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Post Test Ipe

This document contains 35 multiple choice questions about various aspects of radiographic image production and evaluation. The questions cover topics like intensifying screens, radiographic film and its components, exposure factors, processing chemicals and steps, and quality control devices like sensitometers and densitometers. The correct answers to each question are provided.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
850 views9 pages

Post Test Ipe

This document contains 35 multiple choice questions about various aspects of radiographic image production and evaluation. The questions cover topics like intensifying screens, radiographic film and its components, exposure factors, processing chemicals and steps, and quality control devices like sensitometers and densitometers. The correct answers to each question are provided.

Uploaded by

laila.tarozza
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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IMAGE PRODUCTION & EVALUATION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the
answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
MULTIPLE CHOICE:
1. Assuring good screen-film contact also assures reduced in:
A. Radiographic noise C. Magnification
B. Patient dose D. Blur
ANSWER: D
2. Which of the following is NOT a required characteristic of base for an intensifying screen?
A. Translucent C. Rugges
B. Chemically inert D. Flexible
ANSWER: A
3. If we wish to double the density of a given film we can
A. Half the distance factor C. Double mA factor
B. Double the kVp factor D. Double the distance factor
ANSWER: C
4. What is the flexible support of the emulsion?
A. Gelatin C. Base
B. Silver halide D. Protective coating
ANSWER: C
5. What beam restricting device which flares or diverges, with the upper diameter smaller than the bottom
flared end?
A. Cylinders C. Collimator
B. Cones D. Aperture diaphragms
ANSWER: B
6. What specific color will be produced if Gadolinium Oxybromide is used as Intensifying screen?
A. Blue C. Green
B. Violet D. Dark Green
ANSWER: A
7. Which of the following DOES NOT greatly affect imaging quality but is expensive?
A. Over replenishment of the developer C. Over replenishment of the fixer
B. Replenishment of the fixer D. Under replenishment of the developer
ANSWER: C
8. Of the following groups of exposure factors, which will produce the greatest radiographic density?
A. 200 mA, 50 msec, 36-inch SID C. 400 mA, 0.05 second, 72-inch SID
B. 400 mA, 0.10 second, 72-inch SID D. 200 Ma, 100msec, 36-inch SID
ANSWER: A
9. What developing agent helps to provide upper scale density?
A. Hydroquinone C. Phenidone
B. Metol D. Gluteraldehyde
ANSWER: A
10. What developing agent helps to provide intermediate densities?
A. Hydroquinone C. Gluteraldehyde
B. Phenidone D. Potassium bromide
ANSWER: B
11. What developer solution is used to maintain uniform film thickness and to assist in transport through
an automatic processor?
A. Hardener C. Preservative
B. Restrainer D. Activator
ANSWER: A
12. What is advisable time / period change processing solutions in an automatic processor?
A. Every three months C. Every week
B. Every month D. Every year
ANSWER: C

