CLUSTER 2
IMAGE PRODUCTION AND EVALUATION
1. This explains the theory of formation of the latent image.
Gurney-Mott Theory
2. The emulsion layer of film is _______ um thick.
3 to 5
3. What causes grid cutoff artifacts?
Improper patient positioning
4. Base relative screen speed is equal to ______.
400
5. Panchromatic film is defined as _____.
Receptive to all colors
6. What is the time and temperature required for developing the film in an automatic
processor?
85 for 20 seconds
7. Cleaning of film viewer box should be _______.
Weekly
8. What chemistry acts as a buffer and source of alkali?
Carbonate
9. Which is the part of the cassette for easy opening and closing?
I.
Locks
II.
Hinged
II and III
10. How long should lead apparel be checked for protective integrity?
Weekly
11. Which of the following views uses an intra-oral film?
Mandibular symphysis
12. In radiology, a film critique may be considered as ______.
Technical evaluation of a radiograph
13. What is the common cause of inadequate agitation?
I.
Failure of circulation pumps
II.
Clogging of filters
III.
Air lock in the lines I,II and III
14. Which of the following acts to bind the different layers of the x-ray film?
Emulsion
15. Which of the following controls the swelling and softening of the x-ray film?
Hardener
16. The average replenishment rate for fixer is approximately _______ cc/film.
100-110
17. Quantum detection efficiency is also referred as the ______.
X-ray absorption
18. What is the clearing time in a 90-second automatic processor?
20-25
19. What is the traditional development time in manual processing?
5 minutes
20. The degree of the hotness and coldness of the solution is ______.
Temperature
21. It is recommended that the processing solutions be changed every _____ months.
3
22. When sodium sulfite is used as an x-ray processing chemical, it is a/an _____.
Preservative
23. Fresh x-ray film should be stored at approximately ______.
60-70 degrees F at 50-60 relative humidity.
24. What agent is used to minimize fog and maintain chemical balance between fresh
and seasoned
chemicals?
Potassium Bromide/Restrainer
25. Which of the following does NOT apply when you compare the base of polyester
and the base of
cellulose triacetate ?
Non flammable
26. Which of the following is NOT included in the replenishment system?
Heat exchangers
27. The height of the darkroom safelight from loading bench should be ______.
130 cm
28. The film that is sensitive to fluorescent light is ______.
Screen type
29. Remnant x-rays are those that _____ patient.
Exit
30. What kind of fog causes overdevelopment?
Chemical
31. Which of the following is the oldest method of silver recovery?
Electrolytic
32. A double-emulsion films contain the following.
Wider latitude
33. One of the most common causes of wet film emerging from an automatic
processor is ____.
General lack of hardener in developer or fixer
34. Screens are cleaned ______. According to the manufacturer’s specification
35. What part of an automatic processor regulates the temperature?
Thermostat
36. Which if the following is/are the function/s of the fixer?
I.
Undeveloped silver halide crystals
II.
To shrink and harden the gelaine
III.
To neutralize the developer
I, II and III
37. The pH is the qualitative measurement of the acidity and alkalinity of the solution.
The abbreviation
pH stands for ______.
Power of hydrogen
38. The average developer immersion time in an automatic 90 second processor is
approximately ____.
20
39. The essential ingredients of the fixer are ________.
Acid, harder, hypo and preservative
40. Artifacts can be created by means of ____.
All of the choices
41. Which of the following acts as a neutralizer during film development?
Acetic acid
42. Which tool is used to identify poor screen contact?
Wire mesh
43. What is the recommended tme in months that the solution be dischrarge?
6
44. Which of the following is/are causes of dirty intensifying screens?
I.
Crinkles
II.
Finger mark
III.
Crescent mark
II and III
45. What are the causes of poor screen contact?
I.
Warping of the cassette
II.
Wrinkled screen
III.
Cracked cassette frames
I, II and III
46. Film should be stored at _____ degrees C.
10-21
47. Which of the following refers to a frame-like film container used as a mounting
for intensifying
screens?
Cassette
48. Which of the following are types of processing artifacts?
I.
Roller marks
II.
Static marks
III.
Chemical fog
I and III
49. Agitation upon immersion of the film in the developer Produce uniform
development
50. What material is used for cassettes to reduce attenuation up to 50 and permits a
corresponding
reduction in patient dose?
Bakelite
51. In order to overcome magnification when employing a 6-in OFD air gap for chest
radiography, one
should use in FFD of ______ feet.
10 or more
52. Which of the following technique would produce the greatest amount of
radiographic density?
300 mA, 2/5 sec
53. The density on a radiograph can be doubled by ______.
Increasing the kV by 15
54. Ensuring good screen-film contact also ensures reduced _____.
Blur
55. When a technologist is comparing two radiographs of the chest, one is taken with
a 72- in FFD and
the other with a 50-in FFD (and a compensated technique), the radiograph with the
50-in FFD would
exhibit?
