Model Exam -2

1. A greenhouse gas produced by bacterial decay of organic matter and in the stomachs of
cattle, sheep, termites, and other organisms responsible for approximately 12 percent
of the global warming
A. N2O
B. CO2
C. CH4
D. CFCs
ANSWER: B
2. The major environmental problem of the agricultural sector is Ethiopia is?
A. Land degradation
B. Overgrazing
C. Deforestation
D. Soil erosion
ANSWER: A
3. The first time United Nations meeting on Environmental issues or the first earth summit
was?
A. Stockholm convention
B. Rio convention
C. Basel convention
D. Kyoto protocol
ANSWER: A
4. ________is an ethical and political movement that seeks to improve and protect the
quality of the natural environment through the adoption of forms of political, economic,
and social organization that are thought to be necessary for or at least conducive to
the benign treatment of the environment by humans and through a reassessment
of humanity’s relationship with nature
A. Environmentalism
B. Environmental Justice
C. Environmental sustainability
D. Environmental system
ANSWER: A
 5. All are tools to ensure ecologically sustainable development except one?
A. Fossil fuel consumption
B. Green infrastructure
C. Investment in Renewable energy
D. Zero emission plans
ANSWER: A
6. All are major global and regional environmental problems except one
A. Loss of biodiversity
B. Civil strife
C. Climate change
D. Acid rain
ANSWER: B
7. _______ is a common philosophy of environmental science that can be defined as a
maximum number of organisms a particular resource can sustain
A. Ecological sustainability
B. Sustainable development
C. Carrying capacity
D. Biodiversity
ANSWER: C
8. _________is a cradle to grave analysis to assess the environmental impacts associated
with all the stages of a products life which is from raw material extraction through
materials processing, manufacture, distribution, and use
A. Life cycle assessment
B. Carbon footprint
C. Ecological footprint
D. Water footprint
ANSWER: A
9. Which of the following statement is wrong about place based environmental education
A. Emphasizes a reconnection of people to the natural and human worlds in which they live
B. Emphasize a multidisciplinary approach to considering the traditional and divided subject
areas taught in the public school system
C. It is inherently multidisciplinary, experiential and its goal majorly “learn to earn”
D. The content is specific to the geography, ecology, sociology, politics, and other dynamics
of that place
ANSWER: C
10. _____ is one way transfer of information to audience in order to affect attitude and
provoke adaption of certain behavior
A. Communication
B. Education
C. Teaching
D. Propaganda
ANSWER: D
11. Which of the following statement indicates altruistic environmental behaviour
A. Planting more trees for obtaining support and recognition letter
B. Forest fire extinguishing even though it has a cost
C. Deforestation in favour of agricultural extensification
D. Collection and midnight disposal of solid waste
ANSWER: B
12. According to new environmental paradigm (NEP), which of the following statement is
incorrect
A. Earth provides limitless resource, sustainability is not a concern.
B. It was inspired by the publication of Rachel Carson’s ‘Silent Spring’
C. Humans are seriously abusing the environment
D. Plants and animals have as much right as humans to exist
ANSWER: A
13. Helping individuals and social groups acquire social values contributes to the
development of_______
A. Environmental awareness
B. Environmental skills
C. Environmental attitude
D. Environmental participation
ANSWER: C
14. Which of the following statement is inaccurate about environmental education?
A. Considering environment in totality
B. Maximizing economic growth through resource extraction
C. Safeguarding biodiversity
D. Pollution reduction through multiple strategies
ANSWER: B
 15. A classroom communication should be
A. Trainer centered
B. Learner centered
C. Textbook centered
D. Not objective based
ANSWER: B
16. In which of the following methods of teaching environmental education do the
participation of learner is minimum?
