ASSESSMENT IN LEARNING 2 ACTIVITIES

Activity 1
1. What assessment is it when a teacher asks their students if the understand the information?
A. Summative Assessment B. Formative Assessment C. Performance Assessment D. Authentic Assessment
2. Which assessment is it when you apply what you have just learned?
A. Performance Assessment B. Formative Assessment C. Authentic Assessment D. Summative Assessment
3. Which assessment requires students to demonstrate their knowledge through performing specific tasks?
A. Performance Assessment B. Formative Assessment C. Authentic Assessment D. Summative Assessment
4. Choose which is appropriate for this definition. Engaging in a process that is designed to provide information that will
help us make a judgment.
A. Assessment B. Evaluation C. Measurement D. Performance
5. Which electronic tool is not used to assess students?
A. Spreadsheet B. Microsoft Word C. Mean (Average) Score D. Standard Deviation
6. Which of the following would be considered a summative assessment?
A. Science Quiz B. Personality Test C. Rubric for multimedia project D. Standardized Reading Test
7. What is the primary purpose of assessments?
A. Inform parents of student progress B. Provide feedback to help students succeed
C. Allow schools to compare progress D. Enable teachers to test strategies
8. Which target area is addressed with a test about the periodic table?
A. Knowledge B. Reasoning C. Performance D. Disposition
9. Which target area is generally assessed using a rubric?
A. Knowledge B. Reasoning C. Performance D. Disposition
10. Surveys and questionnaires are useful for measuring which target area?
A. Knowledge B. Reasoning C. Performance D. Disposition
11. Ms. Jo asked Mr. Dan to review the questions on her social studies quiz. What type of measure was she worried
about?
A. Stability Reliability B. Content Validity C. Internal Consistency D. Construct Validity
12. Which of the following statements is True?
A. If a test is valid, it is generally reliable. B. If a test is reliable, it is generally valid.
13. Mr. Abbot noted that all of the students in his class who scored high on Reading also scored high on the Verbal
section of the NAT. What type of validity was he measuring?
A. Content B. Criterion C. Construct D. Reliability
14. Why is it important for teachers to understand reliability and validity?
A. So they can determine the reliability and validity measures for each quiz
B. So they can interpret test scores and help parents interpret the scores.
C. Because the school district requires a report of the parameters of all assessments.
15. Which target area is addressed by the following benchmark in the division standards? "Student selects and uses a
variety of appropriate reference materials to gather information for research projects."
A. Knowledge B. Reasoning C. Performance D. Disposition
16. Which target area is addressed by the following benchmark in the division standards? The student knows the various
forms in which energy comes to Earth from the Sun
A. Knowledge B. Reasoning C. Performance D. Disposition
17. Which target area is addressed by the following benchmark in the state standards? The student measures quantities
in the real world and uses the measures to solve problems.
A. Knowledge B. Reasoning C. Performance D. Disposition
18. A teacher created two forms of the final exam so that students sitting next to each other could not look at their
neighbor's test. What sort of reliability evidence might she gather to make sure they are equal assessments?
A. Stability Reliability B. Alternate form reliability C. Internal consistency
19. Your principal has asked that you create a chart showing that all of the quiz items are related to the iiH Standards.
What type of validity is he investigating?
A. Content B. Construct C. Criterion D. Reliability
21. The students are practicing a dialogue. Now the teacher asks the students to try the dialogue again, but to insert
their personal information instead. What kind of activity is this?
A. A semi-controlled activity B. A controlled activity C. An uncontrolled activity
22. The students of Mrs. Valino are very noisy. To keep them busy, they were given any test available in the classroom
and then the results were graded as a way to punish them. Which statement best explains if the practice is acceptable or
not?
A. The practice is acceptable because the students behaved well when they were given a test.
B. The practice is not acceptable because it violates the principle of reliability.
C. The practice is not acceptable because it violates the principle of validity.
D. The practice is acceptable since the test results are graded.
23. The teacher has written the target language on the board. The teacher is using flashcards to do a substitution drill.
What kind of activity is this?
A. A controlled activity B. A semi-controlled activity C. An uncontrolled activity
24. At the end of class, the students talk about their weekend plans. What kind of activity is this?
A. A controlled activity B. A semi-controlled activity C. An uncontrolled activity
25. Ms. Ricafort uses alternative methods of assessment. Which of the following will she not likely use?
A. Multiple Choice Test B. Reflective Journal Writing C. Oral Presentation D. Developing Portfolios
26. How is assessment related to a course's learning objectives?
A. Assessment and learning objectives are essentially the same thing.
B. The learning objectives are based on the way the students are assessed.
C. Teachers use assessment to ensure a course's learning objectives are met.
D. They are not at all related to one another.
27. For mastery learning, which type of testing will be most fit?
A. Formative testing B. Aptitude testing C. Criterion-reference testing D. Norm-reference testing
28. The distance of the scores from the mean is called ________.
A. Mean B. Mode C. Deviation D. Range
29. Teacher G's lesson objective has something to do with the skills of synthesizing. Which behavioral term is most
appropriate?
A. Appraise B. Test C. Assess D. Theorize
30. Which of the following methods would improve the validity and reliability of an examinations?
A. Giving weights to the items for scoring B. Giving long essay test items
C. Providing time allotment for each item D. Providing hints in answering the test items
31. What is the advantage of using computers in processing test results?
A. Its statistical computation is accurate. B. Test results can easily be assessed.
C. All of these D. Its processing takes shorter period of time.
32. In order to attain his learning targets, Teacher Roy de Mesa uses a variety of assessment methods such as e.g.
multiple choice, oral exam, essay etc. Under which principle of high quality classroom assessment did he embody?
A. Clarity and appropriateness B. Validity C. Appropriateness of methods D. Balance
33. Measuring the work done by a gravitational force as a learning task is what level of cognition?
A. Evaluation B. Application C. Knowledge D. Comprehension
34. Mr. Fernandez is judging the accuracy of these statements. Which statements will he consider as correct? (Check all
that apply.)
A. Test is a tool to measure a trait.
B. Measurement is the process of qualifying a given trait
C. Assessment is the gathering of quantitative and qualitative data.
D. Evaluation is the analysis of quantitative and qualitative data for decision making
35. Which of the following test items can effectively measure HOTS cognitive learning objectives?
A. Extended essay test B. Completion test C. Achievement test D. Objective test
36. The English class of Ms. Reyes is composed of students with different mental abilities although they are in the same
curriculum level. What should she do first so she can make a good start?
A. Call a dialog with the parents
B. Determine their strengths and weaknesses through a diagnostic test.
C. Make them write a brief composition about their plans and aspirations.
D. Ask them to tell something about themselves
37. I'd like to test whether a student knows what a particular word means. Which should I ask the student to do?
A. Define the word B. Give the word a tune sing it
C. Spell the word and identify its part of speech. D. Give the etymology of the word
38. In making the step distribution the first thing to do is:
A. Tally the scores B. Rank the scores C. Decide on the class interval D. Find the range
39. Which of the following statements about the validity and reliability of a test is TRUE?
A. A reliable test measures what intends to measure.
B. A valid test consists of test items that have moderate levels of difficulty.
C. A reliable test contains representative items from all important topics covered.
D. A valid test is always valid but a reliable test is not always valid.
40. Mrs. Nogueras is doing an assessment of learning. At what stage of instruction should she do it?
A. During the instructional process B. Before instruction
C. After instruction D. Prior to instruction
41. The control group in an experimental study is the group which is
A. Given the treatment under study B. Compared to the normal group
C. Not given the treatment under study D. Not included in the study

