Day 2 Polity

IASbaba’s 60 DAY PLAN 2021 UPSC
POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
Q.1) Which of the following contains the provisions related to co-operative societies?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Choose correct option:
a) 3 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.1) Solution (b)
Explanation:
Constitutional (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 added the words “or co-operative societies” after
the word “or unions” in Article 19(l)(i) and insertion of article 43B i.e., Promotion of Co-
operative Societies and added Part-IXB i.e., The Co-operative Societies.
According to the Constitutional (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 forming a Cooperative Society is a
fundamental right under article 19(1)(i), Part III of the Constitution.
According to the Article 43 B in Part IV of the Constitution of India, the State shall endeavour to
promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional
management of co-operative societies.
Q.2) Which of the following are mentioned under separate Articles in Part III of the
Constitution of India pertaining to Fundamental Rights?
1. Abolition of untouchability
2. Abolition of titles
3. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion
4. Protection of interests of minorities
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2, 3 and 4
www.iasbaba.com Contact: 91691 91888 Page 1

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
c) 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.2) Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
 Article 17 deals with Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice.

 Abolition of titles except military and academic – Article 18
 Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion – Article 27
 Protection of language, script and culture of minorities – Article 29
Q.3) Which of the statements given below is/are true with reference to Article 29 of Indian
Constitution?
1. Under Article 29, all minorities have the right to establish and administer educational
institutions of their choice.
2. Article 29 grants protection to both linguistic and religious minorities.
Choose correct option:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.3) Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2
Incorrect Correct
It is under Article 30, all minorities have the According to Article 29, any section of the
right to establish and administer educational citizens shall have the right to conserve its
institutions of their choice. distinct language, script or culture of its own,
shall have the right to conserve the same.
Article 29 grants protection to both religious

minorities as well as linguistic minorities.

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
However, the Supreme Court held that the

scope of this article is not necessarily
restricted to minorities only, as it is
commonly assumed to be. This is because of
the use of words ‘section of citizens’ in the
Article that include minorities as well as
majority.
Q.4) Consider the following statements:
1. Right to conserve the language includes the right to agitate for the protection of the
language.
2. Political speeches or promises made for the conservation of the language of a section of
the citizens does not amount to corrupt practice under the Representation of the People
Act, 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.4) Solution (c)
Explanation:
Article 29 – "Any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof
having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the
same."
Article 29 is an absolute right and the visionary framers of the constitution have not subjected it
to any restrictions. In Jagdev Singh Sidhanti vs Pratap Singh Daulta, the Supreme Court held
that the right includes the right “to agitate for the protection of the language”.
The Constitution has thereby conferred the right, among others, to conserve their language
upon the citizens of India. Right to conserve the language of the citizens includes the right to
agitate for the protection of the language. Political agitation for conservation of the language of
a section of the citizens cannot therefore be regarded as a corrupt practice within the meaning
of s. 123(3) of the Representation of the People Act. Unlike Art. 19(1), Art. 29(1) is not subject to
any reasonable restrictions.

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
Q.5) Consider the below statements with regard to Directive Principles of State Policy and
identify the incorrect one:
a) They embody the concept of both ‘welfare state’ and ‘police state’, which existed during
the colonial era.
b) They resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India
Act of 1935.
c) They are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
d) They enable the opposition to exercise influence and control over the operations of the
government.
Q.5) Solution (a)
Statement Analysis
Statement (a) Directive Principles of State Policy embody the concept of the “welfare
state” and not that of a “police state”, which existed during the colonial
Incorrect era.
Statement (b) Instruments of instructions were issued by British Government under the
1935 Act under the Draft Constitution.
Correct
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’
enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. In the words of Dr B
R Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of
instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the
Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the
Government of India Act of 1935. What is called Directive Principles is
merely another name for the instrument of instructions. The only
difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the
executive’.
Statement (c) Directive principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not
legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
Correct
Statement (d) They enable the opposition to exercise influence and control over the
operations of the government. The Opposition can blame the ruling party
Correct on the ground that its activities are opposed to the Directives.