13. What device is used to evaluate the sensitometric readings from the processed image?
A. Sensitometer C. Step - wedge
B. Densitometer D. Monitoring
ANSWER: B
1
14. Exposure factors of 85 kV AND 10 mAs are used for a particular nongrid exposure. What should be the new mAs if an 8:1 grid is added?
A. 20 mAs C. 40 mAs
B. 30 mAs D. 50 mAs
ANSWER: B
15. Which of the following is the LEAST important indicator of grid performance?
A. Contrast improvement C. Grid ratio
B. Grid frequency D. Grid – strip height
ANSWER: D
16 What equipment is designed to expose reproducible, uniform, optical step-wedge onto film?
A. Penetrometer C. Step - wedge
B. Densitometer D. Sensitometer
ANSWER: D
17. The sharpness of detail in a radiograph is best increased by the use of?
A. Medium speed screens C. Large effective focal spot
B. High speed screens D. Small effective focal spot
ANSWER: D
18. What is the color of the radiographic film base to minimize the effect of ambient light passing through
large unexposed areas of the radiograph?
A. Tinted blue C. Tinted blue - green
B. Tinted green D. Tinted yellow – orange
ANSWER: A
19. Orthochromatic emulsions are sensitive to wavelength:
A. Less than 620 nm C. More than 620 nm
B. Less than 610 nm D. More than 610 nm
ANSWER: A
20. Substratum also refers to:
A. Protective coating C. Gelatin
B. Polyester D. Adhesive material
ANSWER: D
21. Panchromatic emulsions are sensitive to which of the following wavelengths:
1. Whole visible spectrum
2. Shorter wavelength
3. Wavelength less than 620 nm
A. 1 only C. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: D
22 What is the active ingredient of the radiographic film emulsion?
A. Polyester C. Silver nitrate
B. Gelatin D. Silver halide
ANSWER: D
23. What is/are the primary agent(s) of the developer?
1. Reducing
2. Phenidone
3. Elon
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3
B. 1 only D. 2 and 3
ANSWER: B
24. What do you call the invisible change in a radiographic film that is caused either by light or x- radiation?
A. Exposure C. Visible image
B. Latent image D. Processing
ANSWER: B
25. Which of the following can cause oxidation of the developer and diminishing its chemical activity?
A. Evaporation C. Exhaustion
B. Contamination D. Replenishment
ANSWER: A
26. Which of the following ingredients is NOT normally found in the film emulsion?
A. Silver iodide C. Silver halide
B. Silver nitrate D. Silver bromide
ANSWER: B
2
27. What stage of processing involves a synergistic reaction?
A. Washing C. Drying
B. Fixing D. Developing
ANSWER: D
28. Its function is to increase the efficiency of the IS, nearly doubling the number of light photons reacting
the film.
A. Protective coat C. Reflective layer
B. Adhesive layer D. Film
ANSWER: C
29. It only transmits light having wavelengths longer than about 550 nm.
A. Amber C. Red
B. Blue D. Green
ANSWER: A
30. Which of the following is constructed so as to absorb much of the primary radiation that would expose
the low-tissue-density area, while allowing the primary radiation to pass unaffected to the high-tissue-
density area?
A. Filter C. Collimator
B. Grid D. Intensifying screen
ANSWER: A
31. Quantum mottle is MOSt obvious when using:
A. Slow- speed screens C. Fine- grain film
B. Rare earth screens D. Minimal filtration
ANSWER: B
32. A criteria for viewing satisfactory radiographic quality would be:
A. Full usage of dense spot viewers C. Sight development
B. Variable intensity view – box D. Proper and adequate illumination
ANSWER: D
33. Aerial oxidation is controlled by the:
A. Fixer C. Restrainer
B. Activator D. Preservative
ANSWER: D
34. Which of the following is the LEAST important characteristic of screen film?
A. Sensitivity C. Cost
B. Contrast D. Light Absorption
ANSWER: C
35. What is the average number of atoms collected in the latent image center?
A. 5-7 C. 10-20
B. 4-10 D. 1-5
ANSWER: D
36. What stage of processing is recommended to neutralize the alkaline developer?