Activity 2
1. Which of the following types of test item does NOT belong to the group?
A. True or False B. Matching Type C. Multiple – choice D. Essay Type
2. Which of the statement best describes the limitation of true or false type of test?
A. Useful for outcomes with two possible alternatives B. Scoring is easy, objective, and reliable
C. Can measure complex outcomes D. Scores are influences by guessing
3. Which of the following should be AVOIDED in constructing true or false test?
I. Verbal clues and specific determiner
II. Terms denoting definite degree or amount
III. Taking statements directly from the book
IV. Keep true and false statement the same in length
A. I and III only B.I, II, and III C.I, II, and IV D.II and IV only
4. Which of the following test items can effectively measure higher order cognitive learning objectives?
A. Objective Test B. Achievement Test C. Completion Test D. Extended Essay Test
5. Which Statement best describe a short – answer test item?
I. It is easy to write test items
II. Broad range of knowledge outcomes can be measured
III. Adaptable in measuring complex learning outcomes
IV. Scoring is not tedious and time consuming
A. I, II, and III B.I and II only C.II, and IV only D.II, III, and IV
6. About how many percent of the cases fall -3SD to + 3SD units from the mean?
A. 68.26% B. 95.44% C. 99.72% D. 99.98%
7. Which of the following measures is more affected by an extreme score?
A. Quartile Deviation B. Standard Deviation C. Median D. Mean
8. The mean value of the scores in a distribution is always equal to
A. The sum of all the scores is divided by interval size
B. The mean divided by the number of cases
C. The sum of all the scores divided by N
9. What measure of central tendency does no. 26 represent in the following score distribution?
24, 25, 27, 26, 29, 30, 26, 24, 26
A. Mode only B. Mode and Median C. Median only D. Mean, median, and mode
10. Which statement is NOT true about median?
A. It is appreciated when the scores are skewed
B. It is the most stable measure of central tendency
C. It is equal to 50th percentile
D. It is not affected by extreme scores
11. Adrian obtained a score of 92 in a multiple-choice test in Science. It means that
A. He has a rating of 92 B. He has answered 92 items in the test correctly
C. He answered 92% of the test item correctly D. His performance is 8% better than the group
12. James obtained a NAT percentile rank of 89. This means that
A. He got a score 89
B. He answered 89 items correctly
C. He surpassed in performance of 89% of his fellow examinees
D. He surpassed in performance of 11% of his fellow examinees
13. Which of the following is the main purpose of administering a pre-test and post-test to the studies?
A. To measure the effectiveness of the instructional materials
B. To measure the level of learning gained by the students
C. To measure the effectiveness of instruction
D. To train the students for government examinations
14. Teacher Paul interpreted the scores of his students using criterion-referenced grading system. All the statements
below are correct EXCEPT?
A. Develop test items in terms of instructional objectives
B. Determine the acceptable level of mastery in advance
C. Describe group performance in relation to a level of master set
D. Compare individual students score with other scores in the group
15. Which of the following statement DOES NOT describe the present grading system of elementary and secondary
public schools?
A. The lower possible failing grade that appeared in the report card is 65%
B. Student must master at least 75% of the competency per subject
C. Use transmutation table is utilized in the computation of final grade
D. Averaging method is utilized in the computation of final grade
16. Teacher Ryan conducted a short quiz in Mathematics to get feedback from his previous lesson, which may not be
used for grading purposes. This is classified as
A. Placement assessment B. Formative assessment
C. Diagnostic assessment D. Summative assessment
17. Teacher Benjamin set a standard of 90% in a 50-item multiple choice test. Gil got a score of 87% and this can be
interpreted as
A. Gil obtained 87% percentile score B. Gil did not meet the set standard by 3%
C. Gil is higher than 87% of the group performance D. Gil is 3% short of the set percentile score
18. Teacher Ace conducted a test at the end of a lesson to find out if his instructional objectives were attained or not.
Which type of assessment must be administered?
A. Formative assessment B. Summative assessment C. Norm-referenced testing D. Criterion-refenced testing
19. The test that is administered by the Professional Regulatory Commission aimed at measuring the proficiency of
teachers in developing a set of instructional skills and methodologies. The examination is given every April and
September yearly. The test can be classified as
A. Performance test B. Norm-referenced test C. Professional test D. Criterion-referenced test
20. A certain university wants an entrance examination that can identify future outcomes or differences, such as showing
who would graduate from college or who would drop out. The test has
A. Predictive validity B. Content validity C. Construct validity D. Criterion-referenced test
21. Teacher Tin conducted an item analysis in her periodic test. She found out that items number 6 is non-discriminating.
What does this item imply?
I. The item is very difficult and nobody got the correct answer
II. The instruction is effective
III. The item is very easy and everybody got the correct answer
A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. III only
22. Teacher James conducted an item analysis in his periodic test. His test item no. 16has a difficulty index of 0.41 and a
discriminating index of 0.36. What should teacher Matt do with item no. 16?
A. Reject the item B. Retain the item C. Revise the item D. Make it a bonus item