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
Q.6) Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution allows the Parliament to modify
the fundamental rights of the armed forces personnel?
a) Article 13
b) Article 31
c) Article 33
d) Article 20
Q.6) Solution (c)
Explanation:
Article 33 and 34 empower the Parliament to restrict, modify or abrogate the fundamental
rights to the members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, members of
intelligence agencies or similar services. The above power of modification, restricting the
fundamental rights, is available only with parliament and not state legislatures.
Q.7) Which of the following can be challenged in the courts as violating a Fundamental Right
and hence, can be declared as void?
1. Permanent laws enacted by both the Parliament or the state legislature.

2. Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors.
3. Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.
Choose correct answer:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.7) Solution (d)
Explanation:
The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:
(a) Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;

(b) Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors;
(c) Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like
order, bye-law, rule, regulation or notification; and

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
(d) Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.
Thus, not only a legislation but any of the above can be challenged in the courts as violating a
Fundamental Right and hence, can be declared as void.
Q.8) Which among the following is rightly described as the Magna Carta of India?
a) Part III
b) Part IV
c) Part IV A
d) Preamble
Q.8) Solution (a)
Part III of the Constitution is rightly described as the Magna Carta of India.
‘Magna Carta’ is the Charter of Rights issued by King John of England in 1215 under pressure
from the barons. This is the first written document relating to the Fundamental Rights of
citizens.
Q.9) Which of the following Directive Principles were added to the original list by 42nd
Amendment Act of 1976?
1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children

2. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life
3. To promote participation of workers in the management of Industries
Choose the correct code
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.9) Solution (d)
42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added following Directive Principles to the original list:
 To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39)

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
 To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life(Article
49A)
 To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor ( Article 39A)
 To promote participation of workers in the management of Industries ( Article 43A)
Q.10) Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India deals with languages
recognized by the Constitution?
a) Second Schedule
b) Ninth Schedule
c) Tenth Schedule
d) Eighth Schedule
Q.10) Solution (d)
Elimination:
If we are aware of all 12 Schedules and its subject matter, one can easily eliminate all the
schedules except tenth, as tenth schedule deals with provisions regarding anti-defection Act.
Statement Analysis:
Option (a) Option (b) Option (c) Option (d)
Second Schedule Ninth Schedule Tenth Schedule Eighth Schedule
Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct
It deals with It deals with Acts and It deals with the It deals with
provisions relating to Regulations of the provisions relating to languages recognized
the emoluments, state legislatures disqualification of by the Constitution.
allowances, dealing with land the members of
privileges and so on. reforms and Parliament and State
abolition of the Legislatures on the
zamindari system ground of defection.
and of the
Parliament dealing
with other matters.

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
Q.11) Consider the following statements:
1. Protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities and does not extend to any
section of citizens.
2. The right under Article 30 also includes the right of a minority to impart education to its
children in its own language.
Which of the statements give above is/are true?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.11) Solution (c)
Basic information:
Article 30 of the Indian Constitution states the right of minorities to establish and administer
educational institutions.
It says: “All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish
and administer educational institutions of their choice.”
Statement Analysis:
Correct Correct
The protection under Article 30 is confined The right under Article 30 also includes the
only to minorities (religious or linguistic) and right of a minority to impart education to its
does not extend to any section of citizens (as children in its own language.
under Article 29).
Q.12) The category ‘Right to Freedom’ in Fundamental Rights of our Constitution consists of:
1. Freedom to manage religious affairs

2. Right to form associations/union
3. Protection in respect of conviction for offences
Choose appropriate code:

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.12) Solution (c)
Elimination:
Right to Freedom consists of Articles 19 to 22, therefore we can eliminate statement 1 which is
part of Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25–28).
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3
Incorrect Correct Correct
Freedom to manage religious Right to form Protection in respect of

affairs (Article 26) is part of associations/union is part of conviction for offences is
Right to Freedom of Religion, ‘Right to freedom’. (Article part of ‘Right to freedom’.
not ‘Right to freedom’. 19) (Article 20)
Additional information:
Right to freedom (Articles 19–22) includes –
(a) Protection of six rights regarding freedom of: (1) freedom of speech and expression; (2)
assemble peacefully; (3) form associations/unions; (4) move freely throughout the
territory of India; (5) reside and settle in any part of India; (6) practise any profession, or
to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
(b) Protection in respect of conviction for offences
(c) Right to life and personal liberty
(d) Right to education
(e) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
Q.13) Consider the following statements with regard to Habeas Corpus:

