SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR AIIMS S60 NEET GRAND TEST - 6 DATE : 27-01-2020
SUB: PHYSICS Max. Marks : 720
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :

Pattern of the Entrance Examination:-
Paper containing 180 objective type questions ,from Biology, Physics and Chemistry

Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked
with pencil would not be evaluated.

Each item carries 4marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response 1mark will be deducted from the total score

1. The circular scale of a screw gauge has 100 (4) 30 m

equal divisions. When it is given 5 complete 3. A simple pendulum with a metallic bob has a
rotations it moves through 10 mm the least time period T. The bob is now immersed in a
count of screw gauge is non-viscous liquid and oscillated. If the
(1) 0.1 mm density of the liquid is 1/9 that of the metallic
(2) 0.01 mm bob. The time period of the same pendulum is
(3) 0.02 mm 3T
(1)
(4) 0.05 mm 8

2. A building is 40m long and 20m high, A man T 8

(2)
fires a bullet x meters from the building as 3

shown in figure, so that the bullet just clears (3) 2T 3

the front and back tops of the building if the (4) 3T 8
time of flight is 5 sec then the value of x is
4. Refractive indices of glass and water are 3/2
nearly ( g = 10m / s 2
) and 4/3 respectively. The critical angle
between them is
9
(1) sin −1  
8

8
(2) sin −1  
9
2 2
(3) sin −1  
 3 
(1) 7.4 m  3 
(4) sin −1  
(2) 14.8 m  8

(3) 10 m
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5. In the circuit switch s1 is closed and s2 is (4) 7.84 N
open, the ideal voltmeter shows a reading 8. A Carnot engine absorbs an amount Q of heat
18v. When switch s2 is closed and S1 is open, from a reservoir at an absolute temperature T
the reading of voltmeter 24v. When s1 and s2 and rejects heat to a sink at a temperature of
both are closed the voltmeter reading will be T/3. The amount of heat rejected is
(1) Q/4
(2) Q/3
(3) Q/2
(4) 2Q/3
9. Two cars are moving on two perpendicular
roads towards a crossing with uniform speeds
(1) 20.6 v of 72 km/hr and 36 km/hr If first car blows
horn of frequency 335 Hz, the frequency of
(2) 14.4 v
the horn heard by the driver of second car
(3) 24.2 v when line joining the cars make 60° angle
(4) 10.8 v with the road will be (V = 340m / s )
6. Two rail tracks insulated from each other and (1) 321 Hz
the ground, are connected to milli voltmeter. (2) 298 Hz
What is the reading of voltmeter when the
train is moving with speed 50m/s. Given that (3) 350 Hz
the vertical component of earth’s magnetic (4) 335 Hz
field Bv is 0.2 x 10-4 wb/m2 and rails are 10. A linear charge having linear charge density
separated by 1m
λ penetrates a cube diagonally and when it
(1) 1 mv
penetrates a sphere diametrically as shown.
(2) 10 mv
What will be the ratio of flux coming out of
(3) 100 mv
cube and sphere
(4) 1 v
7. A chain consisting of 5 links each of mass 0.1
kg is lifted vertically up with a constant
acceleration of 2.5m/s2. The force of
interaction between 1st and 2nd links as
shown
1
(1)
2
2
(2)
3

3
(3)
(1) 4.92 N 2

(2) 2.96 N 1
(4)
1
(3) 3.52 N
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11. Light from a hydrogen discharge tube is
incident on the cathode of a photoelectric cell. A
The work function of the cathode surface is C
4.2 eV. In order to reduce the photocurrent to
zero the voltage of the anode relative to the B

cathode must be made I)

(1) - 4.2V
(2) - 9.4V A
B C
(3) - 17.8V
II)
(4) + 9.4V
(1) OR gate and AND gate respectively
12. The amplitude of magneticfield at the region
carried by electromagnetic wave is 0.2µT , (2) AND gate NOT gate respectively
the intensity of the wave is (3) AND gate and OR gate respectively
(1) 4.8w / m 2 (4) OR gate and NOT gate respectively
16. The true value of dip a place is 450. If the
(2) 3.8w / m 2
plane of the dip circle is turned through 600
(3) 1.2 w / m 2 from the magnetic meridian, what will be the
apparent angle of dip ?
(4) 2.4 w / m 2 (1) Tan −1 [1]
13. Two circular loops of radii R and nR are
(2) Tan −1 [ 2]
made of same wire. If their M.I about their
normal axis through centre are in the ratio 1 : (3) Tan −1 [3]
8, the value of n is 1
(1) 2 (4) Tan −1  
2
(2) 4 17. In the figure shown each capacitor is of
(3) 8 4 µF capacitance . The equivalent capacity
between A and B is
1
(4)
2 2
14. A small piece of metal wire is dragged across
the gap between the pole pieces of magnet in
0.4sec. If magnetic flux between the pole
pieces is known to be 8 x 10-4 wb, then
induced emf in the wire, is
(1) 4 x 10-3V
(2) 8 x 10-3V
(3) 2 x 10-3V (1)
-3
(4) 6 x 10 V
(2)
15. The combination of the ‘NAND’ gates shown
(3)
here under are equivalent to
(4)
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18. A stationary body explodes into four identical (3) 3.5
fragments such that three of them fly off (4) 8.2
mutually perpendicular to each other, each 22. A system is shown in the figure. The time
with same kinetic energy Eo. The minimum period for small oscillations of the two blocks
energy of explosion will be will be.
(1) 6Eo
4 Eo
(2)
3
(3) 4Eo 3m
(1) 2π
(4) 8Eo k
19. The pressure that has to be applied to the ends 3m
(2) 2π
of a steel wire of length 10cm to keep its 2k
length constant when its temperature is raised 3m
(3) 2π
−2
by 100°c is Ysteel = 2 ×10 Nm
11
and 4k

coefficient of linear expansion is 1.1× 10−5 k −1 (4) 2π

3m
8k
(1) 2.2 × 108 Pa
23. A particle of mass 2Kg moves in SHM. Its
(2) 1.1×108 Pa
potential energy U varies with position x as
(3) 3.3 ×106 Pa
shown. The period of oscillation of the
(4) 1.3 × 10 Pa
6
particle is
20. A bus starts from rest with a constant
acceleration of 5 m/s2. At the same time a car
travelling with a constant velocity 50 m/s
over-takes and passes the bus. How fast is the
bus travelling when they are side by side?
(1) 100 m/s
(2) 50 m/s (1)
(3) 200 m/s
(4) 75 m/s
(2)
21. A cyclotron adjusted to give proton beam,
magnetic induction is 0.15 wbm and the
extreme radius is 1.5 m. The energy of (3)
emergent proton in MeV will be
(1) 2.43 (4)

