Cluster 4: Patient Care Management, Human Anatomy & Physiology,

Department Administration, Ethics and Jurisprudence and Medical Terminology

NAME: DATE: SCORE:

INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This TEST contains 100 questions of MULTIPLE CHOICE.
2. Read the questions carefully.
3. Choose the BEST answer by shading the LETTER of your choice in the answer sheet provided.
4. Write letter E if the answer is not found among the choices.
5. NO ERASURE and ALTERATIONS.

1. Regarded as the suture found in between the two D. Superior; posterior

frontal bones before it fuses into one.
A. Sagittal suture 7. Considered to be the highest point of the skull in the
B. Metopic Suture median sagittal plane.
C. Coronal suture A. Bregma
D. Asterion B. Gonion
C. Fontanels
2. Considered to be the second largest paranasal sinus, D. Vertex
it is described as having an asymmetrical size with
the sinus being larger in men than in women. 8. It is the densest part of the skull, readily located at
A. Maxillary the temporal area of the cranium.
B. Ethmoid A. Zygomatic arch
C. Frontal B. Mastoid process
D. Sphenoid C. Bregma
D. Petrous portion
3. Ethical principle is related to sincerity and truthfulness.
A. Beneficence 9. The dorsal spine is composed of how many bones?
B. Veracity A. 12 bones
C. Autonomy B. 30 bones
D. Fidelity C. 26 bones
D. 33 bones
4. Which of the following is/are considered unique
characteristics of the cervical vertebra? 10. Striae occur as a result of __
1. It has no body A. Wound healing
2. Has a transverse foramen B. Clogged sebaceous gland
3. Bifid spinous process C. Improper skin formation
A. 1 only D. Weight gain
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only 11. Anna was born with albinism. This places her at risk
D. 2 and 3 only of __
A. Autoimmune disease
5. How much is the maximum penalty imposes to B. Sunburn
illegal practitioner of Radiologic Technology C. Infectious disease
profession according to section 26 of RA 7431? D. Skin disease
A. P 40, 000.00
B. P 50, 000.00
C. P 30, 000.00 12. You have just learned that a friend was diagnosed
D. P 60, 000.00 with purpura urticans and another is cyanotic. You
know from your medical terminology class that the
person with purpura urticans has __ dots on the skin
and the person with cyanosis has skin appearing __
6. The stomach is found __ to the urinary bladder and in coloration.
__ to the diaphragm. A. Purple; bluish
A. Superior; inferior B. Bluish; purple
B. Inferior; anterior C. Yellow; white
C. Inferior; superior D. Pink; rosy
 2. It has an angulation of 20 degrees from
13. What is the requirement for the practice of the midsagittal plane
Radiologic Technology as defined in section 15 of RA 3. It has an angulation of 30 degrees from
7431? the coronal plane
A. Certificate of registration issued by the BORT A. 1 only
B. Professional license issued by the PRC B. 1 and 2 only
C. Continuing professional education units C. 2 and 3 only
D. College diploma and Transcript of Records D. All of the above

14. The excessive swallowing of air while eating or 21. It is considered as the functional and structural unit
drinking of the kidney.
A. Aerophalgia A. Nephrons
B. Airophagia B. Glomerulus
C. Aerophagia C. Renal corpuscle
D. Airophalgia D. Bowman’s capsule

15. Considered to be the functional units of the lung. 22. Right kidney is situated in a lower level than the right
A. Bronchi kidney. This is due to what reason?
B. Alveoli A. The right ureter is shorter than the left
C. Pulmonary lobes B. Due to the presence of the spleen
D. Pulmonary segments C. Due to the presence of the liver
D. None of the above
16. Commonly known as the adam’s apple, it is
described as an enlargement of the thyroid cartilage. 23. It is the male primary organ for copulation.
A. Laryngeal prominence 1. Penis
B. Epiglottis 2. Phallos
C. Cricoid cartilage 3. Priapus
D. Epiglottic cartilage A. 1only
B. 1 and 2 only
17. It is considered as the topmost portion of a lung. C. 2 and 3 only
A. Apical region D. All of the above
B. Costophrenic angle
C. Mediastinum 24. Median aperture is also called as __.
D. Cardiophrenic angle A. Foramen of Luschka
B. Foramen of Magendie
18. What happens when an individual inspires air? C. Cerebral Aqueduct
1. The diaphragm depresses D. Foramen of Monro
2. The lungs expand
3. The intercostal muscles depress 25. What is the function of having an intervertebral disk
A. 1 only located in between the vertebral bodies?
B. 1 and 2 only A. For decoration
C. 2 and 3 only B. Additional height
D. All of the above C. Shock absorbers
D. For stability