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
1. The Habeas Corpus writ means order of the court directing the authority to produce the
detained person in the court.
2. The Habeas Corpus writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.13) Solution (d)
Habeas Corpus
It is a Latin term which literally means ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by the court to
a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it.
The court then examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the detained person
free, if the detention is found to be illegal. Thus, this writ is a bulwark of individual liberty
against arbitrary detention.
The incalculable value of habeas corpus is that it enables the immediate determination of the
right of the appellant’s freedom. The writ of Habeas Corpus is a process for securing liberty to
the party for illegal and unjustifiable detention. It objects for providing a prompt and effective
remedy against illegal restraints. The writ of Habeas Corpus can be filled by any person on
behalf of person detained or by the detained person himself. It is a judicial order issued by
Supreme Court or High Court through which a person confined may secure his release. The writ
of Habeas Corpus can be filed by any person on behalf of the other person.
Q.14) According to L M Singhvi, an eminent jurist and diplomat, which among the following
are the life giving provisions of the Constitution, that constitute the stuff of the Constitution
and its philosophy of social justice?
a) Directive Principles of State Policy

b) Fundamental Duties
c) Fundamental Rights
d) Preamble
Q.14) Solution (a)

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
According to L M Singhvi, an eminent jurist and diplomat, ‘the Directives are the life giving
provisions of the Constitution. They constitute the stuff of the Constitution and its philosophy of
social justice’.
Q.15) In which of the following points is the Fundamental Rights are distinct from the
Directive Principles?
1. Fundamental Rights are societarian and socialistic, as they promote the welfare of the
community
2. Fundamental Rights do not require any legislation for their implementation.
3. Fundamental Rights aim at establishing political democracy in the country.
Choose appropriate code:
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.15) Solution (c)
Distinction Between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
Fundamental Rights Directive Principles
1. These are negative as they prohibit the 1. These are positive as they require the
State from doing certain things. State to do certain things.
2. These are justiciable, that is, they are 2. These are non-justiciable, that is, they are
legally enforceable by the courts in case of not legally enforceable by the courts for their
their violation. violation.
3. They aim at establishing political 3. They aim at establishing social and

democracy in the country. economic democracy in the country.
4. These have legal sanctions. 4. These have moral and political sanctions.
5. They promote the welfare of the 5. They promote the welfare of the
individual. Hence, they are personal and community. Hence, they are societarian and
individualistic. socialistic.

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
6. They do not require any legislation for 6. They require legislation for their
their implementation. They are implementation. They are not automatically
automatically enforced. enforced.
7. The courts are bound to declare a law 7. The courts cannot declare a law violative
violative of any of the Fundamental Rights as of any of the Directive Principles as
unconstitutional and invalid. unconstitutional and invalid. However, they
can uphold the validity of a law on the
ground that it was enacted to give effect to a
directive.
Q.16) Which of the following are Directives contained in other Parts of the Constitution but
are not included in Part IV of our Constitution?
1. Claims of SCs and STs to Services

2. Instruction in mother tongue
3. Development of the Hindi Language
Choose appropriate answer:
a) 2 and 3
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.16) Solution (d)
DIRECTIVES OUTSIDE PART IV
Apart from the Directives included in Part IV, there are some other Directives contained in other
Parts of the Constitution. They are:
1. Claims of SCs and STs to Services: The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and
the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of
efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in
connection with the affairs of the Union or a State (Article 335 in Part XVI).
2. Instruction in mother tongue: It shall be the endeavour of every state and every local
authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue
at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups (Article

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
350-A in Part XVII).
3. Development of the Hindi Language: It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the
spread of the Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of
expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India (Article 351 in Part XVII).
The above Directives are also non-justiciable in nature. However, they are also given equal
importance and attention by the judiciary on the ground that all parts of the constitution must
be read together.
Q.17) Consider the below statements about Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. They denote the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and
enacting laws.
2. They are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative,
executive and judiciary matters.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.17) Solution (a)
Elimination:
It is quite easy to identify the 1st statement as correct. But second statement is tricky.
According to Article 36, the term ‘State’ in Part IV has the same meaning as in Part III dealing
with Fundamental Rights. Therefore, it includes the legislative and executive organs (and not
judiciary) of the central and state governments, all local authorities and all other public
authorities in the country. Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
Statement Analysis:
Correct Incorrect
The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State DPSPs are the constitutional instructions or
POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State recommendations to the State in legislative,
should keep in mind while formulating executive and administrative matters. (not
policies and enacting laws. judicial matters)
Q.18) What are the remedies to a person whose right to speech and expression (Article 19) is
curtailed by the members of his community?
1. He can move to the Supreme Court under Article 32.