A. Project method
B. Small group discussion
C. Field trip
D. Lecture
ANSWER: D
17. Mercury, lead, copper, PCBs and DDT, etc. are an example of
A. Intentionally produced organic pollutants
B. Volatile pollutants
C. Inorganic pollutants
D. Non-biodegradable
ANSWER: D
18. Oil spills are generally described as most common pollutant of
A. Surface water
B. Ground water
C. Ocean
D. Soil
ANSWER: C
19. Which of the following environmental pollution has more local effects?
A. Air pollution
B. Noise pollution
C. Cross-country river pollution
D. Volatile organic pollutants
ANSWER: B
20. Dysentery, cholera, typhoid and jaundice are caused by
A. Air pollution
B. Water pollution
C. Noise pollution
D. Solid waste
ANSWER: B
21. Which of the pollutant is purely anthropogenic?
A. CO2
B. CFCs
C. SO2
D. Pollens
ANSWER: B
22. Each of the following are reasons why not to overcome environmental problems except
A. Because too much awareness about the damage resulted in neglectance
B. Lack of advanced technologies which can turn potential pollutants to less harmful
C. Because of the complexity of the pollution system
D. Because of the low initiation of the businessmen to pay for what they damaged
ANSWER: A
23. Which of the following activity can help to overcome environmental pollution?
A. Enhancing utilization of non-biodegradable products
B. Encouraging fugitive release of waste by manufacturing industries
C. Spreading environmental consciousness of society
D. Altering production process to more energy consuming one
ANSWER: C
24. Which of the disasters is more related to anthropogenic activities?
A. Turbulence of Sahara desert
B. Philippine’s volcanic eruption
C. Chernobyl nuclear accident
D. Botswana forest fire
ANSWER: C
25. Secondary air pollutants
A. Are released into atmosphere from specific source
B. Are formed by chemical reactions in the atmosphere
C. Are released into atmosphere from multiple source
D. Have only local effects
ANSWER: B
 26. Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) are synthetic chemicals widely used in a number
of industrial and consumer products. However, some these chemicals are
unintentionally produced as by products. Which of the following is unintentionally
produced POPs?
A. Polychlorinated biphenyl (PCBs)
B. Polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins (PCDDs)
C. Hexachlorobenzene (HCB)
D. Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane(DDT)
ANSWER: B
27. Mass killing diseases can be referred as
A. Biological disaster
B. Industrial disaster
C. Hydrological disaster
D. Metrological disaster
ANSWER: A
28. Which one of the following is a predominant hazard in Ethiopia?
A. Flood
B. Drought
C. Landslide
D. Earth quake
ANSWER: B
29. What are the three phases of disaster management planning?
A. Evacuating, Rebuilding and Re-branding
B. Preparation, Planning and Perception
C. Planning, Evacuating and Recovery
D. Preparation, Response and Recovery
ANSWER: B
30. What are the important measures to be taken in community level of disaster
preparedness?
A. Crisis assessment for rehabilitation
B. Provision of early and timely warning
C. Provide basic needs for treated society
D. Give first aid for treated
ANSWER: B
 31. Which natural hazard has caused the greatest number of deaths in a single event?
A. hurricanes
B. Earthquakes
C. Volcanic eruptions and related disasters
D. Floods
ANSWER: B
32. Which of the following activities is covered by disaster management before disaster
strike?
A. Reconstruction and Rehabilitation
B. Emergency response
C. Prevention and Mitigation
D. Need assessment
ANSWER: C
33. Which of the following is not an environmental consequence of floods?
A. Release of pollutants into waterways
B. Dispersal of weed species
C. Increase productivity
D. Erosion of soil
ANSWER: C
34. Which of the following cannot reduce the risk of flooding?
A. Dams, detention basins and levees
B. Zonings and building regulations for new developments
C. Flood awareness and education programs
D. settle people from flooding zone
ANSWER: D
35. High vulnerability and high hazard are associated with
A. Low Vulnerability
B. Low disaster risk
C. Medium disaster risk
D. High disaster risk
ANSWER: D
36. Hazards and Disasters are mainly classified as
A. Physical and chemical
B. Natural and Human induced
C. Physical and Human
D. Social and cultural
ANSWER: B
37. Which one of the following is one of the international initiatives that developed to build
resilience of nations and community to disaster?