(2) 1.57
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24. The percentage increase in the magnetic field (3) 935
B when the space within a current carrying (4) 700
toroid is filled with alluminium (the 28. An external pressure P is applied on a cube at
succeptibility of alluminium is 2.1x10-5) 0oC so that it is equally compressed from all
sides. K is the bulk modulus of the material of
(1) 10-3
the cube and is its coefficient of linear
(2) 2.1 × 10-3 expansion. Suppose we want to bring the cube
(3) 4 × 10-3 to its original size by heating. The
temperature should be raised by
(4) 3 × 10-3
25. If The uncertainity in the position of an
(1)
electron is 10–10 m then the uncertainity in its
momentum (in kgms–1) measurement will be (2)
nearly.
(1) 6.6 x10–26 (3)
–24
(2) 10
(3) 3.3 × 10–24
(4)
(4) 6.6 × 10–24
29. In an a.c circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f. and
26. A homogeneous chain lies in limiting
current are given by e = 100 sin 30t, i = 20
equilibrium on a horizontal table of
sin(30t - ( π / 4)) In one cycle of a.c., the
coefficient of friction 0.5 with part of it
average power consumed by the circuit and
hanging over the edge of the table. The
the wattles current are, respectively
fractional length of the chain hanging down
the edge of the table is
(1)
(1) 1/3
(2) 2/3
(2)
(3) 1/2
(3) 50, 0
(4) 1/4
(4) 50, 10
27. Two wheels of M.I. 3kg m2 and 5kg m2 are
30. A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5
rotating at the rate of 600 rpm and 800 rpm
has both surfaces of same radius of curvature
respectively in the same direction. If the two
R. On immersion in a medium of refractive
are coupled so as to rotate with the same axis
index 1.75, it will behave as a
of rotation, the resultant speed of rotation will
(1) Convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
be (in rpm)
(2) Convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
(1) 725
(3) Divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R
(2) 565
(4) Divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R

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31. Four identical metal plates are arranged as 33. Which of the following may be considered as
shown. Plates 1 and 4 are connected by a clean bomb.
connecting wire. A battery of emf V volts is a) Atom bomb
connected between plates 2 and 3. The b) hydrogen bomb
2V c) neutron bomb
electric field between plates 3 and 4 is .
Kd
(1) a & b are correct
Find the value of K.
(2) a & c
(3) b & c
(4) a, b & c
34. A certain mass of gas is taken from an initial
thermodynamics state A to another state B by
(1) 12 process I and II. In process I for the gas does
(2) 6 5J of work and absorbs 4J of heat energy. In
(3) 3 process II, the gas absorbs 5 joules of heat.
(4) 2 The work done by the gas in process II is
32. A homogeneous solid cylinder of lengthL (L <
H / 2). Cross-sectional area A/5 is immersed
such that it floats with length l/4 in the denser
liquid as shown in the fig. The lower density
liquid is open to atmosphere having pressure
P0 . Then density of solid is given by
(1) + 3J
(2) - 6J
(3) - 3J
(4) + 6J
35. A spherical black body with a radius of 12cm
radiates. 450 watt power at 500K. If the
radius were halved and the temperature
(1)
doubled, the power radiated in watt.
(1) 1800
(2)
(2) 225
(3) d
(3) 450
(4) 1000
(4)

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36. A fuse wire with radius of 0.2 mm blow off (1) 0.51 m
with a current of 5 Amp. The fuse wire of (2) 0.062 m
same material and same length but of radius
(3) 0.25 m
0.3mm will blow off with a current of
3 (4) 0.72 m
(1) 5 × Amp
2 39. If the galvanometer reading is zero in the
3 given circuit, the current passing through
(2) 5 Amp
2 resistance 250 Ω is
27 500 Ω
(3) 5 Amp
8 G
+ +
(4) 5 Amp 12 V 250Ω x 4V
37. Suppose a current carrying wire has a cross-
sectional area that, gradually become smaller
(1) 0.016A
along the wire, has the shape of a very long
cone as shown in figure. Choose the correct (2) 0.05A
statement (3) 0.048A
(4) zero
AB 40. The diagram shows the path of four α -
particles of the same energy being scattered
(1) Electric current is different in different by the nucleus of an atom simultaneously.
Which of these are/is not physically possible
cross section of wire.
(2) Electric field at point A is same as that a
of point B b
c
(3) Drift speed of electrons at point A is d
lesser than that of at point B
(1) c and d only
(4) Drift speed of electrons at point A is
(2) b and c only
same as that of at point B
(3) a and d only
38. Two masses m1 = 2kg and m2 = 5kg are
moving on a frictionless surface with (4) d only
velocities 10 m/s and 3 m/s respectively. m2 41. A galvanometer has a current range of 15mA
is ahead of m1 . An ideal spring of spring and voltage range of 750mv. To convert this
constant k = 1120 N/m is attached on the back galvanometer into an ammeter of range 25A,
side of m2 . The maximum compression of the the shunt resistance required is nearly
spring will be
(1) 0.03 Ω.
→ V1 → V2
(2) 0.01Ω
m1 m2 (3) 0.05Ω
(4) 0.1Ω

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42. The potential energy of a system increases if 46. X + Y ⇌ Z ; If the concentrations of both
work is done the reactants in the given reaction are
(1) Upon the system by a non-conservative tripled, then its equilibrium constant
force will:
(2) By the system against a conservative
(1) Becomes three times
force
(2) Becomes nine times
(3) By the system against a
(3) Becomes one-ninth
non-conservative force
(4) Remains the same
(4) Upon the system by a conservative
47. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of
force
43. Orbital radius of a satellite S of earth is four PH 3, 4 and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What

times that of a communication satellite C. will be the H+ ion concentration in the

