x

IIT/NEET – ACADEMY
SENIOR
IOR NEET WEEKEND TEST
Date : 10-10-2021 (NEET MODEL)) Time : 3hrs
Std : XII – NEET Max. Marks :720
720

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the
answer sheet.
Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry , Botany
& Zoology). Each part contains 45 questions.
Part – A (Physics) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT
CORRECT.
Part – B (Chemistry) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT
Part – C (Botany&Zoology
Botany&Zoology) : Contains 90 Questions. Each question has
four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT
Marking Scheme : For each question in every par
partt you will be awarded
4 Marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct and zero
mark if no bubbles are darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect
answer.
SUBJECT SYLLABUS PAPER SETTER
T-1:-SEMICONDUCTORS:
SEMICONDUCTORS:-RECTIFIER, ZENOR DIODE,
TRANSISTOR( BASIC MODELS), LOGIC GATES Mr.Venkatesh /
PHYSICS
T-2:-NUCLEAR
NUCLEAR PHYSICS:-FISSION
PHYSICS: AND FUSION Mr.SNR
EM WAVES
TRACK 1: ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY
CHEMISTRY Dr RB + Mr Phani
TRACK 2 : CEDL + POC
BOTANY BIOTECHNOLOGY AND IT'S APPLICATIONS FULL Mr Suresh
ZOOLOGY HUMAN REPRODUCTION AND REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH. Mr Subba Rayudu

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
2021
PHYSICS
1. A Zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15V, is used in a voltage
regulator circuit shown in figure. The current through the diode is

1) 5 mA 2) 10 mA 3) 15 mA 4) 20 mA
2. In the given circuit, the current through the zener diode is

1) 10 mA 2) 6.67 mA 3) 5 mA 4) 3.33 mA
3. A full wave rectifier along with the output is shown in fig. the contributions from
the diode (2) are

1) C 2) A, C 3) B, D 4) A, B, C, D
4. The correct relation between current gains  and  is

1)  

2)  

3)    1    4)  
1   
1 1 
5. In a full wave rectifier output is taken across a load resistor of 800 ohm. If the
resistance of diode in forward biased condition is 200 ohm, the efficiency of
rectification of ac power into
int dc power is
1) 64.96% 2) 40.6% 3) 81.2% 4) 80%
6. A full –wave
wave rectifier is used to convert ‘n’ Hz a.c into d.c, then the number of
pulses per second present in the rectified voltage is.
1) n 2) n/2 3) 2n 4) 4n
IC IC 20 100
7. In transistor if   and   . If  varies between and , then the value
IE IB 21 101
of  lies between
1) 1 – 10 2) 0.95 – 0.99 3)20 – 100 4) 200 – 300
8. In an n-p-n n transistor circuit, the collector current is 10mA. If 90% of the electrons
emitted reach the collector.
1) The emitter current, will be 9mA 2) The base current will be 1 mA
3) The emitter current will be 11mA 4) Both 2 and 3
9. For a p-n-p transistor in CB configuration, the emitter current IE is 1mA A and
  0.95 . The base current and collector current are
1) 0.95 mA, 0.05mA 2) 0.05mA, 0.95mA
3) 9.5mA, 0.5mA 4) 0.5mA, 9.5mA
10. In a transistor
1) Both emitter and the corrector are equally doped
2) Base is more heavily doped than collector
3) Collector is more heavily doped than the emitter
4) The base is made very thin and is lightly doped

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
2021
11. The graph given below represents the I-V
I V characterstics of a zener diode. Which
part of the characterstics curve is most relavant for its operation as a voltage
regulator.

1) ab 2) bc 3) cd 4) de
12. In the figure shown the potential drop across the series resistor is

1) 30V 2) 60V 3) 90V 4) 120V

1 1
13. For transistor x  & y  where  &  are current gains in common base and
 
common emitter configuration. Then
1) x + y = 1 2) x – y = 1 3) 2x = 1 – y 4) x + y = 0
14. A truth table is given below. The logic gate having following trugh table is
A B Y
0 0 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
1 1 0
1) NAND gate 2) NOR gate 3) AND gate 4) OR gate
15. Identify the gate represented by the block diagram as shown in figure.

1) AND gate 2) NOT gate 3) NAND gate 4) NOR gate

16. In a given circuit as shown the two input wave forms A and B are applied
simultaneously.

The resultant wave from at Y is

17. In the Boolean algebra, which gate is expressed as Y  A  B

1) OR 2) NAND 3) AND 4) NOR
18. If A = 1, B = 0 then the value of A  B in terms of Boolean algenra is
1) A 2) B 3) B + A 4) A . B

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
2021
19. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is

1) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0 2) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
3) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0 4) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
20. The output of OR gate is 1
1) If both inputs are zero 2) If either or both inputs are 1
3) Only if both inputs are 1 4) If either input is zero
21. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is

22. In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of
inputs A and B as

1) A.B 2) A . B  A . B 3) A.B  A . B 4) A  B
23. The output from of a NAND gate is divided into two in parallel and fed to another
NAND gate. The resulting gate is a
1) AND gate
2) NOR gate
3) OR gate
4) NOT gate