A. Yokohama framework
B. Hygo framework
C. Sendai framework
D. Sustainable development
ANSWER: B
38. Solid wastes are all the wastes arising from human and animal activities and found in
different forms as dust, rubbish, garbage and refuse. What does garbage mean?
A. Solid waste generating from public and government institutions
B. Wastes resulting from the growing, handling, preparation, cooking, and serving of food
C. Solid wastes generated from demolition of existing structures
D. Residue wastes resulted from fires used for cooking
ANSWER: B
39. Different technical options and alternative methods can be employed for hazardous
waste treatment; which one of the following is considered as biological treatment
method for hazardous waste?
A. Oxidation
B. Activated sludge
C. Hydrolysis
D. Evaporation
ANSWER: B
40. ___________is waste transportation method; and used where the distance from
temporary storage to the final disposal site is great and the volume of waste to be
transported is high.
A. Animal powered transportation
B. Motorized vehicles transportation
C. Human-powered transportation
D. Using handcarts
ANSWER: B
 41. The least preferred method of waste treatment in the waste management hierarchy is
__________
A. Controlled burning at high temperatures
B. Source reduction
C. Land filling
D. Energy recovery
ANSWER: C
42. ______________refers to the removal of items from the waste stream to be used as raw
materials in the manufacture of new products.
A. Recycling
B. Reuse
C. Resource recovery
D. Incineration
ANSWER: A
43. Which one of the following is false concerning to municipal solid waste generation
rates?
A. The higher the economic development, the greater the amount of municipal solid waste
produced.
B. As living standards increase, the amount of municipal solid waste generated increase.
C. Low income countries produce the most solid waste per capita, while high-income
countries produce the least solid waste per capita.
D. As population of one country increase, the generation rate of solid waste increases.
ANSWER: C
44. The greatest concern for hazardous waste effects are usually on __________________.
A. Biosphere
B. Lithosphere
C. Atmosphere
D. Hydrosphere
ANSWER: A
45. All of the followings are true regarding to waste management practices except;
___________.
A. Waste management practices are not uniform among developed and developing nations
B. Management for non-hazardous waste residential and institutional waste in metropolitan
areas is usually the responsibility of local government authorities
C. Residential and industrial sectors can all take similar management approaches in waste
management practices
D. Management practices for nonhazardous commercial and industrial waste is usually the
responsibility of waste generators
ANSWER: C
46. If a certain water sample is analyzed for its electrical conductivity (EC) and found to
be high EC value, what can we conclude about the sample?
A. The was taken from rain water
B. The sample contains high dissolved substances
C. The sample contains high BOD also
D. The sample contains high suspended matter
ANSWER: B
47. The last step in soil sampling is
A. Extraction of available nutrients
B. Interpretation of results
C. Deciding when and how to take soil sample
D. Preparation of soil for analysis
ANSWER: B
48. Which of the following equipment is not used in soil sampling?
A. Shovels
B. Augers
C. Bailer
D. Sieve
ANSWER: C
49. Which of the following type of environmental sampling requires greatest care as
compared to other in terms of it effect?
A. Water Sampling
B. Hazardous waste sampling
C. Air Sampling
D. Soil Sampling
ANSWER: B
50. Which of the following statement best describes biased sample?
A. It precisely indicate the expected result
B. Accurately convey scientific information
C. Leads to over or under representation of variables
D. Does not have problem if it done by experienced person
ANSWER: C
51. _______a type of sample used when every member of population is equally likely to
be included.