Greater definition
56. The primary reason why distortion usually occur because subject anatomy is ____.
Inclined
57. A technique of 200 mA, ¼ sec has been used to produce a film of satisfactory
density. If the
milliamperage was changed to 500, the time needed to obtain the same milliamperage,
all other
factors remaining constant, would be _______ second
1/10
58. When a 6-in air gap is used in chest radiography, which of the following
statements would be true?
A 72-in FFD is needed for true lung and heart size
59. Radiographic noise increases with an increase in which of the following?
Image receptor distance
60. The most important factor which affect the film sensitometry include
All of the choices
61. Which if the following factors will DIRECTLY influence recorded detail?
I.
Object-film distance
II.
Focus-film distance
I and II
62. The silver halide latent image is produced by _______.
X-ray, light, or other forms of radiation
63. A grid ratio is determined by the relationship of the
The height to the width of the strip
64. Using a grid upside down will cause ____.
Severe grid cut off in the periphery of the film
65. The use of a grid will protect the ______.
Film from scattered radiation
66. If the milliampere selector were set at 1000mA, what exposure time would be
required to produce 80
mAs?
2/25 sec67. Which of the following techniques would be exhibit the GREATES
density?
300 mA, 1/3 sec, 80 kV, 12:1 grid
68. Which of the following is the MOST opaque?
Bone
69. The PRIMARY function of filters in an x-ray machine is to reduce the _______.
Patient’s exposure to low-energy x-rays
70. The higher the grid ratio, the greater the _______.
Clean up of the grid
71. X-rays emerge from the patient in the direction of the image receptor is
considered to which type of
x-rays?
Transmitted x-rays
72. Which of the following factors does NOT affect subject contrast
mAs
73. Which of the following factors statements relating to “artifacts” is FALSE?
Gray-white scum occurs from incomplete washing
74. Radiographic contrast is DIRECTLY influenced by _____.
Kilovoltage
75. To maintain the same density when changing a non-grid technique to utilize an
8:1 grid, the
technologist must make which of the following changes to milliampere seconds?
Double
76. The 15 % rule in radiography indicates that _______.
To reduce the exposure (mAs) to one-half at any level of kV, add 15% more
kilovoltage
77. Subject contrast is chiefly influenced by the ________.
Kilovoltage
78. The presence of ascites will result in an increase of _______.
Scattered radiation
79. Which technique would yield the shortest scale contrast
100 mAs, 60 kV, 10:1 grid, medium-speed screens
80. Beam restricting device.
A PBL
81. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Solution in manual processing has a longer solution life than of the automatic.
82. Which of the following sets of technical factors would produce the shortest scale
of contrast?
200 mA, 1/10 sec, 60 kV, 12:1 grid, large focal spot
83. Which of the following has an effect on the production of secondary and scattered
radiation?
I.
Thickness of the part being x-rayed
II.
Density of the tissue being x-rayed
III.
Kilovoltage
I, II and III
84. Which of the following radiographic screen system generally controls the
resolution?
I.
size of the intensifying screen crystal layer
II.
size of the silver halide crystal
III.
film graininess I, II and III
85. A technique of 100 mA, ½ sec at 80 kV is converted to 100 mA, 1/8 sec. in order
to maintain the
same density, what would be the new kilovoltage?
92 kV
86. Which of the following can be done to REDUCE absorption blur?
Patient suspended breathing
87. On collimatingto the area of interest, x-ray exposure must be ______.
No change
88. Which of the following conditions can produced a fog-like image on a finished
radiograph?
I.
Improper safelights
II.
A low ratio grid with high kV technique
III.
Improper collimation
I and III
89. An adjustment in the kV from 60 to 80 will produce ______.
I.
An increased in latitude
II.
Less patient absorption
III.
Shorter wavelength
I and III
90. Which of the following is considered as the simplest type of grid?
Linear grid
91. A Potter-Bucky diaphragm is known as a ______
Grid in motion during exposure
92. How often should the collimation be evaluated?
Semi-annually
93. Which of the following techniques would produce the LEAST density?
200 mA, 1/8 sec, 75 kVp, 60-in SID
94. FSB can be minimized by ______.
Reducing OID
95. Definition is impaired by ____
I.
Increase OFD
II.
Decreased FFD
III.
Motion
I, II and III
96. Which of the following changes would have dramatic effect on radiographic
contrast?
Changing the kilovoltage from 86 kV to 82 kV
97. The PRIMARY function of filters in an x-ray machine is to ______.
Reduce the patient’s exposure to low-energy x-rays
98. A technique of 100 mA, 1/20 sec at 60 kV was used to adequately expose a
fractured forearm. What
technique would be best to use after a cast has been applied?
100 mA, 1/20 sec, 75 kV (+ 15% kV)
99. Changing the grid with a higher grid ratio will result in a/an _______.
Decrease patient dose
100. The original exposure factors are 200 mA, 86 kV, and 1/2 seconds. What would
the new
exposure time in second if the kilovoltage is reduced to 80? 3/4