(23-25) The table is an item analysis based on non- attractiveness and non-plausibility of distracter taken from the results
of a try-out test in Mathematics. The letter marked with an asterisk is the correct answer
Items No. 1 A B* C D
Upper 27% 3 8 3 1
Lower 27% 6 3 1 5

23. The table shows that the test item analyzed

A. has a positive discrimination index B. has a negative discrimination index
C. is easy D. is difficult
24. Based on the table, which is most effective distracter?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
25. What is the difficulty level of the given items?
A. Easy B. Moderately difficult C. Difficult D. Very difficult

Activity 3
For Items 1-4
Given below the responses of the upper and lower groups in Item 9 and the answer is C, answer the following questions:

Item 25
Options A B *C D E
Upper Group (14) 1 2 9 1 1
Lower Group (14) 3 2 3 4 2

1. What is the index of difficulty?

a. 44% b. 85.71% c. 25% d. 42.86%
2. What is the Index of discrimination?
a. 0.43 b. 0.86 c. - 0.25 d - 0.43
3. Do you discriminate the item?
a. Yes, because the item is easy. b. No, because the index of discrimination is negative.
c. No, because the index of discrimination is positive. d. Yes, RU is greater than RL.
4. Are all the options effective?
a. No, because most of the students in the upper group got the correct answer.
b. Yes, because most of the students in the upper group were attracted to the distracter.
c. No, because most of the students in the lower group got the correct answer.
d. Yes, because most of the students in the lower group were attracted to the distracter.
5. Which is likely happening in a class that is doing a performance-based assessment?
A. Students are evaluated using a multiple choice test.
B. Students are evaluated based on different written tests.
C. Students do peer evaluation using key to corrections provided to them.
D. Students perform a group activity in creating a model of digestive system.
6. Mr. Saber rated his students in terms of appropriate and effective use of garden tools and if they were able to follow
the specified procedures. What mode of assessment did he use?
A. Portfolio Assessment C. Traditional Assessment
B. Journal Assessment D. Performance-Based Assessment
7. Which is a correct assumption about performance-based assessment?
A. It emphasizes merely process. B. It stresses more on psychomotor skills.
C. It can assess both process and product of learning. D. It refers to tasks that require high order thinking skills.
8. Teacher Hayabusa is planning to assess her students through their learning portfolio. Which of the following should he
do first?
A. Set the targets for portfolio assessment.
B. Select evidences that are non-negotiable in students' portfolio.
C. Engage the students in the development of the rubric in rating their work.
D. Let the students identify their strengths and weaknesses as basis for portfolio development.
9. Which of the following statement is true about the figure given at the right?
a. mean=median>mode c. mean<median<mode
b. mean=median=mode d. mean>median>mode