19. Kidneys are located in a retroperitoneal fashion. 26. It functions as a protective covering of the brain
Retroperitoneal means __. aside from the cranium bone.
A. Located above the peritoneum 1. Cerebrospinal fluid
B. Located behind the peritoneum 2. Meninges
C. Located at the bottom of the peritoneum 3. Gray matter
D. Located below the stomach A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
20. Which of the following statements below regarding C. 2 and 3 only
the kidney is/are considered TRUE? D. All of the above
th
1. It is located between the 12 thoracic
th
vertebra and the 4 lumbar vertebra
27. Minute orifices where tears pass from the gland to D. 1, 2 and 3
the lacrimal ducts
A. Puncta Lacrimalia 35. The following statements below regarding the
B. Upper canaliculus function of the skeletal system are correct, EXCEPT:
C. Lower Punctum A. The bones act as factories for blood cell
D. Upper Punctum production
B. Bone tissue stores 20% of the body’s calcium
28. Paranasal sinuses become completely developed at C. The skeletal system provides no help during
what age? the movement of an individual
A. 6th year D. Provides a skeletal framework for the body
B. 10th year
C. 15th year 36. A long bone has long longitudinal axes and expanded
D. 17th year ends. Which of the following are examples of a long
bone?
29. It is regarded as the longest and most movable part A. Scapula
of the colon. B. Metacarpals
A. Ascending colon C. Vertebra
B. Descending colon D. Patella
C. Transverse colon
D. Sigmoid colon 37. It is a tough covering of dense connective tissue
which completely encloses the bone except in the
30. The greater curvature of the stomach can be found articular cartilage
on what side of the body? A. Periosteum
A. Anterior B. Epiphysis
B. Right side C. Diaphysis
C. Left side D. Hyaline cartilage
D. Posterior
38. What is the title of Article 4 of the Code of Professional
31. Type of stomach wherein the incisura angularis and Ethics for Radiologic Technologist and X-ray
pyloric canal are on the same level. Technologist?
A. Eutonic A. Relation with the state and society
B. Cascade B. Relation to Agency
C. Hypotonic C. Relationship with Patients/Clients
D. Steerhorn D. Relation with other Allied Profession