A. Stop bath C. Developing
B. Fixing D. Washing
ANSWER: D
37. What is the solution that provides acidic pH and stops reduction?
A. Activator C. Preservative
B. Hardener D. Neutralizer
ANSWER: D
38. Which of the following would principally reduce the production of scatter radiation?
A. A decrease in KVP C. A decrease in SID
B. Use of a grid D. Use of a filter
ANSWER: A
39. Why does the manufacturer pack x-ray film in metal foil?
A. Protect it from moisture C. Prevent static
B. Eliminate the risks of radiation fog D. Keep film clean
ANSWER: A
40. Which of the following do NOT affect the speed of an intensifying screen?
A. Thickness of active layer of phosphor C. Screen contact
B. Reflectance of cardboard D. Size of phosphor crystal
ANSWER: C
3
41. Resulting limitation of air-gap technique:
1. Image sharpness
2. Geometric unsharpness
3. Magnification
A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3
ANSWER: C
42. When producing comparable radiographs, which of the following combinations will result in the lowest
patient dose?
A. Low kVp and low ratio grids C. Low kVp and high ratio grids
B. High kVp and high ratio grids D. High kVp and low ratio grids
ANSWER: D
43. You wanted to increase contrast without increasing patient dose, what factor you will use?
A. OFD C. Grid
B. FFD D. Collimation
ANSWER: B
44. What equipment is required to provide an accurate reading of the amount of light transmitted through
the film?
A. Step wedge C. Sensitometer
B. Penetrometer D. Densitometer
ANSWER: D
45. The speed of an emulsion is governed by its
A. Average grain size C. Average shape
B. Grain distribution D. Emulsion thickness
ANSWER: A
46. A blue-sensitive film emulsion is
A. Panchromatic C. Orthochromatic
B. Monochromatic D. Polychromatic
ANSWER: B
47. Decreasing the developer temperature will
A. Increase contrast C. Lower oxidation
B. Decrease contrast D. Lower the density
ANSWER: D
48. Which of these is / are activator agent in the developer solution
1. Sodium theosulafate
2. Potassium hydroxide
3. potassium aluminum
A. 2 & 3 only C. 2 only
B. 1 & 2 only D.1, 2 & 3
ANSWER: C
49. Which reduces the production of monoargento dithiosulphuric acid of the fixing agent to a minimum?
A. Preservative C. Acid
B. Solvent D. Hardener
ANSWER: A
50. Which causes a brownish stain on the film due to inadequate washing?
A. Thiosulfate C. Ammonium
B. Potassium D. Carbon
ANSWER: A
51. Poor screen film contactt will result in loss of
A. Speed C. Contrast
B. Detail D. Density
ANSWER: B
52. A decrease in kilovoltage by 15 % will reduce the film blackening by
A. One half C. Itself
B. One D. Fifteen
ANSWER: A
53. Grid is placed between the patient and the film in order to:
A. Decreased primary exposure factor C. Reduced scattered radiation
B. Increased the technique D. Add primary radiation
4
ANSWER: C
54. In the geometric aspects of image formation magnification will increase if
A. SID increased C. Definition is constant
B. MAS will added D. OFD will increase
ANSWER: D
55. Increase in KVP will __________ the production of scatter radiation
A. Zeroing C. Decrease
B. Add D. Increase
ANSWER: D
56. The difference in radiographic density on a processed image is
A. Photographic density C. Processing chemicals
B. Radiographic contrast D. Radiographic density
ANSWER: B
57. Misrepresentation of the image shape is called
1. Foreshortening
2. Elongation
3. Magnification
4. Distortion
A. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, and 3 only
ANSWER: A
58. The long – scale radiographic contrast produces
1. A small difference between adjacent densities
2. Low kilovoltage
3. Many shades of gray
A. 1 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 only D. 2 and 3 only
ANSWER: A
59. The emulsion consists of approximately how many percent of silver chloride or silver iodide?
A. 95% C. 20%
B. 5% D. 60%
ANSWER: B
60. You wanted to double contrast without increasing magnification, what factor must be adjusted?
A. OFD C. Grid
B. FFD D. kVp