10. Which statements represent criterion-referenced interpretation?

A. Edna did better in solving the linear equation than 80% of representative Algebra students.
B. Edna’s score indicates that she is able to solve about two thirds of all one-variable linear equations of such complexity
C. Students who have reached Edna’s level on linear equations usually succeed in the subsequent unit on simultaneous
equations with special help or extra time; i.e Edna is ready to move ahead.
D. All of the above
11. Which of the following questions indicate norm-referenced interpretation?
A. How does the pupils’ test performance in our school compare with that of other school?
B. How does a pupil’s test performance in reading and mathematics compare?
C. What type or remedial work will be most helpful for a slow-learning pupil?
D. Which pupils have achieved mastery of computational skills?
12. In his second item analysis, Mr. Banot found out that more from the lower group got the test item 9 correctly. What
does this mean?
A. The item has become more valid. B. The item has become more reliable.
C. The item has a positive discriminating power. D. The item has a negative discriminating power.
13. Which of the following statement is true about the figure given at the right?
a. mean=median>mode c. mean<median<mode
b. mean=median=mode d. mean>median>mode

14. If a test item has a difficulty index of 0.5, how would you describe the test item?
A. It is easy B. It is very easy C. It is moderate D. It is difficult
15. After conducting an item analysis, teacher Sam found out that a significantly greater number from the upper group of
the class got the item #5 correctly. This means that the test item
A. has a negative discriminating power C. is valid
B. has a positive discriminating power D. is easy
16. Which is implied by a positively skewed scores distribution?
a. The mean, the median and the mode are equal. c. Most of the scores are low.
b. Most of the scores are high. d. The mode is high
17. Which of the following type of test best described when the result is interpreted by comparing one student with
another student?
A. Criterion Referenced B. Norm-Referenced C. Standardized D. Objective
18. Ms. Edna tasked her students to show how to play basketball. What learning target is she assessing?
A. Knowledge B. Reasoning C. Skills D. Products
19. Which of the following methods is considered traditional?
A. Multiple Choice Test B. Reflective Journal Writing C. Oral Presentation D. Developing Portfolios
20. Which sentence shows a correct comparison of terms?
A. Measurement is assigning a numerical value to a given trait while evaluation is giving meaning to the numerical value
of the trait.
B. Measurement is the process of gathering data while assessment is the process of quantifying the data gathered.
C. Measurement is the process of quantifying data while evaluation is the process of organizing data.
D. Measurement is a pre-requisite of assessment while evaluation is the pre-requisite of testing.
21. A test item has a difficulty index of .5 and a discrimination index of .44. What should the teacher do?
A. Make it a bonus item. C. Retain the item
B. Reject the item. D. Make it a bonus and reject it.
22. Which is a norm-referenced statement?
A. Luis performed better in spelling than 60% of his classmates.
B. Luis was able to spell 90% of the words correctly.
C. Luis was able to spell 90% of the words correctly and spelled 45 words out of 50 correctly.
D. Luis spelled 45 words out of 50 correctly.
23. Which is claimed to be the overall advantage of criterion-referenced over norm-referenced interpretation?
A. An individual’s score does not need to be compared with any measure.
B. An individual’s score is compared with the average scores.
C. An individual’s score is compared with the set of mastery level.
D. An individual score is compared with that of his peers.
24. Teacher Y wants to establish the reliability of a Final Test with only one form but whose objectives have at least two
parallel items arranged in consecutive manner. What method of establishing reliability is most likely to be used?
A. Test-Retest C. Split-Half Method
B. Kuder Richardson Method D. Test-Retest with Equivalent Forms
25. In a negatively skewed distribution the following statements are true EXCEPT
a. Mean is not higher than the median. b. Median is lower than the mode.
c. Mean is lower than the mode. d. Mode is less than the median.
26. Teacher Y gave a quiz for the lesson objective "identify the planets in the solar system". Can quiz be enough to assess
students' learning for the given objective?
A. Yes, since the objective is meant for quizzes only.
B. No, doing oral questioning is better than giving a quiz.
C. No, it is better if essay is given so that higher thinking skills are assessed.
D. Yes, since selective type of test is possible to use so results could be reported immediately to the students.
27. In a negatively skewed distribution which of the following statements is true?
a. Median is higher than the Mode. c. Mode is lower than the Mean.
b. Mode is lower than the Median. d. Mean is lower than the Mode
28. In a negatively skewed distribution, what kind of students does Teacher Edna have?
a. Very good b. Very poor c. Average d. Heterogeneous
29. A Pre-board Examination was found out to have the ability to explain how the students will likely perform in their
licensure examination in the future. Can I say the licensure examination has predictive validity? Why?
A. Yes, since it can be used to tell how the takers will perform in the assessment in the future.
B. Yes, since it can be used to describe the performance of the takers in their pre-board examination.
C. No, it is the pre-board examination that possesses predictive validity as it can tell the future performance of the takers
in their licensure examination.
D. No, what it possesses is concurrent validity since it happens almost at the same time when the pre-board examination
was taken.
30. Teacher B wants to test students’ knowledge of the different places in the Philippines, their capital and their products
and so she gave her students an essay test. If you are the teacher will you do the same?
A. No, the giving of an objective test is more appropriate than the use of essay.
B. No, such method of assessment is inappropriate because essay is difficult.
C. Yes, essay test could measure more than what other tests could measure
D. Yes, essay test is the best in measuring any type of knowledge.
31. Find the mean, median, and mode to identify if the given data below will be a normal, skewed right (Positively
Skewed), or skewed left (Negatively Skewed) Distribution.
a. Mean = 73.5, Median = 74 and Mode = 73.8, Negatively Skewed
b. Mean = 73.5, Median = 74 and Mode = 73.8, Positively Skewed
c. Mean = 73.5, Median = 74.5 and Mode = 75.3, Negatively Skewed
d. Mean = 73.5, Median = 74.5 and Mode = 75.3, Positively Skewed
32. Give the test twice to the same group with any time interval between tests from several minutes to several years.
a. Test-Retest b. Equivalent Forms c. Split Half d. Kuder-Richardson
33. Give parallel forms of the test with a close time intervals between forms.
a. Test-Retest b. Equivalent Forms c. Split Half d. Kuder-Richardson
34. Ms. Edna presented her lesson on baking through a group activity so that the students will not just learn how to bake
but could also develop their interpersonal skills. How should she assess her students?
l. She should observe how the students perform their tasks.
ll. She should grade the students on the quality of their baked cake using a rubric.
lll. She should allow her students to rate the members based on their ability to cooperate in their group activity
lV. She should give the students an essay test explaining how they baked the cake.
a. l, ll, and lll only b. Il, lll, and IV only c. l, ll, IV only d. l, ll, lll, and IV
35. Teacher Vic has set a performance assessment target that could accommodate students' multiple instructional
outcomes. What criterion in the selection of assessment task did he consider?
a. Generalizability b. Fairness c. Multiple Foci d. Authenticity
36. Which is the logical sequence of the following steps of portfolio assessment?
l. Set target trait to assess.
ll. Collect evidence of attainment of the targets set.
lll. Select evidence that could best represent the target set.
IV. Exhibit evidences to celebrate success in doing the work. V. Reflect on the value of the evidence gathered.
a. l, ll, lll, lV, V b. I, lll, ll , V , IV c. l, lI, lll, V, lV d. l, lll, V, Il, IV
37. A statement of a specific trait or behavior that is targeted for instruction and acquired by the learner that assessment
has to capture if attained or not. This trait could be specific knowledge, skills, attitudes, and values that can be acquired
as a result of teaching and learning.
a. Competency b. Objective c. Test d. Measurement