Period of revolution of S is mixture ?
(1) 4 days (1) 3.7 ×10−3 M
(2) 8 days (2) 1.11×10−4
(3) 16 days
(3) 1.11×10−3 M
(4) 32 days
(4) 3.7 ×10−4 M
44. In the ideal double-slit experiment, when a
glass plate (refractive index 1.5) of thickness t 48. The addition of a catalyst during a
is introduced in the path of one of the chemical reaction alters which of the
interfering beams (wavelength λ ), the
following quantities ?
intensity at the position where the central
maximum occurred previously remains (1) Activation energy
unchanged. The minimum thickness of the
(2) Enthalpy
glass plate is
(1) 2 λ (3) Entropy

(2) 2 λ /3 (4) Internal energy

(3) λ /3 49. For the reaction 2 N 2O5 → 4 NO2 + O2 rate
(4) λ and rate constant are 1.02×10−4 and
45. A mixture of 2 moles of helium gas (atomic
3.4×10−5 s−1 respectively. Then
mass 44) and 1 mole of argon gas (atomic
mass = 404) is kept at 300 k in a container. concentration of N 2O5 at that time will be
The ratio of their rms speeds is close to
(1) 1.732
(1) 0.32
(2) 2.24 (2) 3

(3) 3.16 (3) 1.02×10−4

(4) 1 (4) 3.4×105

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50. Equivalent conductance of NaCl, HCl and 54. The correct order of the O – O bond
C2H5COONa at infinite dilution are length in O2, H2O2 and O3 is
126.45, 426.16 and 91Ω−1cm 2 respectively. (1) O2 > O3 > H2O2
The equivalent conductance of (2) O3 > H2O2 > O2
C2H5COOH is (3) O2 > H2O2 > O3

(1) 201.28Ω−1cm 2 (4) H2O2 > O3 > O2

(2) 390.71Ω−1cm 2 55. Number of carbon atoms given by a

(3) 698.28Ω−1cm 2
young man to his bride to be, if the
engagement ring contains 10 carat
(4) 540.48Ω−1cm 2
diamond ( 1 carot = 200mg) are:
51. 5% solution of a non volatile and non
(1) 6 × 1023
electrolyte solute (X) has same osmotic
(2) 3 × 1022
pressure as 6% urea solution. The
(3) 1.5 × 1021
molecular weight of solute (X) is:
(4) 1.0 × 1023
(1) 60
56. The reduction potential of H2- electrode
(2) 125
when Pt wire is dipped in 0.01M HCl(aq)
(3) 50
at 1 atm pressure is:
(4) 75
(1) – 0.118V
52. The maximum number of electrons in a
(2) - 0.59 V
subshell is given by the expression
(3) - 0.1795V
(1) 4n + 2
(4) - 0.236 V
(2) 4l + 2
57. At a given temperature, the total vapour
(3) 2n2
pressure in torr of a mixture of volatile
(4) 4l – 2
components A and B is given by Ptotal =
53. A compound contains atoms of three
120 – 75 XB hence, the vapour pressure of
elements A, B and C. If the oxidation
A and B respectively (in torr) are
number of A is + 2, B is + 5 and that of ‘C’
(1) 120, 75
is –2, the possible formula of the
(2) 120, 195
compound is
(3) 120, 45
(1) A2(BC3)2
(4) 75, 45
(2) A3(BC4)2
(3) A3(B4C)2
(4) ABC2
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58. CsCl has bcc structure with Cs+ at the (1) 2y – x + z
centre and Cl- ion at each corner. If γ cs+ (2) x – 2y + z
is 1.69 A0
and γ cl− is 1.81A0, what is the (3) − x − 2y + z
edge length of the cube ?
(4) x + y+ z
(1) 3.50A0
63. The atomic spectrum of Li+2 ion arises
(2) 3.80A0
due to the transition of an election from
(3) 4.04A0
n2 to n1. If n1 + n2 = 4 and n2 – n1 = 2.Find
(4) 4.50A0
the wavelength of the third line of this
59. In a solid oxide ions are arranged in ccp,
cations A occupy 1/8th of the tetrahedral series in Li+2 ion
voids and cation ‘B’ occupy 1/4th of the (1) 1.08 nm
octahedral voids. The formula of the (2) 10.8 nm
compound is
(3) 108 nm
(1) ABO4
(4) 1080 nm
(2) AB2O3
64. The correct order of second ionization
(3) A2BO4
potential of C, N, O and F is
(4) AB4O4
(1) C > N > O > F
60. Gold sol is an example of
(2) O > N > F > C
(1) Neutral sol
(3) O > F > N > C
(2) Positively charged sol
(4) F > O > N > C
(3) Negatively charged sol
65. In which among the following pair of
(4) Solid in solid type of colloid
compounds hybridization of central
61. For the redox reaction
atoms is same?
MnO4− + C2O42− + H + → Mn+2 + CO2 + H 2O
(1) NF3 & BF3
The correct stoichiometric coefficients of
(2) XeF6 & PCl5
MnO4− , C2O42− and H + respectively
(3) SF4 & XeF4
(1) 2, 5, 16
(4) CCl4 & SiF4
(2) 16, 5, 2
66. Which of the following have maximum
(3) 5, 16, 2
magnetic moment (spin only) ?
(4) 2, 16, 5
(1) k3[Fe(CN)6]
62. What is the heat of formation of CS2, if
(2) [FeCl4]2-
heat of combustion of C, S and CS2 are
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3
− x, − y and − z kj/mol ?
(4) [FeF6]4-