24. The ratio of the amounts of energy released as a result of the fussion of 1kg
hydrogen (E1) and fission of 1kg of 92U 236  E2  will be
1) 1.28 2) 3.28 3) 5.28 4) 7.28
25. Number of uranium 235 nuclei required to undergo fission to give 9 1013 joule of
energy is
1) 2.8125 1024 2) 28.125 1024 3) 281.25 1024 4) 28125 1024
26. Fusion reaction takes place at very high temperature because.
1) atoms are ionized at high temperatures
tem
2) molecules breakup at high temperature
3) nuclei break up at high temperature
4) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei
27. If “x” gm of a nuclear fuel of mass number “A” undergoes fission inside a reactor
then the number of fissions will be (N-Avagadro
(N Avagadro number)
1) NA/x 2) NZx 3) Nx/A 4) Ax/N
28. The amount of energy released in the fusion of two 1 H to form a 2 He 4 nucleus will
2

be [Binding energy per nucleon of 1 H 2  1.1MeV Binding energy per nucleon of

2 He  7MeV ]
4

1) 8.1 MeV 2) 5.9 MeV 3) 23.6 MeV 4) 2 MeV

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
29. In a thermo nuclear reaction 10 kg of hydrogen is converted into 0.99  103 kg of
3

helium. If the efficiency of the generator is 50%, the electrical energy generated in
KWH is
1) 105 2) 1.5 105 3) 1.25  105 4) 1.3 105
30. The operation of a nuclear reactor is said to be critical, if the multiplication factor
(K) has a value
1) 1 2) 1.5 3) 2.1 4) 2.5
31. The graph representing the variation of induced magnetic field in the gap of the
condenser plates during its charging with the distance from the axis of the gap is

1) B 2) B 3) B 4) B
distance distance distance distance
32. The sun radiates electromagnetic energy at the rate of 3.9 1026 W . Its radius is
6.96 108 m . The intensity of sun light at the solar surface will be  in W/m 2 
1) 1.4 104 2) 2.8 105 3) 64 106 4) 5.6 107
33. The magnetic field in travelling electro magnetic wave has a peak value of 20nT.
The peak value of electric field strength is
1) 6 V/m 2) 9 V/m 3) 12 V/m 4) 3 V/m
34. A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’, is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given
by V = V0 sin t
The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given
by :
V V
1) I d  V0 C cos t 2) I d  0 cos t 3) I d  0 sin t 4) I d  V0C sin t
C C
35. The rms value of the electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is 314V/m. The
average energy density of electric field and the average energy density are
1) 4.3  107 Jm 3 ; 2.15  10 7 Jm 3 2) 4.3  107 Jm 3 ;8.6  10 7 Jm 3
3) 2.15  10 7 Jm 3 ; 4.3  10 7 Jm 3 4) 8.6  107 Jm 3 ; 4.3  107 Jm 3
36. The wave function (in S.I unit) for an electromagnetic wave is given as
  x, t   103 sin   3  106 x  9  1014 t  . The speed of the wave is
1) 9 1014 m/s 2) 3 108 m/s 3) 3 106 m/s 4) 3 107 m/s
37. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic
waves?
1) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the
same place and same time
2) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and
magnetic vectors
3) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and
perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave
4) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation
38. Electromagnetic wave is transverse in nature is evident by
1) Polarization 2) Intergerence 3) reflection 4) diffraction
39. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma
rays is
1) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
2) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
3) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
4) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
40. The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing
water molecules most efficiently is
1) Microwaves are heat waves, so always produce heating
2) Infra-red waves produce heating in a microwave oven
3) The frequency of the microwave must match the resonant frequency of the water
molecules
4) The frequency of the microwaves has no relation with natural frequency of water
molecules
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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
41. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The
momentum transferred to the surface is (C = Velocity of light)
2E E E 2E
1) 2 2) 2 3) 4)
C C C C
42. Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating
electromagnetic wave?
1) A chargeless particle 2) An accelerating charge
3) A charge moving at constant velocity 4) A stationary charge

43. An electro magnetic wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity v  viˆ . The
instantaneous oscillating electric field of this electro magnetic wave is along +y
axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the electro magnetic wave
will be along
1) –z direction 2) +z direction 3) –y direction 4) –x direction
44. The area of each plate of a parallel plate condenser is 144cm 2 . The electrical field in
the gap between the plates changes at the rate of 1012 Vm1s 1 . The displacement
current is
4 0.4 40 1
1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A
   10
45. A U 235 atom undergoes fission by thermal neutrons according to the following
reaction
140
U 235  n 
54 Xe  38
94
Sr  2n
Then Xenon undergoes four and Strontium undergoes two consecutive  decays
and six electrons are detected. What is the atomic number of the two decay
products of Xenon and Strontium?
1) 50, 36 2) 58, 40 3) 56, 42 4) 57, 41

CHEMISTRY
46. Wrong statement among the following is
1) Classification of drugs based on durg target is also known as classification for
medicinal chemist
2) Carbohydrates, nucleic acids and vitamins are drug targets
3) Drugs which binds the active site of enzyme is called competitive inhibitors
4) Drugs which will change the shape of active site of enzyme is called non
competitive inhibitors
47. Statement – I : Hydroxides are better antacids than carbonates and bicarbonates.
Statement – II : Carbonates and bi-carbonates are more soluble than hydroxides,
which will increase pH values of stomach.
1) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true; Statement–II is a correct explanation
for Statement–I
2) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is true; Statement–II is not a correct
explanation for Statement–I
3) Statement–I is true, Statement–II is false
4) Statement–I is false, Statement–II is true
48. Which of the following is the correct structural representation of Histamine?

