केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन

देहरादून संभाग
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
DEHRADUN REGION

रसायन विज्ञान विषय हेतु संिर्धन कायधशाला

SUBJECT ENRICHMENT WORKSHOP FOR CHEMISTRY
सत्र/SESSION – 2023-24

कक्षा 12 हेतु लघ-ु उत्तरीय प्रश्न संग्रह

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS FOR
CLASS XII
Chief Patron
Dr. SUKRITI RAIWANI
Deputy Commissioner, KVS RO Dehradun
Patron
Mrs. SWATY AGARWAL Mr. LALIT MOHAN BISHT Mr. SURJEET SINGH
Assistant Commissioners, KVS RO DehradunN
Coordinator
Mr. ARVIND KUMAR
Principal, Kendriya Vidyalaya No.-2, Roorkee

Venue
Kendriya Vidyalaya, No.-2, Roorkee
(Date: 29.09.2023-30.09.2023)
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 CONTENTS

U.No. Unit Name Page No.

1. Solution 4 – 17

2. Electrochemisty 16 – 29

3. Chemical Kinetics 30 – 48

4. d- & f-Block Elements 49 – 61

5. Coordination Compounds 62 – 69

6. Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 70 – 83

7. Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 84 – 96

8. Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 97 – 107

9. Amines 108 – 117

10. Biomolecules 118 – 130

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CLASS XII
A Capsule
Of
Short-Answer type
Questions

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 UNIT-I
SOLUTIONS

1. What is Henry's law?

ans. Henry's law describes the relationship between the pressure of a gas and its solubility in a liquid.
It states that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of
that gas above the liquid.
2. How does temperature affect the solubility of gases in liquids according to Henry's law?
ans. Generally, the solubility of gases in liquids decreases with an increase in temperature, as
described by Henry's law.
3. Explain why carbonated beverages fizz when opened.
ans. When a carbonated beverage is opened, the pressure above the liquid decreases, causing the
dissolved carbon dioxide gas to come out of solution, forming bubbles and giving the drink its
fizz.
4. What is the significance of Henry's law in scuba diving?
ans. Henry's law is important in scuba diving because it helps explain how nitrogen dissolves in the
bloodstream under high pressure at depth and how it can form bubbles in the body during rapid
ascents, leading to decompression sickness.
5. Why is the solubility of gases typically lower in nonpolar solvents compared to polar solvents?
ans. Gases tend to be less soluble in nonpolar solvents because the interactions between gas
molecules and nonpolar solvent molecules are weaker compared to the interactions with polar
solvent molecules.
6. Give an example of a practical application of Henry's law in industry.
ans. One practical application is the extraction of natural gas from crude oil using the principle of
Henry's law. Gas is released from the oil as pressure decreases, and it can then be separated and
collected.
7. What happens to the solubility of a gas when the partial pressure of that gas above the liquid is
increased?
ans. The solubility of the gas in the liquid also increases proportionally, as stated by Henry's law.
8. What factors can influence the Henry's law constant for a particular gas-solvent pair?
ans. Temperature, the nature of the gas, and the nature of the solvent can all influence the Henry's
law constant (KH) for a specific gas-solvent combination.
9. What is vapor pressure in chemistry?
ans. Vapor pressure is the pressure exerted by the vapor (gas phase) of a substance in equilibrium
with its liquid or solid phase at a specific temperature.
10. How does temperature affect the vapor pressure of a liquid?
ans. As temperature increases, the vapor pressure of a liquid also increases because more molecules
have sufficient energy to escape from the liquid phase into the vapor phase.
11. What is the relationship between vapor pressure and boiling point?
ans. The boiling point of a substance is the temperature at which its vapor pressure equals the
external pressure. Higher vapor pressure at a given temperature corresponds to a lower boiling
point.
12. Explain why water boils at a lower temperature at high altitudes.

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ans. At higher altitudes, the atmospheric pressure is lower, so water can reach its vapor pressure
(boiling point) at a lower temperature, causing it to boil at a lower temperature.
13. What is the significance of vapor pressure in cooking processes?
ans. In cooking, an increase in vapor pressure can lead to faster cooking times because food cooks
at a higher temperature when the vapor pressure is elevated within a sealed container.
14. What is the vapor pressure of a liquid when it is at its boiling point?
ans. The vapor pressure of a liquid at its boiling point is equal to the external pressure.
15. How does intermolecular attraction affect vapor pressure?
ans. Stronger intermolecular forces result in lower vapor pressure because molecules are less likely
to escape from the liquid phase.
16. What is meant by "boiling point elevation" in solutions?
ans. Boiling point elevation is the phenomenon where the boiling point of a solvent increases when
a non-volatile solute is added to it.
17. Why does a solution with a non-volatile solute have a higher boiling point than the pure
solvent?
ans. The presence of a solute reduces the vapor pressure of the solvent, requiring a higher
temperature to reach the vapor pressure equal to the external pressure (boiling point).
18. How does adding a solute affect the vapor pressure of a solvent in a solution?
ans. Adding a non-volatile solute lowers the vapor pressure of the solvent compared to the pure
solvent at the same temperature.
19. What is the Raoult's law for ideal solutions?
ans. Raoult's law states that the vapor pressure of a component in an ideal solution is directly
proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.
20. What happens to the vapor pressure of a solution when the solute concentration increases?
ans. The vapor pressure of a solution decreases as the concentration of the solute increases,
following Raoult's law for ideal solutions.
21. Give an example of a real-life application of vapor pressure in industry or everyday life.
ans. One example is the use of vapor pressure in the design of pressure cookers, where increasing
vapor pressure within the sealed container allows for faster cooking at higher temperatures
22. Define a non-ideal solution.
ans. A non-ideal solution is one in which the interactions between solute-solute, solvent-solvent,
and solute-solvent particles differ significantly from those in an ideal solution. These solutions
do not obey Raoult's law over the entire composition range.
23. Explain Raoult's law.
ans. Raoult's law states that the vapor pressure of a component in a solution is directly proportional
to its mole fraction in the solution, assuming ideal behavior.
24. Give an example of an ideal solution.
ans. The solution of ethanol (C2H5OH) and water (H2O) is often considered an ideal solution.
25. What is a binary solution?
ans. A binary solution is a solution composed of two components: a solvent and a solute.
26. Why does a non-ideal solution deviate from Raoult's law?
ans. Non-ideal solutions deviate from Raoult's law due to differences in intermolecular forces
between solute-solute, solvent-solvent, and solute-solvent particles.
27. What is a positive deviation from Raoult's law?

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ans. A positive deviation occurs when the observed vapor pressure of a solution is greater than
predicted by Raoult's law. It often happens in mixtures with stronger solute-solute interactions
than solvent-solvent interactions.
28. Provide an example of a positive deviation from Raoult's law.
ans. The system acetone (CH3COCH3) and chloroform (CHCl3) exhibits positive deviation from
Raoult's law.
29. Explain a negative deviation from Raoult's law.
ans. A negative deviation occurs when the observed vapor pressure of a solution is lower than
predicted by Raoult's law. It typically occurs in mixtures with weaker solute-solute interactions
than solvent-solvent interactions.
30. Give an example of a negative deviation from Raoult's law.
ans. The system hydrogen chloride (HCl) and water (H2O) exhibits negative deviation from Raoult's
law.
31. What are colligative properties?
ans. Colligative properties are properties of solutions that depend on the number of solute particles
but not on their nature. Examples include vapor pressure lowering, boiling point elevation,
freezing point depression, and osmotic pressure.
32. How does temperature affect the behavior of non-ideal solutions?
ans. Temperature can influence the degree of non-ideality in a solution. Increasing temperature can
sometimes reduce deviations from Raoult's law.
33. What are azeotropes?
ans. Azeotropes are mixtures with constant composition that boil at a single, constant temperature.
They can be either positive or negative azeotropes.
34. Explain the concept of van't Hoff factor.
ans. The van't Hoff factor (i) is the ratio of moles of particles in a solution to moles of solute
dissolved. It accounts for the number of particles formed when a solute dissolves in a solvent.
35. Why does the van't Hoff factor differ between ideal and non-ideal solutions?
ans. The van't Hoff factor is often higher in non-ideal solutions because solute-solvent interactions
can cause the solute to dissociate into more particles than expected.
36. Define relative lowering in vapor pressure.
ans. Relative lowering in vapor pressure is the ratio of the lowering of vapor pressure of a solvent
in a solution to the vapor pressure of the pure solvent.
37. What is the formula for calculating the relative lowering in vapor pressure (ΔP) in terms of
mole fraction (x) of solute?
ans. ΔP = x
38. Explain how the relative lowering in vapor pressure is related to Raoult's law.
ans. The relative lowering in vapor pressure is a direct consequence of Raoult's law, as it quantifies
the deviation of a solution's vapor pressure from that predicted by Raoult's law.
39. How can you experimentally determine the relative lowering in vapor pressure of a solvent due
to the addition of a non-volatile solute?
ans. Measure the vapor pressure of the pure solvent and the vapor pressure of the solution, and then
use the formula: ΔP = P° - P, where P° is the vapor pressure of the pure solvent, and P is the
vapor pressure of the solution.
40. In a solution with a relative lowering in vapor pressure of 0.2, is the solute concentration high
or low?

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ans. A relative lowering in vapor pressure of 0.2 indicates a relatively low solute concentration in
the solution.
41. What are some practical applications of understanding relative lowering in vapor pressure in
industries or daily life?
ans. Relative lowering in vapor pressure is important in various applications, such as in the
pharmaceutical industry for drug formulation, in the automotive industry for antifreeze
solutions, and in the food industry for controlling the freezing point of ice cream and other
products elevation in boiling point
42. Define colligative properties.
ans. Colligative properties are properties of a solution that depend on the number of solute particles
but not their nature.
43. Explain how adding a non-volatile solute affects the boiling point of a solvent.
ans. Adding a non-volatile solute raises the boiling point of the solvent, increasing the temperature
at which the solution will boil compared to the pure solvent.
44. What does the van't Hoff factor (i) represent in the context of colligative properties?
ans. The van't Hoff factor (i) is a measure of the number of particles into which a solute dissociates
in a solution.
45. How does the van't Hoff factor differ for non-ionic solutes and ionic solutes in water?
ans. Non-ionic solutes typically have a van't Hoff factor of 1, while ionic solutes can have van't Hoff
factors equal to the number of ions they dissociate into.
46. Explain why sugar (a non-ionic solute) doesn't significantly affect the boiling point of water.
ans. Sugar doesn't dissociate into ions in water, so its van't Hoff factor is 1. This results in a relatively
small elevation in boiling point.
47. What is the significance of colligative properties in determining the molar mass of a solute?
ans. Colligative properties, such as elevation in boiling point, can be used to determine the molar
mass of a solute if other factors like the solvent and concentration are known.
48. Give an example of a practical application of elevation in boiling point in everyday life.
ans. One practical application is in antifreeze solutions for vehicles, which raise the boiling point of
the engine coolant and lower the freezing point, protecting the engine from extreme
temperatures.
49. What is the ebullioscopic constant (Kb), and how is it determined for a particular solvent?
ans. The ebullioscopic constant (Kb) is a constant that depends on the specific solvent and is
determined experimentally by measuring the elevation in boiling point caused by a known
concentration of solute.
50. What is depression in freezing point in chemistry?
ans. Depression in freezing point refers to the phenomenon in which the freezing point of a solvent
is lowered when a non-volatile solute is added to it.
51. How does adding salt to icy roads help with winter driving conditions?
ans. Adding salt to icy roads lowers the freezing point of water, preventing the formation of solid
ice and making it easier to drive on the road.
52. Explain why ice cream makers use salt in their machines.
ans. Salt is added to the ice surrounding the ice cream maker to lower the freezing point of the ice,
allowing for faster and more efficient ice cream production.
53. What is the relationship between depression in freezing point and the number of solute particles
in a solution?