2. He can move to the High Court under Article 226.
3. He only has ordinary legal remedy through lower courts.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.18) Solution (b)
Elimination:
The rights under Article 19 are protected against only the state action and not against the
private individual.
When the rights that are available against the State’s action only are violated by the private
individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies. Therefore,
under the current case the aggrieved can’t move to the Supreme Court. Though, he can go to
the High Court because the writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of the Supreme
Court, as High Court can issue writs even for the enforcement of the ordinary rights. Hence,
statement (1) is wrong and options (a) and (d) can be eliminated.
Statement Analysis:
Incorrect Correct Correct
Since rights are violated by Aggrieved person can move He only has ordinary legal
the private individuals, there to High Court because the remedy through lower
are no constitutional writ jurisdiction of the High courts.

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
remedies but only ordinary Court is wider than that of

legal remedies. The the Supreme Court, as High
aggrieved person cannot Court can issue writs even
move to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of the
(because SC cannot issue ordinary rights.
writs against the ordinary
rights)
Q.19) Which of the following statements are exceptions to rule of equality before law?
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the President or the

Governor in any court during his term of office.
2. The foreign ambassadors and diplomats enjoy immunity from civil proceedings but not
from criminal proceedings.
Choose appropriate answer:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.19) Solution (a)
Explanation:
The rule of equality before law is not absolute and there are constitutional and other exceptions
to it.
The President of India and the Governor of States enjoy certain immunities.
Statement Analysis:
Correct Incorrect
The President or the Governor is not The foreign sovereigns (rulers), ambassadors
answerable to any court for the exercise and and diplomats enjoy immunity from both
performance of the powers and duties of his criminal and civil proceedings.
office.

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
No criminal proceedings shall be instituted

or continued against the President or the
Governor in any court during his term of
office.
Q.20) Citizens’ right to live in safe buildings and environment is a part of which of the
following Fundamental Rights Articles?
a) Article 21
b) Article 14
c) Article 19
d) Article 16
Q.20) Solution (a)
Explanation:
Right of citizens to live in safe buildings is a facet of right guaranteed by Article 21 of the
Constitution.
In other words, citizens have a right to live in safe buildings and environment, within the
meaning of Article 21.
Q.21) Who among the following heads the Cabinet Committee on Security?
a) National Security Advisor

b) Home Minister
c) Defence Minister
d) Prime Minister
Q.21) Solution (d)
Explanation:
The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) of the Central Government of India discusses debates
and is the final decision-making body on senior appointments in the national security
apparatus, defence policy and expenditure, and generally all matters of India's national
security. The CCS is chaired by the Prime Minister of India. The CCS consists of the following
members:
POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
 Prime Minister
 Minister of Home Affairs
 Minister of Defence
 Minister of External Affairs
 Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs
Q.22) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana is associated with –
a) providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates

b) skill development initiative scheme of the Government of India
c) promoting financial inclusion in the country
d) providing financial help to the marginalized communities
Q.22) Solution (b)
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is a skill development initiative scheme of the
Government of India for recognition and standardisation of skills.
The aim of the PMKVY scheme is to encourage aptitude towards employable skills and to
increase working efficiency of probable and existing daily wage earners, by giving monetary
awards and rewards and by providing quality training to them.
Q.23) In the line of ‘One Nation – One Scheme’ theme, the Government of India had launched
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojna (PMFBY). Which of the following are the objectives of this
scheme?
1. To provide insurance coverage and financial support to the farmers in the event of
failure of any of the notified crop as a result of natural calamities, pests & diseases.
2. To stabilise the income of farmers to ensure their continuance in farming.
3. To ensure flow of credit to the agriculture sector.
Select the code from below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
Q.23) Solution (d)
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojna (PMFBY), which is in line with One Nation – One Scheme
theme was launched in 2016.
Objectives of the Scheme:
 To provide insurance coverage and financial support to the farmers in the event of
failure of any of the notified crop as a result of natural calamities, pests & diseases.
 To stabilise the income of farmers to ensure their continuance in farming.
 To encourage farmers to adopt innovative and modern agricultural practices.
 To ensure flow of credit to the agriculture sector.
Implemented by: Empanelled general insurance companies.
Administered by: Ministry of Agriculture
The scheme is compulsory for loanee farmers availing Crop Loan /KCC account for notified crops
and voluntary for others.
Q.24) Consider the following statements regarding Open Credit Enablement Network (OCEN):
1. It is a credit protocol infrastructure.