HN
1) 2)
NH2
NH2 N
N
N
3) NH2 4) NH2

49. Wrong statement among the following is :

1) Vernol is a derivative of Barbituric acid
2) Acetyl derivative of Heroin is called Morphine
3) Noradrenaline is a neurotransimitter which responasable formood changes
4) Drugs mimic like natural chemical messanger is called antagonist
50. Which of the following is/an neurologically active drug(s)?
1) Asprin 2) Iproniazid 3) Valium 4) All the above
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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
51. Wrong statement among the following is :
1) Ofloxacin is a Bactericidal and broad spectrum antibiotic
2) Chloramphenicol is a Bacteriostatic and braod spectrum antibiotic
3) First antibiotic with diazo group is paratosil
4) Sulphanilamide is the best sulpha drug
52. Which of the following statement is/are true?
1) Dysidazirine is toxic to certain cancer cells
2) Penecillin structure contains three chiral centres
3) Chloromphenicol structure contains two chiral centres
4) All the above are correct
53. IUPAC name of Terpineol, which is a component of Dettol.
1) 4-chloro-3,5-dimethyl phenal
2) 2(4-methylchlohex-3-enyl) papanol-2
3) 2-(3-methylchclohex-4-enyl) propanal-2
4) 3-chloro-4,5-dimethyl phenal
54. Wrong statement among the following is :
1) First popular artificial sweetner is saccharin
2) Except sucralose all artificial sweetners contain peptide linkage
3) Alitame can’t control sweetness of food
4) Sucralose is not stable at cooking temperature
55. Match the following detergents in List I, with their use in List-II :
List – I List – II
P) Sodium lauryl sulphate A) Tooth paste
Q) Cetyltrimethyl bromide B) Hair conditioners
R) Sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate C) Germicide
.
S) Non ionic detergent D) Liquid dishwash bar
P Q R S P Q R S
1) A C B D 2) A B A D
3) A D B C 4) D A C B
56. The separation of the constituents of a mixture by column chromatography
depends upon their
1) differentsolubilities 2) different boiling points
3) different refractive indices 4) differential adsorption
57. Paper chromatography has following mobile and stationary phase respectively
1) liquid, solid 2) solid, solid 3) gas, liquid 4) liquid, liquid
58. In the Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen in the organic compound, the
appearance of blue coloured compound is
1) ferricferricyanide 2) ferrous ferricyanide
3) ferricferrocyanide 4) ferrous ferrocyanide
59. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 while testing for halogens. By
doing so, it
1) decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed
2) helps in the precipitation of AgCl
3) increases the solubility product of AgCl
4) increases the concentration of NO3 ions
60. Which of the following compounds nitrogen can’t be estimated by Kjeldahl’s
method?
1) Quinoline 2) Pyridine 3) CH3 – NO2 4) All the above
61. The colour of the solution/precipitate obtained in the elemental analysis of an
organic compound and the molecule/ion responsible for the colour are given below.
Choose the incorrectly matched pair :
1)Yellow – (NH4)2MoO4 2) Black – Pbs
4 2
3) Violet colour -  Fe  CN 5 NOS  4) Blood red colour -  Fe  SCN  
62. 0.30 g of an organic compound containing C, H and O on combustion yields 0.44g
CO2 and 0.18 g H2O. Find weight percentage of oxygen in given organic compound
1) 45.34 2) 53.34 3) 63.34 4) 70.00
63. In Duma’s method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.30g of an organic compound gave
50 mL of nitrogen collected at 300K temperature and 715 mm pressure. If the
aqueous tension at 300K is 15mm, the percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
1) 16.76 2) 15.76 3) 17.46 4) 18.20

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
64. In Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia
evolved from 0.75g of sample neutralized 10mL of 1M H2SO4. The percentage of
nitrogen in the soil is
1) 37.33 2) 45.33 3) 35.33 4) 43.33
65. In carius method of estimation of halogens, 250 mg of an organic compound gave
141 mg of AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the compound is
(at. Mass Ag = 108; Br = 80)
1) 48 2) 60 3) 24 4) 36
66. Assertion : A mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can be separated by
steam distillation.
Reason : p-Nitrophenol is steam volatile while o-nitrophenol is not steam volatile.
1) If both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
3) If assertion is correct, but reason is false
4) If both assertion and reason are false
67. Assertion :Lassaigne’s test is not shown by diazonium salts.
Reason :Diazonium salts lose N2 on heating much before they have a chance to
react with fused sodium.
1) If both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
3) If assertion is correct, but reason is false
4) If both assertion and reason are false
68. Higher concentration of which of the following leads to stiffness of flower buds due
to which they tall off from plants?
1) CO2 2) SO2 3) CO 4) N2O
69. The correct matching for the following is :
List – 1 (Pollutant) List – 2 (Effect)
A) Hydrocarbons P) Greenhouse effect
B) Carbon monoxide Q) Retard the rate of photosynthesis
C) Carbon dioxide R) Carcinogenic
D) Nitrogen dioxide S) Failure of Haemoglobin as oxygen carrier
1) A-Q, B-S, C-R, D-P 2) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
3) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S 4) A-S , B-P , C-Q , D-R
70. Among the following statements :
A) Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate.
B) Classical smog is a mixture of smoke, fog and SO2.
C) Classical smog is an oxidizing smog.
1) Only A and B are correct 2) Only A and C are correct
3) Only B and C are correct 4) All A, B and C are correct
71. Which of the following pair of gases are major contributors of acid rain?
1) CO and CO2 2) CO2 and NO2 3) CO2 and SO2 4) SO2 and NO2
72. The correct matching for the following is :
List – 1 (Pollutant) List – 2
(Maximum perimissible level for drinking water)
A) Lead P) 500 ppm
B) Nitrate Q) 1 ppm
C) Fluoxide R) 50 ppm
D) Sulphate S) 50 ppb
1) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P 2) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
3) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q 4) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
73. Among the following statements :
A) Pesticides are synthetic toxic chemicals.
B) Corn fields sprayed with herbicides are more prone to insect attack than
manually weeded fields.
C) Insecticides, pesticides and herbicides cause soil pollution.
1) Only A and B are correct 2) Only A and C are correct
3) Only B and C are correct 4) All A, B and C are correct