A. Stratified sampling
B. Random sampling
C. Systematic sampling
D. Purposive sampling
ANSWER: B
52. A palatable water is
A. Treated wastewater
B. Untreated wastewater
C. Safe, drinking water
D. Pleasant but not used for drinking
ANSWER: D
53. Which of the following is true about potable water in Ethiopia?
A. Should have a pH in the range of 5.5 up to 9
B. Free from any coliform
C. Have fluoride > 1.2mg/L
D. Should contain iron >1mg/L
ANSWER: B
54. Which of the following water pollutant cannot be removed by physical means?
A. Turbidity
B. Phosphorus
C. Large debris
D. Visible organics
ANSWER: B
55. A water treatment plant is characterized by each of the followings except
A. Located near rivers and streams
B. Easily manageable
C. Practically treat to the level of standard
D. Inculcate some advanced treatment equipment
ANSWER: A
 56. ‘Wuha agar’ a commonly used water treatment method in rural areas of our country has
a capacity to treat _____
A. Suspended matter
B. Nitrogen
C. Pathogens
D. Water hardness
ANSWER: C
57. Which of the following statement is true about point source water pollution
A. Formed by chemical reactions in aquatic media
B. Released from multiple unidentifiable sources
C. Cannot be easily regulated
D. It is termed as ‘end of the pipe pollution’
ANSWER: D
58. After sufficient treatment, the treated water is recommended to use for some appropriate
purpose. Why do you think that the treated water should be used?
A. Because of the legislative mandatory
B. Just for the sake of conservation of resource
C. For its suitability for drinking
D. It is unethical to use treated wastewater
ANSWER: B
59. Polluted water has each of the following effects except
A. Enhance reproduction of aquatic animals
B. Decrease dissolved oxygen content
C. Conversion of oligotrophic to autotrophic
D. Outbreak of water borne diseases
ANSWER: A
60. _____is the slow mixing process that causes smaller particles to merge into larger
particles that settle more easily.
A. Coagulation
B. Flocculation
C. Sedimentation
D. Filtration
ANSWER: B
 61. The purpose of flocculation is to
A. Destabilize colloidal particles
B. Increase particle size
C. Decrease sludge
D. Decrease filter run times
ANSWER: B
62. When EIA become a legally required procedure in Ethiopia and USA respectively?
A. 1960/1995
B. 2002/1970
C. 1995/1960
D. 1970/2002
ANSWER: B
63. Which one of the following aspects related to ESIA is not mentioned in the
environmental policy of Ethiopia?
A. Establishment of institutional framework
B. Formulation of legal frameworks
C. Consideration of socio-economic and cultural impacts
D. Inclusion and exclusion lists of projects
ANSWER: D
64. Which one of the following institution is currently a leading federal institution in
Ethiopia with respect to Environmental issues, including ESIA issues?