Activity 4

1. Which of the following statements gives the most acceptable description of the relationship between assessment and
evaluation in classroom setting?
A. Assessment is the collection of student data that evaluation interprets or appraises if indicative of success or failure.
B. Evaluation is the collection of student data that assessment interprets or appraises if indicative of success or failure.
C. Assessment is the gathering of student quantitative data while evaluation provides the qualitative description of that
data.
D. Evaluation is the gathering of student quantitative data while assessment provides the qualitative description of that
data.
2. Teacher X wants to assess how well the students have learned problem solving in Mathematics using a multiple-choice
type of test. Considering more the validity of assessment, will you endorse this process?
A. Yes, multiple choice is flexible enough to assess problem solving skill.
B. Yes, as multiple choice is the most practical way of assessing learning.
C. No, letting the students actually show their solution to problems is more valid than multiple choice.
D. No, problem solving is best captured through giving of essay test than that of multiple choice.
3. To find out what intervention program to offer to students who are consistently performing poorly in a test, what kind
of assessment is best to administer?
A. Summative Assessment B. Formative Assessment C. Diagnostic Assessment D. Placement Assessment
4. Who among the teachers below performed a formative assessment?
A. Teacher W who gave a long test about the unit taught.
B. Teacher X who gave a short quiz and checked immediately to find the results of instruction.
C. Teacher Y who gave a ten-item test to find out the specific lessons which the students failed to understand.
D. Teacher Z who administered a readiness test at the beginning of the school year.
5. Which is considered an assessment FOR learning?
A. Giving grades to students B. Reporting to parents the performance of their child.
C. Recommending for new policies in grading students. D. Assessing the strengths and weaknesses of students.
6. Which is being done if Teacher Z is doing assessment OF learning?
A. Giving immediate feedback to student's strengths and weaknesses.
B. Determining the area of interest of learners
C. Certifying student's achievement
D. Designing a relevant instruction
7. If you review the test items to ensure that all learners understood the context used, what principle on student
assessment are you trying to consider?
A. Assessment should have a positive consequence to student's learning.
B. Assessment should be balanced.
C. Assessment should be reliable.
D. Assessment should be fair.
8. Teacher Ria emphasizes what problem solving is and not how to solve problems. What learning target should her
assessment cover?
A. skill B. knowledge C. disposition
9. A statement of a complex trait or behavior that is targeted for instruction and acquired by the learner that assessment
has to capture if attained or not.
a. Competency b. Objective c. Test d. Measurement
10. An instrument designed to measure any characteristic, quality, ability, knowledge, or skill. It comprised of items in the
area it is designed to measure.
a. Competency b. Objective c. Test d. Measurement
11. A process of quantifying the degree to which someone/something possesses a given trait. i.e., quality, characteristics,
or features.
a. Competency b. Objective c. Test d. Measurement
12. An assessment that set targets in all domains of learning (cognitive, affective, and Psychomotor) or domains of
intelligence (verbal-linguistic, logical-mathematical, bodily-kinesthetic, Visual-spatial, musical-rhythmic, intrapersonal-
social, physical world-natural- existential-spiritual).
a. Valid Assessment b. Formative Assessment c. Balanced Assessment d. Summative Assessment
13. Which is an advantage of the paper-pencil test?
a. It is easy to administer and score.
b. It requires little, use of time for teaching and assessment.
c. It is favorable to students who are interpersonally intelligent.
d. Its validity in assessing students who are good musically is high.
14. Teacher Jay is collecting all possible evidence that could tell if a student should pass or fail. What process is the
teacher doing?
a. Testing b. Measuring c. Evaluating d. Assessing
15. Teacher Rose examined carefully if the test items she constructed for her Quarterly Test are based on the
competencies to be tested. What test of validity was she trying to establish?
a. content-validity b. concurrent validity c. predictive validity d. Construct validity
16. Ms. Aviz wants to determine if the students’ scores in their Final Test is reliable. However, she has only one set of test