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
74. Which of the following is biodegradable pesticides?
1) DDT 2) Aldrin
3) Dieldrin 4) Organo-phosphates
75. Fuel obtained from plastic waste with higher octane rating and no lead is known as
1) Biofuel 2) Green fuel 3) Synfuel 4) Primary fuel
76. Which of the following is wrong?
1) The bacteria, Escherichia coli and streptococcus from human excreta cause
gastrointestinal disease
2) Excessive growth of phytoplankton in water causes water pollution
3) If the concentration of DO of water is below 6 ppm, then the growth of fish gets
inhibited
4) Fertilisers containing phosphates when dissolved in water, decreases the growth
of algae
77. For clean water, the BOD should be
1) less than 50 ppm 2) less than 17 ppm
3) less than 5 ppm 4) less than 10 ppm
78. Polychlorinated biphenyls(PCBs) are used as
1) Cleansing agents 2) Pesticides
3) Herbicides 4) Insecticides
79. Which of the following is not a green house effect gas?
1) CO2 2) Chlorofluorocarbons
3) SO2 4) O3
80. Normal pH of rain water is
1) 3.6 2) 7.0 3) 5.6 4) 4.2
81. Oxygen deficiency in blood leads to
1) Headache 2) Weak eyegight
3) Cardiovascular disorder 4) All the above
82. Which of the following is a primary precursor of photochemical smog?
1) PAN 2) Acrolein 3) Hydrocarbons 4) Ozone
83. In Antarctica region, which of the following reaction takes place at the surface of
polar stratospheric clouds in winter season?

1) C lO  NO2 
 ClONO2 2) ClONO2  H 2O 
 HClO  HNO3
   
3) HClO  hv
O H  C l 4) C l  CH 4  HCl  C H 3
84. The correct matching for the following is :
List – II
List – I (Metal) (Maximum prescribed concentration in ppm
permitted for drinking water)
A) Cu P) 5.0
B) Fe Q) 0.005
C) Zn R) 0.2
D) Cd S) 3.0
1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R 2) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
3) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q 4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
85. The presence of higher concentration which of the following causes blue baby
syndrome, disease?
1) NO3 2) SO42 3) Pb 4) F 
86. In metathesis, proposed by Y.chauvin, R.H. Grubbs and R. Schrock, which of the
following process is adopted in the development of environmental-friendly
polymers?
1) Replacing the functional groups present in molecules with other functional
groups
2) Rearranging the groups within molecules like couplesexchange their dance
partners in a dance program
3) Introducing carbonyl groups in to molecules at suitable positions
4) Introducing acid chlorides at suitable positions in molecules