A. Ministry of Environment and Forest
B. Environment, Forest and Climate Change Commission
C. Environmental Protection Authority
D. United Nation Environmental Program
ANSWER: C
65. Which one of the following statement is correct about scoping?
A. Scoping is an activity or event but not a process
B. Scoping identifies the main issues and impacts for further investigation
C. Scoping process predicts the likely impacts of a proposed project
D. Scoping process starts immediately after project registration
ANSWER: B
66. Which one of the following is the initial step in the main EIA process?
A. Scoping
B. Screening
C. Project registration
D. Prescreening
ANSWER: B
67. Which one of the following is the most commonly and widely used scoping tool?
A. Checklists
B. Matrices
C. Network diagrams
D. GIS
ANSWER: A
68. Which one of the following is not among the objectives of mitigation measures?
A. Prevention or avoidance of impacts
B. Minimization or reduction of impacts
C. Compensation for an impacts
D. Minimization of beneficial effects
ANSWER: D
69. Which one of the following aspect is the key for EIA decision making?
A. Review result
B. Decision maker’s political mandates and responsibility
C. Economic policies and views of decision makers
D. Employment opportunity
ANSWER: A
70. One of the following is not among the guiding principles of EIA?
A. Participation
B. Multidisciplinary
C. Late application
D. Systematic
ANSWER: C
71. Which article of our constitution specifically considered the needs of ESIA?
A. 94
B. 93
C. 92
D. 91
ANSWER: C
 72. One of the following ISO standards is set to give organizations’ a systematic approach
for meeting their customer objectives
A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 14001
C. ISO 14011
D. ISO 14012
ANSWER: A
73. __________ is a process where by an organization's environmental performance is
tested against its environmental policies and objectives
A. Environmental Management System
B. Environmental Auditing
C. Environmental Impact Assessment
D. Integrated environmental assessment
ANSWER: B
74. Which one of the following environmental auditing objective is used to formulate the
organization's environmental policy if there is no existing policy?
A. Conformity verification
B. Measuring performance
C. Problem identification
D. Environmental policy formation
ANSWER: D
75. The most common type of audit consisting of checks against environmental legislation
and company policy is_________.
A. Management review audit
B. Internal audit
C. Compliance audit
D. External audit
ANSWER: C
76. ____________is the foundation upon which the rest of the management system is built
A. Environmental audit
B. Environmental review
C. Environmental Management System
D. Quality Management System
ANSWER: C
77. Which one of the following is not the advantage of the firm of considering how it can
keep track of changes in legal requirements?
A. Enables to meet objectives and goals set
B. Provides the firms acceptance
C. Helps debate from l compliance
D. Enhances organizational economic development
ANSWER: C
78. __________ensures the incorporation of desirable and appropriate steps to mitigate or
reduce environmental impacts from the project activities at the project planning stages
A. Environmental resources assessment
B. Environmental and social impacts assessment
C. Environmental management system plan
D. Environmental Audit
ANSWER: C
79. At which stage of EMS the identification of environmental goals, objectives and targets
of the organization are set?
A. Management review stage
B. Planning stage
C. Implementation and operation stage
D. Checking and corrective action stage
ANSWER: B
80. Which one of the following alternative is wrong about the characteristics of good
objectives and targets of Environmental Management System of an organization?
A. Practical or attainability
B. Merely dreams or list of wishes
C. Realistic
D. Reasonability and participatory
ANSWER: B
 81. Which one of the following is correct about criteria used for species selection for
toxicity testing?
A. The species should be highly resistant for toxicants.
B. The species should have long life span and long-life cycle phase.
C. The species should be easily identified and for which there is adequate background
biological and toxicological information
D. The species should be near to decomposers within a food chain.
ANSWER: C
82. Carbon tetrachloride and ethanol are hepatotoxic when given separately. But when they
are given together they produce much more injury than the sum of their individual
effects. What type of effect is it?
A. Additive
B. Antogonistic
C. Synergistic
D. Potentiation
ANSWER: C
83. It is difficult to study and determine ecotoxicological responses at population,
community and ecosystem levels for the following reasons except one:
A. Responses at higher organizational levels are normally much more specific to toxicants.
B. Toxic effects will only be expressed at a higher level of biological organization when
compensation fails at the lower levels.
C. Degree of biological complexity and variability increases as one moves up the ladder of
biological organization
D. Expression of toxic effects at population and higher levels typically takes a relatively
short period of time
ANSWER: B
84. A researcher has determined the concentration of cadmium to be 0.15 mg/kg in algae,
0.27 mg/kg in macroinvertebrates which consume algae, 0.79 mg/kg in fish muscle
which eat macroinvertabrates and 1.12 mg/kg in human who eat fish. The character of
Cd expressed is:
A. Bioaccumulation
B. Biomagnification
C. Bioconcentration
D. Persistence
ANSWER: B
85. Which of the following toxicity can occur due to single exposure?
A. Acute toxicity
B. Sub-acute toxicity
C. Sub-chronic toxicity
D. Chronic toxicity
ANSWER: A
86. Administration by oral gavage of a test compound that is highly metabolized by the
liver versus subcutaneous injection will most likely result in:
A. Less parent compound present in the systemic circulation
B. More local irritation at the site of administration caused by the compound
C. Lower levels of metabolites in the systemic circulation
D. More systemic toxicity
ANSWER: A
87. Which one of the following is physiological level effects of toxicants?
A. Effects on DNA
B. Reduced Growth
C. Effects on Respiration
D. Changed age structure
ANSWER: C
88. Which organs are most affected by the toxic effects of mercury?
A. Brain
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Heart
ANSWER: A
89. The phrase that best defines "toxicodynamics" is the
A. Linkage between exposure and dose
B. Linkage between dose and response
C. Dynamic nature of toxic effects among various species
D. Dose range between desired biological effects and adverse health effects
ANSWER: B
90. The following are barriers of climate change adaptation except:
A. Poor potential for irrigation.
B. Reducing poverty.
C. Lack of knowledge.
D. Illiteracy
ANSWER: B
91. Which of the following strategy does not affect underlying vulnerability to climate
change?
A. Selling livestock
B. Changing livestock species
C. Soil and water conservation
D. Switching to improved seed
ANSWER: A
92. The ability to avoid potential hazards of climate change is:
A. Adaptive capacity
B. Vulnerability
C. Exposure
D. Sensitivity
ANSWER: A
93. Which one of the following is not considered as an option to reduce the climate change
and its impact?
A. Creation of awareness on risk management and implementing adaptation strategies
B. Enhancing the greenhouse gas emissions from different sectors
C. Net -zero energy building actions
D. Building of green infrastructure
ANSWER: B
94. The major anthropogenic causes of climate change significantly enhancing greenhouse
gas concentration in most developing countries is:
A. Fossil fuel combustion
B. Transportation
C. Deforestation
D. Industries
ANSWER: C

95. Energy associated with heat in the interior of the earth is called______
A. Biomass energy
B. Hydropower
C. Geothermal Energy
D. Wind Energy
ANSWER: C
96. Which of the following is primary energy resource?
A. Charcoal
B. Fuel wood
C. Electricity
D. Biodiesel
ANSWER: B
97. Which of the following is typical example as secondary energy resource?
A. Electricity
B. Fuel wood
C. Cow dung
D. Wind energy
ANSWER: A
98. Which of the following cannot be considered as the direct environmental effect of using
energy for day to day activities?
A. Air Pollution
B. Green House Effect
C. Water Pollution
D. Biodiversity loss
ANSWER: C
99. Renewable energy resources do have their own characteristics, which of the following
does not belong to these characteristics?
A. Can be replaced in a short time (Replenish ability)
B. Environmentally Friendliness
C. Inexhaustibility
D. Negative environmental effect
ANSWER: D

100. One of the following is the disadvantage of using biofuel energy resources over
conventional fossil fuels
A. Less amount of overall emission
B. Cheaper alternative
C. Expensiveness
D. Can be produced from various input types
ANSWER: C
101. Fossil fuels are usually formed through
A. Fast oxidation of inorganic compounds
B. Slow and long term decomposition of organic matters
C. Direct burning up of solid biomass
D. Pyrolysis of carbon containing matters
ANSWER: B
102. When we burn fuel wood in a stove, the heat energy released from the
combustion process originally comes from
A. The reaction between water vapor and oxygen in the air
B. The chemical bond of the biomass molecular structure
C. The reaction between the carbon in the biomass and the carbon dioxide in the air
D. Surrounding air
ANSWER: B
103. One of the following is not true
A. Energy & environmental problems are closely related
B. It is nearly impossible to produce, transport, or consume energy without affecting the
environment
C. Renewable energy replaces conventional fuels in transport sector
D. Fossil fuels provide more environmental advantage than renewable energy resources
ANSWER: D
104. Why are we still so unsure of the number of species on Earth?
A. Some areas remain little explored
B. Some species are very different in appearance
C. Many species are large and easily seen
D. We are sure about the number of species in the earth.
ANSWER: A
105. Of the following one is component of biological diversity which includes
genetic resources across the globe
A. Ecosystem diversity
B. Genetic diversity
C. Species diversity
D. Community
ANSWER: B
106. Of the following one is principal threats to biodiversity except.
A. Invasive species
B. Pollution
C. Over Population
D. Environmental enrichment
ANSWER: D
107. Of the following which one if false about in situ and ex situ conservation.
A. In-situ conservation is more dynamic, whereas ex-situ conservation is more static /fixed.
B. In-situ conservation is time consuming but more sustainable while ex-situ conservation
methods are aimed to use in conserving genetic components, in immediate occasions.
C. In-situ conservation is done in the natural habitats of the biodiversity components while
ex-situ conservation is done outside of their natural habitats.
D. In Ex-situ conservation, populations remain within the ecosystem involving the process of
evolution whereas, in in-situ conservation, they are not involving the natural evolution
process.
ANSWER: D
108. Community Gene Bank has the following significances except?
A. Diverse crop genetic resources
B. Provide full information about these resources
C. Broaden farmers' options regarding variety choice
D. Neglect diversity conservation
ANSWER: D
109. Which one is false about distribution of biodiversity across the globe?
A. Geography and the presence of other species affect biodiversity distribution.
B. Generally Diversity consistently measures higher in the tropics and lower in polar regions
C. Biodiversity is consistently distributed, rather it varies greatly across the globe as well as
within regions
D. Biodiversity is not evenly distributed, rather it varies greatly across the globe as well as
within regions
ANSWER: C
 110. Why Biodiversity Assessment/Measurement
A. To avoid priority setting and identifying conservation Strategies
B. To know distribution patterns of species and habitat
C. To misunderstand the status of our biodiversity resources
D. To increase negative impacts on the environment
ANSWER: B
111. The only global convention focusing attention on an ecosystem of wetlands is?
A. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES).
B. Convention on Migratory Species (CMS).
C. International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA).
D. Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
ANSWER: D
112. International Biodiversity Day” is celebrated on:
A. 22 March
B. 22 April
C. 22 May
D. 22 June
ANSWER: C
113. Which of the following is a definition of a watershed?
A. An area of land where all water drains to a central point like a river or a lake
B. An area on a mountain that stores water
C. An area of water that is polluted by human activities
D. A man-made structure that holds water
ANSWER: A
114. Which of the following statement is true?
A. Elliptical shape of watershed has high axial length and produces much amount of runoff
reach at the outlet at the same time.
B. Circular shape of watershed has high axial length and produces much amount of runoff
reach at the outlet at the same time.
C. Elliptical shape of watershed has high axial length and produces less amount of runoff
reach at the outlet at the same time.
D. Elliptical shape of watershed has less axial length and produces high amount of runoff
reach at the outlet at the same time.
ANSWER: C
115. Which of the following is/are NOT the causes of conflicts in the watershed
management?
A. Population growth
B. Even distribution of resources
C. Resources scarcity
D. Political interests
ANSWER: B
116. What makes a soil fertile?
A. Overabundance of acidic material in the soil
B. The right mix of mineral and inorganic matter
C. The right mix of mineral and organic matter
D. High level of salts in the soil
ANSWER: C
117. Which of the following soil horizon is known as zone of illuviation?
A. A-horizon
B. O-horizon
C. B-horizon
D. C-horizon
ANSWER: C
118. The process of converting plant materials and animal wastes in to inorganic
material is known as?
A. Mineralization
B. Immobilization
C. Fixation
D. Mobilization
ANSWER: A
119. Which of the following is the most primarily used in sodic soil amendment and
reclamation?
A. Gypsum
B. Sand
C. Concrete
D. Bitumen
ANSWER: A