and her students are already on vacation. What test of reliability can she employ?
a. Test-Retest b. Kuder Richardson Method c. Equivalent Forms d. Test-Retest with Equivalent Forms
17. Which is wrong to assume about traditional assessment?
a. It can assess individuals objectively. b. It can assess individuals at the same time.
c. It is easier to administer than performance test. d. It can assess fairly all the domains of intelligence of an individual
18. What is the mean of 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, 3, and 12?
a. 3.72 b. 6.86 c. 4.5 d. 45.5
19. In a positively skewed distribution, which of the following statements is true?
a. Mode = 67 while Median = 54 b. Median = 53 while Mean = 41
c. Mean = 73 while Mode = 49 d. Median = 34 while Mode = 42
20. Mr. Luis who is a high school teacher in English conducted an item analysis of her test. He found out that four of the
items of the test obtained the following difficulty and discrimination indices and as follows: Item Number Difficulty Index
Discrimination Index1 .58 .492 .75 .723 .09.324 .93 .15Which of the above items should be discard in her item pool?
a. Item 1 b. Item 2 c. Item 3 d. Item 4
21. In a frequency distribution, what is the interval size of the class whose lower and upper limits are 9.5 and 19.5?
a. 11.0 b. 10.0 c. 9.0 d. 5.0
22. In a frequency distribution, what is the midpoint of the class interval whose lower and upper limits are 99.5 and
109.5?
a. 107.0 b. 105.0 c. 104.5 d. 102.5
23. Mr. Jay tried to correlate the scores of his pupils in the Social studies test with their grades in the same subject last
3rd quarter. What test validity is he trying to establish?
a. Content validity b. Construct validity c. Concurrent validity d. Criterion related validity
24. What is the mode of 2, 5, 7, 12, 10, 3, 12, and 12?
a. 2 only b. 12 only c. 2 and 12 d. none
25. What is the median of 2, 5, 7, 8, 10, 3, and 12?
a. 7 b. 12 c. 2 d. 8
26. In the context of the Theory of Multiple Intelligence, which is a weakness of the paper-pencil test?
a. It puts non-linguistically intelligent at a disadvantage. b. It is not easy to administer.
c. It utilizes so much time. d. It lacks reliability.
27. Ms. Jonah is doing a performance-based assessment for the day’s lesson. Which of the following will most likely
happen?
a. Students are evaluated in one sitting.
b. Students do an actual demonstration of their skill.
c. Students are evaluated in the most objective manner.
d. Students are evaluated based on varied evidences of learning
28. Ms. Mavel rated her students in terms of appropriate and effective use of some laboratory equipment and
measurement tools and the students’ ability to follow the specified procedures. What mode of assessment should Miss
Mavel use?
a. Portfolio Assessment b. Journal Assessment c. Traditional Assessment d. Performance-based Assessment 291.
29. Mrs. Codevilla presented the lesson on baking through a group activity so that the students will not just learn how to
bake but also develop their interpersonal skills. How should this lesson be assessed?
I. She should give the students an essay test explaining how they baked the cake.
II. The students should be graded on the quality of their baked cake using a rubric.
III. The students in a group should rate the members based on their ability to cooperate in their group activity. IV. She
should observe how the pupils perform their tasks.
a. I, II, and III only b. I, III, and IV only c. I, II and IV only d. I, II, III, and IV
30. How should the following steps in portfolio assessment be arranged logically?
I. Set targets
II. Select evidences
III. Collect evidences
IV. Rate Collection
V. Reflect on Evidences
a. I, II, III, IV, V b. I, III, II, V, IV c. I, II, III, V, IV d. I, III, V, II, IV
31. Multiple choice items provide highly reliable test scores because:
A. they do not place a high degree of dependence on the students reading ability
B. they place a high degree of dependence on a teacher's writing ability
C. they are a subjective measurement of student achievement
D. they allow a wide sampling of content and a reduced guessing factor
32. You should:
A. always decide on an answer before reading the alternatives
B. always review your marked exams
C. never change an answer
D. always do the multiple choice items on an exam first
33. The pupils are to be judged individually on their mastery of the singing of the national anthem so their teacher let
them sing individually. What should the teacher use in rating the performance of the pupils considering the fact that the
teacher has only one period to spend in evaluating her 20 pupils?
a. Analytic b. Holistic c. Either holistic or analytic d. Both holistic and analytic?