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
87. Based on green chemistry, which of the following is wrong?
1) For bleaching paper  H2O2 with a suitable catalyst is better than chlorine gas
2) For dry cleaning  liquid CO2 is better solvent than Cl2C = CCl2
3) For industrial waste water cleaning  Alum is better than powder of kernel of
tamarand seeds
4) Production ofethanal one step oxidation of ethene with O2 in the presence of
Pd(II)chloride in aqueous medium gives 90% yield
88. In the production of electricity from garbage waste, which of the following should
be eliminated from waste before recycling the waste with suitable bacteria?
1) Ferrous metals 2) Plastic 3) Glass 4) All the above
89. In which of the following spheres, ozone acts as pollutant?
1) Troposphere 2) Stratosphere
3) Both in troposphere and stratosphere
4) Neither in troposphere nor in stratosphere
90. Which of the following is wrong?
1) Photochemical smog is oxidizing smog
2) Excess of sulphate in water (>500ppm) causes laxative effect
3) Herbicides are more toxic to mammals than organo-chlorides like DDT
4) Eutrifiction is the process in which a water body becomes overly enriched with
nutrients, leading to plentiful growth of algae and plankton in water body
BIOLOGY
91. ‘X’ is a single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule and is used
to detect mutated gene. Identify 'X'
1) RNAi 2)Probe 3)Plasmid 4)Primer
92. Which of the following is the applications of Biotechnology?
1) Biopharmaceuticals, therapeutics diagnostics
2) Genetically modified crops & processed food
3) Bioremediation, waste treatment and energy production 4) All the above
93. The critical research area of biotechnology is
1) Providing the best catalyst in the form of improved organism usually a microbe
or pure enzyme
2) Creating optimal conditions through engineering for a catalyst to act.
3) Downstream processing technologies to purify the protein/organic compound
4) All the above
94. Biopatents are
(A) Right to use invention (B) Right to use products
(C) Right to use biological entities (D) Right to use process
1) A & C 2)C only 3) A, C, D 4)All of these
95. Plant, bacteria fungi & animals whose gene have been altered by manipulation
are genetically modified organisms (GMO). Which of the following statement is not
applicable in GM plants'?
1) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides 2) Reduce post harvest losses.
3) Crops less tolerant to abiotic stress (cold, drought, salt. heat)
4) Enhanced nutritional value of food
96. Over 95% of the transgenic animals are
1) Mice 2) Rabbits 3) Fishes 4) Cows
97. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait
1) High lysine (essential amino acid) content 2) Insect resistance
3) High protein content 4) High vitamin-A content
98. Select the wrong statement.
1) Human protein,  -1- antitrypsin is used to treat emphysema
2) Transgenic mice are used to test the safety of the Corona (or) Polio vaccine
3) Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing transgenic models
for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases
4) Transenic cow Rosie produced human protein- enriched milk, which contains
the human  - lactalbumin
99. Read the paragraph and choose the correct option.
In A , Eli Lilly an B company prepared two chains of human
insulin linked by C bonds and introduced them in plasmids of D .
1) A- 1980, C- European 2) A-1983, D- Agrobacterium
3) B- American, D- E.coli 4) C. Hydrogen, D- Meloidegyne
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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
100. ADA is an enzyme which is deficient in a genetic disorder SCID.
What is the full form of ADA?
1) Adenosine DeoxyAminase 2) Adenosine Deaminase
3) Aspartate Deaminase 4) Arginine Deaminase
101. The novel strategy of ______ was adopted to prevent Meloidegyneincognitia infection
in tobacco plants.
1) DNA interference 2) RNA interference
3) RNA intiation 4) DNA initiation
102. Meloidegyne incognitia infects – Tobacco
1) Leaf 2) Root 3) Stem 4) Fruit
103. Transgenic animals being produced by biotechnology because of help in :
I) Study of disease II) Biological product
III) Vaccine safety IV) Chemical sefety testing
1) I & II only correct 2) III & IV only correct
3) II & III only correct 4) All are correct
104. GEAC makes decisions regarding
1) The validity of GM research
2) The safety of introducing GM organisms for public services
3) The validity of biopatents 4) More than one options are correct
105. Eli Lilly, an American company, prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A
and B, chains of human insulin and introduced them in plasmids of and B were
produced separately, extracted and combined by creating
1) Peptide bonds 2) Ionic bonds 3) H-bonds 4)Disulfide bonds
106. Which of the following infects the roots of tobacco plants reducing the production
of tobacco?
1) Nematode (Meloidegyneincognitia) 2) Coleopterans (beetles)
3) Lepidopterans (armyworm) 4) Dipterans (mosquitoes)
107. Which of the following is a powerful technique to identify many genetic disorders
and detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients?
1) ELISA, based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction
2) PCR
3) Serum and urine analysis 4) Both (1) and (2)
108. An example of gene therapy is
1) Production of injectable hepatitis B vaccine
2) Production of vaccines in food crops like potatoes which can be eaten
3) Introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in persons suffering from severe
combined immune deficiency diseases
4) Production of test tube babies by artificial insemination and implantation of
fertilized eggs
109. First transgenic cow was
1) Rosie 2) Dolion 3) Dolly 4) Genie
110. Genetically engineered human insulin is called.
1) Hybrid 2) Humulin 3) c-peptide 4) Hirudin
111. Given figure represents the maturation of pro-insulin into, insulin. Identify the
product (A)

1) Polypeptide chain A 2) Polypeptide chain B

3) Free C peptide 4) Both (2) and (3)

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Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
112. Match the columns and find out the correct combination:
A. GM research 1. E.coli
B. Human insulin 2. Gene therapy
C. Pest resistant tobacco plants 3. Genetic engineering approved committee
D. ADA deficiency 4. Transgenic animals
E. Treatment of emphysema 5. RNA interference
1) A – 3, B – 1, C – 5, D – 2, E – 4 2) A – 1, B – 3, C – 4, D – 5, E – 2
3) A – 3, B – 4, C – 5, D – 2, E – 1 4) A – 5, B – 2, C – 1, D – 3, E – 4
113. _______ documented varieties of Basmati are grown in India.
1) 2 Lakh 2) 12 3) 30 4) 27
114. Read the statements (A - D) and answer the question Which follows them.
(A) Phenylketonuria and cystic fibrosis can by treated by the help of transgenic
animals
(B) Vaccine safety testing can be done on monkeys also
(C)During chemical safety testing, effect of toxins can be obtained in less time by
the use of transgenic animals.
(D) In India itself, more than 2,00,000 varieties of rice exist
How many of the above statements are true?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) One
115. In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing
genetically modified organisms for public use is:
1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
2) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research(CSIR)
3) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
116. GM plants have been useful in
1) Decreasing crop yield 2) increasing post harvest losses
3) decreased nutritional value of food 4) make crops more tolerant to stresses
117. Bt cotton is resistant to
1) Dipterans 2) Lepidopterans 3) Coleopterans 4) All of these
118. Which can’t controls corn borer:
1) CrylAc 2) CryIIAb 3) CryIAb 4) Both (1) & (2)
119. Golden rice is vitamin “A’ enriched rice : This plant have following genetic
modification:
1) This plant have foreign genes for vitamin B12 synthesis.
2) This plant have foreign genes for synthesis of  - carotene
3) This plant have foreign genes for synthesis of xanthophill.
4) This plant have mic-RNA of polygalactouronase
120. Choose wrong statement with respect to RNA interference
1) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense
2) RNAi involves silencing of a specific m-RNA due to a complementary ds DNA
3) Source of complementary RNA may be mobile genetic elements (Transposons)
that replicate via an RNA intermediate
4) Introduction of DNA produced both sense and anti-sense RNA in host cells
121. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel-
1) Bio-metallurgical techniques 2) Bio-mineralization processes
3) Bio-insecticidal plants 4) Bio-fertilizers
122. First artificially synthesysed hormone is
1) Inulin 2) Insulin 3) Testosteron 4) Renin
123. Choose statement incorrect
1) We can use GM plants to increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants
2) RNAi takes place in all prokaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense
3) Cry IAc control the cotton bollworms
4) The green revolution succeeded in tripling the food supply but yet it was not
enough to feed the growing human population
124. Which of the following ways are suitable for increasing food production?
A) Agrochemical based agriculture.
B) Organic agrieulture
C) Genetically engineered crop-based agriculture
1) A and B 2) A and C 3) B and C 4) All of these