2. It would democratise lending and enable small borrowers to avail funds easily.
3. It will act as a common language for lenders and marketplaces to utilise and create
innovative, financial credit products at scale.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.24) Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
Correct Correct Correct
Open Credit Enablement Network OCEN will democratise credit OCEN will act as a
(OCEN) is a credit protocol and enable small borrowers common language for
infrastructure, which will mediate to avail funds easily. With lenders and
the interactions between loan this, a credit will become marketplaces to utilise
service providers, usually fintech and more accessible for a large and create innovative,
mainstream lenders, including all number of entrepreneurs and financial credit
large banks and NBFCs. It is small businesses in the products at scale.
developed by a think tank, Indian country.
Software Products Industry Round
Table (iSPIRT).
Q.25) Consider the following pairs:
Channel or Strait Separates
1. Sombrero Channel Great Nicobar and Little Nicobar islands
2. Ten Degree Channel Andaman and Nicobar islands
3. Duncan Passage Great Andaman and Little Andaman islands
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.25) Solution (c)
The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands
from each other in the Bay of Bengal.

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
Duncan Passage is a strait in the Indian Ocean. It separates Rutland Island (part of Great
Andaman) to the north, and Little Andaman to the south.
Sombrero Channel separates the central and south groups of the Nicobar Islands. It lies north
of Little Nicobar Island.
Q.26) Consider the following statements about Red Sanders:
1. Red Sanders is an endemic tree of South India.

2. They are found in Tropical Moist Deciduous forest.
3. IUCN has put it under the category of Endangered (EN) species in the Red List.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.26) Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Correct Incorrect Incorrect
Pterocarpus santalinus They are found in The International Union for

or Red Sanders is an Tropical Dry Deciduous Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has put
endemic tree of South forest of the Palakonda it under the category of Near
India. Red Sanders and Seshachalam hill Threatened (NT) from earlier
usually grow in the rocky, ranges of Andhra Pradesh Endangered (EN) species in the Red
degraded and fallow and also found in Tamil List. It is listed in Appendix II of the
lands with Red Soil and Nadu and Karnataka. Convention on International Trade in
hot and dry climate. Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Flora (CITES).
Q.27) Which of the following protected area is often referred as ‘The Amazon of East’?
a) Khangchendzonga National Park

b) Manas Tiger Reserve
c) Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary
d) Namdapha National Park
Q.27) Solution (c)
Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary of Assam is referred as ‘The Amazon of East’. Dehing is the
name of the river that flows through this forest and Patkai is the hill at the foot of which the
sanctuary lies.
The Sanctuary is a part of the Dehing-Patkai Elephant Reserve, along with the Stillwell Road and
the oldest refinery of Asia in Digboi and ‘open cast’ coal mining at Lido.
POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
Q.28) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Permanent Court of
Arbitration (PCA)?
1. It is an intergovernmental organization.
2. It was established by the international treaty called 'The Rome Statute'.
3. India is not a member of PCA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.28) Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Correct Incorrect Incorrect
Permanent Court of PCA was established by The PCA has a three-part