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67. The complex [pt(py)(NH3)ICl] will (2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is

have how many geometrical isomers ? true, statement – II is not correct

(1) 4 explanation for Statement - 1

(3) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is
(2) 0
false
(3) 2
(4) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is
(4) 3
true
68. Which of reactions occurs in slag
72. Which of the following property of (pb)
formation zone in blast furnace for
lead is due to the consequence of Inert
manufacture of iron ?
pair effect ?
(1) Fe2O3 + 3C → 2 Fe + 3CO
(1) Higher stability of pb4+ as compared
(2) CO2 + C → 2CO
to pb+2
(3) FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3 (2) Higher stability of pb2+ as compared
(4) CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3 to Sn+2
69. Permanent hardness in water can not be (3) size of pb2+ is 133 pm but size of pb+4
cured by is 84 pm
(1) Treatment with washing soda (4) pb4+ has reducing property
(2) calgon method 73. Which of the following does not contain
(3) Boiling transition metal ?
(4) ion exchange method (1) Haemoglobin
70. Which of the following is not produced (2) Vitamin B12
when mixture of borax and CuSO4 is (3) Cis – platine
heated at high temperature ?
(4) Chlorophyll
(1) Cu(BO2)2
74. Equal masses of H2, O2 and CH4 have
(2) NaBO2
been taken in container of volume V at
(3) B2O3
temperature 270C in identical conditions.
4) Na3BO3
The ratio of the volumes of gases H2 : O2 :
71. Statement-I : S2 form of sulphur shows
paramagnetic behaviour CH4 would be
Statement-II : S2 form of sulphur is more (1) 8 : 16 : 1
stable as compared to O2 form of oxygen
(2) 16 : 8 : 1
(1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is
(3) 8 : 1 : 2
true, statement-II is a correct explanation
(4) 16 : 1 : 2
for statement-I
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75. The case of liquefaction of noble gases (4) Sweetner
decreases in the order NH2
CHCl3 , KOH "X"
(1) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
(2) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He ∆
(3) Kr > Xe > He > Ar > Ne 81.
(4) Ar > Kr > Xe > He > Ne LiAlH4
"Y'' . ‘Y’ is
76. Which of the following pairs give positive
(1) Ph – NH – CH3
Tollen’s test? (2) Ph – CH2 – NH2
O
(1) Glucose, sucrose
(2) Glucose, fructose
(3) Ph − NH − C − H
(3) Fructose, sucrose ⊕ ⊙
(4) ph - N ≡ C
(4) Maltose, cellulose
82. HVZ reaction of acetic acid leads to the
alc
77. C2 H5 Cl 
CH3COO Ag
→ X + AgCl formation of
In the above eqn, "X" is a functional isomer of 1) CH3COOH

(1) C3H7COOH (2) HCOOH

(2) C2H5COO CH3 (3) CCl3COOH
(3) C4H9OH
COOH
(4) CH3COO C2H5 COOH
(4)
78. Gabriel pthalimide synthesis is used to prepare
83. The total number of optically active
(1) aliphatic 3°amines
isomers possible for
(2) aromatic 1°amines
Me − CH − CH2 − CH − CH − CH3
(3) aromatic 2°amines
Br Cl OH
(4) aliphatic 1°amines

79. Among the following dipole moment (1) 6

highest for (2) 3

(1) CH3F (3) 4

(2) CH3Cl (4) 8

Zn.Hg
(3) CH3Br 84. CH3CHO 
conc.HCl
→x ,

(4) CH3I NH 2 NH 2 ,glycol

CH3 − CO − CH 3  →y
KOH
80. Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is
What are x and y ?
(1) Anionic detergent (1) Ethane, Ethanol
(2) Cationic detergent (2) Ethane, Propanol

(3) Non – ionic detergent (3) Ethane , propane

(4) Propane,Propanol
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85. Identify an aromatic compound O

A (C7H8O) which gives following tests

with the given reagents
Na metal
Positive

Neutral FeCl3 Negative

A
(1) O
Lucas reagent O
Positive
OCH3

(2)
O

(1)
CH2-OH

(3)

O
(2)
OH CH3

(4) H3C

87. Which of the following will respond to

Cannizaro reaction when treated with strong
alkali solution ?

CH3 (1) Acetaldehyde

(3)
(2) Benzaldehyde
OH
(3) Propioinaldehyde
(4) All of these
88. The monomer of Teflon is:
(1) Carbon tetrafluoride
(4) CH3 (2) Tetrafluoroethene
86. Among the following, in which (3) Chloroprene
tautomerism is possible? (4) Isoprene

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89. The most suitable reagent for the 93. Find the incorrect match
following convertion in : Methanogen Halophiles Thermoacidop
H CH3 hiles
CH 3 − C ≡ C − CH 3 1 Marshy areas Saline Lives in high
condition temperature
CH3 H
and low
(1) Zn / HCl
pressure
(2) Hg2+ / H+ , H2O
2 Chemoautotr Heterotrop Chemoauto
(3) Na / Liquid NH3
oph h troph
(4) H2 , Pd / BaSO4 , S
3 Evolve CH4 Maintain Oxidise
90. Biuret test is not given by high sulphur
(1) Proteins osmotic
(2) Polypeptide concentrat
(3) Urea ion of KCl

(4) Carbohydrates 4 Obligate Aerobe Facultative

aerobe anaerobe
91. As we go from species to kingdom in a
taxonomic hierarchy
(1) Species diversity increases 94. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
matched ?
(2) Number of similar characters increases
(3) Species diversity decreases (1) Rh blood grouping : Erythroblastosis
(4) Both 2 & 3 foetalis
92. Arrange the following taxa in box in (2) H.Henking : X body
increasing order of their common characters
(3) Myotonic : Chromosomal
Hominidae, Chordata, Animalia, Mammalia,
Dystrophy disorder
Homo, Primata
(4) Haplodiploid : Honey bee
(1) Chordata ,Homo, , Primata, Mammalia,
sex-determination
Animalia, ,Hominidae
(2), Mammalia ,Chordata, Animalia, Homo 95. Which of the following organisms breed only
Primata , Hominidae, once in their life time ?
(3) Homo, , Primata, Mammalia, Chordata, (1) Most birds, mammals
Animalia , Hominidae (2) Oysters, pelagic fishes
(4) Animalia, Chordata, Mammalia, Primata , (3) Salmon fishes, mammals
Hominidae, Homo (4) Bamboo, Pacific salmon fishes

Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad

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96. In cyanobacteria (1) 8
(1) Cell wall is made up of chitin (2) 7
(2) Photo pigments are chlorophyll a, (3) 5
carotenoids and phycobillins (4) 3
(3) Flagella help in locomotion 100. The hardest part of drupe is
(4) Photosynthesis is anoxygenic (1) Testa
97. Identify the algae given below (2) Tegmen
(3) Epicarp
(4) Endocarp
101. Intercalary meristem is
(1) Primary meristem
(2) Secondary meristem
(3) Lateral maristem
(4) Cylindrical meristem
102. Which one is correct for tissue depicted in the
diagram given below ?