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ans. Depression in freezing point is directly proportional to the number of solute particles in a
solution.
54. Why does a solution with a lower concentration of solute exhibit a smaller depression in
freezing point compared to a more concentrated solution?
ans. A more concentrated solution has a higher number of solute particles, leading to a greater
depression in freezing point.
55. In a solution containing 1 mole of a non-ionic solute per liter, what is the depression in freezing
point compared to the pure solvent?
ans. The depression in freezing point is proportional to the molality of the solution, so it would be
proportional to the concentration of the solute.
56. Why do freshwater bodies freeze at 0°C, but seawater freezes at a lower temperature?
ans. Seawater contains dissolved salts, which lower the freezing point of water. As a result, seawater
freezes at a lower temperature than pure freshwater.
57. In winter, why do people sometimes sprinkle salt on their driveways and walkways?
ans. Sprinkling salt on driveways and walkways lowers the freezing point of any ice or snow,
helping to melt it and make the surfaces safer to walk or drive on.
58. Explain how depression in freezing point is used to determine the molar mass of a solute in a
laboratory setting.
ans. By measuring the depression in freezing point and knowing the cryoscopic constant, one can
calculate the molality of the solution. With the mass of the solute and molality, the molar mass
of the solute can be determined using the formula M = (m RT) / ΔTf
59. What is osmotic pressure in chemistry?
ans. Osmotic pressure is the pressure exerted by a solvent as it moves through a semi-permeable
membrane to equalize the concentration of solute on both sides.
60. How does osmotic pressure relate to everyday life?
ans. Osmotic pressure is involved in various everyday processes, such as water absorption by plant
roots and the functioning of biological membranes.
61. Why do raisins placed in water swell and become plump over time?
ans. Raisins swell because they absorb water through osmosis. Water moves from a region of lower
solute concentration (the raisin) to a region of higher solute concentration (inside the raisin).
62. Explain how osmotic pressure plays a role in blood circulation within the human body.
ans. Osmotic pressure helps maintain the balance of fluid in blood vessels. It ensures that water and
nutrients are drawn into cells while waste products are removed.
63. Why does a concentrated sugar solution draw moisture from the air and become more dilute
over time?
ans. The concentrated sugar solution has a lower water potential than the surrounding air, causing
water molecules to move into the solution through osmosis.
64. How is osmotic pressure different from hydrostatic pressure?
ans. Osmotic pressure results from the movement of solvent molecules across a semi-permeable
membrane, while hydrostatic pressure is the pressure exerted by a fluid at rest.
65. What role does osmotic pressure play in food preservation, such as pickling and salting?
ans. Osmotic pressure helps preserve food by drawing out water from microorganisms, making it
difficult for them to survive and spoil the food.
66. Why do red blood cells placed in a hypertonic solution shrink?
ans. Red blood cells lose water to the hypertonic solution through osmosis, causing them to shrink.
67. What is reverse osmosis, and how is it used in everyday life?

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ans. Reverse osmosis is a process that uses osmotic pressure to remove impurities from water,
making it suitable for drinking and various industrial applications.
68. How can the osmotic pressure of a solution be increased?
ans. Osmotic pressure can be increased by increasing the solute concentration or by using a semi-
permeable membrane with smaller pores.
69. Why is it essential for plant cells to maintain the right balance of solute concentrations inside
and outside the cell?
ans. Maintaining the right balance prevents excessive water uptake (turgor pressure) or loss,
ensuring the cell's structural integrity.
70. What is the significance of osmotic pressure in the pharmaceutical industry?
ans. Osmotic pressure is important for drug delivery systems and the controlled release of
medications.
71. Explain how osmotic pressure is used in desalination processes to produce fresh water from
seawater.
ans. Osmotic pressure can be utilized to separate fresh water from seawater through a process called
forward osmosis.
72. What is the unit of measurement for osmotic pressure?
ans. The unit for osmotic pressure is typically atmospheres (atm).
73. What is the osmotic pressure of a solution at absolute zero temperature (0 K)?
ans. Osmotic pressure is zero at absolute zero temperature (0 K).
74. Why does the osmotic pressure of a solution increase with increasing temperature?
ans. Increasing temperature provides solvent molecules with more kinetic energy, allowing them to
move more freely through the semi-permeable membrane and increase osmotic pressure.
75. In a solution with an osmotic pressure of 2 atm, what happens if the external pressure exceeds
this value?
ans. Water will flow from the solution to the external environment until the pressures are equal.
76. How can osmotic pressure be used to determine the molar mass of a solute?
ans. By measuring the osmotic pressure and knowing the other variables (i, C, R, T), the molar mass
of the solute can be calculated using the formula Π = iCRT.
77. Give an example of a daily life situation where an understanding of osmotic pressure is useful
or important.
ans. Understanding osmotic pressure is important in medical applications, such as dialysis for
patients with kidney problems, as it helps control the movement of solutes and water across
membranes abnormal molar mass of solute in the solution
78. Why do certain solutes exhibit abnormal molar mass in solutions?
ans. Certain solutes, such as those that form associates or dissociate into smaller particles in
solution, exhibit abnormal molar masses.
79. Give an example of a solute that exhibits abnormal molar mass due to association in a solution.
ans. Acetic acid (CH3COOH) forms dimers (CH3COOH)2 in solution, leading to an abnormal molar
mass.
80. In the case of dissociation, what happens to the abnormal molar mass compared to the actual
molar mass of the solute?
ans. In the case of dissociation, the abnormal molar mass is lower than the actual molar mass
because the solute breaks into smaller particles.
81. What is the Van't Hoff factor (i) used for in relation to abnormal molar mass?

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ans. The Van't Hoff factor quantifies the degree of association or dissociation of solute particles in
a solution, which affects the abnormal molar mass.
82. How is the Van't Hoff factor calculated for a solute that dissociates in a solution?
ans. The Van't Hoff factor for a solute that dissociates is equal to the number of particles into which
the solute dissociates.
83. Provide an example of a solute that exhibits abnormal molar mass due to dissociation in a
solution.
ans. Common salt (NaCl) dissociates into Na+ and Cl- ions in water, leading to an abnormal molar
mass.
84. How does abnormal molar mass affect the freezing point depression of a solution?
ans. Abnormal molar mass influences freezing point depression by altering the number of particles
that contribute to the depression, often resulting in a greater depression than expected.
85. Explain how an understanding of abnormal molar mass is relevant in the field of electrolyte
solutions.
ans. In electrolyte solutions, abnormal molar mass is important for calculating properties like
osmotic pressure and colligative properties, which are critical in electrochemistry.
86. What is the significance of abnormal molar mass in the determination of the molar mass of a
solute in a laboratory setting?
ans. Abnormal molar mass can be used to determine the molar mass of a solute if the degree of
association or dissociation is known, making it a valuable tool in analytical chemistry.
87. What is the Van't Hoff factor (i) and why is it important in chemistry?
ans. The Van't Hoff factor represents the number of particles a solute dissociates into when it
dissolves in a solvent. It's crucial for understanding colligative properties and concentration
calculations.
88. How does table salt (NaCl) dissociate in water, and what is its Van't Hoff factor?
ans. NaCl dissociates into two ions, Na⁺ and Cl⁻, in water, resulting in a Van't Hoff factor of 2.
89. Explain why a solution of NaCl has a lower freezing point compared to pure water, considering
its Van't Hoff factor.
ans. The Van't Hoff factor for NaCl is 2, leading to a greater depression in freezing point due to the
presence of more particles in the solution.
90. What is the Van't Hoff factor for glucose (C6H12O6) in water, and how does it affect colligative
properties?
ans. Glucose does not dissociate into ions; therefore, its Van't Hoff factor is 1. This results in smaller
colligative property changes compared to ionic solutes.
91. In what everyday situations can you observe the Van't Hoff factor in action, such as in cooking
or food preparation?
ans. Adding salt to water for pasta cooking can lower the boiling point due to the Van't Hoff factor.
92. How does the Van't Hoff factor help explain why antifreeze solutions are effective in preventing
the freezing of car engines in winter?
ans. Antifreeze solutions contain compounds that dissociate into ions (e.g., ethylene glycol),
increasing the solution's Van't Hoff factor and lowering the freezing point.
93. Why is it important to consider the Van't Hoff factor when calculating the concentration of ions
in a solution for medical applications, such as intravenous (IV) fluids?
ans. The Van't Hoff factor ensures accurate determination of ion concentrations in IV fluids, which
is essential for patient care.

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94. Give an example of a non-ionic solute commonly used in daily life and explain its Van't Hoff
factor.
ans. Sugar (sucrose) is a non-ionic solute with a Van't Hoff factor of 1 because it does not dissociate
into ions in solution.
95. How does the Van't Hoff factor affect the taste and texture of ice cream during its preparation?
ans. Ice cream makers use salt to lower the freezing point of the ice surrounding the ice cream
mixture, allowing it to freeze faster and create a smoother texture.
96. What is the relationship between the Van't Hoff factor and the behavior of strong and weak
electrolytes in solutions?
ans. Strong electrolytes, like acids and salts, have higher Van't Hoff factors due to complete
dissociation, while weak electrolytes have lower Van't Hoff factors because of partial
dissociation.
97. Explain why adding salt to icy roads in winter can melt the ice faster and make the roads safer.
ans. Salt lowers the freezing point of ice, leading to its melting. The Van't Hoff factor plays a role
in this process by increasing the solution's effectiveness.
98. How does the Van't Hoff factor help determine the osmotic pressure of a solution and its
significance in biological processes, such as blood circulation?
ans. Osmotic pressure calculations rely on the Van't Hoff factor to understand the movement of
fluids in biological systems, like blood circulation.
99. What is the Van't Hoff factor for acetic acid (CH3COOH) in water, and how does it influence
its colligative properties?
ans. Acetic acid associates into dimers in water, resulting in a Van't Hoff factor slightly less than 2.
This affects its colligative properties.
100. Why does carbon dioxide (CO2) gas dissolved in water have a Van't Hoff factor of 2?
ans. Carbon dioxide dissolves in water to form carbonic acid (H2CO3), which dissociates into H⁺
and HCO3⁻ ions, resulting in a Van't Hoff factor of 2.
101. What is the Van't Hoff factor for potassium sulfate (K2SO4) in water, and how does it influence
its colligative properties?
ans. Potassium sulfate dissociates into three ions (2 K⁺ and 1 SO4²⁻) in water, resulting in a Van't
Hoff factor of 3 and larger colligative property changes.
102. How does the Van't Hoff factor relate to the phenomenon of "salting out" in organic chemistry
and chemical separations?
ans. Salting out occurs when high Van't Hoff factor salts are added to solutions, causing the
precipitation of organic compounds due to decreased solubility.
103. What role does the Van't Hoff factor play in the development of electrolyte solutions for
batteries and electrochemical cells?
ans. The Van't Hoff factor helps design and understand the behavior of electrolyte solutions, critical
for battery performance.
104. Why do some beverages, like sports drinks and electrolyte-enhanced water, mention their Van't
Hoff factor on the label?
ans. These drinks contain ions (electrolytes) with specific Van't Hoff factors, which can impact their
effectiveness in rehydration and electrolyte balance.
105. What practical applications can the understanding of the Van't Hoff factor have in industries,
such as the food and pharmaceutical industries?
ans. Industries use the Van't Hoff factor to control properties like freezing point, osmotic pressure,
and solubility in food and drug formulation

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106. Which of the following is a dimensionless quantity: molarity, molality or mole fraction?
ans. mole fraction
107. How is the concentration of a solute present in trace amount in a solution expressed?
ans. ppm (parts per million)
108. N2 and O2 gases have KH values 76.48 kbar and 34.86 kbar respectively at 293 K temperature.
Which one of these will have more solubility in water?
ans. O2 has less value of KH therefore, it will be more soluble than N2.
109. What will happen to the boiling point of the solution formed on mixing two miscible liquids
showing negative deviation from Raoult’s law?
ans. The vapour pressure will decrease increasing its boiling point
110. Liquid ‘Y’ has higher vapor pressure than liquid ‘X’, which of them will have higher boiling
point?
ans. The vapour pressure of liquid ‘X’ is the lower thus, it will have the highest boiling point.
111. Which out of molarity or molality will change with change in temperature?
ans. Molarity
112. Under what condition Van't Hoff factor is less than 1.
ans. When the solute undergoes in association.
113. Sprinkling of salt helps in clearing the snow-covered roads in hills. Name the phenomenon
involved in the process.
ans. Depression in freezing point of snow
114. What is the effect of temperature on the solubility of solids in liquids?
ans. It increases with increase in temperature.
115. What is the molarity of pure water?
ans. 55.6
116. What is the effect on freezing point of water when NaCl is added.
ans. Decreases.
117. 12.Which law indicates the relationship between solubility of a gas in liquid andpressure?
ans. Henry’s Law
118. Which law give the relationship between partial pressure of a component is directly
proportional to its mole fraction.
ans. Raoult’s law
119. When two liquids A and B are mixed then their boiling points becomes greater than both of
them. What is the nature of this solution?
ans. Negative deviation with non-ideal solution
120. Give an example of solution which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
ans. Acetone + Ethanol
121. Which material is used for making semipermeable membrane for carrying reverse osmosis for
desalination of water ?
ans. Cellulose acetate
122. What will be the degree of dissociation of 0.1 M Mg(NO3)2 solution if van’t Hoff factor is 2.74?
ans. 87%
123. Sprinkling of salt helps in clearing the snow covered roads in hills. Which phenomenon
involved in the process?
ans. Depression in freezing point of snow.