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
125. Genetically modified organisms are used for
1) Reducing reliance on chemical pesticides
2) Developing pest-resistant crops
3) Increasing efficiency of mineral usage by plants that prevents early exhaustion of
fertility of soil
4) All of the above
126. Genetically engineered insulin is considered better for human diabetic patients
over that isolated from animals because:
1) Insulin expressed in bacterial cells are of low molecular weight
2) Insulin from other animals are not pure
3) Genetically engineered insulin will not elicit immune response in human body
4) Genetically engineered insulin is easily transported through blood stream
127. cDNA library is prepared from
1) DNA 2) rRNA 3) Protein 4) mRNA
128. The use of bio – resources by multinational companies & other organizations
without proper authorization from the countries & people concerned, is known as
1) Biopatent 2) Biopiracy 3) Biowar 4) Biodiversity
129. A transgenic contains foreign
1) DNA in some cells 2) DNA in all cells
3) RNA in some cells 4) RNA in all cells
130. ELISA is based on the principle
1) Antigen – antibody 2) Antigen – antigen
3) Antibody – antibody 4) Peroxydase
131. S-I: RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organism as a method of cellular defense.
S-II: To make a plant resistant against a nematode we introduced anti-sense
strand of RNA into the host plant.
1) Both S-I & S-II are true 2) Both S-I & S-II are false
3) S-I is true, S-II is false 4) S-I is false, S-II is true
132. In mature insulin which is not present:
1) A-peptide 2) B-peptide 3) C-peptide 4) Both (1) & (2)
133. Genetically engineered insulin contains
1) A and B chain linked together by disulphide bridges
2) A and C Chain linked together by disulphide bridges.
3) B and C Chain linked together by disulphide bridges.
4) A,B and C Chain linked together by disulphide bridge.
134. For gene therapy we used:
1) Cosmid vector 2) Agrobacterium vector
3) Retro virus 4) Genegun
135. Which one is considered as permanent cure for ADA deficiency –
1) Enzyme Replacement therapy
2) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocyter having functional ADA
cDNA
3) Introduction of bone marrow cells producing (ADA) into bone marrow at an early
embayment stages
4) Regular blood transfusion
136. For spermatogenesis the temperature in the scrotum is
1) 2  2.5o C lower than body temperature
2) 2  2.5o C higher than body temperature
3) 2  2.5o F lower than body temperature
4) 2  2.5o F higher than body temperature
137. Nutritive cells in the testis to nourish germ cells
1) Leyding cells 2) Sertoli cells 3) Spermatogonia 4) Spermatozoa
138. ‘Glans Penis’ is covered by
1) Fore skin 2) Mons pubis 3) Rete testis 4) Scrotum
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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
139. Estrogen-to-progesterone ratio towards the end of pregnancy
1) increases 2) decreases 3) remains same 4) 1 or 2
140. In the diagram of human male reproductive system, the different parts have been
indicated by alphabets. Choose the correct match.

1) A-Epidiymis, B-Testis, C-Vas deferens, D-Penile urethra

2) A-Testis, B-Epididymis, C-Vas deferens, D-Penile urethra
3) A-Penile urethra, B-Vas deferens, C-Epididymis, D-Testis
4) A-Penile urehra, B-Testis, C-Epdidymis, D-Vas deferens
141. The following include primary sexual organs
1) Testes ovaries & sex hormones 2) Testes, ovaries & genital ducts
3) Gential glands & genital ducts 4) Only Testes & ovaries
142. Match the terms column-I with their functions in column-II and select the correct
option.
Column-I (Term) Column-II (Function)
A) Ovary 1) Hollow organ where foetus develops
B) Uterus 2) Birth canal
C) Fallopian tubes 3) Organ where eggs are produced
D) Vagina 4) Narrow lower end of the uterus
E) Cervix 5) Tubes that carry eggs to uterus
1) A-3, B-1, C-5, D-4, E-2 2) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-2, E-1
3) A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2, E-4 4) A-3, B-1, C-5, D-2, E-4
143. “Cervix’s is
1) A narrow opening of uterus into vagina
2) A narrow opening of vagina into the exterior
3) A narrow opening of uterus into vestibule
4) A narrow opening of vagina into vestibule
144. Match the terms column-I with their functions in column-II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A) Graafian follicle 1) A fold of mucous covering vaginal orifice
B) Hymen 2) Inner folds of skin within the vestibule
C) Labia minora 3) Mucous membrane lining the uterus
D) Clitoris 4) A mature follicle in a mammalian ovary
E) Endometrium 5) Erectile body in the female
1) A-4, B-3, C-5, D-2, E-1 2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5, E-4
3) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-5, E-4 4) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-5, E-3
145. Which of the following indicates the correct flow of milk until the milk is sucked
out by infant?
1) Alveoli – Cavities of alveoli – Mammary tubules – Mammary duct – Mammary
ampulla – Lactiferous duct
2) Alveoli – Mammary tubules – Cavities of alveoli – Mammary ampulla – Mammary
duct – Lactiferous duct
3) Alveoli – Mammary ampulla – Cavities of alveoli – Mammary tubules – Mammary
duct – Lactiferous duct
4) Alveoli – Cavity of ampulla – Mammary duct – Mammary tubules – Mammary
ampulla – Lactiferous duct

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
146. The number of ova formed through oogenesis from each ovarian follicle is equal to
1) The number of polar bodies 2) The number of oogonia
3) The number of secondary oocytes 4) Both 2 & 3
147. Follow this process of development and identify the exact location of reduction in
chromosomal number.
A
spermatogonia  primary spermatocytes
 (B)
secondary spermatocytes 
 spermatids
(C)

 spermatozoa

(D)
1) ‘A’ only 2) ‘B’ only 3) ‘C’ only 4) ‘D’ only
148. Numerous mitochondria are located in the sperm in
1) Head 2) Middle piece 3) Neck 4) Tail
149. In the figure of mammalian spermatozoan, identify the different parts marked as A,
B, C, D.