Arbitration (PCA) is an the Convention for the organizational structure consisting
intergovernmental Pacific Settlement of of: Administrative Council- to
organization dedicated to International Disputes, oversee its policies and budgets;
serve the international concluded at The Hague in Members of the Court- a panel of
community in the field of 1899. International independent potential arbitrators,
dispute resolution and to Criminal Court (ICC) is and International Bureau- its
facilitate arbitration and governed by an Secretariat, headed by the
other forms of dispute international treaty called Secretary-General. The PCA has
resolution between States. 'The Rome Statute'. 121 member states. India is a party
of the PCA.
Q.29) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘PM SVANidhi Scheme’.
1. It is launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
2. It aims at facilitating collateral free working capital loans to street vendors.
3. Only public scheduled commercial banks can provide loans under this scheme.
Select the correct statements
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
Q.29) Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Incorrect Correct Incorrect
It was launched by Ministry It aims at facilitating PM SVANidhi Scheme

of Housing & Urban Affairs collateral free working capital envisages bringing ‘Banks at
under the ambit of loans upto Rs 10,000 of 1- the door steps’ of these
‘AtmaNirbhar Bharat year tenure, to about 50 lakh ‘nano-entrepreneurs’ by
Abhiyan’. street vendors in the urban engaging the Non-Banking
areas, including those from Financial Companies (NBFCs)
the surrounding peri-urban/ and the Micro-Finance
rural areas, to resume their Institutions (MFIs) as lending
businesses post COVID-19 institutions in addition to
lockdown. Scheduled Commercial Banks
- Public & Private, Regional
Rural Banks, Cooperative
Banks, SHG Banks etc.
Q.30) The producer support estimate (PSE), an indicator of the annual monetary value of
gross transfers from consumers and taxpayers to agricultural producers, are updated and
published annually by –
a) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development

b) Food and Agriculture Organization
c) NITI Aayog
d) Department of Economic Affairs

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
Q.30) Solution (a)
The producer support estimate (PSE) is an indicator of the annual monetary value of gross
transfers from consumers and taxpayers to agricultural producers, measured at the farm gate
level, arising from policy measures that support agriculture, regardless of their nature,
objectives or impacts on farm production or income. Examples include market price support,
and payments based on output, area planted, animal numbers, inputs, or farm income.
PSEs, which are updated and published annually by the Organisation for Economic Co-
operation and Development, can be expressed in monetary terms: as a ratio to the value of
gross farm receipts valued at farm gate prices, including budgetary support (percentage PSE); or,
as a ratio to the value of gross farm receipts valued at world market prices, without budgetary
support.
OECD’s Producer Support Estimate (PSE) is the only available source of internationally
comparable information on support levels in agriculture.
Q.31) The difference between two positive numbers is 160 and the ratio between them is 5:3.
Find the product of the two numbers.
a) 96000
b) 144000
c) 48000
d) 72000
Q.31) Solution (a)
Let the two positive numbers be 5X and 3X
Therefore, 5X-3X=160
2X=160
X=80
Therefore product of two numbers = 5X x 3X
=(5x80) (3x80)
= 96000

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
Q.32) A two digit number is such that the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the
number, then the digits are reversed. The number is
a) 16
b) 24
c) 42
d) 64
Q.32) Solution (b)
Let the ten’s and unit digit be X and 8/X respectively.
Then, (10X + 8/X) + 18 = 10 × (8/X) + X
->10X2 + 8 + 18X = 80 + X2
->X2 + 2X – 8 = 0
->(X+4) (X-2) = 0
->X= 2
So the number is 24
Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items
should be based in the passage only.
No conflict since the 1940s has been bloodier, yet few have been more completely ignored.
Estimates of the death toll in Congo between 1998 and 2003 range from roughly 1m to more
than 5m—no one counted the corpses. Taking the midpoint, the cost in lives was higher than
that in Syria, Iraq, Vietnam or Korea. Yet scarcely any outsider has a clue what the fighting was
about or who was killing whom. Which is a tragedy, because the great war at the heart of Africa
might be about to start again.
To understand the original war, consider this outrageously oversimplified analogy. Imagine a
giant house whose timbers are rotten. That was the Congolese state under Mobutu Sese Seko,
the kleptocratic tyrant who ruled from 1965 to 1997. Next, imagine a cannonball that brings the
house crashing down. That cannonball was fired from Rwanda, Congo’s tiny, turbulent
neighbour. Now imagine that every local gang of armed criminals comes rushing in to steal the
family jewels, and the looting turns violent. Finally, imagine that you are a young, unarmed