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124. What will be the value of molal depression constant (Kf) if molality of the dilute solution is
doubled.
ans. The value of the molal depression constant (Kf) remains unchanged.
125. What is the van't Hoff factor for a dilute solution of barium hydroxide is
ans. 3
126. Among the following which will have the lowest freezing point is 0.1 M aqueous solution of
Potassium Sulphate or 0.1 M aqueous solution of Sodium chloride.
ans. 0.1 M aqueous solution of Potassium Sulphate
127. What is the cause of low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at
high altitude.
ans. Low atmospheric pressure
128. In comparison to a 0.01 M solution of glucose, the depression in freezing point of a 0.01 M
MgCl2 solution is
ans. About three times
129. What process is used when unripe mango placed in a concentrated salt solution to prepare
pickle, shrivels.
ans. It loses water due to osmosis.
130. How does the value of Henry’s constant relate with solubility?
ans. Higher the value of KH, lower will be solubility.
131. We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ with concentrations 0.1M,
0.01M and 0.001M, respectively. What is the order of the value of van’t Hoff factor for these
solutions?
ans. iA = iB = iC van’t Hoff factor does not depend upon concentration
132. What will you observe when Benzoic acid dissolved in benzene.
ans. The benzoic acid will undergo association.
133. What will you observe when Benzoic acid dissolved in water.
ans. The benzoic acid will undergo dissociation.
134. Which are independent of temperature out of molality (m), molarity (M), formality (F) and
mole fraction (x).
ans. Molality (m), mole fraction (x)
135. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol is less than that of water and
ethanol. What type of deviation it shows.
ans. Positive deviation from Raoult’s Law.
136. Why do people add sodium chloride to water while boiling eggs?
ans. Increase the boiling point.
137. The molal elevation constant depends upon-------
ans. Nature of the solvent.
138. Which process is used for desalination of water ?
ans. Reverse osmosis
139. For what purpose Ethylene glycol is used?
ans. Antifreeze
140. Why all intravenous injections must be isotonic with body fluids?
ans. Because the concentration of the intravenous injections is similar to the blood and therefore no
osmosis take place .
141. What fluids are isotonic to human blood cells?

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ans. Solutions that are isotonic to human blood are 0.9% sodium chloride, commonly called "Normal
Saline".
142. State the main advantage of molality over molarity as the unit of concentration.
ans. Molality is more accurate than molarity because molality does not depend on temperature.
143. Two liquids A and B boil at 140 °C and 180 °C respectively. Which of them has a higher vapour
pressure at 80 °C?
ans. A, because lower the boiling point, higher will be vapour pressure.
144. What are the values of ΔH and ΔV for an ideal solution of two liquids?
ans. ∆H = 0, ∆V = 0 for an ideal solution of two liquids.
145. When 30 mL of ethyl alcohol and 30 mL of water are mixed, the volume of resulting solution
is more than 60 mL. What do you conclude?
ans. It shows positive deviation.
146. 15 mL of liquid A was mixed with 15 mL of liquid B. The volume of the resulting solution was
found to be 29.8 mL. What do you conclude?
ans. Volume decreases, it means solution shows -ve deviation from Raoult’s law.
147. What is anti-freeze?
ans. Anti-freeze is a substance which is added to solvent to lower its freezing point.
148. Name the antifreeze which is used in car radiators to lower the freezing point of water.
ans. Ethylene glycol
149. Which colligative property is preferred for determination of molar mass of macromolecules?
ans. Osmotic pressure.
150. A person suffering from high blood pressure should take less common salt, why?
ans. Common salt contains Na+ and Cl– which increase osmotic pressure of blood, therefore,
increase blood pressure.
151. Why do doctors advise gargles by saline water in case of sore throat?
ans. Saline water is hypertonic solution, therefore, fluids causing irritation in throat will come out.
152. When outer shell of egg is removed and egg is placed in pure water what will be observed and
why?
ans. The egg placed in pure water will swell due to osmosis
153. When outer shell of egg is removed and is placed in saturated solution of NaCl, what will be
observed and why?
ans. the egg placed in saturated solution of NaCl will shrink due to osmosis.
154. What is expected value of van’t Hoff factor for K3[Fe(CN)6].
ans. Four
155. Why is osmotic pressure of l M KCl is higher than that of l M urea solution?
ans. 1M KCl solution dissociates into K+ and Cl–, therefore, its osmotic pressure is higher than that
of l M solution of urea which does not dissociate.
156. State how does osmotic pressure vary with temperature.
ans. Osmotic pressure increases with increase in temperature.
157. The factors ΔTb/Kb represents
ans. Molality
158. Why do we get some times abnormal molar mass when using colligative properties?
ans. Due to the association or dissociation of the solute in the solution.
159. What is depression constant or cryoscopy constant?
ans. It is defined as the depression in freezing point when 1 mole of a solute is dissolved in 1 kg of
the solvent.

14
160. Write two applications of Henry’s Law?
ans. (i) In deep sea diving. (ii) In aerated water e.g. soft drinks.
161. In which term the atmospheric pollution is generally measured ?
ans. ppm
162. Name the substances which are used by deep sea divers to neutralize the toxic effects of
nitrogen dissolved in the blood.
ans. Helium and oxygen
163. Why helium and oxygen mixture is used by deep-sea divers instead of air?
ans. Nitrogen is soluble in blood and causes condition of bonds. Helium is much less soluble in
blood.
164. Why are aquatic species more comfortable in cold water than in warm water?
ans. This is because the solubility of oxygen in water increases with decrease in temperature.
165. RBC shrink when placed in saline water . Why?
ans. If Red Blood Cells are kept in concentrated saline solution. It will lose water due to exosmosis
and shrink.
166. RBC swell when placed in distilled water. Why?
ans. Distilled water is hypotonic to red blood cells. The red blood cell will therefore swell and then
burst.
167. If 2 gm of NaOH is present is 200 ml of its solution, what will be the molarity of the solution?
ans. 0.25
168. What happens to blood cells when they are placed in water containing less than 0.99%
(mass/volume) salt?
ans. The blood cells collapse due to loss of water by osmosis when placed in water containing less
than 0.9% (mass/volume) salt.
169. How does value of Henry’s constant KH dependes on temperature.
ans. It increases with increase in temperature.
170. Which compound is used as rat poison?
ans. Sodium Flouride
171. What is the unit of ebulioscopic constant?
ans. K mol kg–1 or K (molality)
172. When liquids A and B are mixed, hydrogen bonding occurs. What type of deviation take place?
ans. Negative deviation from Raoult’s law
173. Define Raoult’s Law when non volatile solute is present in the solution.
ans. Raoult’s Law - The vapour pressure of a solution containing a non-volatile solute is directly
proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent (XA).
174. What are the conditions required for the solution to be ideal?
ans. ΔHmix = 0, ΔVmix = 0
interactions between solute-solute (A-A) and solvent-solvent (B-B) are similar to the
interaction between solute-solvent (A-B)
175. In what conditions non-ideal solution show positive deviation?
ans. The interaction between solute-solvent (A-B) is weaker than those of pure components (A-A
or B-B). The ΔHmix and ΔVmix are positive.
176. In what conditions non-ideal solution show negative deviation?
ans. The interaction between solute-solvent (A-B) is stronger than those of pure components (A-A
or B-B). The ΔHmix and ΔVmix are negative.
177. Give example of solutions which show positive deviation.

15
ans. ethanol and acetone, carbon disulphide and acetone, acetone and benzene
178. Give example of solutions which show negative deviation.
ans. phenol and aniline, chloroform and acetone
179. How is the elevation in boiling point related to molality?
ans. ∆Tb = Kb m
180. How is the depression in freezing point related to molality?
ans. ∆Tf = Kf m
181. Define osmosis.
ans. The spontaneous flow of solvent molecules from a dilute solution into a concentrated solution
through a semipermeable membrane.
182. Define osmotic pressure.
ans. Osmotic pressure (π) is the pressure which must be applied to the solution side to just prevent
the passage of pure solvent into it through a semipermeable membrane.
183. Write Van’t Hoff equation.
ans. π = cRT= (nB/V) RT = (wB/MBV) RT
184. Define isotonic solution.
ans. Isotonic solutions are those solutions which have the same osmotic pressure. Also, they have
same molar concentration.
185. Define Hypertonic solutions.
ans. if a solution has more osmotic pressure than some other solutions.
186. Define Hypotonic solutions.
ans. if a solution has less osmotic pressure than some other solutions.
187. Define Abnormal molecular mass.
ans. A molar mass that is either lower or higher than the expected or normal value is called as
abnormal molar mass.
188. What is Van't Hoff factor?
ans. i = Normal molar mass / Abnormal molar mass
i = Observed colligative property / Calculated colligative property
189. Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 25 mg of K2SO4 in 2 litre
of water at 25° C, assuming that it is completely dissociated.
ans. If K2SO4 is completely dissociated
i=3 ᴨ = i c RT = i (nB/V) RT = i (wB / MB V) RT = 5.27 x 10-3 atm.
On mixing liquid X and liquid Y, the volume of the resulting solution increases. What type of
deviation from Raoult’s law is shown by the resulting solution? What change in temperature
would you observe after mixing liquids X and Y
ans. (a) Positive deviation (b) temperature decreases.
190. What are the values of Van’t Hoff factors for KCl, NaCl and K2SO4, respectively,
ans. 2, 2 and 3
191. 0.1M KCl has higher boiling point than 0.1 M Glucose.Why?
ans. Because KCl undergoes in dissociation.
192. What is depression constant or cryoscopy constant?
ans. It is defined as the depression in freezing point when 1 mole of a solute is dissolved in 1 kg of
the solvent.
193. Define Azeotropes?
ans. Azeotropes are constant boiling mixture which has same composition in liquid phase as well as
in vapour phase.

16
194. What are maximum boiling azeotropes?
ans. The non-ideal solutions which exhibit negative deviation from ideal solution at a particular
composition are called as maximum boiling azeotropes.
195. Give example of maximum boiling azeotropes.
ans. 68% aqueous solution of HNO3
196. What are minimum boiling azeotropes?
ans. The non-ideal solutions which exhibit positive deviation from ideal solution at a particular
composition are called as minimum boiling azeotropes.
197. KH value for Ar(g),CO2 (g), HCHO (g) and CH4 (g) are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83×10–5 and 0.413
respectively. Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing solubility.
ans. Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
198. What are the factors on which vapour pressure depends?
ans. The factors on which vapour pressure depends are–
1) Temperature of the liquid. 2) Nature of the liquid. 3) Surface area
199. What happens when red blood cells are placed in 0.1% NaCl solution?
ans. Water from NaCl solution passes into cells & they swell finally they will burst.
200. The molecular mass of a solute is 120g/mol and van’t Hoff factor is 3. What is its abnormal
molecular mass.
ans. Abnormal molecular mass
= 120/3 = 40 g/mol
201. Define mole fraction.
ans. The mole fraction of a component in a mixture is defined as the ratio of the number of moles
of the component to the total number of moles of all the components in the mixture.
202. A beaker contains a solution of a substance ‘A’. Precipitation of substance ‘A’ takes place
when a small amount of ‘A’ is added to the solution. The solution is ________.
ans. Supersaturated
203. If two liquids A and B form minimum boiling azeotrope at some specific composition then
explain the interaction between A and B
ans. A-A and B-B interaction are stronger than A-B interaction.
204. Based on solute solvent interactions, arrange the following in order of increasing solubility in
n-octane and explain. Cyclohexane, KCl, CH3OH, CH3CN.
ans. KCl < CH3OH < CH3CN < Cyclohexane
205. Measurement of which colligative property is preferred for determination of molar mass of
biomolecules?
ans. Osmotic pressure is preferred for determining molecular weight of biomolecules
206. The molecular masses of polymers are determined by osmotic pressure method and not by
measuring other colligative properties. Give two reasons.
ans. (i) It has appreciable value. (ii) It is measured at room temperature.

17
 UNIT-II
ELECTROCHEMISTRY

1. Why does the cell potential of a mercury cell remain constant throughout its life?
Ans: Because the overall reaction does not involve any ion in the solution
2. Why is the blue colour of copper sulphate solution slowly discharged when a rod of zinc is
dipped in it?
Ans: Zinc has lower reduction potential than copper due to which zinc is oxidized and Cu2+ ions
are reduced. / Zn being more reactive than copper, displaces Cu2+ ions from the solution
3. Fuel cells are preferred for production of electrical energy than thermal plants.
Ans: Fuel cells are pollution free while thermal plants are major source of pollution / Fuel cells
are more efficient.
4. Iron does not rust even if zinc coating is broken in a galvanized pipe. Why?
Ans: Zinc being more reactive will oxidise itself to protect iron.
5. Out of zinc and tin, whose coating is better to protect iron objects ?
Ans: Zn
6. Which will allow greater conduction of electricity, Silver wire at 30oC or silver wire at
60oC.?
Ans: Silver wire at 30oC because as temperature decreases, resistance decreases so conduction
increases.
7. Which will allow greater conduction of electricity, 0·1 M CH3COOH solution or 1 M
CH3COOH solution?
Ans: 0.1 M CH3COOH, because on dilution degree of ionization increases hence conduction
increases.
8. Which will allow greater conduction of electricity, KCl solution at 20oC or KCl solution at
50oC?
Ans: KCl solution at 50oC, because at high temperature mobility of ions increases and hence
conductance increases
9. Give one differences between electrochemical and electrolytic cells.
Ans: Electrochemical cell convert chemical energy to electrical energy while electrolytic cell
converts electrical energy to chemical energy.
10. For an electrochemical cell
Mg (s) + Ag+ (aq) →Ag (s) + Mg2+ (aq), give the cell representation.
Ans: Mg(s) |Mg2+(aq) || Ag+(aq) |Ag(s)
11. For an electrochemical cell
Mg (s) + Ag+ (aq) →Ag (s) + Mg2+ (aq),
Write the Nernst equation for the above cell at 25oC.

Ans:
12. Why Conductivity of an electrolyte decreases with decrease in concentration?
Ans: Number of ions per unit volume decreases on dilution.
13. Write the product obtained at cathode on electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl.
Ans: Hydrogen gas

18
14. Predict the products of electrolysis of an aqueous solution of CuCl2 with platinum electrodes
at cathode.
Ans: At cathode : Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu Because E0Cu2+/Cu > E0H+/H2 .
15. X and Y are two electrolytes. On dilution molar conductivity of ‘X’ increases 2.5 times
while that Y increases 25 times. Which of the two is a weak electrolyte and why ?
Ans: Y, as molar conductivity increases with dilution due to increase in degree of dissociation.
16. How much charge in terms of Faraday is required to reduce one mol of MnO4– to Mn2+ ?
Ans: 5F
17. Name the cell used in hearing aids and watches.
Ans: Mercury cell.
18. What is the use of a salt bridge in an electrochemical process?.
Ans: To complete the circuit so that current can flow.
19. What is the amount of electricity required to produce one mole of Zn from ZnSO4 solution?
Ans: 2F
20. Why is Zinc coated over iron to prevent it’s rusting?
Ans: Because E0Zn2+/Zn < E0Fe2+/Fe
21. State Kohlrausch law.
Ans: Limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte can be represented as the sum of the individual
contributions of the anion and cation of the electrolyte.
22. Why are iron pipes usually coated with zinc ?
Ans: Zinc is more electropositive than iron and gets preferentially oxidised / zinc prevents the
oxidation of iron.
23. A cell and its emf is given below :
Pt (s)/ H2 (g, 1 bar)/ H+ (aq, 1 M) ll Cu2+ (aq, 1M) /Cu (s) emf of the cell = + 0·34 V.
Write the reduction half-reaction at cathode.
Ans: Cu2+ (aq) + 2 e- →Cu (s)
24. How is standard Gibbs energy for a reaction related to equilibrium constant ?
Ans: rGO = –RT ln K.
25. How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce 54 g of Al from molten
Al2O3 ?
(Given : atomic mass of Al = 27 u)
Ans: 6F
26. What is standard electrode potential?
Ans: When the concentrations of all the species involved in a half-cell is unity then the electrode
potential is known as standard electrode potential.
27. What is cell electromotive force/ (emf) of the cell?
Ans: The cell potential is the difference between the electrode potentials (reduction potentials) of
the cathode and anode. It is called the cell electromotive force (emf) of the cell when no
current is drawn through the cell.
28. What does positive standard electrode potential indicates?
Ans: If the standard electrode potential of an electrode is greater than zero then its reduced form is
more stable compared to hydrogen gas.
29. What does negative standard electrode potential indicates?
Ans: If the standard electrode potential is negative then hydrogen gas is more stable than the
reduced form of the species.
30. What does the lowest electrode potential of Lithium indicates?

19
Ans: The lowest electrode potential indicates that lithium ion is the weakest oxidizing agent while
lithium metal is the most powerful reducing agent in an aqueous solution.
31. For what purpose electrochemical cells are used?
Ans: Electrochemical cells are extensively used for determining the pH of solutions, solubility
product, equilibrium constant and other thermodynamic properties and for potentiometric
titrations.
32. Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place
Mg(s) + 2Ag+(0.0001M) →Mg2+(0.130M) + 2Ag(s)
Ans: The cell can be written as Mg/ Mg2+(0.130M)ll Ag+(0.0001M)/ Ag
33. Give a relationship between equilibrium constant and standard potential of the cell.
Ans:

34. On what factors does the cell potential depends?

Ans: Temperature and concentration of the ions in the solution.
35. Is rG an extensive thermodynamic property or intensive thermodynamic property ?
Ans: rG is an extensive thermodynamic property as its value depends on n.
36. What is the relationship between Gibbs energy and cell potential?
Ans: rG = – nFE(cell)
37. When can a galvanic cell behave as an electrolytic cell ?
Ans: A galvanic cell can behave as an electrolytic cell when Eext > Ecell.
38. Why is mercury cell better than dry cell ?
Ans: It provides constant voltage / steady voltage
39. Why is fuel cell preferred over other cells ?
Ans: Fuel cells are pollution-free / High efficiency / no recharging required (any one).
40. Why is lead storage battery regarded as a secondary cell ?
Ans: It can be recharged.
41. Give two examples of the fuels used in the fuel cell.
Ans: Hydrogen, Methane, methanol (Any two)
42. What are the products of the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl ?
Ans: H2, Cl2 and NaOH
43. Give two examples of secondary cells.
Ans: Lead storage battery and Ni-Cd battery
44. Write anode and cathode reactions of H2-O2 fuel cell.
Ans: Cathode: O2(g) + 2H2O(l) + 4e–→ 4OH–(aq)
Anode: 2H2 (g) + 4OH–(aq) → 4H2O(l) + 4e–
45. Write overall reaction of H2-O2 fuel cell.
Ans: 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2 H2O(l )
46. Write Faraday’s first law of electrolysis.
Ans: The amount of chemical reaction which occurs at any electrode during electrolysis by a
current is proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte (solution
or melt).
47. Write Faraday’s second law of electrolysis.
Ans: The amounts of different substances liberated by the same quantity of electricity passing
through the electrolytic solution are proportional to their chemical equivalent weights
(Atomic Mass of Metal ÷ Number of electrons required to reduce the cation.)

20
48. How many Faradays are required to reduce one mole of Sn4+ to Sn2+ ?
Ans: 2F
49. Write anode and cathode reaction of lead storage battery.
Ans: Anode: Pb(s) + SO4 2–(aq) → PbSO4(s) + 2e–
Cathode: PbO2(s) + SO42–(aq) + 4H+(aq) + 2e– → PbSO4 (s) + 2H2O (l )
50. Write anode, cathode and overall reaction of lead storage battery.
Ans: Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2H2SO4(aq) → 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l)
51. Using the Eo values of A and B, predict which is better for coating the surface of Iron
Fe2+ / Fe (Eo =- 0·44 V) to prevent corrosion and why ?
Given : Eo (A2+ / A) = -2·37 V Eo (B2+ / B) =-0·14 V
Ans: A, as its reduction potential is less than iron and therefore prevents iron to oxidise.
52. What happens if external potential applied becomes greater than E o cell of electrochemical
cell?
Ans: Electrochemical cell will start working as an electrolytic cell / current will start flowing in
opposite direction
53. What will be the sign  G and Eo cell for a spontaneous reaction?
Ans: negative and positive respectively.
54. Write an expression for the limiting molar conductivity of acetic acid.
Ans:

55. Why in the experimental determination of electrolytic conductance,Direct Current (DC) is

not used?
Ans: Because DC changes the composition of the electrolytic solution.
56. What is an inert electrode?
Ans: It does not participate in the cell reaction but provides surface for conduction of electrons
and for redox reaction.
57. What is electrolytic conductance?
Ans: The conductance of electricity by ions present in the solutions is called electrolytic or ionic
conductance.
58. List two factors on which the conductivity of electrolytic (ionic) solutions depends?
Ans:(i) the nature of the electrolyte added (ii) size of the ions produced and their solvation
(iii) the nature of the solvent and its viscosity (iv) concentration of the electrolyte
(v) temperature (it increases with the increase of temperature). [any 2]
59. Write relationship between cell constant and conductivity of the cell.
Ans:

60. Can absolute electrode potential of an electrode be measured?

Ans: No.
61. Can Eo Cell or rGo for cell reaction ever be equal to zero?
Ans: No
62. Under what condition is ECell = 0 or ∆r G = 0?
Ans: When the cell reaction reaches equilibrium.
63. What does the negative sign in the expression Eo Zn2+ /Zn= − 0.76 V ?
Ans: It means that Zn is more reactive than hydrogen. When zinc electrode will be connected to
SHE, Zn will get oxidised and H+ will get reduced.
21
64. Value of standard electrode potential for the oxidation of Cl– ions is more positive than that
of water, even then in the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride, why is Cl– oxidised at
anode instead of water?
Ans: Under the conditions of electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride, oxidation of water at anode
requires overpotential hence Cl – is oxidised instead of water.
65. Why is alternating current used for measuring resistance of an electrolytic solution?
Ans: Alternating current is used to prevent electrolysis so that concentration of ions in the solution
remains constant.
66. How will the pH of brine (aq. NaCl solution) be affected when it is electrolysed?
Ans: The pH of the solution will rise as NaOH is formed in the electrolytic cell.
67. Which reference electrode is used to measure the electrode potential of other electrodes?
Ans: Standard hydrogen electrode is the reference electrode whose electrode potential is taken to
be zero. The electrode potential of other electrodes is measured with respect to it.
68. Why on dilution the Λm of CH3COOH increases drastically, while that of CH3COONa
increases gradually?
Ans: In the case of CH3COOH, which is a weak electrolyte, the number of ions increase on
dilution due to an increase in degree of dissociation. In the case of strong electrolyte the
number of ions remains the same but the interionic attraction decreases.
69. Kohlrausch gave the following relation for strong electrolyte :

When will =o ?

Ans: =o as C→0
70. Name the cell which :
(a) was used in Apollo Space programme.
(b) is used in automobiles and inverters.
Ans: (a) Fuel cell (b) Lead storage
71. Name the cell which :
(a)is suitable for hearing aids and watches.
(b) does not give a steady potential and is used in transistors.
Ans: a) Mercury cell (b) Dry cell
72. Why it is not possible to determineo m for a weak electrolyte by extrapolating the molar
conductivity (m ) versus C1/2 curve as for strong electrolyte?
Ans: Due to steep rise in m curve runs parallel to the y-axis on dilution. So, even on
extrapolation, it will not intercept, hence 𝛬o𝑚 cannot be obtained.
73. A voltaic cell is made by connecting two half cells represented by half equations below :
Sn2+(aq) + 2e– → Sn(s) Eo = – 0.14 V
Fe3+(aq) + e– → Fe2+(aq) Eo = + 0.77 V
Which of the species is oxidised and what is the voltage of the cell ?
Ans: Sn is oxidised and the voltage of the cell is 0.91 V
74. What reactions occur when concentrated brine is electrolysed ?
Ans: 2Cl– → Cl2 + 2e– and 2H+ + 2e– → H2
75. Consider the following standard electrode potential values
Fe3+(aq) + e– → Fe2+(aq) Eo = + 0.77 V
MnO4– (aq) + 8H+ + 5e– → Mn2+(aq) + 4 H2O(l) Eo = + 1.51 V
What is the cell potential for the redox reaction?
Ans: + 0.74 V
22
76. The half equation for a redox reaction represents an equilibrium between two sides of an
equation such as: Cu2+ (aq) + 2e- → Cu (s); Eo= +0.34 v
How will the value of Eo change if the concentration of Cu2+ increases? Will the conversion
of Cu2+ to Cu become more or less feasible if the concentration of Cu2+ increases?
Ans: Eo will become more positive and reaction will become more feasible.
[with an increase in concentration, the Eo will become more positive that means it will have
more likely (energetically favourable) for the reduction of copper ions to copper.]
77. Molar conductivity of substance “A” is 5.9×103 S/m and “B” is 1 x 10-16 S/m. Which of the
two is most likely to be copper metal and why?
Ans: “A” is copper, metals are conductors thus have high value of conductivity.
78. What is the quantity of electricity in Coulombs required to produce 4.8 g of Mg from molten
MgCl2? (Atomic mass of Mg = 24 u)
Ans: Mg2+ + 2e- → Mg
24 g Mg requires 2 F electricity 4.8 g Mg requires 2 x4.8/24 = 0.4 F = 0.4 x96500 = 38600C
79. On the basis of Eo values identify which amongst the following is the strongest oxidising
agent?
Cl2(g) + 2 e–→ 2Cl- Eo= +1.36 V,
MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e– → Mn2+ + 4H2O Eo = +1.51 V
Cr2O72– + 14H+ + 6e– → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O Eo = +1.33 V
Ans: MnO4–
80. Define molar conductivity.
Ans: Molar conductivity of a solution at a given concentration is the conductance of the volume V
of solution containing one mole of electrolyte kept between two electrodes with area of cross
section A and distance of unit length.
81. Write two factors on which metallic conductance depends.
Ans: The electronic conductance depends on
(i) the nature and structure of the metal
(ii) the number of valence electrons per atom
(iii) temperature (it decreases with increase of temperature) [Any two]
82. Why molar conductivity increases with decrease in concentration?
Ans: Molar conductivity increases with decrease in concentration. This is because the total
volume, V, of solution containing one mole of electrolyte also increases.
83. Write the unit of m.
Ans: S cm2 mol–1 or S m2mol–1
84. Give oe application of Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions.
Ans: Using Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions, it is possible tocalculate om for any
electrolyte from theo of individual ions.
85. For the reaction Zn(s)+Cu2+(aq) →Zn2+(aq)+ Cu(s)
How E cell be affected when (i) Concentration of Cu2+ is increased?
(ii) Concentration of Zn2+ is increased?
Ans: (i) Ecell will increase (ii)Ecell will decrease
86. Calculate o for MgCl2 if o values for Mg2+and Cl- are 106 Scm2 mol–1 and 76.3 Scm2 mol–1
respectively.
Ans: o for MgCl2 = o Mg2+ + 2 o Cl- =258·6 S cm2 mol-1

23
87. In a plot of m against the square root of concentration (C1/2) for strong and weak
electrolyte, the value of limiting molar conductivity of a weak electrolyte cannot be obtained
graphically. Suggest a way to obtain this value.
Ans: Limiting molar conductivity for weak electrolyte can be obtained by using Kohlrausch law.
88. Define electrochemical cell.
Ans: A cell which converts chemical energy into electrical energy during redox reaction.
89. What is sacrificial electrode?
Ans: A sacrificial electrode is another metal (like Mg, Zn, etc.) which corrodes itself but saves the
object.
90. What is the standard potential of SHE?
Ans: Zero
91. What happens to a metal during corrosion?
Ans: In corrosion, a metal is oxidised by loss of electrons to oxygen and formation of oxides.
92. Write cathodic reaction that takes place during rusting.
Ans: Cathode: O2(g) + 4 H+(aq) + 4 e– → 2 H2O (l)
93. Write electodes and electrolyte used in Lead storage battery.
Ans: anode- lead
cathode -a grid of lead packed with lead dioxide (PbO2)
Electrolyte- A 38% solution of sulphuric acid
94. Write electodes and electrolyte used in a mercury cell
Ans: Anode- zinc – mercury amalgam
Cathode -a paste of HgO and carbon
Electrolyte - a paste of KOH and ZnO.
95. What are electrodes of dry cell made of ?
Ans: anode- zinc container
cathode - a carbon (graphite) rod surrounded by powdered manganese dioxide and carbon
96. Define Conductivity.
Ans: Conductivity of a material in S m–1 is its conductance when it is 1 m long and its areaof cross
section is 1 m2. It is inverse of resistivity.
97. Define resistivity.
Ans: The resistivity for a substance is its resistance when it is one metre long and its areaof cross
section is one m2.
98. Can you store copper sulphate solutions in a zinc pot?
Ans: When the copper sulphate solution is stored in a zinc pot, copper is replaced by zinc as Eo
value for Zn is less than that of Cu.
99. What are super conductors?
Ans: Superconductors by definition have zero resistivity or infinite conductivity.
100. How is resistance related to cell constant and conductivity?
Ans:

101. Why Salt Bridge is required in a galvanic cell?

Ans. It maintains electrical neutrality of both half cells and completes the circuit.
102. How does electrode potential vary when concentration of electrolyte in half cell increased or
decreased?

24
Ans. On increasing concentration electrode potential increases and decreasing concentration it
decreases.
103. With respect to which electrode the electrode potentials are determined?
Ans Standard hydrogen electrode.
104. What will happen to electrode potential when temperature is increased?
Ans. It increases
105. A metal M has standard electrode potential value - 1.20V. Will this metal can liberate
hydrogen when treated with dilute sulphuric acid ?
Ans. Yes as E0 value less than hydrogen.
106. What is the standard electrode potential of hydrogen electrode?
Ans. 0
107. A cell reaction given below:
Zn(s) + Cu++ = Zn++ + Cu(s)
Identify cathode and anode in above cell.
Ans. Zinc oxidises hence anode and copper reduced hence cathode.
108. E0 values for metals A, B, C are -1.1 , +0.9 And -1. 35 respectively. Identify strongest
oxidizing and reducing agent.
Ans. C strongest reducing agent and B is oxidizing agent.
109. Which reaction will take place at standard hydrogen electrode when it is connected with
copper electrode ?
Ans. Oxidation reaction
110. Strongest oxidizing agent among all the known elements in aqueous solution.
Ans. F
111. Strongest reducing agent among all elements known aqueous solution.
Ans. Li
112. What is the primary cell ?
Ans. In this cells reaction takes only once and after some period become dead.
113. What is the secondary cell?
Ans. This cells can be recharged after use.
114. In a Mercury cell what are anode and cathode ?
Ans. Zinc Mercury amalgam act as anode and a paste of carbon and HgO act as cathode.
115. Why do Mercury cells function at a constant voltage voltage throughout its life?
Ans. In Mercury cell net reaction there is no role of electrolyte and voltage remains constant.
116. How much charge is present on one mole of the electrons?
Ans. 1F = 96500 coulombs.
117. If one F charge is passed through molten NaCl ,what mass of sodium will be formed at
cathode?
Ans. 23 gm.
118. If same quantity of charge is passed through different electrolytes the amount of substance
liberated at their electrodes is directed proportional to their chemical equivalents. To which
law, does this statement belong?
Ans Faraday's second law of electrolysis.
119. What is the fuel cell?
Ans. Galvanic cell which converts energy of combustion into electrical energy.
120. For which mission hydrogen fuel cell first time was designed ?
Ans. Apollo space program.

25
121. What are two advantages of Hydrogen Fuel cell ?
Ans. Pollution free and continuous source of energy.
122. In which of following two mediums water or sea water a piece of iron will rust at a faster
rate and why?
Ans. In sea water contains salts which helps in setting of electrochemical cell quickly.
123. How galvanization protects iron from rusting ?
Ans. Zn more reactive metal corrode and protect iron.
124. How much charge is required for following reduction per mole?
Mg++ + 2 e- = Mg
Ans. 2 F
125. What will be the product of electrolysis when AgNO3 solution is electrolysed by using silver
electrodes?
Ans. At cathode Ag+ e- = Ag(s)
At anode metal of electrode will oxidised into Ag + ion and go solution.
126. What is formula of Rust ?
Ans. Fe2O3.xH2O
127. What is the electrolyte used in hydrogen fuel cell ?
Ans. Conc solution of NaOH.
128. When aqueous solution of sodium chloride is electrolyzed by using platinum electrode, what
products are formed as a node and cathode?
Ans. At anode hydrogen and at cathode chlorine.
129. What is conductivity ?
Ans. Inverse of resistivity called conductivity.
130. What happens to conductivity when solution is diluted ?
Ans. Conductivity decreases as number of ions of electrolyte decrease per unit volume of solution.
131. What is unit of conductivity?
Ans. SI unit of conductivity is S cm-1.
132. Which out of following two solutions of sodium chloride 0.1 M and 1 M solution will have
higher conductivity and why ?
Ans. 1M solution will have higher conductivity as having higher no ions per unit volume.
133. What is the relationship between conductivity and molar conductivity?
Ans. λm = k ×1000/molarity.
134. What is cell constant ?
Ans. l/A
135. What is limiting molar write the nosed question for the following cell reaction conductivity ?
Ans. It is conductivity of an electrolyte infinite dilution.
136. What are strong and weak electrolyte ?
Ans. Strong electrolytes completely disciate into their constituent ions while weak electrolytes
ionise to small extent.
137. How does molar conductivity vary for strong electrolyte with concentration ?
Ans. For strong electrolyte with increase in concentration its slightly decreases with increase in
concentration Or on dilution it slight increases.
138. Write Nernst equation for following cell reaction.
2Al(s) +3 Fe++ → 2 Al+++ + 3 Fe(s)
Ans. Ecell = Eocell - 0.059/6 log [Al3+]2 / [ Fe2+]3
139. State Kohlrausch law.

26
Ans. The molar conductivity at infinite dilution for a salt can be equal to sum of the molar
conductivity of the individual ions of the electrolyte.
140. What are units of the molar conductivity ?
Ans. Om inverse centimeter Square Mall inverse
141. Why A dry cell becomes dead even if not used for a long time?
Ans. Because of acidic nh4cl which corrodes the jink container.
142. What are the product of electrolysis when concentrated sulphuric acid is electrolysed by
using platinum electrodes?
Ans. At cathode hydrogen is formed and at anode per oxodisulphuric acid is produced.
143. What happens to molar conductivity of weak electrolyte when the solution is diluted?
Ans. Molar conductivity of weak electrolyte sharply increases.
144. On dilution the molar conductivity of weak electrolyte sharply increases why?
Ans. On dilution the ionization of weak electrolyte increases rapidly which increase conductivity.
145. In what way metallic conduction and electrolytic conduction differ from each other?
Ans. Metallic conduction is done by free electrons while in electrolytic the conduction is done by
ions.
146. How EMF of a cell is related to gift free energy change?
Ans: Δ G of a cell = -nFEcell
147. What is the value of EMF of a cell at equilibrium?
Ans. Zero
148. What is relationship between standard Gibbs energy change and equilibrium constant?
Ans. ∆G = - 2.303RT/ n F log Kc
149. Direct determination of molar conductivity of weak electrolytes is not possible,why?
Ans. Because the week electrolyte never ionize completely.
150. Why does the alkaline medium inhibits the process of rusting?
Ans. In rusting the H+ ions are reduced but in alkaline medium H+ are removed.
151. What is meant by Faraday's constant?
Ans. F
152. What is limiting molar conductivity?
Ans. It is molar conductivity of an electrolyte at infinite dilution.
153. Copper does not react with dilute sulphuric acid, why?
Ans. Copper is less reactive than hydrogen.
154. Name the electrolyte used in a dry cell?
Ans. A mixture of Ammonium Chloride and zinc chloride
155. Name the small cell used in watches.
Ans. Mercury cell
156. What is the value of standard Gibbs energy change at equilibrium?
Ans. zero
157. What is the electrode potential of standard hydrogen electrode.
Ans. Zero
158. What is standard cell potential?
Ans. It is difference of standard electrode potential between cathode and anode.
159. An alternating current is used for measuring resistance of an electrolyte by wheatstone
Bridge method why?
Ans. The direct current brings electrolysis and change the concentration of ions.

27
160. Can we store 1m copper sulphate in Nickel vessel given standard electrode potential of Ni
and Cu are -0.25V and 0.34V respectively.
Ans. Nickal can reduce Cu++ ions hence can not be stored.
161. What is the relation between standard gibs energy change and standard cell potential?
Ans. ∆G0 = - nFE0
162. What is over voltage?
Ans. It is extra voltage which is required to remove the bubbles of a gas from the surface of the
electrode.
163. Units of cell constant.
Ans Oh m-1. cm-1
164. What happens to Metallic conduction when temperature is increased?
Ans. It deceases
165. In an electrolytic cell where does the reduction occurs?
Ans. At anode
166. In Lead Storage battery which substance act as cathode?
Ans. A grid of lead packed with PbO2.
167. Name the electrolyte used in Lead Storage battery?
Ans. Dilute sulphuric acid
168. Which metals are used in what are weak electrolytes sacrificial protection iron from
corrosion?
Ans. More reactive metal
169. How painting protects iron from corrosion?
Ans. It makes a layer and does not let the atmospheric agent to come in contact with iron.
170. Pure iron does not corrode why?
Ans. As it is electrochemical process hence in absense impurities cathode cannot be formed.
171. What is the relationship between degree of ionization and molar conductivity?
Ans. Degree of ionization α = λmc/λ m0
172. What are week electrolytes?
Ans. Which dissociate into their constituent ions small extent.
173. Give two examples of weak electrolytes
Ans. Acetic acid and Ammonium hydroxide
174. What products are formed in electrolysis when copper sulphate solution is electrolysed by
using platinum electrodes
Ans. At cathode copper is deposited and at anode water is oxidised to oxygen
175. What products are formed in electrolysis of copper sulphate when it is done with copper
electrodes?
Ans. At cathode copper ions deposit and add anode the copper of anode is oxidized into copper
ions in solution
176. What is equivalent conductivity?
Ans. It is conductivity of 1 gram equivalent of electrolyte
177. Two advantages of fuel cell.
Ans. High efficiency polution free continue source of energy
178. Give two disadvantages of fuel cell.
Ans. Costly catalyst and Technology
179. The cell which is used in hearing AIDS
Ans. Mercury cell

28
180. What is electrode potential?
Ans. Potential difference setup between electrode and its ions in the solution
181. Which law is used to determine molar conductivity of weak electrolytes?
Ans. Kohlrausch law
182. Coating of zinc is done over iron articles because —----
Ans. To protect iron from rusting as more reactive metal gets corroded first.
183. Strongest reducing agent among K, Na, Li in aqueous solution.
Ans. Li
184. Why does conductivity of a solution decrease with dilution ?
Ans. On dilution number of Ions per unit volume decrease.
185. What will be the value of EMF of a cell when reaction attends equilibrium ?
Ans. Zero
186. What is electrolysis?
Ans. Decomposition of electrolyte at electrodes.
187. State Faraday's first law.
Ans. Amount of substance formed during electrolysis formed at lectose is directly proportional to
charge passed.
188. For reaction write Gibbs energy change. λ
2 Cr (s) + 3Ni++ = 2Cr 3+ + 3Ni(s)
Ans. ∆G = - 6 x 96500 x Eocell
189. Which cell was used in Apollo space program ?
Ans. Fuel cell
190. For strong electrolytes on increasing concentration their molar conductivity decrease slight
why ?
Ans. On increasing concentrations the inter ionic attractions increase which decrease the ionic
movement.
191. What do you understand by infinite dilution?
Ans. It means when practically the concentration of electrolyte almost become zero
192. What is the unit of conductivity?
Ans. Ohm- cm-
193. Which type of salt is used in solved Bridge?
Ans. Inert electrolyte which should not react with the electrolyte of either of half cell
194. Efficiency of a fuel cell is given by.
Ans. ∆G/∆H
195. Under what condition EMF of cell is zero ?
Ans. At equilibrium
196. Can we measure the absolute value of an electrode potential ?
Ans. No it cannot be measured
197. An alternating current is used for measuring resistance of an electrolyte by wheatstone
Bridge method why?
Ans. The direct current brings electrolysis and change the concentration of ions.
198. What is electrolytic cell?
Ans. In this cell a chemical reaction is brought about by passing electricity.

29
 UNIT-III
CHEMICAL KINETICS

1. The unit of rate constant depend upon the?

Ans. Order of reaction
2. If the rate equation is given below
Rate=k [A]2[B] then what will be the unit of its rate and rate constant?.
Ans. Mol L-1s-1, Mol-²L-²sec-1
3. For the reaction: H2+Cl2→ 2HCL
1. Write order of reaction.
2. Molecularity of reaction
3. Unit of k.
Ans.1. zero order reaction
2. Molecularity is 2.
3.Mol1 L-¹s-¹.
4. For elementary reaction to 2A+ B→ product ,the active mass of B is kept constant and that of
A is doubled .The rate of reaction will then increase by ?
Ans . Increase 4 times.
5. For a chemical reaction A to B ,it is found that the rate of reaction doubles when the
concentration of A is increased four times ,the order with respect to A in the reaction is ?
Ans. Half.
6. When the reaction is progressing what happens to the concentration of the reactants?
Ans. It goes on decreasing.
7. A second order reaction must be a bimolecular elementary reaction (true or false).
Ans. False.
8. A bimolecular elementary reaction must be a second order reaction (True/false)?
Ans. true
9. Order and molecularity of a reaction is always same. (True/false)?
Ans. false
10. A first order reaction may be complex or elementary reaction (true/false)?
Ans. true.
11. The molecularity of a complex reaction given below is:
2N2O5(g)→ 4NO2(g)+ O2(g)
Ans. Can't be determined
12. For reaction 2N2O5(g)→ 4NO2(g)+O2(g). The rate of formation of NO2 is 2.8×10-³mol sec-¹.
Calculate the rate of disappearance of N2O5(g).
Ans.1.4×10-³ mol /s
13. A catalyst increases the reaction rate by: __
Ans. Decreasing activation enthalpy.
14. The first order reaction takes 80 minutes to complete 99.9%. What will be its half-life?
Ans. 8 minutes.
15. Which kind of reaction end in infinite time?
Ans. First order.
16. In the first order reaction ,the concentration of the reactant is reduced to 1/4th in 60 minutes.
What will be its half-life?
30
Ans. 30 minutes.
17. The change in concentration of either reactants or products when time interval is taken as zero
is called?
Ans. Instantaneous rate.
18. The specific rate constant of the first order reaction depends on the___
Ans. Temperature of reaction.
19. The half cycle of the first order reaction is 10 minutes if the initial amount is 0.08 mol per litre
and concentration at same instant is 0.01 mol per litre then t equals to?
Ans.30 minutes.
20. For the first order reaction with the rate constant. Write the expression which gives the half life
period of the reaction.(initial concentration=a)
Ans. 0.693/k
21. Reaction A---B ,follows second order kinetics doubling the concentration of a will increase the
rate of formation of B by the factor of:____________
Ans. 4
22. The unit of rate constant of elementary reaction depends on the_____________
Ans. Temperature of the reaction.
23. The units of rate of reaction and rate constant are same for which kind of reactions ?
Ans. Zero order reaction.
24. CH3COO2H5 (aq) + H2O(l) → CH3COOH(aq) + C2H5OH(aq). What type of reaction is this?
Ans. pseudo first order
25. For an elementary reaction to A+B-----A2B if the volume of a vessel is quickly reduced to half
of its original volume then rate of reaction will be___________
Ans. Increases 8 times.
26. What is the effect of adding a catalyst on :
(a)Activation energy (Ea) and (b) Gibbs energy (ΔG) of a reaction.
Ans .(a) Ea decreases (b) Gibbs energy doesn’t change.
27. What is the order of reaction whose rate constant has the same unit as the rate of reaction?
Ans. Zero order reaction
28. What is the overall order of reaction which has the rate expression r= k [A]²[B]⁰
Ans.2
29. Unit of 1st order reaction and pseudo 1st order reaction is same. This statement is true or not.
Ans. True
30. If a 1st order reaction takes 90 minutes for 75% completion. What will be its half-life?
Ans - 45 minutes.
31. The rate constant for the first order reaction whose half life is 480 seconds is?
Ans.1.44×10-³ sec.
32. 99% of the first order reaction was completed in 32 minutes when 99.9% of the reaction will
complete?
Ans.48 minutes.
33. Identify the order of reaction from the given rate constants.
K=2.3×10-⁵ L mol-¹ sec-¹
K=3×10-⁴ sec-1
Ans. second and first order.
34. A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15×10-³/sec How long will 5 g of this reactant take
to reduce to 3 g?

31
Ans.444 seconds.
35. For the first order reaction ,the rate constant is 6.93×10-³/sec then the half life is :-
Ans.20 seconds.
36. What happens to the number of collisions if temperature is increased by 10 degree?
Ans. Number of desired collision becomes double.
37. While plotting decrease in mass against time a flat curve shows?
Ans. Reaction is over.
38. The reaction rate becomes double when temperature is increased by?
Ans.10 degree Celsius.
39. Reactant molecules must came the minimum amount of energy called as ___Before they
transformed into product.
Ans. activation energy.
40. The gaseous reaction A2 →2A is first order in A2 ,after 12.3 minutes 65% of A2 remains
unreacted . How long will it take to decompose 90% of A2? What is the half life of the reaction?
Ans. 1187 seconds.
41. What causes and increase in the number of effective collision without increasing average
energy?
Ans. An increase in reactant concentration.
42. Half life for a first order reaction A-------Products is 60 min .what percent will remain after 120
minutes ?
Ans.25%
43. The minimum quantity of energy which the reacting species must possess in order to undergo
a specified reaction is known as___
Ans. Activation energy
44. The rate of chemical reaction depends upon the nature of the reactant involved why?
Ans. The number of bond broken in the reactant molecule and the number of bond formed in the
product changes.
45. On which factor does the activation energy of a reaction depends?
Ans. Nature of reactants.
46. If the activation energy of both forward and backward reaction is same .then ΔH of the reaction
is___________
Ans. zero
47. Threshold energy (TE) internal energy (IE) of reactance and activation energy (AE) is related
as
Ans. TE=AE+IE
48. The value of activation energy for radioactive decay is_______
Ans. Almost zero.
49. At 400K, the half-life of a sample of a gaseous compound initially at 56.0 kPa is 340s. When
the pressure is 28.0 kPa, the half-life is 170s. The order of the reaction is:_________
Ans.0
50. Time required for completion of first order reaction is_____
Ans. Infinite.
51. At room temperature the reaction between NO and O2 to give NO2 is fast while that of between
CO and O2 is slow. It is because:_________
Ans.The reaction between NO and oxygen has lower activation energy than the reaction between
CO and oxygen.

32
52. first order reaction was commenced with 0.2 M solution of the reactants. If the molarity of the
solution falls to 0.02M after 100 minutes the value of rate constant is
Ans.2.3×10-²/min.
53. Half life period of C¹⁴ in years is
Ans.5000
54. For an endothermic reaction the activation energy is Ea and enthalpy of the reaction is H.
Minimum possible value of Ea will be .
Ans. More than H.
55. The rate of reactions is directly proportional to the activation energy (true or false)?
Ans. False
56. The activation energy of the forward and the backward reaction is decreased by 30kcal. Then
what will happen to the ΔH?
Ans. ΔH will remain constant.
57. The slope of the plot of ln[R] vs time gives
Ans. -k
58. Equation for rate constant of a first order reaction is:
Ans. k=2.303/t log(a/a-x).
59. First order reaction take 40 minutes for 30% decomposition calculate the t1/2
Ans.77.78 min
60. It is composition of hydrocarbon follows the equation K=(4.5x10¹¹ s-¹)e-²⁸⁰⁰⁰k/t calculate Ea?
Ans. 232.79kJ/mol
61. What is temperature coefficient of a reaction ?
Ans. It is the ratio of rate of constant differing by 10⁰ .
62. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined by...
Ans.1. Determining the rate constant at standard temperature
2.Determining probability of collision
3.By using catalyst
63. Explain why H2 and O2 do not react at room temperature?
Ans. Activation energy for the reaction of H2 with O2 is very high at room temperature.
64. Write two conditions for collisions to be effective collision.
Ans. The molecules must collide with enough energy, known as the activation energy and the
molecules must collide in the proper orientation.
65. The temperature dependence of the rate constant is given by the Arrhenius equation:
Ans. ln A = RTln Ea–ln k
66. A first order reaction is 50% completed in 30 minutes at 300 K and in 10 minutes at 320 K.
Calculate activation energy (Ea) for the reaction. (R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
Ans. 43.85kJ/mol
67. All collisions taking place between reactants do not form products. Why?
Ans. Only those collisions are effective for a reaction which help reactant molecules to get threshold
energy level.
68. A first order reaction takes 20 minutes for 25% decomposition. Calculate the time when 75%
of the reaction will be completed.
(Given: log 2 = 0.3010, log 3 = 0.4771, log 4 = 0.6021)
Ans.96.3 minutes.

33
69. The C-14 content of an ancient piece of wood was found to have three tenths of that in living
trees. How old is that piece of wood? (log 3= 0.4771, log 7 = 0.8540 , Half-life of C-14 = 5730
years)
Ans. 9957 years.
70. For a reaction A + H2O→B , Rate ∝ [A]. What is the order of this reaction?
Ans. Pseudo first order.
71. Rate of reaction doubles when concentration of reactant is doubled if it is a first order
reaction.(true or false).
Ans .True
72. The rate of reaction increases with increase in temperature (true or false)
Ans.True
73. Dust particles suspended in the air inside unheated gain electrons can sometimes react
explosively(true or false )
Ans. True
74. Dust particles suspended in the air inside unheated gain electrons can sometimes react
explosively.(true or false)
Ans. true
75. Hydrolysis of an ester follows first order kinetics as Concentration of water remains nearly
constant during the course of the reaction.(true or false)
Ans.True
76. For complex reactions molecularity and order are not same.(true or false)
Ans. True
77. Order of the reaction can be zero or fractional.(true or false)
Ans.True
78. Rate constants determined from Arrhenius equation are fairly accurate for simple as well as
complex molecules .Reason is Reactant molecules undergo chemical change irrespective of
their orientation during collision.(true or false)
Ans. True
79. The rate of reaction on also increase with its product if one of the product act as catalyst. A
catalyst lowers the activation energy of reaction.
Ans.True
80. There is no reaction known for which ΔG is positive, yet it is spontaneous and For
photochemical reaction, ΔG may or may not be negative.(true or false)
Ans. True
81. Rate of reaction is a measure of change in concentration of product with respect to time.(true
or false )
Ans. false
82. For a reaction: P + 2Q→Products, Rate = k [P]1/2[Q]1 so the order of reaction is 1.5 (true or
false)
Ans. True.
83. The unit of k is independent of order of reaction.( True /false)
Ans . False
84. State a condition under which a bimolecular reaction is kinetically a first order reaction.
Ans. This is possible in case one of the reactants is taken in large excess so that its concentration
changes very slightly in the reaction. The reaction is a pseudo first-order reaction. For example,
hydrolysis of an ester in an acidic medium.

34
85. For a zero order reaction will the molecularity be equal to zero? Explain.
Ans. No,the molecularity for the reaction can neither be zero nor fractional.
86. Why in the redox titration of KMnO4vs oxalic acid, we heat oxalic acid solution before starting
the titration?
Ans. The reaction is very slow at room temperature. By raising the temperature, the reaction rate
increases. Normally in this reaction, KMnO4 acidified with dilute H₂SO4 reacts with oxalic
acid at a temperature of about 50°C.
87. Two reactions of the same order have equal pre exponential factors but their activation energies
differ by 24.9 kJ mol–1. Calculate the ratio between the rate constants of these reactions at
27°C. (Gas constant R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1)
Ans. 2.198×10⁴.
88. The activation energy for the reaction,
2HI(g) →H2(g) + I2(g) is 209.5 KJ mol-1 at 581K. Calculate the fraction of molecules of
reactants having energy equal to or greater than activation energy.
Ans.1.471x10-¹⁹
89. A first order reaction is 25% complete in 50 minutes. Calculate the value of rate constant. In
what time will the reaction be 80% completed?
Ans. K=0.010216 min-1 , 157.58 min.
90. A first order reaction takes 10 minutes for 25% decomposition. Calculate t1/2 for the reaction.
(Given: log 2 = 0.3010, log 3 = 0.4771, log 4 = 0.6021).
Ans.24.08 min
91. The rate constant of a first order reaction increases from 2 X 10-2 to 4×10-2 when the
temperature change from 300Kto310K. Calculate the energy of activation (Ea). (log 2 = 0.301,
log 3 = 0.4771, log 4 = 0.6021)log 3 = 0.4771, log 4 = 0.6021)
Ans.53.58kJ/ mol
92. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 60 s -1. How much time will it take to reduce the
initial concentration of the reactant to 1/10 th of its initial value?
Ans.3.8×10-2 seconds.
93. The rate of a reaction becomes four times when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K.
Calculate the energy of activation (Ea) of the reaction assuming that it does not change with
temperature. [R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1, log 4 = 0.6021]
Ans.52.86kJ/mol.
94. For the reaction R—>P, the concentration of reactant changes from 0.03 M to 0.02 M in 25
minutes. Calculate the average rate of reaction using units of time both in minutes and seconds
Ans 6.66×10-⁶ sec.
95. For a reaction, A + B → Products, the rate law is given by : R= k [A]1/2[B]2. What is the order
of reaction?
Ans.2.5
96. The conversion of molecules X to Y follows second order kinetics. If concentration of X is
increased to three times how will it affect the rate of formation of Y ?
Ans. Y increases by 9 times.
97. The decomposition of NH2 on platinum surface is zero order reaction. What are the rates of
production of N2 and H2 if Ar =2.5 x 10-4 mol-1 L1 s-1.
Ans.3.75×10-⁴mol1 L-¹sec-¹.
98. First order reaction takes 40 min for 30% decomposition. Calculate t1/2.
Ans 77.7 min.

35
99. Sucrose decomposes in acid solution into glucose and fructose according to the first order rate
law, with t1/2 = 3.00 hours. What fraction of sample of sucrose remains after 8 hours?
Ans..0.158 amount of fraction of sucrose will remain after 8 hours.
100. A reaction in which reactants (R) are converted into products (P) follows second order kinetics.
If concentration of R is increased by four times, what will be the increase in the rate of
formation of P?
Ans) 16 times
101. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon
Ans) temperature of the reaction
102. The unit of rate and rate constant are same for a ------
Ans) zero order reaction
103. In the rate equation, when the concentration of reactants is unity then rate is equal to
Ans) specific rate constant
104. The value of rate constant of a pseudo first order reaction ......................
Ans) depends on the concentration of reactants present in excess
105. In 30 minutes, a first-order reaction is 50% complete. Calculate the amount of time it took to
complete 87.5 percent of the reaction.
Ans) 90 minutes
106. What is meant by an elementary reaction?
Ans) A reaction which takes place in one step is called an elementary reaction.
For example: H2 + I2 → 2HI.
107. A large increase in the rate of reaction for rise in temperature is due to:
Ans) Increase in the number of activated molecules
108. The unit of rate constant for the reaction 2H2 + 2NO → 2H2O + N2
which has rate = K[H2][NO]², is
Ans) mol-2 L² s-1
109. The chemical reaction, 2O3 → 3O2 proceeds as
O3 ⇌ O2 + |O| (fast)
|O| + O3 → 2O2 (slow),
The rate law expression will be
Ans) Rate = k [O3] ² [O2]-1
110. Half-life period of a first order reaction is 10 min. What percentage of the reaction will be
completed in 100min?
Ans) 99.9%
111. Radioactive disintegration is an example of
Ans) first order reaction
112. What is the order of reaction which has the plot as shown in the figure

Ans) zero order reaction

113. What will be the fraction of molecules having energy equal to or greater than activation energy,
Ea.?
Ans) e-Ea/RT
114. Give one example of a reaction where order and molecularity are equal?
Ans) 2HI → H2 + I2 (Order = Molecularity = 2)
36
115. A reaction is of first order in reactant A and of second order in reactant B. How is the rate of
this reaction affected when the concentration of B alone is increased to three times
116. Ans) r = K[A]1 [B]2
When concentration of B increases to 3 times, the rate of reaction becomes 9 times
r = KA(3B)2 ∴ r = 9KAB2 = 9 times
117. A reaction is of first order in reactant A and of second order in reactant B. How is the rate of
this reaction affected when the concentrations of A as well as B are doubled?
Ans) r = K[A]1 [B]2
r = K(2A) (2B)2 ∴ r = 8KAB2 = 8 times
118. For a reaction A + B → P, the rate law is given by, r = k[A]1/2 [B]2.
What is the order of this reaction?
Ans) According to the formula: r = k[A]1/2 [B]2

119. A first order reaction is found to have a rate constant k = 5.5 × 10-14 s-1. What is its half life?
Ans)

120. The decomposition of NH3 on platinum surface is zero order reaction. What are the rates of
production of N2 and H2 if k = 2.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1?
Ans.

121. For a reaction, the energy of activation is zero. What is the value of rate constant at 300 K, if k
= 1.6 × 106 s–1 at 280 K? [R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1]
Ans) By Arrhenius reaction

37
122. Rate constant of first order reaction has been found to be 2.54 x 10-3 s-1. Calculate its three-
fourth time.
2.303 [𝑅0]
Ans. For first order k = log [𝑅]
𝑡
[𝑅0]
For three-fourth of the reaction to take place, [R] =[R0]/4, =4
[𝑅]
2.303
2.54 x 10-3 = log 4
𝑡
= (2.303 x103 x 0.6021)/2.54
= 5.46x102 s
123. For the reaction: N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
If Δ[NH3]/Δt= 4x10-8 mol L-1 s-1, what is the value of -Δ[H2]/Δt?
1 𝛥[𝐻2] 1 𝛥[𝑁𝐻3]
Ans -3 =2
𝛥𝑡 𝛥𝑡
1 𝛥[𝐻2] 1
-3 = 2 x 4x10-8 mol L-1 s-1
𝛥𝑡
𝛥[𝐻2] =3
- 𝑥4x10-8 mol L-1 s-1
𝛥𝑡 2
= 6x10-8 mol L-1 s-1
124. In the first order reaction, write relationship between time required for completion of 99.9%
and that of half-life of the reaction.
𝑡99.9%
= 10
𝑡50%
t99.9% = 10 x t50%
125. 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60minutes. When was it half completed.
Ans: k=2.303/60 log[A]0/0.4[A]0 =0.01527
t1⁄2=0.693/0.01527 = 45.38minutes
126. The activation energy for reaction, 2HI(g)→ H2(g) + I2(g), is 209.5 kJ mol–1 at 581 K. Calculate
the fraction of molecules of reactants having energy equal to or greater than activation energy.
Ans. The fraction of molecules of reactants having energy equal to or greater than activation energy
is given as x =e−Ea/RT
Taking log both sides, we get logx = − Ea /2.303 RT = − 209500 J mol−1 2.303×8.314 J
mol−1K−1×581K = −18.832
⇒ x= antilog (−18.832) x =1.47× 10−19
127. The half-life for radioactive decay of 14C is 5730 years. An archaeological artifact containing
wood had only 80% of the 14C found in a living tree. Estimate the age of the sample.
Ans. Radioactive decay follows first order kinetics.
k = 0.693/ t1/2
= 0.693/5730=1.21 × 10–4 year–1
2.303 [𝑅0] 2.303 [100]
t= 𝑘
log [𝑅] = 1.21𝑥10−4log 80]
=1845years
128. Answer the following questions on the basis of the given plot of potential energy vs reaction
coordinate:

38
 (i) What is the threshold energy for the reaction?
(ii) What is the activation energy for forward reaction?
(iii) What is the activation energy for backward reaction?
iv) What is enthalpy change for the forward reaction?
Ans. (i) Threshold energy for the reaction = 300 kJ mol–1
(ii)Activation energy for the forward reaction = 300 – 150= 150 kJ mol–1
(iii)Activation energy for the backward reaction = 300 – 100= 200 kJ mol–1
(iv)Enthalpy change for the forward reaction rH = 100 – 150= – 50 kJ mol–1
129. A first order reaction has a rate constant k=3.01 x 10-3 /s. How long it will take to decompose
half of the reactant?
Ans – t1/2 = 0.693/k
= 0 .693/3.01 x 10-3 = 230.3 s
130. What are the units of k for the rate law: Rate = k[A][B]2, when the concentration unit is mol/L?
Ans ) L2 mol-2 s-1
131. When the concentration of reactant molecules is increased, the rate of reaction increases. Why?
Ans- Because the frequency of molecular collisions increases.
132. Draw the plot of t1/2 vs initial concentration [R]o for a first order reaction

133. The rate of a first order reaction is 0.04 mol L-1 s-1 at 10 minutes and 0.03 mol L-1 s-1 at 20
minutes after initiation. Find the half-life of the reaction?
Ans.

134. Observe the following graphs and answer the questions based on these graphs.

39
 (a) What is order of reaction shown in graph I?
Ans. Zero order reaction.
(b) What is slope in graph II?
Ans. k/2 .303 where ‘k’ is rate constant.
135. How does t1/2 varies with initial concentration in zero order reaction.
Ans. t1/2 is directly proportional to initial concentration.
136. What is t1/2 of zero order reaction in terms of ‘k’?
Ans. t1/2 = [R0 ]/2k for zero order reaction.
137. Write the rate law for a first order reaction.
Ans.

138. Justify the statement that half life for a first order reaction is independent of the initial
concentration of the reactant
Ans.

139. The activation energy of a reaction is 75.2 kJ mol–1 in the absence of a catalyst and it lowers
to 50.14 kJ mol–1 with a catalyst. How many times will the rate of reaction grow in the presence
40
 of a catalyst if the reaction proceeds at 25°C?
Ans.

140. What is the difference between the average rate and instantaneous rate?
Ans. Average rate is the rate measured for a long period of time. While the instantaneous rate is the
rate measured for an infinitesimally small period of time.
141. What does the given graph represent about the nature of reaction?

Ans. -Δ[A]/Δt = Δ[B]/Δt

142. The reaction rate of a substance is directly proportional to its_____.
Ans. Active Mass (The active mass is the concentration of the reacting substance in mol l-1. Hence,
the rate of the reaction of the substance is directly proportional to its active mass.)
143. In the reaction rate expression, the change in concentration of each of the reactants and products
are divided by the respective stoichiometric number present in the reaction equation. Why is
this division done?
Ans. The rate of formation of products and the rate of decomposition of the reactants are divided by
their stoichiometric coefficients in the reaction in order to get an identical value for the rate of
the reaction.
144. Calculate the overall order from the given rate expressions.
Rate = k[A]½[B]3/2
Rate = k[A]3/2[B]-1
Ans.The overall orders are calculated as:
The order w.r.t. A = 1/2
The order w.r.t. B = 3/2
Overall Order = ½ + 3/2 = 2

41
 The order w.r.t. A = 3/2
The order w.r.t. B = -1
Overall Order = 3/2 – 1 = 1/2
145. The rate constants of 3 reactions are given. Identify the order of each of the given reactions.
k = 2.3 x 10-5 L mol-1 s-1
k = 3.1 x 10-4 s-1
k = 9.3 x 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
Ans.Since only rate constants for each reaction are given, the order of the reactions will be
determined based on the units of the rate constants.
2nd order
1st order
Zero order
146. What are the differences between the rate of the reaction and the reaction rate constant?
Ans. The differences between the two are:

Rate of Reaction Rate Constant

It is the change in concentration It is equal to the rate of the reaction when the
(mol L-1) of a reactant or product molar concentration of each of the reactants is 1.
with time. It is a proportionality constant.

147. Give an example of the reaction of the 4th order.

Ans.The dissociation of potassium chlorate to form potassium perchlorate is an example of the
reaction of 4th order.
4KClO3 → 3KClO4 + KCl
148. Derive the general expression of the time taken by the reactant to reduce to its nth fraction in
the first order reaction.
Ans. General expression of the time taken by the reactant to reduce to its nth fraction in the first
order reaction is represented by
t = (2.303/k) log n.
149. The half-life period of a 1st order reaction is 60 min. What percentage of the substance will be
left after 240 min?
Ans: 1 half-life period = 60 min
Number of half-lives after 240 min = 240/60 = 4 half-lives i.e. n = 4
Amount of substance left after n half-lives = Ao/2n
Percentage of the amount of substance left after 4 half-lives = Ao/24 x 100 = Ao/16 x 100 =
6.25% of A.
150. Determine the order of a reaction whose rate constant has the same unit as the rate of the
reaction.
Ans: Zero Order reaction.
151. A reaction is 2nd ordered w.r.t. a reactant. Determine the change in the rate of the reaction
when the amount of the reactant is:
Doubled
Reduced to its half
Ans: For a 2nd order reaction, Rate = k[A]2 = ka2
When A = 2a, Rate = k(2a)2 = 4.ka2, the reaction rate increases 4 times.
When A = ½ a, Rate = k(½ a)2 = ¼ times, the reaction rate decreases by ¼ times.

42
152. The role of a catalyst is to ----------
Ans: A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
153. In the presence of a catalyst, heat evolved or absorbed during reaction---------
Ans: There is no effect on heat evolved or absorbed during the reaction in the presence of a catalyst
since it does not participate in the reaction.
154. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined by
Ans) Activation energy of a chemical reaction is related to rate constant of a reaction at two different
temperatures i.e.,K1 and K2 respectively.