1) A-Acrosome; B-Nucleus; C-Mitochondrial sperial; D-Axial filament

2) A-Axial filament; B-Mitochondrial spiral; C-Acrosome; D-Nucleus
3) A-Nucleus; B-Acrosome; C-Mitochondrial spiral; D-Axil fukanebt
4) A-Acrosome; BNucleus; C-Axial filament; D-Mitochondrial spiral
150. Study the following figure showing fertilization of human oocyte and choose the
correct option.

1) B-Corona radiata; forms trophoblast around morula

2) C-Antrum; space between the plasma membrane of the ovum and zonapellucida
3) A-Zonapellucida; persists till implantation
4) B-Zonapellucida; formed by the occyte
151. Statement-I : During oogenesis the 1st meiotic division occurs in secondary oocyte.
Statement-II : Diploid secondary oocyte gives rise to haploid second polar body
and ovum.
1) Both I and II statements are correct 2) Both I and II statements are wrong
3) Statement-I correct but II is wrong 4) Statement-I wrong but II is correct

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
152. How many structures in the list given below are haploid?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary spermatocyte, ovum, sperm,
oogonia, spermatogonia, polar body
1) Six 2) Four 3) Two 4) Five
153. Match the following regions of a sperm with the structres and choose the correct
option using the codes given below :
Column-I Column-II
a) Head i) Enzymes
b) Middle piece ii) Sperm motility
c) Acrosome iii) Energy
.
d) Tail iv) Genetic material
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) 2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
154. When released from ovary, human egg contains :
1) 1 Y chromosome 2) 2 X chromosome
3) 1 X chromosome 4) XY chromosomes
155. Fill in the blanks in the following statements:
The human male ejaculates about….million sperms during a coitus of which, for
normal fertility, at least……perent sperms must have normal shape and size and at
least…..percent of them must show vigorous motility.
1) 400–500, 60, 40 2) 100–120, 40, 60 3) 200–300, 60, 40 4) 200–300, 40, 60
156. The following refers to schematic representation of oogenesis. Idnetify A to E
correctly.

1) (A) Fetal life; (B) Birth; (C) Puberty; (D) Adult reproductive life; (E) Child hood
2) (A) Fetal life; (B) Birth; (C) Child hood; (D) Puberty; (E) Adult reproductive life
3) (A) Adult reproductive life; (B) Birth; (C) Puberty; (D) Child hood; (E) Featal life
4) (A) Brith; (B) Child hood; (C) Fetal life; (D) Puberty; (E) Adult reproductive life
157. During menstrual cycle, both LH and FSH attain a peak level on
1) 14th day 2) 7th day 3) 21st day 4) 28th day
158. The following graph represents the concentrations of the four hromones present in
the blood plasma of an woman during her menstrual cycle. Identify the hormones.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1) FSH Progesterone LH Oestrogen
2) LH Progesterone FSH Oestrogen
3) FSH Oestrogen LH Progesterone
4) LH Oestrogen FSH Progesterone
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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
159. The hormones like hCG, hPL, etc only during pregnancy are secreted from
1) Ovary only 2) Uterus only 3) Foetus only 4) Placenta
160. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually
observed during
1) 2nd month 2) 3rd month 3) 4th month 4) 5th month
161. Foetal ejection reflex is helpful in
1) micturition 2) parturition 3) insemination 4) lactation
162. Match the terms column-I with their functions in column-II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A) Lactation 1) Layer of follicle cells
B) Blastocyst 2) Release of mature spermatozoa
C) Parturition 3) Mammalian embryo
D) Corona radiata 4) Process of giving birth
E) Spermiation 5) Secretion of milk
1) A-4, B-3, C-5, D-2, E-1 2) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-1, E-2
3) A-5, B-2, C-4, D-1, E-3 4) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-5, E-4
163. Match the items of Column-I with those in Column-II :
Column-I Column-II
A) Oxytocin p) Stimulate ovulation
B) Prolactin q) Implantation and maintenance of pregnancy
C) Luteinising hormone r) Lactation after child birth
D) Progesterone s) Uterine contraction during labour
t) Reabsorption of water by nephrons
1) A-s, B-q, C-r, D-t 2) A-t, B-r, C-p, D-s
3) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-q 4) A-t, B-p, C-s, D-r
164. Glans penis is formed by
1) Corpus spongiosum 2) Corpus cavernosum
3) Ejaculatory ducts 4) 1 and 2
165. Study the following :
a) Inhibits release of LH and GnRH
b) Prepares mammary glands to secrete milk
c) Prepares endometrium for implantation
d) Inhibits ovulation
e) Inhibits contraction of uterine muscles
The above are related to
1) Hrmone of female sexual behaviour 2) Hormone of emergency
3) Hormone of gestation 4) Hormone of survival
166. hCG is similar in its actions to
1) FSH 2) Progesteron 3) LH 4) Estrogen
167. A female undergo hysterectomy, which one of the following event will not occur?
1) Formation of Graafian follicle 2) Ovulation 3) Menstruation
4) Completion of meiosis-I and formation of secondary oocyte
168. Trace the correct path of sperm from seminiferous tubules
1) Rete testis  vasa efferntia epididymis  vas deferens
2) Rete testis  epididymis  vasa efferntia vas deferens
3) Vasa efferntia rete testis  vasa efferntia epididymis
4) Epididymis  vasa efferntia rete testis  vas deferens
169. Family planning programme was initiated in
1) 1920 2) 1930 3) 1951 4) 1961
170. Reproductive health in society can be improved by
(i) Introduction of sex education in schools.
(ii) Increased medical care.
(iii) Awareness about contraception and STDs.
(iv) Equal opportunities to male and female children.
1) All except iii 2) i, ii, iii 3) All the above 4) All except i
171. Vaults prevent conception by
1) phagocytosis of sperms 2) releasing hormones
3) killing ova 4) blocking the entry of sperms