Activity 5
1. Twenty-first-century skills are built on core literacy and numeracy required of students to master. In order to meet the
demands of the 21st century, educators need to focus on:
I. What to teach
II. How to teach
III. How to assess
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. III only
D. I, II, and III
2. Assessment emphasizes the use of feedback and helps in the development of learners. What characteristic of 21st-
century assessment is described?
A. Communicated
B. Informative
C. Responsive
D. Technically Sound
3. Assessments are part of the day-to-day activities instead of just simply at the end of instruction. What characteristic of
21st century assessment is described?
A. Systemic
B. Flexible
C. Responsive
D. Integrated
4. Assessment can be used by teachers as basis for decision – making in the following phases of instruction:
I. Before stating teaching
II. During teaching
III. After a teaching segment
A. I
B. III
C. I and III
D. I, II, and III
5. Student learning Outcomes (SLO) is best described by:
I. The totality of accumulated knowledge, skills, and attitudes that students develop during a course of study.
II. As basis for assessing the extent of learning in Outcome- Based Education
III. There are several factors to consider in defining a particular student learning outcome (SLO)
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. I only
6. Competencies expected by different professions, businesses and industries must be considered in defining student
learning outcomes because…
I. Businesses support the education sector
II. Students need to prepare for work
III. Graduates must meet industries’ requirements
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. III only
7. The teaching and assessment of 21st century skills is characterized by …
I. Alignment of outcomes
II. Balance assessment
III. Inclusion of the 21st century goals
A. I and III

B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. III only
8. In what phase(s) of teaching – learning process does observation of students interaction become a source of
information in decision – making?
I. Before starting teaching
II. During teaching
III. After a teaching segment
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III
E. None of the above
9. Flexibility as a characteristic of the 21st century assessment is associated with the following EXCEPT:
I. Assessment is strictly followed as planned
II. Assessment must be adaptable to student’s setting
III. Assessment must be incorporated in day-to-day teaching activity
A. I only
B. II and III
C. III only
D. I and III
10. Process of educational assessment (according to Bloom) is characterized by:
I. Measurement and evaluation are integral part of the educational assessment process
II. Encompasses the total educational setting
III. Assessment’s focus is on teacher – student engagement.
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I only
D. III only
E. None of the above
11. Teacher Justin, a Physical Education teacher, asked his students to show how to perform the basic dance steps. What
domain of learning target is being assessed?
A. Understanding
 B. Reasoning
C. Products
D. Skills
12. Which of the following is NOT a measure of criterion-referenced assessment?
A. Level of performance is determined by absolute standards
B. Criteria is set as standard for performance comparison
C. The goal is to disperse students score
D. Detailed domain specifications is used
13. If teacher Jhocelle is assessing the authentic experiences of her students, which of the following will she consider?
A. Portfolio Assessment
B. Holistic Assessment
C. Alternative Assessment
D. Performance-Based Assessment
14. Teacher Rosario administered a quiz to find out if students have understood the lesson on finding the volume of solid
figures. What type of assessment was done?
A. Summative assessment
B. Formative assessment
C. Analytic assessment
D. Holistic assessment
15. Which of the following best describes a norm-referenced assessment?