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
woman who lives alone in the shattered house. It is not a pleasant thought, is it?
Mobutu and his underlings looted the Congolese state until it could barely stand. When a shock
struck, it collapsed. The shock was the Rwandan genocide of 1994. The perpetrators of that
abomination, defeated at home, fled into Congo. Rwanda invaded Congo to eliminate them.
Meeting almost no resistance, since no one wanted to die for Mobutu, the highly disciplined
Rwandans overthrew him and replaced him with their local ally, Laurent Kabila. Then Kabila
switched sides and armed the genocidaires, so Rwanda tried to overthrow him, too. Angola and
Zimbabwe saved him. The war degenerated into a bloody tussle for plunder. Eight foreign
countries became embroiled, along with dozens of local militias. Congo’s mineral wealth fuelled
the mayhem, as men with guns grabbed diamond, gold and coltan mines. Warlords stoked
ethnic divisions, urging young men to take up arms to defend their tribe—and rob the one next
door—because the state could not protect anyone. Rape spread like a forest fire.
Q.33) In the passage ‘’giant house whose timbers are rotten’’ refers to
a) Congo between 1998 and 2003 where death toll raised from 1m to more than 5 m.
b) Congolese state under Mobutu Sese Seko.
c) Congolese state under Laurent Kabila.
d) None of the above.
Q.33) Solution (b)
We can infer from the 2nd paragraph of the passage which says “Imagine a giant house whose
timbers are rotten. That was the Congolese state under Mobutu Sese Seko, the kleptocratic
tyrant who ruled from 1965 to 1997”. Hence option b is the correct answer.
Q.34) According to the passage the cost in lives was higher in which of the following country?
a) Syria
b) Iraq
c) Vietnam
d) Congo
Q.34) Solution (d)
It is clear from the first paragraph of the passage that cost in lives was higher in Congo than in
Syria, Iraq, Vietnam or Korea

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021
Q.35) According to the author, why did Rwanda invade Congo?
a) To take revenge against the perpetrators of Rwandan genocide.

b) To replace Laurent Kabila as the new head of Congo.
c) To loot Congo’s mineral wealth.
d) To impose their sovereignty over Congo.
Q.35) Solution (a)
The 3rd paragraph of the passage says that “Rwanda invaded Congo to eliminate them”. Here
‘them’ refer to the perpetrators of Rwandan genocide. Hence option ‘a’ is the correct answer.

Day 2 Polity

Uploaded by

Document Informationclick to expand document information

Copyright:

Available Formats

Day 2 Polity

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Day 2 Polity

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

IASbaba’s 60 DAY PLAN 2021 UPSC

POLITY [DAY 2] 2021

Choose correct option:

Q.1) Solution (b)

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

www.iasbaba.com Contact: 91691 91888 Page 1

Q.2) Solution (d)

 Article 17 deals with Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice.

Choose correct option:

Q.3) Solution (b)

Article 29 grants protection to both religious

www.iasbaba.com Contact: 91691 91888 Page 2

However, the Supreme Court held that the

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q.4) Solution (c)

www.iasbaba.com Contact: 91691 91888 Page 3

Q.5) Solution (a)

www.iasbaba.com Contact: 91691 91888 Page 4

Q.6) Solution (c)

1. Permanent laws enacted by both the Parliament or the state legislature.

Choose correct answer:

Q.7) Solution (d)

(a) Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;

www.iasbaba.com Contact: 91691 91888 Page 5

Q.8) Solution (a)

1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children

Choose the correct code

Q.9) Solution (d)

 To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39)

www.iasbaba.com Contact: 91691 91888 Page 6

Q.10) Solution (d)

Option (a) Option (b) Option (c) Option (d)

Second Schedule Ninth Schedule Tenth Schedule Eighth Schedule

Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct

www.iasbaba.com Contact: 91691 91888 Page 7

Q.11) Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements give above is/are true?

Q.11) Solution (c)

1. Freedom to manage religious affairs

Choose appropriate code:

Q.12) Solution (c)

Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3

Incorrect Correct Correct

Freedom to manage religious Right to form Protection in respect of

Right to freedom (Articles 19–22) includes –

Q.13) Consider the following statements with regard to Habeas Corpus:

www.iasbaba.com Contact: 91691 91888 Page 9

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Q.13) Solution (d)

a) Directive Principles of State Policy

Q.14) Solution (a)

www.iasbaba.com Contact: 91691 91888 Page 10

Choose appropriate code:

Q.15) Solution (c)

Distinction Between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles

Fundamental Rights Directive Principles

3. They aim at establishing political 3. They aim at establishing social and