at Buddha Jayanti Park in the national capital. ―I call upon everyone, in India and
around the world, to plant a tree in the coming days as a tribute to your mother,‖ he wrote on X.

Q. No- 191) India‘s longest Cable-stayed Bridge Has Been Built In Which State
A. Odisha
B. Goa
C. Gujarat
D. Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Sunday inaugurated India's longest cable-stayed bridge,
Sudarshan Setu, which connects the Okha mainland and Beyt Dwarka island in Gujarat. The foundation of the
bridge, which connects old and new Dwarka, was laid in 2017 by the Prime Minister.

Q. No- 192) Which Film Won Best Film Awards At ―BAFTA Awards 2024‘ ?
A. RRR
B. Oppenheimer
C. The Fabelmans
D. None
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Oppenheimer, a three-hour epic about the creation of the atomic bomb during World War II, has
swept the board at the 77th British Academy Film Awards, winning seven prizes including the top honours for
best film, best director and best actor.
Q. No- 193) Which Space Agency Launched ‗INSAT-3DS‘ Satellite ?
A. ISRO
B. NASA
C. JAXA
D. ESA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Thanks to ISRO for launching INSAT-3DS, which has immense benefits to meteorological
nowcast and forecasts services.

Q. No- 194) When Is National Science Day Celebrated Every Year

A. 28th Feb
B. 26th Feb
C. 27th Feb
D. 25th Feb
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: National Science Day is celebrated in India on February 28 each year to mark the discovery of
the Raman effect by Indian physicist Sir C. V. Raman on 28 February 1928.

Q. No- 195) When Is ―World Wetlands Day‖ Celebrated Every Year

A. 01 Feb
B. 02 Feb
C. 03 Feb
D. 04 Feb
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Key Points
 World Wetlands Day is celebrated every year on 2 February.
 The day aims to raise awareness of the vital role wetlands to play for humans and our world.
 This day marks the date of the adoption of the Convention on Wetlands on 2 February 1971, in the
Iranian city of Ramsar on the shores of the Caspian Sea.
 Known as Ramsar Convention.
 World Wetlands Day provides helps to raise awareness about the importance of wetlands and how the
decline of wetlands and biodiversity can be addressed.
Q. No- 196) Gupteswar Forest Of which state became New Biodiversity Heritage Site?
A. Odisha
B. Bihar
C. UP
D. Maharashtra
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Odisha's Gupteswar Forest Is The State's 4th Biodiversity Heritage Site | Travel News News,
Times Now.

Q. No- 197) Who has authored A book titled ―Maha Swaapnikudu‖ ?

A. Anish Desai
B. P. Vikram
C. Chetan Bhagat
D. None
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The recent book release event for ‗Maha Swaapnikudu‘ (A Great Visionary) marks a
significant moment in the political discourse of India, celebrating the illustrious career of former Chief
Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu. Authored by journalist P. Vikram and published by NRI Koduri
Venkat, this book was unveiled by former Supreme Court judge V. Gopala Gowda, shining a spotlight on
Naidu‘s remarkable journey in Indian politics.

Q. No- 198) Which team has won ―Ranji Trophy 2024‖ Title
A. Mumbai
B. Saurashtra
C. Maharashtra
D. Odisha
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Ranji Trophy final 2024: Tanush Kotian and Tushar Deshpande played a historical innings to seal
Mumbai's fate in the finals of Ranji Trophy 2024 and brought the title home for the record 42nd time. Mumbai
defeated Vidarbha by 169 runs at the Wankhede Stadium to clinch the prestigious trophy after eight years.

Q. No- 199) Who Won ―Pritzker Architecture Prize 2024‖

A. Riken Yamamoto
B. Philip Johnson
C. Diébédo Francis Kéré
D. None Of These
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Recently, Japanese architect Riken Yamamoto was declared the winner of the prestigious 2024
Pritzker Architecture Prize, often called the "Architecture Nobel". This award is the highest international
honour in the field. Yamamoto is the ninth laureate from Japan.

Q. No- 200) Who Will be India‘s flag-bearer at the Paris Olympics 2024?
A. Sharath Kamal
B. Bajrang Punia
C. Chirag Shetty
D. None
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Sharath Kamal, India's ace table tennis player, will carry the Indian flag at the Paris 2024
Olympics, marking his fifth and final Olympics appearance. Kamal, ranked World No. 88, holds a record 10
national table tennis championship titles and has secured 13 medals at the Commonwealth Games, including
seven golds.