172. Which of the following is a hormone releasing IUD?

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
2021
1) Multiload 375 2) LNG – 20 3) Cervical cap 4) Vault
173. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive?
1) User-friendly 2) Irreversible 3) Easily available 4) Least side-effects
174. What is true about “Saheli”?
(i) Developed at the CDRI, Lucknow
(ii) Contains a steroidal preparation
(iii) “Once-a-week”week” pill
(iv) Many side effects
(v) High contraceptive value
(vi) Very few side effects
(vii) Low contraceptive value v
1) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi) 2) (i), (iii), (v), (vi)
3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) 4) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
175. Match the following :
List-I List-II
A) Removal of a small part of fallopian tube 1) In vitro fertilization
B) Removal of a small part of vas deferens 2) In vivo fertilization
C) Fusion of gametes within the female 3) Vasectomy
D) Fusion of gametes outside the body 4) Amenorrhea
.
5) Tubectomy
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) 3 5 1 2 2) 3 5 4 2
3) 5 3 2 1 4) 5 3 1 2
176. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
1) 72 hrs of coitus 2) 72 hrs ovulation
3) 72 hrs of menstruation 4) 72 hrs of implantation
177. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement-1 :CuT, CuT, Cu7 and multiload 375 are the hormone releasing IUDs.
Statements-2 : Cu ions released by some IUDs affect the ability of uterine wall to
support embryo thus cause contraception.
1) S-1 1 is fasle and S-2 S is true 2) Both S S-1 and S-2 are true
3) S-1 1 is true and S-2 S is false 4) Both S S-1 and S-2 are false
178. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement-1 : MTP is considered relatively safe during the first trimester of
pregnancy.
Statements-2 :Foetus Foetus becomes intimately associated with the maternal tissue ti
after the first trimester.
1) S-1 1 is fasle and S-2 S is true 2) Both S S-1 and S-2 are true
3) S-1 1 is true and S-2 S is false 4) Both S S-1 and S-2 are false
179. Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option from the codes
given below.
Column - I Column – II
A) Zygote with 8-blastomeres
8 1) GIFT
B) Zygote with more than 8-blastomeres 8 2) ZIFT
C) Sperm and oocyte transfer in Fallopian tube 3) AI
D) Sperms are artificially introduced in the female 4) IUT
.
vagina or uterus
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) 4 2 1 3 2) 3 4 2 1
3) 2 4 1 3 4) 1 2 3 4
180. Which of the following figures shows tubectomy?

1) A only 2) B only 3) Either A or B 4) None of these

: ANSWER KEY:
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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY
Weekend Test XII- NEET MODEL_10-10-2021
STD: XII – NEET Weekend Test DATE: 10-10-2021
SUB: PHYSICS

S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key
1 1 11 4 21 1 31 1 41 4
2 4 12 1 22 2 32 3 42 2
3 3 13 2 23 1 33 1 43 2
4 1 14 2 24 4 34 1 44 2
5 1 15 4 25 1 35 2 45 2
6 3 16 1 26 4 36 2
7 3 17 4 27 3 37 3
8 4 18 2 28 3 38 1
9 2 19 2 29 3 39 1
10 4 20 2 30 1 40 3
SUB:CHEMISTRY
Q.No Key Q. No Key Q. No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
46 2 56 4 66 3 76 4 86 2
47 1 57 4 67 1 77 3 87 3
48 1 58 3 68 2 78 1 88 4
49 2 59 1 69 2 79 3 89 1
50 4 60 4 70 1 80 3 90 3
51 4 61 1 71 4 81 4
52 4 62 2 72 1 82 3
53 2 63 3 73 4 83 2
54 4 64 1 74 4 84 3
55 2 65 3 75 2 85 1
SUB : BOTANY

Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
91 2 101 2 111 3 121 3 131 3
92 4 102 2 112 2 122 2 132 3
93 4 103 4 113 4 123 2 133 1
94 4 104 4 114 2 124 4 134 3
95 3 105 4 115 4 125 4 135 2
96 1 106 1 116 4 126 2
97 4 107 2 117 4 127 4
98 3 108 3 118 4 128 2
99 3 109 1 119 2 129 2
100 2 110 2 120 2 130 1

Topic: SUB : ZOOLOGY

Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
136 1 146 3 156 2 166 3 176 1
137 2 147 2 157 1 167 3 177 4
138 1 148 2 158 3 168 1 178 2
139 1 149 1 159 4 169 3 179 3
140 2 150 4 160 4 170 3 180 2
141 4 151 2 161 2 171 4
142 4 152 4 162 2 172 2
143 1 153 2 163 3 173 2
144 4 154 3 164 1 174 2
145 1 155 3 165 3 175 3

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VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY