IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

NEET GRAND TEST - 8

Date : 28.04.2024 (NEET MODEL) Time : 3hrs
STD : XII & LT SET – 1 Max. Marks : 720

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the

answer sheet.

Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

The question paper consists of four parts (Physics, Chemistry, Botany &

Zoology). Each part contains 50 questions.

In every part contains two sections A&B. Section-A : 35 Q; Section-B : 15 Q

Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS

CORRECT.

Candidate have attempt all the questions in Section-A and only 10 questions in

Section-B;

Marking Scheme :

Section-A : 35 questions – 140 Marks

Section-B : 15 Questions – 40 Marks

For each question in every part you will be awarded4 Marks if you darken the

bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark if no bubbles are

darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect answer.

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

GT - 8 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-28.04.2024
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
1. Find the value of 2.2+4.08+3.125+6.3755.
1) 15.78 2) 15.89 3) 15.8 4) 15.9
2. A stone falls from a balloon that is descending at a uniform rate of 12m/s. The
displacement of the stone from the point of release after 10 sec is
1) 400m 2) 510m 3) 610m 4) 725m
3. A train of 150 metre length is going towards north direction at a speed of 10m/s.
A parrot flies at the speed of 5m/s towards south direction parallel to the railway
track. The time taken by the parrot to cross the train is
1) 12 sec 2) 8 sec 3) 15 sec 4) 10 sec
4. A body is sliding down a rough inclined plane. The coefficient of friction between
the body and the plane is 0.5. The ratio of the net force required for the body to
slide down and the normal reaction on the body is 1 : 2. Then, the angle of the
inclined plane is
1)150 2) 300 3) 450 4) 600
5. A particle moves in one dimensional field with total mechanical energy E. If its
potential energy is U(x), then
1) particle has zero speed where U  x   0
2) particle has zero acceleration where U  x   E
dU  x 
3) particle has zero velocity where 0
dx
dU  x 
4) particle has zero acceleration where 0
dx
6. A uniform chain of length L hangs partially from table and held in equilibrium by
friction. If greatest length of chain that hangs without slipping is l then the
coefficient of friction between chain and table is
l l l l
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 Ll Ll L 1
7. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of length ‘L’ suspended from the
ceiling of a vehicle which moves with out friction down in an inclined plane of
inclination ‘’ is given by
L L L L
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2
g cos  g sin  g g tan 
8. Two bars of thermal conductivities K and 3K and lengths 3 cm and 6 cm
respectively have equal cross – sectional areas. They are joined length wise was
shown in the figure. If the temperature at the ends of this composite bar is 0oC
and 60oC respectively ( see figure ), then the temperature of the interface (  ) is

100 o 200 o
1) 36oC 2) C 3) 20oC 4) C
3 3
9. The area of the glass of a window of a room is 10 m2 and thickness 4 mm. The
outer and inner temperature are 60oC and 40oC respectively. Thermal
conductivity of glass in MKS system is 0.4 then heat flowing in the room per
second will be
1) 3 104 J 2) 2 104 J 3) 30 J 4) 45 J

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GT - 8 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-28.04.2024
10. Assertion : In isothermal process, whole of the heat energy supplied to the body
is converted into internal energy.
Reason : According to the first law of thermodynamics, Q = U + W.
1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not a correct explanation
of the assertion
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect
4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
11. The average thermal energy of a oxygen atom at room temperature (270C).
1) 4.5  1021 J 2) 6.2  1021 J 3) 3.4  1021 J 4) 1.8 1021 J
12. To what temperture should the hydrogen at 3270C be cooled at constant
pressure, so that the root mean square velocity of its molecules become half of its
previous value
1) -1230C 2) 230C 3) -1000C 4) 00C
13. The coefficient of linear expansion of copper is one and half times that of iron.
Idnetical rods of copper and iron are heated through same temperature range.
The ratio of forces developed in them will be (The young’s modulus for copper and
iron is same)
1) 9/4 2) 3/2 3) 4/9 4) 2/3
14. The modulus of elasticity of a material does not depend upon
1) nature of material 2) shape
3) impurities mixed 4) temperature
15. Spiders and insects move and run about on the surface of water without sinking
because:
1) Elastic membrane is formed on water due to property of surface tension
2) Spiders and insects are lighter
3) Spiders and insects swim on water
4) Spiders and insects experience up-thrust
16. Masses 2kg and 8kg are 18cm apart. The point where the gravitational field due
to them is zero is
1) 6cm from 8kg mass 2) 6cm from 2kg mass
3) 1.8cm from 8kg mass 4) 9cm from each mass
17. The gravitational force between two bodies is decreased by 36% when the
distance between them is increased by 3m. The intial distance between them is
1) 6m 2) 9m 3) 12m 4) 15m
18. Statement-I : During thunderstorm, light is seen much earlier than the sound is
heard.
Statement-II : Light travels faster than sound.
1) Statements-I is true, Statement-II is true, Statement-II is a correct explanation
for statement-I
2) Statements-I is true, Statement-II is true, Statement-II is not a correct
explanation for statement-I
3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false
4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true
19. A hollow sphere is placed on a rough horizontal surface. On
applying force F on it in horizontal direction it rolls down without
slipping on the surface. Then its angular acceleration is …….
6 6 F
1) MR 2)
5 5 MR
3F 3 F
3) 4)
14R 5 MR
20. The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex
lens is
1) 1.5f 2) 2f 3) 2.5f 4) 4f
21. A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5, has both surfaces of same radius of
curvature R. On immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it will behave
as a
1) Convergent lens of focal length 3.5R 2) Convergent lens of focal length 3.0R
3) Divergent lens of focal length 3.5R 4) Divergent lens of focal length 3.0R

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GT - 8 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-28.04.2024
22. Two slits are made one millimeter apart and the screen is placed one meter away.
What should the width of each slit be to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit
pattern within the central maximum of the single slit pattern.
1) 0.2mm 2) 0.4mm 3) 0.1mm 4) 0.5mm
23. The point charges Q and -2Q are placed at some distance apart. If the electric
field at the location of Q is E, the electric field at the location of -2Q will be
3E E
1)  2)  3) –E 4) -2E
2 2
24. Capacitance of a capacitor becomes 7/6 times its original value if a dielectric slab
of thickness t = 2d/3 is introduced in between the plates. The electric constant
of the dielectric slab is
14 11 7 11
1) 2) 3) 4)
11 14 11 7
25. The equivalent capacity of the combination is

1) C 2) 2C 3) C/2 4) 3C
26. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is
the force of repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from
each ion will be (e being the chage on an electron)
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fe2 4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fd 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
e2 d2 e2 q2
27. Two bar magnets having same geometry with magnetic moments M and 2M, are
firstly placed in such a way that their similar poles are in same side then its time
period of oscillation is T1. Now the polarity of one of the magnet is reversed then
time period of oscillation is T2, then
1) T1 < T2 2) T1 = T2 3) T1 > T2 4) T2 = 
28. Two circuits have mutual inductance of 0.1 H. What average e.m.f. is induced in
one circuit when the current in the other circuit changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.02 s
1) 240 V 2) 230 V 3) 100 V 4) 300 V
29. A coil resistance 20 and inductance 5H is connected with a 100V battery.
Energy stored in the coil will be
1) 41.5 J 2) 62.50 J 3) 125 J 4) 250 J
7 4
30. If the binding energy per nucleon Li and He nuclei are respectively 6.60 MeV
and 7.06 MeV, then the energy of the reaction:
Li7  p  22 He4
1) 19.6 MeV 2) 2.4 MeV 3) 10.20 MeV 4) 17.3 MeV

31. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the
percentage change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is
1) 25% 2) 75% 3) 60% 4) 50%
32. The kinetic energy of electron is E, when the incident light has wavelength '  '.
To increase the K.E. to 2E, the incident light must have wavelength-
hc hc h hc
1) 2) 3) 4)
E  hc E  hc E  hc E  hc
33. Nuclear fission experiments show that the neutrons split the uranium nuclei into
two fragments of about same size. This process is accompanied by the emission
of several:
1) Protons, positrons and electrons 2)  - particles
3) Neutrons 4) Protons and  -particles
34. Hole is
1) an anti-particle of electron
2) a vacancy created when an electron leaves a covalent bond
3) absence of free electrons 4) an artificially created particle

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GT - 8 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-28.04.2024
35. Assertion : The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor depends on its
temperature.
Reason : The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor is slightly higher than
that of a lightly doped p-type semiconductor.
1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false
SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
36. A student performs an experiment to determine the Young’s modulus of a wire
exactly 2m long by Searle’s method In a particular reading the student measures
the extension in the length of the wire to be 0.8 mm with an uncertainty of
0.05mm at a load of exactly 1.0 kg. The student also measures the diameter of
the wire to be 0.4mm with an uncertainty of 0.01mm. Take g  9.8 ms2 (exact).
The Young’s modulus obtained from the reading is
1)  2.0  0.3 1011 Nm2 2)  2.0  0.2  1011 Nm2
3)  2.0  0.1 1011 Nm2 4)  2.0  0.05  1011 Nm2
37. An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very slowly. The coefficient of friction
between the insect and the surface is 1/3. If the line joining the centre of
hemispherical surface and the insect makes an angle  with the vertical, what is
the maximum value of  ?
1) cot-1 3 2) tan-1 3 3) sec-1 3 4) cosec-1 3
38. The pendulum of a certain clock has time period 2.04s. How fast or slow does
the clock run during 24 hours?
1) 28.8 minutes slow 2) 28.8 minutes fast
3) 14.4 minutes fast 4) 14.4 minutes slow
39. Springs of spring constants K, 2K, 4K, 8K, ….2048K are connected in series. A
mass ‘m’ is attached to one end the system is aloowed to oscillation. The time
period is approximately.
m 2m m 4m
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2
2K K 4K K
40. A drop of water of radius 0.0015 mm is falling in air. If the coefficient of viscosity
of air is 2.0  10 5 kg / m.s , the terminal velocity of the drop will be (neglect density
of air):- (The density of water = 1.0  103 kg / m 3 and g  10 m / s 2 )
4 4 4 4
1) 1.0 10 m / s 2) 2.0  10 m / s 3) 2.5  10 m / s 4) 5.0  10 m / s
41. Sound signal is sent through a composite tube as shown in the figure. The
radius of the semicircular portion of the tube is r. Speed of sound in air is v. The
source of sound is capable of giving varied frequencies in the range of v1 and v2
(where v2>v1). If n is an integer then frequency for maximum intensity is given by
:
nv nv nv nv
1) 2) 3) 4)
r r   2  r  r  2
42. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is suspended by means of two right
inextensible strings as shown in figure. If one string is cut out then the tension in
the other string is ………

mg mg
1) 2) 2mg 3) mg 4)
4 2

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GT - 8 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-28.04.2024
43. A charged particle of mass m = 2kg and charge 1 C is thrown from a horizontal
group at an angle of 450 with horizontal with a speed of 10m/s. In space a
horizontal electric field E  2  107 N / C exists. Find the range of the projectile.

1) 5m 2) 30m 3) 10m 4) 20m

44. The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment M by an angle of 90o
from the meridian, is n times the corresponding work done to turn it through an
angle of 60 o . The value of n is given by
1) 1/2 2) 1/4 3) 2 4) 1
45. A current of 2 A is flowing through a cell of e.m.f. 5 V and internal resistance
0.5 from negative to positive electrode. If the potential of negative electrode is 10
V, the potential of positive electrode will be :-
1) 5 V 2) 14 V 3) 15 V 4) 16 V
46. A long solenoid has 200 turns per cm and carries a curent i. The magnetic field
at its centre is 6.28 102 Wb/m2 . Another long solenoid has 100 turns per cm and
it carries a curent i/3. The value of the magnetic field at its centre is
1) 1.05 104 Wb/m2 2) 1.05 102 Wb/m2 3) 1.05 105 Wb/m2 4) 1.05103 Wb/m2
47. Two identical charged particles enter a uniform magnetic field with same speed
but at angles 30o and 60o with field. Let a, b and c be the ratio of their time
periods, radii and pitches of the helical paths than
1) abc = 1 2) abc > 1 3) abc < 1 4) abc=0
48. In figure assuming the diodes to be ideal

1) D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased and hence current flwos from A to
B
2) D2 is forward biased and D1 is reverse biased and hence no current flows from
B to A and vice versa
3) D1 and D2 are both forward biased and hence current flows from A to B
4) D1 and D2 are both reverse biased and hence no current flows from A to B and
vice versa
49. Match the column I with column II.
Column – I Column - II
  d B
.

(A) Gauss’s law in electrostatics (I)

.

 E.dl   dt
 
(B) Faraday’s law (II)
 B.dA  0
(C) Gauss’s law in magnetism (III)   d
 B .dl   0ic   0 c
dt
(D) Ampere Maxwell law (IV)   q
 E.ds  0
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) IV I II III 2) I II III IV
3) III IV I II 4) II III IV I

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GT - 8 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-28.04.2024
50. An alternating voltage source V=260 sin(628t) is connected across a pure
inductor of 5 mH. Inductive reactance in the circuit is
1) 3.14 2) 6.28  3) 0.5  4) 0.318 
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :
51. 2molal aqueous urea solution and 0.8 molal aqueous BaCl2 solution are found to
be isotonic. Then the degree of dissociation of BaCl2 is ______
1) 50% 2) 60% 3) 75% 4) 84%
52. 50ml of 0.04 mole NaCl containing solution is mixed with 150ml of 0.06 mole
containing CaCl2 solution. In the resulting solution the molarity of chloride ion is
______M.
1) 0.5 2) 0.8 3) 0.055 4) 0.1
53. In Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen in an organic compound, the
appearance of the Prussian blue colour is due to the formation of:
1) Na2FeIII[FeII(CN)6] 2) NaFeII[FeIII(CN)6]
3) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 4) Na4[Fe(CN)6]
54. The electronic configuration of an element ‘X’, is 1s 2 2s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 3 . What is the
atomic number of the element which is just below ‘X’ in the periodic table?
1) 33 2) 34 3) 31 4) 49
55. Incorrect combination among the following :
Period Order of sub shells filled
1) 4 th 4s, 3d, 4p
2) 3rd 3s, 3p, 3d
3) 5 th 5s, 4d, 5p
4) 6 th 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p
O OH
56. The IUPAC name of  | is
CH 3  C  CH 2  CH  CHO
1) 5-oxo-4-hydroxy-2-pentanone 2) 4-hydroxy-5-al-2-pentanone
3) 2-hydroxy-4-oxopentanal 4) 1-al-4-oxo-2-pentanol
57. In hydrogen atom the kinetic energy of electron is 3.4 eV. The distance of that
electron from the nucleus
1) 2.116 Å 2) 0.529 Å 3) 1.587 Å 4) 21.16 Å
58. The number of radial nodes and nodal planes possible for 6dyz are respectively.
1) 3, 0 2) 4, 0 3) 3, 2 4) 4, 2
59. In the newman projection formula of most stable conformation of
3-Hydroxypropanal, the stability is due to
1) Minimum torsional strain
2) Intramolecualr hydrogen bonding
3) Minimum torsional strain and intera molecular hydrogen bonding
4) Minimum steric strain
60. Isobutyl alcohol and ter-butyl alcohol are
1) Chain isomers 2) Position isomers 3) Functional isomers 4) Metamers
61. If Ksp of MOH is 1 x 10 , then pH of its saturated aqueous solution will be:
-10

1) 3 2) 6 3) 9 4) 12
62. To the given salt solution, dilute H2SO4 is added. Effervescences of colourless gas
without any pungent smell are observed. This liberated gas turns lime water
milky. When same gas is passed in excess, the milkyness disappears. Then,
which of the following is correct?
1) Given salt contains carbonate ion
2) Milkyness appears due to the formation insoluble CaCO3
3) Milkyness disappears due to the formation of soluble Ca(HCO3)2
4) All the above are correct.

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GT - 8 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-28.04.2024
63. Assertion (A): In BrF3 molecule, the number of bond angles as 900 is zero.
Reason (R) : The lone pair-bond pair repulsion is weaker than bond pair-bond
pair repulsion.
1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect
4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
64. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
A)  MO   A   B (I) Dipolemoment
B)   Qr (II) Bonding molecular orbital
C) Nb  N a (III) Anti-bonding molecular orital
2
D)  MO   A   B (IV) Bond order
Choose the correct answer from options given below.
1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) 2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) 4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
65. Which of the following molecule is planar and polar?
1) BrF3 2) BF3 3) NH3 4) SF4
66. Which of the structures below would be aromatic?

1) i and iv 2) i, iii and iv 3) iii and iv 4) ii

67.

68. Assertion : White fumes appears around the bottle of anhydrous aluminium
chloride.
Reason : Anhydrous aluminium chloride is partially hydroysed with atmospheric
moisture and liberates HCl gas where moist HCl appears white in colour.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion
3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
69. Which of the following is wrong?
1) Among nitrogen trihalides only NF3 is known to be stable
2) Among trihalides of 15th group elemetns BiF3 is predominantly ionic
3) Oxidation state of Bismuth in Mg3Bi2 is +3
4) PCl5 is more covalent than PCl3.
  A     B     C  . The product ‘C’ is
1) NaNH 2 1 eq 
70. CaC2 H 2O
2) CH 3 Br
Cu2 Cl2 / NH 4OH

1) CH 3  CH 2  C  C  Cu , Red ppt 2) CH 3  CH 2  C  C  Cu , White ppt

3) CH 3  C  C  Cu, Red ppt 4) (1) and (3)

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GT - 8 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-28.04.2024
71. Dehydration by conc. H2SO4 is the most difficult in

72. Statement I : Methane cannot be prepared by Kolbe electrolytic reaction.

Statement II : In this reaction alkane is liberated at anode
1) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
73. Chlorophyll, the green colouring matter of plants responsible for photosynthesis,
contains 2.68% of magnesium by mass. Calculate the number of magnesium
atoms in 2.00g of chlorophyll.
(1) 1.345 × 1021 (2) 1.345 × 1020

(3) 13.45 × 1021 (4) 1.345 × 1023

74. The equivalent mass of a metal is 9 u. If valency of metal is 3, then the vapour
density of the volatile metal chloride will be:
(1) 66.75 (2) 321 (3) 267 (4) 133.5
75. In Br3O8 molecule, the oxidation state of central bromine atom and average
oxidation state of bromine are respectively _____
1) +6, +5.33 2) +4, +5.33 3) + 7, +6 4) +6, +7
76. The main difference in C – X bond of a haloalkane and a haloarene is
1) C – X bond in haloalkanes is shorter than haloarenes
2) in haloalkanes the C attached to halogen in C – X bond is sp3 hybridised while
in haloarenes it is sp2 hybridised.
3) C – X bond in haloarenes acquires a double bond character due to higher
electronegativity of X.
4) haloalkanes are less reactive than haloarenes due to difficulty in C – X
cleavage in haloalkanes
77. Match the isomers given in column I with their names given in column II and
mark the appropriate choice.
Column – I Column - II
(A) (I) 2 – Bromo – 3 – methylbutane

(B) (II) 2 – Bromopentane

(C) (III) 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane

(D) (IV) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) III I IV II 2) IV III II I
3) I II III IV 4) II III IV I
78. Among the following species:
(I) ClO (II) ClO2 (III) ClO3 (IV) ClO4 .
The correct combination regarding hybridization of chlorine atom and shape of
the species is__________.
1) I : SP, linear 2) II : SP2, angular
3) III: SP3, planar trigonal 4) IV: SP3, tetrahedral

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GT - 8 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-28.04.2024
79. Which of the following orders of melting point of hydrides of halogens is correct?
1) HF  HCl  HBr 2) HF  HCl  HBr
3) HF  HCl  HBr 4) HF  HCl  HBr
80. A certain zero order reaction, A→Product, has k=0.025M.min-1 for the
disappearance of ‘A’ then the conc. of ‘A’ after 15 min if the initial conc. of A is
0.5M is
1) 0.5M 2) 0.375M 3) 0.125M 4) 0.25M
81. Which of the following can affect rate constant of a reaction as well as equilibrium
constant?
1) Concentration of reactants 2) Time of reaction
3) Catalyst 4) Temperature
82. The alcohol which does not react with Lucas reagent at room temperature is
1) isopropyl alcohol 2) n-butyl alcohol
3) tert-butyl alcohol 4) sec-butyl alcohol

83.

84. The standard reducution potentials of Zn 2  Zn, Cu 2  Cu and Ag  Ag are

respectively -0.76, 0.34 and 0.8V. The following cells were constructed.
a) Zn Zn 2 Cu 2 Cu b) Zn Zn 2  Ag  Ag c) Cu Cu 2 Ag  Ag
What is the correct order Ecell
o
of these cells?
1) b > c > a 2) b > a > c 3) a > b > c 4) c > a > b
85. In which case change in entropy is negative?
1) Evaporation of water 2) Expansion of a gas at constant temperature
3) Sublimation of solid to gas 4) 2H  g  
 H2  g 
SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
86. Which one of the following arrangements does not represent the correct order of
the property stated against it?
a) Ni 2  Co2  Fe2  Mn2 : Ionic size
b) TiO  VO  CrO  FeO : basic oxide character
c) Sc  Ti  Cr  Mn : maximum possible oxidation state.
d) V 2  Cr 2  Mn2  Fe2 : Paramagnetic behavior
1) b and d 2) a and b 3) a, b and c 4) b, c and d
87. Assertion (A) : d configuration is more stable tha d
5 4

Reason (R) : d5 has more exchange energy as compared to d4.

1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
4) A is incorrect but R is correct
88. Which of the following reactions is/are correct regarding the preparation of
ketone?
1) Treatment of acyl chlorides with dialkyl cadmium, gives ketones
2) When benzene or substituted benzene is treated with acid chloride in the
presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride, it gives the corresponding ketone
3) Treating an alkyl nitrile with Grinard reagent followed by hydrolysis yields a
ketone
4) All of the above
89. The compositon of silver mirror in Tollens’ test and red ppt in Fehling test are
respectively.
1) Ag2O and Cu2O 2) Cu2O and Ag 3) Ag and Cu2O 4) Cu2O and Ag2O

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90. In an octahedral crystal field, the t2g orbitals are
1) Raised in energy by 0.40 2) Lowered in energy by 0.40
3) Raised in energy by 0.60 4) Lowered in energy by 0.60
91. Among the statements(a) – (d), the incorrect ones are :
a) Octahedral Co(III) complexes with strong field ligands have very high magnetic
moments
b) When  0  P , the d-electron configuration of Co(III) is an octahedral complex is
t 42g eg2
c) Wavelength of light absorbed by Co  en 3  is lower than that of CoF6 
3 3

d) If the  0 for an octahedral complex of Co(III) is 18,000cm-1  t for its

tetrahedral complex with the same ligand will be 16,000cm-1
1) b and c only 2) a and b only 3) c and d only 4) a and d only
92. The one that will show optical activity is:

93. The buffer solution comprising of the following has its pH value less than 7.
1) HCOONH4 2) CH3COONH4 3) HCOOH + HCOOK 4) NH4OH + NH4Cl
94. pH of water is 7.0 at 25 C. If water is heated at 80 C:
0 0

1) pH increase 2) pH decrease 3) pH remains 7

4) H conc. Increases but OH ion decreases
+ -

95. Tests on an aqueous solution of a sodium salt having an anion X n  gave the
K 2 Cr2O7 / H  Pb  NO3 2
following results : X n    green solution ; Salt solution   black precipitate
Which one of the following could be X n  :
1) I  2) NO2 3) S 2 4) SO42 
96. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Primary amines show more intermolecular association than secondary amines.
(ii) Tertiary amines do not show intermolecular association.
(iii) Boiling points of isomeric amines follow the order 3° > 2° > 1°
1) (i) and (iii) 2) (i) and (ii) 3) (i), (ii) and (iii) 4) (ii) and (iii)
97. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) In Sandmeyer reaction nucleophiles like Cl–, Br– and CN– are indroduced in
benzene ring in the presence of Cu+ ion
(ii) In Gattermann reaction nucleophiles are introduced in benzene ring in the
presence of copper powder and HCl.
(iii) The yield in Gattermann reaction is found to be better than Sandmayer
reaction.
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (i), (ii) and (iii) 3) (ii) and (iii) 4) (i) and (iii)
98. The following reaction is non–spontaneous
1) Zn  2 H   Zn 2  H 2 2) Sn  Fe 2   Sn 2   Fe
3) Zn  Cu2  Zn2  Cu 4) Mg  2 Ag   Mg 2   2 Ag

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99. Consider the following data:  f H  N 2 H 4 , l   50kJ / mol ,  f H 0  NH 3 , g   46kJ / mol ,
0

B.E.(N-H)=393kJ/mol and B.E.(H-H)=436kJ/mol.

vap H  N 2 H 4 , l   18kJ / mol
Calculate then N-N bond energy in kJ/mol for N2H4.
1) 190kJ/mol 2) -190kJ/mol 3) 95kJ/mol 4) -95kJ/mol
100. Which one of the following statement is incorrect about enzyme catalysis?
1) Enzyme are mostly proteinous is nature
2) Enzyme action is specific
3) Enzyme are denaturated by change in pH and at high temperature.
4) Enzyme are least reactive at optimum temperature

BOTANY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :
101. Consider the description about an organism and identify the organism
a) It is unicellular but not moneran
b) Its eukaryote but not a protists
c) It’s heterotrophic but not animal
d) It has cell wall but not cellulosic
1) Slime mould 2) Paramoecium 3) Yeast 4) Euglena
102. Read the following :
(a) Unicellular prokaryotes. (b) Chitinous wall members.
(c) Unicellular eukaryotes. (d) Mostly autotrophic.
(e) Cellulosic cell wall. (f) Presence of centrioles.
How many of the above characters are applicable to kingdom plantae?
1) Four 2) Five 3) One 4) Two
103. Identify the mismatch in the following.
Column – I Column - II
1) Puccinia Rust fungus
2) Penicilium Medicinally important
3) Toad stools Edible mushrooms
4) Rhizopus Bread mould
104. Biogas is a mixture of gases containing predominantly C produced by B and
which may be used as A .
1) A- Pathogenic activity, B- Fuel, C-H2S 2) A-Fuel, B-Microbial activity, C-C2H4
3) A-Fuel, B-Pathogenic activity C-H2S 4) A-Fuel, B-Microbial activity, C-CH4
105. Identify enzyme A in the given reaction of Krebs’ cycle.
OAA  Acetyl Co-A  H 2O  A
 Citric acid + Co-A
1) Oxaloacetate 2) Citrate synthase
3) Aconitase 4) Dehydrogenase
106. Consider the following w.r.t. pteridophytes.
Statement-I: The diploid sporophyte is represented by dominant, independent,
photosynthetic, vascular plant body.
Statement-II: It alternates with multicellular, autotrophic, independent but
short-lived haploid gametophyte.
1) Both are correct 2) Both are incorrect
3) Statements I is correct and statement II are is incorrect
4) Statements I is incorrect and statement II are is correct
107. Choose the incorrect statement regarding angiosperms.
1) Double fertilisation is syngamy and triple fusion
2) Syngamy is fusion of one male gamete with egg cell (n).
3) Triple fusion is fusion of another male gamete with two polar nuclei.
4) Double fertilisation is characteristic feature of both Angiosperms and
Gymnosperms.
108. In the alternation of generations, the sporophytic generation is ...A... and the
gametophytic generation is ...B... . Here, A and B refer to
1) A–2n; B–n 2) A–n; B–2n 3) A–n; B–n 4) A–2n; B–2n

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109. Study the following statements regarding the bryophytes.
I) Some mosses provide food for herbaceous mammals, birds and some animals.
II) Mosses form dense mats on the soil, they prevent soil erosion.
III) Sphagnum as packing material for trans-shipment of living material because
of their capacity to hold water.
IV) Sphagnum provide peat that have long been used as fuel.
Which of the statements given above are correct
1) I, III and IV are correct 2) I, II, III and IV are correct
3) I, II and III are correct 4) I, II, and IV are correct
110. Choose the incorrect statement of the following :
I. Each cell of sporogenous tissue in anther is diploid.
II. Generative cell of a pollen grain has a large and irregularly shaped nucleus.
III. In over 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at 3-cell stage.
IV. All members of legumes maintain the viability of pollen grains for months.
1) I, III and IV 2) II, III and IV 3) III and IV 4) I, II, III and IV
111. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1) EcoRI cuts the DNA between the bases G and A
2) pBR322 is natural plasmid
3) pBR322 is ds circular plasmid
4) Agrobacterium has Ti plasmid
112. The different steps involved in the process of recombinant DNA technology are
given below randomly. Arrange these in correct order
P) Extraction of desired gene product
Q) Amplification of the gene of interest
R) Isolation of a desired DNA fragments
S) Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector
T) Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host
1) P, Q, R, S and T 2) T, S, R, Q and P
3) P, Q, R, T and S 4) R, Q, S, T and P
113. Statement-I: Agrobacterium tumifaciens, a pathogen of several monocot plants
Statement-II: Agrobacterium deliver a piece of DNA (T-DNA) into the plant cell
1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false, Statement-II true
3) Both Statements I and II are false 4) Both Statements I and II are true
114. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List- I List- II
I. UTR A. RNA polymerase-III
II. snRNA B. Methionyl- tRNA
III. 23S rRNA C. 7- Methyl GTP cap in mRNA
IV. Initiator tRNA D. Peptidyl transferase activity
1) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B 2) I- C, II- B, III- D, IV- A
3) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A 4) I- C, II- D, III- A, IV- B
115. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List- I List- II
I. A,B and O blood group system in human A. Incomplete dominance
II. Human skin colour B. Codominance
III. Pink flowers in snapdragon C. Quantitative inheritance
IV. AB- blood group D. Multiple alleles
1) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B 2) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C
3) I- D, II- C, III- A, IV- B 4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
116. Which of the follwiong is true w.r.t. staminode?
1) Elongated internode between stamen and carpel
2) Sterile stamen
3) Wing-like structure formed by corolla in pea
4) Adhesion of stamens with carpel
117. Statement –I : Fruit drupe develops from monocarpellary superior ovary and is
one seeded.
Statement –II : In Mango, endocarp is fleshy and edible.
1) Both statements-I and Statement-II are true
2) Both statements-I and Statement-II are false
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true

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118. Match the following :
List-I (Medicinal plant) List-II (Family)
A) Sida (I) Cruciferae
B) Belladona (II) Fabacea
C) Muliathi (III) Solanaceae
`
`
D) Candytuft (IV) Malvaceae
A B C D A B C D
1) I III II IV 2) I III IV II
3) I II III IV 4) IV III II I
119. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
Column-I Column-II (Gene/ product)
(I) Heat shock method A) Thermostable DNA polymerase
(II) Agarose gel electrophoresis B) Heterologous host
(III) DNA amplification C) To check the progression of restriction
enzyme digestion
(IV) Recombinant protein D) To improve the DNA uptake by bacterial
cells
1) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B 2) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C
3) I- D, II- C, III- A, IV- B 4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
120. Observe the floral diagram and the characters belongs to

a) d) Parietal placentation

b) G1 e) Epitepalous
c) K(5) f) Reduced bracts
g) Reniform anther
1) a, b, c only 2) a, c only 3) d, e only 4) a, c, g only
121. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the given
codes.
Column-I Column-II
(Codes) (Translated amino acid)
A) UUU (i) Serine
B) GGG (ii) Methionine
C) UCU (iii) Phenylalanine
D) CCC (iv) Glycine
E) AUG (v) Proline
1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-v, E-ii 2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-v, E-ii
3) A-iii, B-iv, C-v, D-i, E-ii 4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-v, E-iii
122. An E.coli with heavy DNA molecule is transferred into the medium with normal
nitrogen  14 NH 4Cl  after 40 minutes what will be the percentage of heavy DNA
molecule?
1) 12.5% 2) 25% 3) 0% 4) 6.25%
123. Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?
1) Genetic code is ambiguous 2) Genetic code is degenerate
3) Genetic code is universal 4) Genetic code is non-overlapping
124. DNA is not genetc material in
1) QB bacteriophage 2)   174 3)   Phage 4) E.Coli
125. Assertion (A): tRNAs are absent for stop codons.
Reason (R): UAG, UGA and UAA are the nonsense codons.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not correctly explains (A).
4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

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126. If pollen grains shed at 2-celled stage, the male gametes will be formed from
generative cell during:
1) Growth of pollen tube in the stigma 2) Growth of pollen tube in the ovule
3) Growth of pollen tube into ovary 4) Entry of pollen tube into embryo sac
127. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. secondary growth.
1) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour
2) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support
3) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals
4) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour
128. If we consider the starch grain size as one of the characters in dihybrid cross,
what will be the proportion of seeds having intermediate size in F2 generation?
1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 75% 4) 100%
129. What is the genotypic ratio of progeny obtained from a cross AaBB × aaBB?
1) 1AaBB : 1aaBB 2) 1AaBB: 3aaBB
3) 3AaBB:1aaBB 4) All AaBB : No aaBB
130. A green full pod with green round seed found in the apex of a pea plant, what is
the ratio of recessive and dominant characters.
1)4 : 1 2) 3 : 2 3) 1 : 4 4) 2 : 3
131. In a test cross involving F1 dihybrid flies more parental type off springs were
produced than the recombination type offsprings. Then indicates.
1) The two genes are located on two different chromosomes.
2) Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
3) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome
4) Both the chracters are controlled by more than one gene.
132. Assertion (A): Round seeds in pea plant may have large sized or intermediate
sized starch grains.
Reason (R): It is an example of pleiotropy multiple alleles and incomplete
dominance.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect. 4) Both A and R are incorrect
133. Statement I : Golgi apparatus remains in close association with the endoplasmic
reticulum.
Statement II : A number of proteins synthesised by ribosomes on the ER are
modified in the cisternae of the Golgi bodies before they are released from the
trans face.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct options in given below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
134. Match the following columns and identify the correct combination –
Column I Column II
(A) Robert Brown (I) Ribonucleoproteins
(B) Flemming (II) Nucleus as cell organelle
(C) Palade (III) Packaging of materials
(D) Camillo Golgi (IV) Staining of nucleus material
1) A - (II) B - (IV) C - (I) D - (III) 2) A - (II) B - (IV) C - (III) D - (I)
3) A - (I) B - (II) C - (III) D - (IV) 4) A - (IV) B - (III) C - (II) D - (I)
135. The sequence of mRNA is:
5’AGGAGGUAUUGAUCAGUAGUGAUAAAAAAAAAAAA3’.
The peptide chain formed from the above mRNA consists of how many aminoacid
residues?
1) Three 2) Five 3) Seven 4) Eleven
SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
136. Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in
flowering plants is incorrect?
1) Ovary develops into fruit 2) Zygote develops into embryo
3) Central cell develops into endosperm 4) Ovules develop into embryo sac
137. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as
1) Chalaza 2) Perisperm 3) Hilum 4) Tegmen

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138. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence
are usually pollinated by:
1) Water & Wind 2) Water only 3) Wind 4) Bat
139. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is
1) Malonate 2) Oxaloacetate 3) -ketoglutarate 4) Pyruvate
140. Assume that a ds-DNA molecule has 204 Ao length in which 20% of Guanine find
the number of H-bonds present in that DNA.
1) 140 2) 144 3) 288 4) 72
141. Statement–I: Development is regarded as the sum of growth and differentiation.
Statement–II : Both intrinsic and extrinsic factors infuluece the growth and
differentiation.
1) Both statement I and statement – II are correct
2) Both statement I and Statement – II are incorrect
3) Statement – I is incorrect and statement – II is correct.
4) Statement – I is correct and statement – II is incorrect.
142. Identify the incorrect statement regarding arithmetic growth.
1) Following mitotic cell division only one daughter cell continues to divide while
the other differentiates and mature.
2) It is exemplified as a root elongation at a constant rate
3) S-curveis obtained on plotting the length of the organ against time
4) Mathematically it is expressed on Lt=L0+rt
143. Which one of the following growth regulators is known as stress hormone
1) Abscisic acid 2) Ethylene 3) GA3 4) IAA
144. Given structural formula is correctly identified along with its related function by
which of the following options?

1) Cholesterol – A component of animal cell membrane

2) Lecithin – A component of cell membrane
3) Triglyceride – An energy source
4) Adenosine – A component of nucleic acid
145. Which of the following is the correct expression of central dogma of molecular
biology after the discovery of Reverse transcriptases?
1) DNA→ RNA→ Proteins 2) DNA ⇌RNA ⇌Protein
3) DNA→DNA⇌RNA→Protein 4) DNA→RNA⇌Protein
146. Which of the following comparisons is incorrect?
C3 Plants C4 Plants
1) Rate of photorespiration Quite high Absent
2) Mesophyll cells Perform complete Perform only initial CO2
photosynthesis fixation
3) Optimum temperature 30 – 45 C
o 10 – 25oC
4) Kranz anatomy Absent Present
147. The following (P to T) are the main steps of chemosynthetic ATP synthesis in the
light reaction. Which answer places them in correct order?
P) H+ concentration gradient generates
Q) H+ diffuses through CF0CF1
R) Carriers use energy from electrons to move H+ across the membrane
S) Electrons from PS II pass along electron transport chain
T) Energy of H+ flow is used by ATP synthetase to make ATP
1) P →Q → T → S → R 2) S → R → P → Q → T
3) T → S → R→ P → Q 4) S → R → P → T → Q

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148. Identify A to D in the diagrammatic representation of internal structure of cilia.

1) A-Interdoublet bridge, B-Central microtubule, C-Plasma membrane, D-Radial

spoke
2) A–Plasma membrane, B–Central microtubule, C–Interdoublet bridge, D–Radial
spoke
3) A–Plasma membrane, B–Interdoublet bridge, C–Central microtubule, D–Radial
spoke
4) A–Plasma membrane, B–Interdoublet bridge, C–Radial spoke, D–Central
microtubule
149. Arrange the following structures in the increasing order of minimum reduction
divisions required for their formation:
I. 120 antipodal cells II. 60 synergids
III. 25 egg cells IV. 50 embryo sacs
The correct answer is:
1) II, I, III, IV 2) III, II, I, IV 3) IV, III, II, I 4) IV, I, II, III
150. In the mitochondrial electron transport system, theterm Complex III refers to:
1) NADH dehydrogenase 2) Cytochrome c1
3) FADH2 4) Cytochrome bc1 complex

ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :
151. Match the following and pick correct option.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Australopithecines (P) First hominid
(B) Homo habilis (Q) Java man
(C) Neanderthal man (R) Burried their dead
.
(D) Homo erectus (S) Fruit eater
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) P S R Q 2) S P R Q
3) Q S P R 4) R Q P S
152. Statement-I : Loss of Biodiversity increases resistance to environmental
perturbations, such as drought.
Statement-II : Loss of Biodiveristy, decreases variability in certain ecosystem
process.
1) Both statements I & II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
4) Both, statements I & II are correct
153. In frog, food is captured by
1) Trilobed tongue 2) Bilobed tongue 3) Tentacles 4) Limbs
154. Which of the following is correct related to cockroach?
1) Mosiac vision 2) Paurometabolous development
3) Three thorasic ganglia 4) All of these
155. Assertion : Small size organisms have larger surface area relative to their volume
and they have to spend much energy to generate body heat through metabolism.
Reason : Small-sized organisms are rarely found in polar regions.
1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false

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156. S1 : The myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped with Schwann cells.
S2 : Myelinated nerve fibres are found in spinal and cranial nerves.
1) Both S – I & S – II are true 2) Both S – I & S – II are false
3) S – I is true, S – II is false 4) S – I is false, S – II is true
157. Which one of the following is not a part of single nephron?
1) Collecting duct 2) PCT 3) DCT 4) LH
158. Which of the following sentences is incorrect with regard to circulating system?
1) Humans have hepatic portal system and hypophysial portal system
2) The blood pressure is low in veins
3) Cardiac output is the volume of blood ejected by either of the ventricles into
the arterial system.
4) Blood pressure is higher in animals with open circulatory system.
159. _________ toxic substance is responsible for the chills and high fever recurring
every 3-4 days in malaria
1) Sporozoites 2) Gametocyte 3) Haemozoin 4) Interferon
160. Absence of acrosome will affect which activity of a normal sperm.
1) Energy utilisation for movement 2) Sperm motility
3) Maturation of sperm 4) Penetration in to the ovum
161. Assertion (A): Amphibians are the earliest tetrapods.
Reason (R): Among vertebrates limbs first appeared in amphibians.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct and R is incorrect.
4) Both A and R are incorrect
162. Statement–I: Testis is covered by a dense covering.
Statement–II: Interstitial cells present in intertubular spaces produce a group of
hormones called androgens mainly testosterone.
1) Both S – I & S – II are true 2) Both S – I & S – II are false
3) S – I is true, S – II is false 4) S – I is false, S – II is true
163. The inner layer of adrenal cortex is called ________
1) Zona fasciculate 2) Zona reticularis
3) Zona glomerulosa 4) Zona pellucida
164. Choose the correct statement from the following.
(i) 50% of ovum in few insects carry X-body as named by Henking.
(ii) In female heterogamety two different gametes are produced by male
(iii) In birds, male have a pair of Z chromosomes besides autosomes.
(iv) In fowls, eggs are responsible for the sex of the chicks
1) i, ii 2) iii, iv 3) ii,iii,iv 4) i,ii,iii
165. Which of the following is an example for link species?
1) Chimpanzee 2) Dodo bird 3) Sea weed 4) Lobe fined fish
166. Select the correct statements:
a) The productivity of the ocean are only 55 billion tons.
b) Only 10% of the energy is transferred to each trophic level from the lower
trophic level
c) 2 to 10% of PAR [Photosynthetically active radiation] sustains the entire world
1) a, b only 2) b, c only 3) a, c only 4) a, b, c
167. Which of the following is an incorrect statement for Periodic abstinence?
1) The couple should abstinence from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the
menstrualcycle when ovulation could be expected.
2) 10th to 17th day of the cycle is fertile period, when the chances of fertilisation
are high.
3) This prevents the chances of union of male and female gametes.
4) In this method, the ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting
with the help of barriers
168. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
1) The scientific name of mango is written as Mangifera indica.
2) The scientific names ensure that each organism has only one name.
3) Name of the author appears after the genus.
4) Biological names are generally in Latin and Written in italics.

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GT - 8 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-28.04.2024
169. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas
exchange is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls.
1) Fibrosis 2) Emphysema 3) Pneumonia 4) Asthma
170. Select the correct statements with reference to Pectoral and Pelvic girdle:
1) Each clavicle is a long slender bone with three curvatures.
2) Pelvic girdle consists of three coxal bones.
3) At the point of fusion of three bones in each coxal, a cavity is called glenoid
4) The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet ventrally to form the pubic symphysis.
171. Statement–I: Directional selection changes the population towards one
particular direction.
Statement–II: Directional selection favours average sized individuals.
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
172. Amazon rainforest is called ‘lungs of the planet’ because
1) It covers a large land area of the earth.
2) It is a natural habitat at for evergreen trees
3) It harbors many endemic species
4) It produces through photosynthesis 20% of the total oxygen in the earth
atmosphere
173. If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as one week. It is
because
1) Body is covered with a hard chitinous exoskeleton
2) Head holds a small bit of nervous system
3) Head is of no use
4) Food capturing apparatus is found elsewhere
174. Competition is most severe between two
1) Closely related species growing in different niches
2) Closely related species growing in the same habitat
3) Distantly related species growing in the same habitat
4) Distantly related species growing in different niches
175. The condition diuresis is prevented by _______hormone.
1) ADH 2) FSH 3) PRL 4) GH
176. As the sino-atrial node which initiate the impulses in the heart of mammal hence
it is called.
1) cholinergic 2) adrenergic 3) neurogenic 4) myogenic
177. Each antibody molecule has _____ peptide chains,______small called light chains
and _____ longer called heavy chains.
1) 4, 2, 2 2) 3, 1, 2 3) 8, 4, 4 4) 4, 1, 1
178. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstrual cycle?
1) The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche
2) The reproductive cycle in the female primates (eg. Monkey, Dog, Man) is called
menstrual cycle
3) Corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone
4) In absence of fertilisation, corpus luteum degenarates in luteal phase and new
follicles start developing immediately
179. Which of the following is correctly matched?
1) Pterophyllum – magur 2) Exocoetus – saw fish
3) Carcharodon – Great, black shark 4) Chaetopleura – Chiton
180. The _______ normally remain confined to their original location and do not spread
to other parts of the body and cause little damage
1) Carcinogens 2) Benign tumors 3) Malignant tumors 4) Oncogenes
181. Henking observed that in few insects, 50% of the sperm received a specific
nuclear structure,whereas the other 50% sperm did not receive it. Henking gave a
name to this structure as :-
1) Y-body 2) X-body 3) Barr Body 4) W-Chromosome
182. Productivity at the second trophic level is always:
1) Greater than the productivity at the first trophic level.
2) Less than the productivity at the first trophic level.
3) Equals to the productivity at the first trophic level.
4) Extremely high compared to the productivity at the first trophic level.

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GT - 8 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-28.04.2024
183. Reduction in pH of blood will
1) reduce the blood supply to the brain
2) decrease the affinity of haemoglobin with oxygen
3) release bicarbonate ions by the liver
4) reduce the rate of heartbeat
184. The term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies
and other organizations without proper authorisation from the countries and
people concerned without compensatory payment is
1) Bioprospecting 2) Biopiracy 3) Biotechnology 4) Bioinformatics
185. A cup shaped bone covering knee ventrally is called:
1) Tarsals 2) Femur 3) Patella 4) Fibula

SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
186. Which of the following is not a factor responsible for species richness of tropical
regions?
1) Less variation in productivity 2) Stable abiotic conditions
3) Higher productivity 4) Less productivity
187. The sodium potassium pump-ATP dependent.
1) Transport Na  and K  out of the neuron
2) Transport Na  into the neuron and K  out
3) Transport K  into the neuron and Na  out
4) Transports Na  and K  into the neuron
188. Uricotellic mode of excretion is found in _____
1) Birds & earthworm 2) Frog &snake
3) Insects & amphibians 4) Reptiles &birds
189. Which of the following diseases is also known as atherosclerosis?
1) Hypertension 2) Angina pectoris
3) Heart attack 4) Coronary artery disease (CAD)
190. Allelic sequence variation has been described as DNA polymorphism if ________
variant (allele) at a locus occurs in a human population with a frequency ________
1) >1 , >0.1 2) >1, >0.01 3) <1 , <0.1 4) <1 , <0.01
191. In the following organisms, which is free living non-pathogenic nematode.
1) Drosophila 2) Arabidopsis 3) Meloidegyne 4) Caenorhabditis
192. Match Column I with Column II and select correct option from the codes given
below.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Fish with electric organs (I) Trygon
(B) Fish with poison sting (II) Salamandra
(C) Amphibian with tail (III) Torpedo
(D) Amphibian without limbs (IV) Ichthyophis
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) I III II IV 2) III I IV II
3) III I II IV 4) III II I IV
193. Statement I: Haemophilia is a chromosomal disorder that is characterised by the
improper blood clotting
Statement II: In this disorder, a single protein which is a part of cascade of
proteins involved in blood clotting is affected.
1) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
2) Both statement I and II are true
3) Both statement I and II are false
4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
194. The man made ecosystems are
1) Crop fields 2) Aquarium 3) Wetlands 4) Both 1 and 2
195. Statement–I : Saheli pill is one of the better oral contraceptive pill.
Statement–II : It is a non steroidal pill and can be used once in a week.
1) S–I and S–II are correct. 2) S–I is correct & S–II is incorrect.
3) S–I is incorrect & S–II is correct. 4) S–I and S–II are incorrect.

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GT - 8 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-28.04.2024
196. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.
1) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2 binding with haemoglobin
2) Higher H+ concentration in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
3) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
4) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
197. How many documented varieties of Basmati rice are grown in India?
1) 17 2) 67 3) 38 4) 27
198. In a rabbit population small ear lobe is a recessive trait of that allelic frequency is
0.3, what is the expected frequency of heterozygous long ear lobe bearing
organisms is likely to be
1) 9% 2) 49% 3) 58% 4) 42%
199. Which of the following is not a feature of Down's Syndrome?
1) It is caused by a non-disjunction in an autosome
2) The affected individual has trisomy of chromosome 21
3) The affected individual has a characteristic palm crease
4) The individuals have abnormal skin and possess deaf mutism
200. If cattle egret is associated with grazing cattle then ______is associated with sea-
anemone.
1) Clown fish 2) Carmorant 3) Bumble bee 4) Barnacle

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