A B C

A B C

1) Ulothrix Laminaria Dictyota

2) Polysiphonia Fucus Laminaria

3) Polysiphonia Porphyra Laminaria

(1) It form major component of plant organ
4) Dictyota Fucus Laminaria (2) Found in most of dicotyledonous plants
98. Gemma is (3) Lack extra thickening of cellulose,

(1) Sporophyte stage in Marchantia pectin, hemicelluloses

(2) Is an asexual bud, green and multicellular (4) Dead at maturity

(3) Juvenile stage in life cycle of moss 103. Which of the following are non membranous

(4) Is gametophyte in Funaria cell organelle ?

99. Some plants are mentioned below in box (1) Centriole , ribosome, chloroplast
(2) Mitochondria, chloroplast, nucleus
Plum , rose, china rose, peach, brinjal, guava,
mustard, cucumber , ray floret of sunflower (3) ER, microbodies, cytoskeleton

How many of these have superior ovary ? (4) Ribosome, centriole

Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 15
104. Match the following
Column – I Column – II
a) 80 S ribosome i) Inner
mitochondrial
membrane
(4)
b) Oxysome ii) Cytoplasm of 106. Domestic sewage primarily contains
eukaryotes biodegradable organic matter. It is possible to
estimate the amount of biodegradable organic
c) Porin iii) Thylakoid
matter in sewage water by measuring
d) Photosystem iv) Outer membrane (1) Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD)
of mitochondria (2) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)
v) lysosome (3) Accelerated Eutrophication
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (4) Non-biodegradable toxins
(2) a-ii, b-i , c-iv, d-iii 107. A population growing in a habitat with
(3) a-iii, b-ii , c-iv, d-i limited resources show finally an asymptote,
when
(4) a-iv, b-i , c-iii, d-ii
(1) The resources are not limiting the
105. Which of the following is the true
growth
diagrammatic representation of a nucleotide ?
(2) The birth rate greatly exceeds death rate
(3) The environmental resistance has no
role in the habitat
(4) The population density reaches the
carrying capacity
(1)
108. Regional and local variations within each
biome lead to the formation of
(1) Different variety of populations
(2) Similar type of ecosystems
(3) Wide variety of habitats
(2) (4) Favourable habitats
109. Emigration refers to
(1) Number of births during a given period
(2) Number of individuals leaving the
habitat
(3) (3) Number of deaths in the population
(4) Number of individuals entering the
habitat

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110. What type of ecological pyramid would Cell stage Number of Number of
obtained with the following data ? chromosome DNA

Primary consumer : 37 kg m -2 1 Metaphase-I 8 16

2 Metaphase- 4 8
Primary carnivore : 11 kg m -2
II
Primary producer : 809 kg m -2 3 Anaphase-I 8 16
(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass 4 Anaphase-II 4 8
(2) Pyramid of energy 115. If number of bivalent in metaphase I is 10 in a
(3) Upright pyramid of numbers cell. Then how many chromosomes will be
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass present in this cell in prophase I ?
111. The Government of India in 1980s has (1) 10
introduced the concept of (2) 20
(1) Joint Forest Management (3) 30
(2) National Forest Policy (4) 40
(3) Chipko movement 116. Factors affecting simple diffusion are
a) Pressure
(4) Wildlife Protection Awards
b) Temperature
112. Which of the following is a set of c) Concentration gradient
homopolymer ? d) Membrane permeability
e) Protein channel
(1) Pectin, cellulose, glycogen
f) ATP
(2) Starch, cellulose, glycogen (1) 3
(3) Peptidoglycan, cellulose, chitin (2) 4
(4) Peptidoglycan , hemicelluloses (3) 5
113. The total number of incisors present in the (4) 6
buccal cavity of an adult human are 117. Which of the following is not a function of
(1) 4 stomatal transpiration ?
(2) 8 (1) Uptake of water