32. It refers to the idea that the goal of society should be to 39. Which of the following statements below is TRUE?
bring about the greatest number of people? A. The humerus is distal to the radius.
A. Virtue B. The ribs are superficial to the skin of the chest
B. Deontology and back.
C. Utilitarianism C. The gallbladder and ascending colon are
D. Ethics ipsilateral.
D. The heart is inferior to the liver.
33. Which of the following best describes the
relationship between the esophagus and trachea? 40. Which of the following phalanges only demonstrates
A. Esophagus is posterior to the trachea an interphalangeal joint?
B. Trachea is posterior to the esophagus A. 1st finger C. 4th finger
C. Esophagus is lateral to the trachea B. 2nd finger D. 5th finger
D. Trachea is lateral to the esophagus
34. Which of the following is/are considered to be a 41. Calcaneal tuberosity serves as an attachment for
function of the skeletal system? what tendon?
1. It serves as the structural framework A. Ligamentum Capitis
for the body. B. Achilles tendon
2. Protects the most important internal C. Fovea capitis
organs from injury. D. Triceps brachii
3. Assist during body movement
A. 1 only 42. Which of the following muscles found in the
B. 2 and 3 only abdomen is a criteria for good abdomen radiograph?
C. 1 and 2 only A. Rectus abdominis
 B. Linea Alba A. Menopause
C. Latissimus Dorsi B. Dysmenorrhea
D. Psoas Muscle C. Amenorrhea
D. Menarche
43. A Radiologic Technologist is acting in accord with Rad.
Tech. code of ethics must at all times act with: 51. Amniocentesis is a surgical aspiration of amniotic
A. Dignity and honesty fluid with the use of a needle to puncture. The
B. Honesty and worth amniotic fluid is mostly composed of which of the
C. Honesty and dignity following?
D. Dignity and sincerity A. Mother’s urine
B. Mother’s blood
44. It is considered to be the largest artery of the human C. Fetus’s urine
body D. Fetus’s blood
A. Aorta
B. Inferior vena cava 52. Considered as a ductless gland, the endocrine
C. Thoracic Aorta system delivers hormone to its target organs
D. Abdominal Aorta through the __.
A. Fistula
45. This is the ratio between the maximum transverse B. Blood stream
diameter of the heart and the maximum width of the C. Pituitary gland
thorax above the costophrenic angles, measured D. Saliva
from the inner edges of the ribs.
A. Thoracic Ratio 53. Which of the following areas in the brain is
B. Costophrenic Ratio considered to control three of the four vital signs?
C. Cardiac Ratio A. Pons
D. Cardiothoracic Ratio B. Cerebrum
C. Brainstem
46. It is the study of what is normally obligatory, D. Medulla oblongata
permissible right or wrong?
A. Virtue 54. Considered as a temporary organ, its purpose is to
B. Deontology exchange nutrients and oxygen from mother to fetus
C. Utilitarianism and waste products from fetus to mother for
D. Ethics excretion.
A. Spermatic cord
47. How many articles are there in the Code of Ethics for B. Amniotic sac
Radiologic Technology? C. Placenta
A. 4 D. Umbilical cord
B. 5
C. 6 55. Also known as nose bleed, it is caused by dry air, an
D. 7 injury, medication to prevent blood clotting, or high
blood pressure
48. What vessel contains the highest amount of oxygen A. Allergic Rhinitis
concentration? B. Epistaxis
A. Pulmonary arteries C. Rhinorrhea
B. Coronary Arteries D. Sinusitis
C. Pulmonary veins
D. Aorta
st
56. The 1 metacarpophalangeal joint is found in
49. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT? between the first metacarpal and what carpal bone?
A. Periosteum surrounds the external bone A. Trapezium
surface along the diaphysis B. Trapezoid
B. Epiphyseal growth plate can be found within C. Capitate
the articular cartilage D. Hamate
C. The diaphysis is the main portion of the bone
D. Medullary cavity is also known as the marrow 57. A structure of the ulnar bone which receives the
cavity condyles of the humerus.
A. Radial notch
50. Term used to denote the first menstruation. B. Trochlear notch
 C. Olecranon process B. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
D. Ulnar notch C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5
58. A part of the humerus so named because it is a
common site for humeral fracture. 64. Patient transfers from cart to x-ray table and back to
A. Bicipital Groove back should be performed:
B. Anatomical neck A. By the radiographer alone if the patient is
C. Lesser tubercle ambulatory
D. Surgical neck B. By two or more radiographers to ensure
patient and radiographer safety
59. It is the lateral end of the clavicle. C. By the radiographer alone if the department is
A. Sternal end short staffed
B. Acromial end D. By the radiographer alone so as not to
C. Lateral border frighten the patient
D. Medial border
65. A patient history should be taken by the
60. Which of the following statements describes a radiographer:
female type of pelvis? A. To assist the radiologist with interpretation of
A. Has a heart shape pelvis the radiographs
B. Iliac wing/ala is narrowed and deep B. To verify patient name and condition
C. Pubic arch demonstrates an obtuse angle C. To assist the radiographer in understanding
D. Pubic arch demonstrates an acute angle the patient’s injury and range of motion
D. All of the above
61. A collective term used to describe the different
planes which divides the abdomen into 9 regions. 66. If the radiographer touches hazardous chemicals,
A. Celiac what must be done first?
B. Lapar A. Rinse immediately with warm water
C. Transtubercular plane B. Rinse immediately with cool water for at least
D. Addisons plane 5 minutes
C. Rinse immediately with cool water for at least
62. The concept of the reasonably prudent person is 15 minutes
interpreted as: D. Rinse with the warmest water that can be
A. How a reasonable jury member would tolerated
perform the act
B. How a professional with similar education, 68. When putting on gloves for a procedure, which of
training, experience would perform the act the following should occur first?
C. How a prudent attorney would interpret the A. Carefully open glove package and avoid
act touching outside of gloves
D. How a reasonable and prudent judge would B. Wash hands
rule the act C. Place glove package in center of sterile field in
preparation for the procedure
6. Which of the following is/are a symptom/s of a D. Put on one glove immediately so that hand is
contrast agent reaction? protected and the other is free
A. Hoarseness
B. Sneezing
C. Urticaria
D. All are symptoms 69. Which of the following statements apply when
63. Which of the following statements are true radiography is performed on a trauma patient?
concerning valid (informed) consent? 1. Work quickly and efficiently
1. Patient must be of legal age 2. Patient may be left alone if
2. Patient must be given a brochure unconscious
describing the risks of the procedure in 3. Spinal injury may be ruled out if patient
lay terms is not on a spine board or wearing a
3. Consent must be offered voluntarily cervical collar
4. Patient must be mentally competent 4. Observe for changes in wound dressing
5. Patient must completely understand all while performing radiography
aspects of the procedure 5. Document in writing changes in patient
A. 1, 3 and 4 condition
 A. 1, 3 and 4 B. Tackle box
B. 1, 2 and 3 C. IVP cabinet
C. 1, 4 and 5 D. Code blue cabinet
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
77. What condition is caused by loss of large amount of
70. Because barium enemas increase the possibility blood or plasma?
contact between body substances and clothing, the A. Anaphylaxis
radiographer should always wear: B. Cardiogenic shock
A. Disposable gowns or surgical scrubs C. Hypovolemic shock
B. Head covering D. Septic shock
C. Shoe covering
D. A regular hospital uniform 78. What should the radiographer do first when it is
suspected a patient is going into shock?
71. A radiographer should wear eye protection: A. Call for assistance
A. Anytime blood may be present B. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
B. Anytime an injection is being made C. Take the patient’s blood pressure to confirm
C. Anytime there is a possibility of blood shock status
splashing D. Administer oxygen
D. With nearly all patients
79. Which of the following statements are true
72. Hands should be washed: concerning positive contrast media?
A. At least five times during each shift to help 1. Air is the most commonly used
stop the spread of infections 2. Aqueous iodine compounds may be
B. After contact with each patient and before used if perforations are suspected
touching equipment and other patients 3. Barium should be mixed with cold
C. Every hour regardless of patient contact water for retrograde administration
D. Both with and without gloves 4. Nonionic contrast media are ideal for
injection because they do not contain
73. What is used for total protection of the health care iodine, reducing the risk of reactions
worker from every method of transmission possible 5. Barium is an inert substance
in the work setting? 6. Aqueous iodine compounds may cause
A. Strict isolation serious dehydration
B. Respiratory isolation 7. Barium is a surgical contaminant
C. Enteric isolation A. 2, 4, 6 and 7
D. Body substance precautions B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
C. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 7
74. Assessment of changing patient conditions includes D. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 and 7
observing for:
A. Skin that becomes cool and diaphoretic 80. A reaction at the site of injection of iodinated
B. Patient expressions of discomfort or dizziness contrast media may be caused by:
C. Lips or nail beds that become cyanotic A. Extravasation of contrast agent
D. All of the above indicate changing patient B. Allergy to seafood
conditions C. Anaphylaxis
D. Allergy to certain medications

75. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg reveals that: 81. After injection of iodinated contrast media, the
A. The pressure is 120 mm Hg when the heart is radiographer should:
at rest A. Leave the patient to rest
B. The diastolic pressure is 120 mm Hg B. Remain with the patient and have a
C. The systolic pressure is 80 mm Hg conversation with the patient, listening for
D. The pressure is 80 mm Hg when the heart is at signs of laryngeal swelling
rest C. Tell the patient a funny story as a means to
allaying anxiety about the procedure
76. Which of the following contains all the instruments D. Alert a radiologist
and medications necessary for dealing with cardiac
arrest? 82. At the first indication of contrast agent reaction, the
A. Crash cart radiographer should:
 A. Immediately shout for help C. Notify the department supervisor or the
B. Stop the examination and obtain help so as attending physician of the change in the
not to alarm the patient patient’s condition
C. Continue with the examination because most D. Sound an emergency code alert
reactions turn out to be minor
D. Call a code blue 87. The radiographer must be proficient in the use of
which of the following medical instruments?
83. Air must not be injected when performing A. Angiography catheter
venipuncture because: B. Sphygmomanometer
A. An air embolus would form that may be fatal C. Thermometer
to the patient D. Oxygen administration equipment
B. Most examinations requiring injection are not
air contrast studies 88. A tube used to feed a patient or to perform gastric
C. It would interfere with the iodine suction is called a:
D. It would prevent visualization of the iodine A. Tracheostomy tube
B. Tracheotomy tube
84. Place the following steps for performing C. Nasograstic tube
venipuncture in the proper order. D. Ventilator tube
1. Secure tourniquet in place
2. Thoroughly cleanse the skin 89. Nosocomial infections are acquired:
3. Wash hands A. In radiology
4. Select vein B. Through the nose
5. Put on gloves C. During cold and flu season
6. Perform puncture D. In the health care setting
7. Cover wound and compress site
8. Inject contrast agent 90. When sterile fields are prepared, damp packages:
9. Check wound for swelling A. Are always considered contaminated
10. Observe blood return B. Are always considered sterile because the
A. 5, 4, 1, 6, 8, 7 dampness confirms they were cleaned
B. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2, 6, 10, 8, 7, 9 C. Should be unwrapped first and placed in the
C. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 10, 8, 7, 9 center of the sterile field
D. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 8, 9, 10, 7 D. Are always considered sterile; the dampness
is a remnant of the gassing process
85. If medication needs to be ordered for a patient in
the radiology department, a physician always: 91. When mobile radiography is performed, the
1. Chooses the drug and the dosage mobile unit:
2. Selects the route of administration A. Does not have to be cleaned because it is
3. Administers the drug never in contact with sterile fields
A. 1 and 2 only B. Must be cleaned before and after each use
B. 1 and 3 only C. Must be cleaned before it is brought into
C. 2 and 3 only surgical areas or revers isolation units
D. All of the above D. Must be cleaned before it is brought into
surgical areas or reverse isolation units and
after its removal from most isolation units

86. A patient who has sustained a head injury in a motor

vehicle accident arrived in the radiology department 92. In addition to performing radiography on a trauma
alert and well oriented. While radiographing the victim, the radiographer should be:
patient, the radiographer observed that the patient 1. Assessing the patient’s condition
was becoming drowsy, irritable, and less coherent. continually
Which of the following would be the correct action 2. Interpreting the radiographs for the
for the radiographer to take? emergency department physician
A. Continue the radiographic examination 3. Taking additional projections as
B. Ignore the changes in the patient’s condition indicated by the patient’s condition or
and place the patient back on the stretcher preliminary radiographs
after completing the examination 4. Keeping all other health care workers
out of the room because of radiation
protection standards
 5. Providing comfort and communicating 99. While doing a radiographic procedure on your client,
quietly with the patient, whether the he accidentally falls of the x-ray table. What doing this
patient is conscious or unconscious show of the person in charge?
A. 1 and 3 A. Negligence
B. All are true B. Malpractice
C. 1, 3 and 5 C. Incompetence
D. 1, 3, 4 and 5 D. Beneficence

93. When scheduling radiographic examinations: 100. A member of the board at the time of appointment
A. Schedule barium studies first to get them over must have how many years of practice?
with A. 5 years
B. Schedule special studies for the afternoon B. 8 years
C. Schedule barium studies last C. 9 years
D. Always schedule a scout CT scan first D. 10 years

94. What is the maximum period of imprisonment

imposed to illegal practitioner of Radiologic
Technology profession as defined in section 26 of RA
7431?
A. 5 years
B. 6 years
C. 7 years
D. 9 years

95. What is the minimum length of practice of x-ray

technician in order for him to be qualified for the
Grand Father’s Clause and be exempted from taking
the board examinations?
A. 10 years prior to 1992
B. 10 years after to 1992
C. 5 years prior to 1992
D. 5 years after to 1992

96. A certificate of registration to practice is issued by:

A. Philippine Association of Radiologic
Technologist (PART)
B. Board of Radiologic Technology (BORT)
C. Philippine Regulation Commission (PRC)
D. President of the Philippines

97. It refers to the action that is done for the benefit of

others.
A. Maleficence
B. Autonomy
C. Beneficence
D. Malfeasance
98. Which of the following are examples of intentional
tort?
1. Assault
2. Battery
3. False imprisonment
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3