A. It compares student’s performance with each other.

B. It is based on detailed domain specifications.
C. It considers objectivity in test development.
D. It compares student’s performance against the attainment of objectives.
16. Who among the following teachers is doing an evaluation?
A. Teacher Romnick who is computing the final grades based on several criteria for assessment.
B. Teacher Ronnel who is administering the chapter exam to his students.
C. Teacher Miggy who is re-checking the test paper of his students.
D. Teacher Michelle who is rating the finished project of her students.
17. Which of the following forms of assessment Teacher Nick will use if he wants to measure the degree of authenticity
of learning outcomes among his students?
A. Analytical
B. Traditional
C. Summative
D. Performance-Based
18. Teacher Ana wants to use the global approach of assessing her students through reflection journals, peer
assessment, self-assessment, group presentation and portfolio. Which type of assessment will she use?
A. Holistic Assessment
B. Analytical Assessment
C. Formative Assessment
D. Summative Assessment
19. Mr. Jam Herrera administered an achievement test in Science to his Grade 7 students. He considered the
performance of one student as basis for assigning the grade equivalence of the scores obtained by the other students.
What type of assessment did he use?
A. Holistic
B. Contextualized
C. Norm-referenced
D. Criterion-referenced
20. Which is the least authentic method of assessment?
A. Research output in history class
B. Photofolio in educational technology class
C. Paper-and-pencil test in Physical Education
 D. Collection of outputs and experiments in Science
21. It is an essential and powerful tool in the teaching and learning process.
A. Assessment
B. Evaluation
C. Performance
D. Skills
22. Which of the following is recommended when using performance assessments in the classroom?
a. Specify the scoring criteria in advance. b. Standardize administration procedures as much as possible.
c. Define tasks clearly & unambiguously. d. Allow students to use notes to complete the assessment.
23. Mr. Anton has been emphasizing the use of performance-based assessments in his science class. What type of
performance assessment is he most likely to use to grade his students on their knowledge to solve problem involving
principles of gravity?
a. True or False questions about the principles of gravity.
b. Asking the students to state the principles of gravity.
c. Multiple-choice test about the principles of gravity.
d. Experiment which involves dropping different objects to assess the rate of descent.
24. Teacher Ana is doing a performance-based assessment for the day’s lesson. Which of the following will most likely
happen?
a. Students are evaluated in one sitting. b. Students do an actual demonstration of their skill.
c. Students are evaluated in the most objective manner. d. Students are evaluated based on varied evidence of learning.
25. What should be done first when planning for a performance-based assessment?
a. Determine the table of specifications of the tasks. b. Set the competency to be assessed.
c. Set the criteria in scoring the task. d. Prepare a scoring rubrics.
26. To maximize the amount of time to be spent for performance-based assessments, which one should be done?
a. Plan a task that can be used for instruction and assessment at the same time.
b. Assess one objective for one performance task.
c. Set objectives only for cognitive domain.
d. Limit the task to one meeting only.
27. Which statement about performance-based assessment is FALSE?
a. It emphasizes merely process. b. It also stresses doing, not only knowing.
c. It accentuates on process as well as product. d. Essay tests are an example of performance-based assessments.
28. All of the following are examples of performance assessments products, EXCEPT:
a. Assessment of an oral answer to a teacher inquiry. b. Assessment of an invention in science.
c. Assessment of a science poster during annual science fair. d. Assessment of a character drawing in art.
29. Which of the following is NOT an example of performance assessment?
a. Playing the piano b. Completing a multiple-choice test
c. Solving a practical math problem d. All of the above examples
30. One criticism of performance assessment is:
a. it is too radical a departure from traditional assessment b. it is too time consuming
c. it is too similar to criterion-referenced testing d. it is bot comprehensive enough
31. Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of performance assessment?
a. It can help motivate students
b. It is useful for integrated subject matter.
c. It is time efficient.
d. It is useful for curricula emphasizing applied reasoning skills.
32. Two teachers of the same grade level have set the following objectives for the day's lesson. At the end of the period,
the students should be able to: a. Construct bar graph, and b. Interpret bar graphs. To assess the attainment of the
objectives, Teacher A required the students to construct a bar graph for the given set of data then she asked them to
interpret this using a set of questions as guide. Teacher B presented a bar graph then asked them to interpret this using
also a set of guide questions. Whose practice is acceptable based on the principles of assessment?
a. Teacher A b. Teacher B c. Both Teacher A and B d. Neither Teacher A nor Teacher B
33. Which is true about the given case?
a. Objective A matched with performance-based assessment while B can be assessed using the traditional pen-and-
paper objective test.
b. Objective A matched with traditional assessment while B can be assessed using a performance-based method.
c. Both objective A and B matched with performance-based assessment.
d. Both objective A and B matched with traditional assessment.
34. Ms. del Rosario rated her students in terms of appropriate and effective use of some laboratory equipment and
measurement tools and the students’ ability to follow the specified procedures. What mode of assessment should Miss
del Rosario use?
a. Portfolio Assessment b. Journal Assessment
c. Traditional Assessment d. Performance-based Assessment
 ANSWER SHEET Assessment in Learning 2 Activities

Name:
Course:
Major:

Activity 1
1 12 23 34
2 13 24 35
3 14 25 36
4 15 26 37
5 16 27 38
6 17 28 39
7 18 29 40
8 19 30 41
9 20 31
10 21 32
11 22 33
Activity 2
1 6 11 16 21
2 7 12 17 22
3 8 13 18 23
4 9 14 19 24
5 10 15 20 25
Activity 3
1 9 17 25 31
2 10 18 26 32
3 11 19 33
4 12 20 34
5 13 21 27 35
6 14 22 28 36
7 15 23 29 37
8 16 24 30

Activity 4
1 8 15 22 29
2 9 16 23 30
3 10 17 24 31
4 11 18 25 32
5 12 19 26 33
6 13 20 27
7 14 21 28

Activity 5
1 9 17 25 33
2 10 18 26 34
3 11 19 27
4 12 20 28
5 13 21 29
6 14 22 30
7 15 23 31
8 16 24 32