(3) 12 (2) Uptake of mineral

(4) 16 (3) Root pressure development

(4) Cooling of leaf
114. A cell is having 2n=8 chromosomes,
118. Auxin synthesis require
chromosome number and DNA content of this
(1) Mn2+
cell in different stages of cell cycle and cell
(2) Zn2+
division is given below. Which of the cell
(3) Mg2+
stage is incorrectly matched with the number
(4) Mo
of chromosome and DNA molecules
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 17
119. With regard to biological nitrogen fixation by (4) All the above
Rhizobium in association with soyabean, 125. All are correct related to plant growth except
which one of the following does not hold
(1) Limited growth in flower
true?
(1) Nitrogen is reduced to ammonia (2) Open growth
(2) Leghaemoglobin provide O2 to bacteria (3) Unlimited growth of stem and root
(3) Nitrogenase is Mo-Fe protein (4) Diffuse growth in mature plant
(4) ATP is provided by host cell 126. Which hormone is used to initiate flowering
and synchronising fruit set in pineapple ?
120. Primary electron acceptor after PS II is
(1) GA
(1) Pheophytin
(2) Ethylene
(2) Plastoquinon
(3) Auxin
(3) Plastocyanin
(4) Cytokinin
(4) Ferredoxin
127. During entry of pollen tube into embryo sac ,
121. Which of the following is not a cause of H+ male gametes are released into
gradient development in chloroplast ? (1) Oosphere
(1) Photolysis of water (2) Oospore
(2) PQ-Cytbf complex pump (3) Central cell
(3) NADP reductase (4) Degenerating synergid cell
+
(4) H channel 128. Which of the following plants produce
122. Who used prism, white light, green algae, chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers?
Cladophora and aerobic bacteria and plotted (1) Commelina
the action spectra of photosynthesis? (2) Oxalis
(1) Von Sachs (3) Viola
(2) Engelmann (4) All the above
(3) Von Niel 129. Identify the false statements
(4) Ingenhousz a) One of the objective of plant breeding is
123. In one krebs cycle to develop disease, insect and pest resistance
varieties
(1) There are two decarboxylartion
b) Parbhani kranti is yellow mosaic virus
(2) Three dehydrogenation reactions resistant Okra variety
(3) There are 2 sites of substrate level c) Saccharum barbari grown in north India
has high sugar content
phosphorylation
d) Saccharum officinarum had low sugar
(4) Both 1 & 2
content
124. Correct sequence of steps in glycolysis is
(1) a,b,c
(1) Glucose → Glucose-6-phosphate
(2) b,c,d
(2) Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate → PGAL,
DHAP (3) c,d
(3) PGAL → 1,3 BisPGA (4) a,b
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 18
130. Which of the following is a variety of rice ? (4) Central dogma reverse
(1) Ratan 136. Hormones produced in women only during
(2) Jaya pregnancy are
(3) Ratna (1) Prolactin, hCG and glucocorticoids
(4) Both 2 & 3 (2) hCG, hPL and relaxin
131. How many types of gametes will be produced (3) hPL, estrogens and relaxin
by individuals of AABbcc genotype ? (4) Progestogens, estrogens and prolactin
(1) Two 137. Which part of Cannabis plant is used to
(2) Four obtain natural cannabinoids ?
(3) Eight (1) Leaves
(4) One (2) Resin
132. In a red and white flowered cross of (3) Inflorescences
Antirrhinum majus, F2 generation has red , (4) Latex
pink and white flowered plants in ratio of 138. Which of the following is true for the 1st and
(1) 3:1 2nd meiotic divisions of oogonia ?
(2) 1:1 (1) 1st meiotic division is completed at
(3) 1:2:1 puberty, 2nd meiotic division is completed
(4) 9:3:3:1 prior to sperm entry into the cytoplasm of
133. Human skin colour is controlled by ovum.
(1) 2 polygenes (2) Both 1st and 2nd meiotic divisions are
(2) 4 polygenes completed after the entry of sperm into the
(3) 3 polygenes cytoplasm of ovum.
(4) 5 polygenes (3) 1st meiotic division is completed after
134. All the following are synthesised in the entry of sperm, 2nd meiotic division is
prokaryotes except completed during implantation.
(1) tRNA (4) 1st meiotic division is completed prior to
(2) rRNA ovulation, 2nd meiotic division is completed
(3) SnRNA after the entry of sperm into the cytoplasm of
(4) mRNA ovum.
135. In some viruses, flow of information is in 139. Unipolar neurons are usually found in
reverse direction (RNA → DNA), this process (1) Embryonic stage
is known as (2) Retina of eye
(1) Central dogma (3) Cerebral cortex of man
(2) Reverse replication (4) Ventral root ganglion
(3) Transcription
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 19
140. Which of the following sound level may a b c d
damage ear drums thus permanently (1) iii iv ii i
impairing hearing ability ?
(2) iv iii ii i
(1) 150 dB or more
(3) iv iii i ii
(2) Less than 120 dB
(4) iii iv i ii
(3) Less than 150 dB
144. In a field experiment, when all the Pisasters
(4) 90 dB or 120 dB
were removed, more than 10 invertebrate
141. Who found that out door plots with more
species showed less year-to-year variation in species became extinct within a year, because
total biomass ? of
(1) Paul Ehrlich
(1) Intra-specific competition
(2) David Tilman
(2) Inter-specific competition
(3) Von Humboldt
(3) Environmental struggle
(4) Mac Arthur
(4) Interference competition
142. According to the Medical Termination of
145. Which of the following property of DNA
Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, a
pregnancy may be terminated on double helix led Watson and Crick to
(1) The opinion of one registered medical hypothesise semi conservative mode of DNA
practitioner, if the pregnancy has lasted more replication ?
than 24 weeks (1) Complementarity
(2) The basis of sex of the foetus in early (2) Antiparallel nature
stages of pregnancy (3) Hydrophobic interaction
(3) The opinion of two registered medical (4) Glycosidic bond
practitioners, if the pregnancy has lasted more 146. Cotton bollworm is controlled by protein
than 12 weeks encoded by gene
(4) The request of the pregnant woman even (1) Cry II Ab
in the final stages of pregnancy (2) Cry I Ac
143. Match the items given in Column I with those (3) Cry I Ab
in Column II and select the correct option
(4) Both 1 & 2
given below :
Column-I Column-II 147. Separated band of DNA are cut out from

a)Electrostatic agarose gel. This is

i)Adopted at COP7
precipitator (1) Gel electrophoresis

b)Electronic wastes ii)Ozone depletion (2) Southern blotting

(3) Elution
c)Kyoto Protocol iii)Removal of
(4) Northern blotting
particulate matter
d)Montreal protocol iv)Recycling

Sri Chaitanya Page Hyderabad

20
148. RNA interference ( RNAi) technique has been 152. Match the items given in Column I with those
devised to protect the plants from nematode is in Column II and select the correct option
silenced by given below :

(1) ssRNA Column-II

Column-I
(2) dsRNA (Part of Excretory
(Function)
(3) ssDNA System)

(4) dsDNA a) Reabsorption i) Renal corpuscle

149. During pregnancy, the first movements of the b) Tubular secretion ii) Henle’s loop and
foetus coincides with vasa recta

(1) Appearance of hair on the head c) Ultra filtration iii) Tubular cells of
(2) Development of limbs and digits nephron

(3) Formation of eyelashes and separation d) Production of iv) Renal tubule

of eye-lids concentrated urine

(4) Development of heart and external a b c d

genital organs (1) iii i iv ii

150. The enzyme that activates trypsinogen into (2) iv iii ii i

trypsin is secreted by (3) iii iv ii i

(1) Brunner’s glands (4) iv iii i ii

(2) Pancreatic islets 153. The similarities in the pattern of bones of

forelimbs of many vertebrates indicates
(3) Intestinal mucosa
(1) Convergent evolution
(4) Goblet cells of pylorus
(2) Common ancestry
151. During urine formation, a fall in GFR can
(3) Analogy
activate JG cells to release rennin, which
converts (4) Atavism
154. Myasthenia gravis is
(1) Angiotensin I to angiotensin II
(1) Auto immune disorder
(2) Angiotensin II to aldosterone
(2) Progressive degeneration of muscle
(3) Angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
(3) Progressive loss of neurons in basal
(4) Angiotensin I to angiotensinogen
nuclei
(4) Hormonal disorder