ANSWER: D
61. Which of the following does not affect patient dose during diagnostic radiography?
A. Inherent filtration C. Focal spot size
B. Added filtration D. Source-to-image distance (SID)
ANSWER: C
62. Which of the following is the main reason to prohibit food and drink in a film darkroom?
A. Avoid contamination of processor solutions
B. Prevent artifacts
C. Prevent pressure marks on the film
D. Prevent static artifacts
ANSWER: B
63. You wanted to maximize contrast while maintaining the patient dose, what factor you will use?
A. OFD C. Grid
B. FFD D. Focal spot
ANSWER: A
64. Which of the following names a device that can be used to measure darkroom humidity levels?
A. Sensitometer C. Hydrometer
B. Densitometer D. Psychrometer
ANSWER: D
65. Proper darkroom ventilation should include _____________________ room changes of air per hour?
A. 3 to 5 C. 8 to 10
B. 6 to 8 D. 10 to 12
ANSWER: C
66. As intensifying screen speed increases; how is radiographic density affected
5
A. Density the area of blackness in the radiograph is not affected
B. Density decreases
C. Density increases
D. Density remain unchanged
ANSWER: C
67. Which of the following terms best describes the ability of a screen material to convert x-ray energy into
light energy?
A. Screen speed C. Conversion
B. Quantum Detection Efficiency (QDE) D. Resolution
ANSWER: C
68. Why should boxes of film and containers of developer solution not be stored near each other?
A. Developer contains naturally occurring radioactive material.
B. Pressure marks can occur on the film
C. Static electricity is more common.
D. None off the above are correct
ANSWER: A
69. Photometric readings from each quadrant of the angle box panel should not vary by more than + ___ %.
A. 2 C. 10
B. 5 D. 20
ANSWER: C
70. Which of the following terms best describes the ability of an imaging system to create separate images
of closely spaced high-contrast objects?
A. Screen speed C. Contrast resolution
B. Spatial resolution D. Quantum mottle
ANSWER: C
71. The primary source of scattered radiation is?
A. Grid C. Patient
B. Table top D. X-ray tube
ANSWER: C
72. When mixing developer solution from concentrate, which part should be placed into the tank first?
A. Part A C. Part C
B. Part B D. Water
ANSWER: D
73. What would cause ammonia –like odor in a darkroom?
A. Contamination of the fixer C. Improper mixing of the developer
B. Oxidation of the developer D. Over replenishment of the developer
ANSWER: B
74. In an automatic processor, which of the following is not considered part of the three principal
subsystems of the film transport system?
A. Microswitch C. Transport racks
B. Rollers D. Drive motor
ANSWER: A
75. If the developer temperature is set at 96oF, then the water wash temperature should be set at ___oF?
A. 86 C. 96
B. 91 D. 101
ANSWER: B
76. According to the ANSI standards, the maximum amount of hyporetention allowed is ________µg/cm3
A. 2 C. 8
B. 5 D. 10
ANSWER: A
77. Which of the processing chemical is responsible for creating optical densities above 1.2 on a diagnosis
image?
A. Phenidone C. Elon
B. Hydroquinone D. Metol
ANSWER: B
78. Which system of the automatic processor consumes the greatest amount of electrical power?
A. Transport C. Circulation
B. Replenishment D. Dryer
ANSWER: D
6
79. Which of the following is located at the bottom of each processing tank?
A. Entrance rack C. Turnaround rack
B. Vertical rack D. Crossover rack
ANSWER: B
80. Which of the following materials are used in the construction of an entrance roller?
A. Acrylic plastic (Plexiglas) C. Polyester
B. Stainless steel D. Rubberized plastic
ANSWER: D
81. Hydrogen ions (H+) that constitute 1/10,000 of a molar of a liquid would have which of the following
pH values?
A. 2 C. 6
B. 4 D. 8
ANSWER: B
82. Which of the following units is used for measurement of precious metal such as silver?
A. Standard ounce C. Troy ounce
B. Avoirdupois ounce D. None of the above
ANSWER: C