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Page 21
155. In the course of evolution of man, fossils (1) Thalamus : Major coordinating centre
discovered in Java in 1891 revealed this stage for sensory and motor
(1) Homo erectus signaling
(2) Homo habilis (2) Association : Responsible for complex
(3) Australopithecines areas function like intersensory
(4) Homo neanderthalensis associations

156. Which of the following is not considered as a (3) Pons varolii : Control and
part of endomembrane system ? coordination of

(1) Mitochondria voluntary muscular

(2) ER movements
(4) Hypothalamus : Controls body
(3) Lysosome
temperature, urge for
(4) GA
eating and drinking
157. Gametocytes of Plasmodium develop in
161. This hormone plays a very important role in
(1) Human liver cells the regulation of a 24-hour rhythm of our
(2) Lumen of mosquito’s gut body
(3) Human red blood cells (1) Melatonin

(4) Human blood plasma (2) Thymosin

158. Both hydrarch and xerarch succession leads to (3) Thyroxine

(1) Xeric condition (4) Adrenaline

162. The space between the lens and the retina of
(2) Excessive wet condition
eye is filled with
(3) Medium water conditions
(1) Vitreous chamber
(4) Highly dry conditions
(2) Aqueous humor
159. Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
(3) Aqueous chamber
(1) Insulin
(4) Vitreous humor
(2) Epinephrine
163. Which of the following animal undergo
(3) Thyroxine metamorphosis ?
(4) Cortisol (1) Pristis

160. Which of the following structure or region of (2) Petromyzon

human brain is incorrectly paired with its (3) Psittacula
function ? (4) Pteropus
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 22
164. Identify gregarious pest from the following (3) Decreased blood supply to heart ;
(1) Locusta Deposition of cholesterol in coronary artery

(2) Laccifer (4) Heart is not pumping blood effectively ;

Congestion of lungs
(3) Limulus
170. Match the items of ECG given in Column I
(4) Latimeria
with their representation in Column II and
165. Which of the following biome contains
select the correct option given below :
highest mean annual precipitation (cm) ?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Tropical forest
a)QRS complex i)Depolarisation of atria
(2) Alpine tundra
b)P-wave ii)Repolarisation of
(3) Grass land
ventricles
(4) Coniferous forest
c)T-wave iii)Depolarisation of
166. Which one of these animals is not a
ventricles
sauropsid?
a b c
(1) Canis
(1) ii i iii
(2) Columba
(2) i ii iii
(3) Crocodilus
(3) iii i ii
(4) Chelone
(4) iii ii i
167. Which one of the following statements is
171. Which of the following is an occupational
correct for secondary succession ?
respiratory disorder ?
(1) It begins on bare rock
(1) Pneumonia
(2) It follows primary succession
(2) Emphysema
(3) It occurs on a deforested site
(3) Asthma
(4) It is similar to primary succession except
(4) Siderosis
that it has relatively fast pace
172. Which of the following is not used as a
168. Which of the following feature is seen only in
biopesticide ?
female cockroach but not in male ?
(1) Trichoderma
(1) Mushroom shaped gland
(2) Bacillus thuriengensis
(2) Boat shaped 7th sternum
(3) Nucleopolyhedrosis virus
(3) Genital pouch
(4) Rhizobium
(4) Gonapophysis
173. Darwinian variations are
169. Which of the following options correctly
(1) Small and directional
represents the heart failure ?
(2) Random and directionless
(1)Heart stops beating ; Congestion of lungs
(3) Large and directional
(2)Necrosis in heart muscle ; Acute chest pain
(4) Single step small mutations
Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad
Page 23
174. Match the items given in Column I with those (3) Neck cells
in Column II and select the correct option (4) Goblet cells
given below : 178. Match the items given in Column I with
Column-I Column-II those in Column II and select the correct

a)Secretory phase i)Maturation of follicle option given below :

b)Proliferative phase ii)Developing corpus Column-I Column-II

luteum a)Basophils i)Immune responses

c)Menstruation iii)Breakdown of b)Lymphocytes ii)Inflammatory

endometrial lining reactions

a b c c)Thrombocytes iii)Clotting of blood

(1) iii i ii a b c
(2) ii iii i (1) iii ii i
(3) ii i iii (2) ii iii i
(4) i ii iii (3) ii i iii
I75. A woman has x-linked recessive genes on (4) i iii ii
both of her X chromosomes. If she married to 179. Myosin head binds to actin and forms a cross
a normal man, these genes give their bridge due to this
expression in (1) Utilising energy from ATP hydrolysis
(1) Only daughters
(2) Increase in Ca 2 + level in sarcosomes
(2) Only sons
(3) Unmasking of active sites by low Ca 2 +
(3) Both sons and daughters
level
(4) Only in grand children
(4) Binding of ATP to head of myosin
176. Select the mismatch
180. In breathing movements, air volume can be
(1) Cucurbita- dioecious
estimated by
(2) Selaginella – heterosporous
(1) Stethoscope
(3) Adiantum – homosporous
(2) Spirometer
(4) Cycas – dioecious
(3) Hygrometer
177. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
(4) Sphygmomanometer
help in erythropoiesis ?
(1) Oxyntic cells
(2) Peptic cells

Sri Chaitanya Hyderabad

Page 24
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SR AIIMS S60 NEET GRAND TEST - 6 KEY Date : 27-01-2020