83. Which of the following is the largest worldwide consumer of silver?
A. Photographic industry C. Sterlingware industry
B. Electronics industry D. Space program
ANSWER: A
84. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) of 1987 limits liquid waste to a toxic level of
no more than _____________ ppm
A. 2 C. 10
B. 5 D. 100
ANSWER: B
85. From which of the following components do most silver recovery systems reclaim the silver?
A. Developer solution C. Wash water
B. Fixer solution D. Dryer section
ANSWER: B
86. Problems with steel wool metallic replacement cartridges include (1) channeling, (2) rusting, and (3)
drain stoppage:
A. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
ANSWER: D
87. When electrolytic silver recovery units are used, the silver is deposited on which of the following?
A. Anode C. Both anode and cathode
B. Cathode D. Neither anode and cathode
ANSWER: B
88. The oldest form of silver recovery is the _______________ method.
A. Metallic replacement C. Chemical precipitation
B. Electrolytic D. Resin
ANSWER: C
89. Which of the following are factors that affect the efficacy of silver reclamation systems: (1) dwell time,
(2) agitation, or (3) surface area?
A. 1 and 2 only C. 1and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
ANSWER: D
90. All of the following are related to Radiographic Definition, except?
A. Screen speed C. Grid Ratio
B. Motion D. OFD
ANSWER: C
91. What is the margin of error for the specific gravity of processing solutions?
A. 0.002 C. 0.006
B. 0.004 D. 0.1
ANSWER: B
92. Which of the following cannot be determined by an H and D curve or a processor control chart?
A. Film sensitivity C. Recorded detail
B. Film Contrast D. B + F
7
ANSWER: C
93. What type of films does the presence of bromide drag produce?
A. Overdeveloped C. Underfixed
B. Underdeveloped D. Overfixed
ANSWER: B
94. When is the best time to process sensitometric films?
A. Morning, after the processor is warmed up
B. Late morning or midday, after peak-demand period
C. Late afternoon, during the lowest-demand period
D. Evening, during the lowest-demand period
ANSWER: A
95. Which of the following terms best describes a device designed to give precise, reproducible and
graded light exposures to a film?
A. Densitometer C. Sensitometer
B. Photometer D. Penetrometer
ANSWER: C
96. Which of the following has (have) an effect on recorded detail?
1. Focal spot size
2. Screen–film contact
3. Object–image distance
A. 1 only C. 1 & 3 only
B. 1 & 2 only D. 1, 2 & 3
97. Which of the following will result in the best recorded detail?
A. 1.5-mm focal spot C. 0.6-mm focal spot
B. 1.0-mm focal spot D. 0.3-mm focal spot
ANSWER: D
98. What is the principal purpose of the washing process?
A. Stoppage of the fixation C. Maintenance of the solution activity
B. Stoppage of the development process D. Removal of fixer solution
ANSWER: D
99. All are considered as the advantage of using the screen film except:
A. Decrease patient dose
B. Longer tube life
C. Image detail is improved
D. Occupational exposure is reduced
ANSWER: C
100. A wire mesh is used to test:
A. Focal spot size C. Film–screen contact
B. For screen lag D. Screen speed
ANSWER: C

*** END ***


SUBMIT THIS TEST QUESTION SET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER SHEET TO YOUR
WATCHER

IMAGE PRODUCTION & EVALUATION ---


ANSWER KEY
1. D 26. B 51. B 76. A
2. A 27. D 52. A 77. B
3. C 28. C 53. C 78. D
4. C 29. A 54. D 79. C
5. B 30. A 55. D 80. D
6. C 31. B 56. B 81. B
7. C 32. D 57. A 82. C
8. D 33. D 58. C 83. A
9. A 34. C 59. B 84. B
10. B 35. B 60. C 85. B
11. A 36. A 61. C 86. D
12. C 37. D 62. B 87. B
13. B 38. A 63. A 88. C

8
14. C 39. A 64. D 89. D
15. D 40. C 65. C 90. C
16. D 41. C 66. C 91. B
17. D 42. D 67. C 92. C
18. A 43. A 68. A 93. B
19. C 44. D 69. C 94. A
20. D 45. A 70. B 95. C
21. D 46. B 71. C 96. A
22. D 47. D 72. D 97. D
23. B 48. C 73. B 98. D
24. B 49. A 74. A 99. C
25. A 50. A 75. B 100. C

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