PHYSICS
1) 3 2) 3 3) 1 4) 1 5) 2 6) 1 7) 1 8) 2 9) 3 10) 3

11) 2 12) 1 13) 2 14) 3 15) 1 16) 2 17) 2 18) 1 19) 1 20) 2

21) 3 22) 3 23) 4 24) 2 25) 2 26) 2 27) 3 28) 3 29) 1 30) 1

31) 1 32) 1 33) 3 34) 4 35) 1 36) 3 37) 3 38) 3 39) 4 40) 1

41) 1 42) 2 43) 2 44) 1 45) 3

CHEMISTRY
46) 4 47) 4 48) 1 49) 2 50) 2 51) 3 52) 2 53) 2 54) 4 55) 4
56) 1 57) 3 58) 3 59) 1 60) 3 61) 1 62) 3 63) 2 64) 3 65) 4
66) 3 67) 4 68) 4 69) 3 70) 4 71) 3 72) 2 73) 4 74) 4 75) 2
76) 2 77) 1 78) 4 79) 2 80) 2 81) 1 82) 3 83) 4 84) 3 85) 2
86) 3 87) 2 88) 2 89) 3 90) 4

BOT : 91, 92, 93, 96, 97, 98, 99, 100, 101, 102, 103, 104, 105, 112, 114, 115, 116, 117, 118,
119, 120, 121, 122, 123, 124, 125, 126, 127, 128, 129, 130, 131, 132, 133, 134, 135,
145, 146, 147, 148, 156, 158, 167, 172, 176
ZOO : 94, 95, 106, 107, 108, 109, 110, 111, 113, 136, 137, 138, 139, 140, 141, 142, 143,
144, 149, 150, 151, 152, 153, 154, 155, 157, 159, 160, 161, 162, 163, 164, 165, 166,
168, 169, 170, 171, 173, 174, 175, 177, 178, 179, 180
BIOLOGY

91) 1 92) 4 93) 4 94) 3 95) 4 96) 2 97) 2 98) 2 99) 4 100) 4

101) 1 102) 2 103) 4 104) 2 105) 4 106) 2 107) 4 108) 3 109) 2 110) 4

111) 1 112) 2 113) 2 114) 4 115) 2 116) 2 117) 3 118) 2 119) 2 120) 1

121) 4 122) 2 123) 1 124) 4 125) 4 126) 2 127) 4 128) 4 129) 3 130) 4

131) 1 132) 3 133) 3 134) 3 135) 4 136) 2 137) 3 138) 4 139) 1 140) 1

141) 2 142) 3 143) 4 144) 2 145) 1 146) 4 147) 3 148) 2 149) 1 150) 3

151) 3 152) 4 153) 2 154) 1 155) 1 156) 1 157) 3 158) 3 159) 4 160) 3

161) 1 162) 4 163) 2 164) 1 165) 1 166) 1 167) 3 168) 2 169) 4 170) 3

171) 4 172) 4 173) 1 174) 3 175) 2 176) 1 177) 1 178) 3 179) 1 180) 2
 PHYSICS SOLUTIONS 36 × 4
10 V= = 14.4V
1. Pitch of the screw = mm = 2mm 4+6
5
6. e = Blυ
Least count
8.
pitch of the screw 2mm
= = = 0.02mm
100 100
2µ y
2. 5= ⇒ µ y = 25
10
20 = 25 t - 5t 2
4 = 5t - t 2
t 2 − 5t + 4 = 0
t 2 − 4t − t + 4 = 0
t(t-4) – 1 (t-4) = 0
t =1
t =4 }
30 = u x × 3

u x = 10 9.
x = u x × 1 = 10

l
3. T = 2π l
g T 1 = 2π  v + vB cos 60° 
 d  n' = n
g 1 − L  
 dB   v − v A cos 60° 
10.
l 3T
T 1 = 2π =
 1 8
g 1 − 
 9
1
sin −1  
4. Critical angle C = µ
µ 
sin −1  2 
C=  µ1 
 4/3
sin −1  
C=  3/ 2
8
sin −1  
C= 9

ER  E 
5. V= 24 =   × 12 11.
R+r  12 + r 
E×6
18 = E = 2r + 24 → (2)
(6 + r )
E = 3r + 18 → (1) From eq (1) and (2)
r = 6Ω E = 36V
When both S1 and S2 are closed R∈q = 4Ω
 B02
12. I= C
2µ 0

I=
( 0.2 × 10 ) −6 2

3 × 108 = 4.8w / m
2
−7
2 × 4π × 10
14. φ1 = 8 ×10−4 φ2 = 0
dφ
dt = 0.4 sec, e = −
dt

=−
( 0 − 8 × 10 ) = 8 × 10−4 ,= 2 x 10-3 V
−4
⇒ 2m K 4 = 6mE0
0.4 4 × 10−1 K 4 = 3Eo
15. C = A . B = A + B = A + B → OR ∴ sum of KE of all fragments = 6 Eo
19. F = 4A α ∆t
C = A. B = A. B → AND .
F
16. = 4 α ∆t
A
20.
21.
Re duced mass
22. T = 2π
K
23. Equation y=Cx2
U=cx2 U=1 at x=0.4
1 100 25
C= = =
0.16 16 4
17. C1 is the capacitance of each part of the 25 2 du 25 25
network covered under the dotted lines U= x ; = (2 x) = x
4 dx 4 2
C 3C 3
C1=C+ = C1 = × 4 = 6 µ F F= − ,
du
F= − x
25
2 2 2 dx 2
25
F= –m ω 2x, M ω 2=
2
2 25 5
2ω = , ω=
2 2
2π 5 4π
= , T=
1 1 1 1 1 6 T 2 5
= + + + = µF 24. B0 = µ0 H in the absence of aluminium
Cs 4 4 6 6 5
6 12 B= µ H in the presence of aluminium
C AB = 2 × CS = 2 × = = 2.4 µ F
5 5 = µ0 (1 + χ ) H
18. B − B0
Percentage increase in B = × 100
B0
= χ × 100 = 2.1 × 10−3
25. By uncertinity principle
h
∆x.∆p ≈
2π
 6.6 × 10−34
( )
10−10 ∆P ≈
6.28
10−34
∆P ≈ −10
= 10−24 Kgm ec −1
10
26.

33. Conceptual
34.

27.

35.

36.

28.

44.

3RT
45. Vrms =
M
M
Vrms ( He) argon
= M
Vrms ( Ar ) helium
32.
Vrms( He ) 40
= = 10 = 3.16
Vrms( Ar ) 4