155. According to Arrhenius equation rate constant k is equal to Ae-Ea/RT. Represent the graph of In
k versus 1/T?
Ans:

156. Explain the Arrhenius equation given below k =Ae-Ea/RT

Ans: K= Ae-Ea/RT from the equation it is clear that value of rate constant k increases exponentially
with decrease in activation energy Ea and increase in temperature.
157. Rate law for the reaction ‘B’ is doubled, keeping the concentration of ‘A’ constant, the value
of rate constant will be
Ans: Rate constant of a reaction does not depend upon concentrations of the reactants.
158. What are the postulates of collision theory of chemical reaction?
Ans: According the postulates of collision theory there are the following necessary conditions for
any reaction to be occur:
(i) Molecule should collide with sufficient threshold energy.
(ii) Their orientation must be proper.
(iii) The collision must be effective.
159. A first order reaction is 50% completed in 1.26×1014 s. How much time would it take for 100%
completion?
Ans: Reaction would be 100% complete only after infinite time which cannot be calculated.
160. The value of rate constant of a pseudo first order reaction depends on which factor
Ans: The value of rate constant of a pseudo first order reaction depends on the concentration of
reactants present in excess.
161. Rate law cannot be determined from balanced chemical equation if:
Ans: Rate law can be determined from balanced chemical equation if it is an elementary reaction.
162. State characteristics of unimolecular reaction,
Ans: For any unimolecular reaction, only one reactant is involved in rate determining step and the
order and molecularity of rate determining or slowest step are one.
163. State characteristics of a complex reaction
Ans: (a) For a complex reaction, order of overall reaction = molecularity of slowest step.

43
 (b) Since the completion of any chemical reaction is not possible in the absence of reactants.
Hence, slowest step of any chemical reaction must contain at least one reactant. Thus,
molecularity’of the slowest step is never zero or non-integer.
164. At high pressure the rate of following reaction is independent of concentration of ammonia.
What is the order?

Ans: Zero order reaction.

165. Draw Maxwell Boltzmann distribution of energy
Ans: Distribution of kinetic energy may be described by plotting a graph of fraction of molecules
versus kinetic energy.

166. Draw graphs for a first order reaction?

167. State a condition under which a biomolecular reaction is kinetically first order reaction.
Ans: When concentration of one of the reactant is taken in large excess,The order of reaction will
be equal to one.
168. Write the rate equation for the reaction 2A + B–>C if the order of the reaction is zero.
Ans: 2A+B –>C
Rate = k[A]° [B]°
169. How can you determine the rate law of the following reaction?

Ans: The rate law cqn be determined by measuring the rate of this reaction as a function of initial
concentration by keeping the concentration of one of the reactants constant and changing the
concentration of other reactant or by changing the concentration of both the reactants. From the
concentration dependence of rate, rate law can be determined.
170. For which type of reactions, order and molecularity have the same value?
Ans: Elementary reactions have same value of order and molecularity.
171. In a reaction, if the concentration of reactant A is tripled, the rate of reaction becomes twenty
seven times. What is the order of the reaction?
44
Ans: 3
172. For a reaction A + B —> Products, the rate law is — Rate = k[A][B]3/2. Can – reaction be an
elementary reaction? Explain.
Ans:

173. For a certain reaction, large fraction of molecules has energy more than the threshold energy,
yet the rate of reaction is very slow. Why?
Ans: Though the reacting molecules may be having energy more than threshold energy, yet they
may not be effective due to lack of proper orientation.
174. For a zero order reaction will the molecularity be equal to zero? Explain.
Ans: Molecularity of a reaction can never be equal to zero.
175. For a general reaction A –> B, plot of concentration of A versus time is

given in figure. Answer the following questions on the basis of this graph.
(i) What is the order of the reaction?
(ii) What is the slope of the curve?
(iii) What are the units of rate constant?
Ans:

176. The reaction between H2(g) and O2(g) is highly feasible yet allowing the gases to stand at room
temperature in the same vessel does not lead to the formation of water. Explain.
Ans: 2H2(g) +O2(g) –>2H20(l)
This reaction does not take place at room because the activation energy of the reaction is very
high.
177. Why does the rate of a reaction increase with rise in temperature?
Ans: At higher temperatures, larger fraction of colliding particles can cross the energy barrier (i.e.
the activation energy), which leads to faster rate.
178. Oxygen is available in plenty in air yet fuels do not bum by themselves at room temperature.
Explain.
Ans: The activation energy for combustion reactions of fuels is very high at room temperature,
therefore, they do not bum by themselves.

45
179. Why is the probability of reaction with molecularity higher than three very rare?
Ans: The probability of more than three molecules colliding simultaneously is very small.
Therefore, the possibility of molecularity being three is very low.
180. Why does the rate of any reaction generally decreases during the course of the reaction?
Ans: The rate of a reaction depends on the concentration of reactants. As the reaction progresses,
the concentration of reactants decreases because the reactants start getting converted to
products. Hence the rate decreases.
181. Thermodynamic feasibility of the reaction alone cannot decide the rate of the reaction. Explain
with the help of one example.
Ans: Thermodynamics feasibility of a reaction depends on Gibbs free energy i.e., AG must be
negative for spontaneous process. Kinetic feasibility depends on the activation energy of
reaction, the lesser is the activation energy, the greater is the feasibility of reaction, i.e.,

This process is thermodynamically feasible but it is very slow due to its high activation energy.
182. Why, in the redox titration of KMnO4 versus oxalic acid we heat oxalic acid solution before
starting the titration.
Ans: The reaction between KMnO4 and oxalic acid is very slow. By raising the temperature we can
increase the rate of reaction.
183. What is the order of radioactive decay?
Ans. First order
184. Why is molecularity applicable only for elementary reactions and order applicable for
elementary as well as complex reaction?
Ans: A complex reaction occurs through several elementary reactions. Numbers of molecules
involved in each elementary reaction may be different i.e., the molecularity of each step may
be different. Therefore, the molecularity of overall complex reaction is meaningless.
On the other hand, order of a complex reaction is experimentally determined by the slowest
step in its mechanism and is therefore, applicable even in the case of complex reactions.
185. Why can we not determine the order of reaction by taking into consideration the balanced
chemical equation?
Ans: Balanced chemical equation often leads to incorrect order or rate law. For example, the
following reaction appears to be a tenth order reaction.

However, this is actually a second order reaction. Actually, the reaction is complex and occurs
in several steps.
186. All energetically effective collisions do not result in a chemical change.
Ans: Because of lack of proper orientation
187. What happens to most probable kinetic energy and the energy of activation with increase in
temperature?
Ans:

46
 Most probable kinetic energy increases with increase in temperature. As the temperature
increases, activation energy decreases which will result in the increase in the rate of reaction.
188. Explain the difference between instantaneous rate of a reaction and average rate of a reaction.
Ans: Average rate of a reaction is the change in concentration of reactants or products and the
time taken for that change to occur.

It occurs for a long interval of time. It can be determined for multistep as well as elementary
reactions.

189. The half life period of first order reaction is 1386 seconds. The specific rate constant of the
reaction is

190. The rate constant of a reaction A → B is 0.6 × 103 mole per second. If the concentration of [A]
is 5 M, then what will be concentration of [B] after 20 months?

191. A first order reaction has specific reaction rate 10-2s-1. How much time it will take for 20g of
reactant to reduce to 5g?

192. The rate of first order reaction is 0.04 mol L-1 s-1 at 10 sec. and 0.03 mol L-1 at 20 seconds after
initiation of the reaction. t1/2 of reaction is

193. If the initial concentration of reactant is doubled, t1/2 is also doubled, the order of reaction is
Ans) Zero order reaction
194. If conc, of reactant ‘A’ is increased 10 times and rate of reaction becomes 100 times. What is
order with respect to ‘A’?
Ans) Two (2)
𝐻𝐶𝑙
195. RCOOR’ → RCOOH + R’OH
Ans. Pseudo-unimolecular

47
196. For a reaction A + B → Product, the rate law is given by r = k[A]½ [B]2. What is the order of
the reaction?
Ans. Order of reaction = ½ + 2 = 2.5
197. The rate law for a reaction is Rate = K [A] [B]3/2. Can the reaction be an elementary process?
Explain.
Ans. No, an elementary process would have a rate law with orders equal to its molecularities and
therefore must be in integral form.
198. Identify the order of a reaction from the following rate constant: k = 2.3 × 10−5 L mol-1 s-1
199. Ans. Second order
200. After five half-life periods for a first order reaction, what fraction of reactant remains?
Ans. 1/32
201. What is the effect of adding catalyst on the free energy of a reaction ?
Ans. No change in ∆G.
202. Determine the order of reaction :
Step 1. 2NO + H2 → N2 + H2O2 (Slow)
Step 2. H2O2 + H2 → 2H2 O (Fast)
Ans. Rate = k [NO]2 [H2] Order = 2 + 1 = 3

48
 UNIT-IV
d- & f-BLOCK ELEMENTS

1. Why is zinc not regarded as a transition element?

Ans- It is because neither Zn nor Zn+2ions have incompletely filled d-orbitals.
2. Copper atom has completely filled d-orbitals in its ground state but it is a transition element.
Why?
Ans- It is because Cu+2 has 3d9, incompletely filled d-orbitals, therefore, it is a transition metal.
3. Zn+2 salts are white while Cu+2 salts are coloured. Why?
Ans- Zn+2 salts are white because it does not have unpaired electron, whereas Cu+2 salts are coloured
because it has unpaired electron and undergoes d-d transition by absorbing light from visible
region and radiate blue colour.
4. Why is actinoid contraction greater than lanthanoid contraction?
Ans- 5f orbitals have poor shielding effect than 4f orbitals, therefore, effective nuclear charge is
more in actinoids than lanthanoids.
5. Why do actinoids show wide range of oxidation states?
Ans- It is because 5f, 6d and 7s have comparable energy
6. Write one similarity between the chemistry of lanthanoids and that of actinoids.
Ans- Lanthanoids show lanthanoid contraction like actinoids contraction.
7. Write one difference between the chemistry of lanthanoids and that of actinoids
Ans- Lanthanoids show mostly +3 oxidation state. Few show +2 and +4, whereas Actinoids show
+3, +4, +5, +6 and +7 oxidation states.
8. Why do transition elements show variable oxidation states?
Ans- Transition elements show variable oxidation states because electrons from both s and d orbitals
take part in bond formation.
9. In 3d series (Sc to Zn), which element shows the maximum number of oxidation states and
why?
Ans- In 3d series, ‘Mn’ shows maximum number of oxidation states because it has maximum
number of electrons in s as well as in d orbitals which can take part in bond formation.
10. E° value for the Mn+3/Mn+2 couple is positive (+1.5 V) whereas that of Cr+3/Cr+2 is negative
(-0.4 V). Why?
Ans- Mn+2 is more stable than Mn+3 due to half filled d-orbitals (3d5), whereas Cr+3 is more stable
than Cr+2 due to half filled orbitals.
11. Transition metals form coloured compounds. Why?
Ans- It is due to presence of unpaired electrons which undergo d-d transition by absorbing light
from visible region and radiate complementary colour
12. Complete the following equation:
2MnO4– + 16 H+ + 5C204– → 2Mn+2 + 8H20 + 10CO2
13. MnO is basic whereas Mn207 is acidic in nature. Why?
Ans- In MnO, Mn has +2 oxidation state, whereas in Mn2O7, Mn has + 7 oxidation state. Higher the
oxidation state, more will be acidic nature, e.g. Mn207. Lower the oxidation state, more will
be basic nature, e.g. MnO.

49
14. Transition metals form alloys. Why?
Ans- It is due to similar atomic size, they can replace one another in metallic bond
15. Complete the following equation:
2MnO4+ 4KOH + O2 →
Ans- 2MnO4+ 4KOH + O2 → 2K2MnO4+ 2H2O
16. Complete the following equation:
2 MnO4+ 6H+ + 5NO2 →
Ans- 2 MnO4+ 6H+ + 5NO2 → 2Mn2+ + 3H2O + 5NO3
17. Account for the following:
Cu+ is unstable in an aqueous solution.
Ans- It is because hydration energy of Cu2+ overcomes 2nd ionisation enthalpy, that is why Cu+
changes to Cu2+ and Cu.
2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu
18. Transition metals form complex compounds. Why?
Ans- It is due to their small size, high charge and availability of vacant d-orbitals
19. 19. Complete the following equation:

20. Highest fluoride of Mn is MnF4 whereas the highest oxide is Mn2O7.Why?

Ans- Oxygen can form double bond, therefore, it can form Mn207, whereas ‘F’ cannot form double
bonds, so, it can form MnF4.
21. Transition metals and their compounds show catalytic properties. Give reason.
Ans- Transition metals show variable oxidation states, therefore, they and their compounds act
as catalyst.
22. Complete the following equation:
3MnO4– + 4H+ →
Ans- 3MnO4– + 4H+ → MnO2 + 2MnO42– + 2H2O
23. Calculate the spin magnetic moment of M2+(aq) ion. Atomic number (Z) = 27.
Ans- 27= 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d7
M2+ =1s22s22p63s23p63d7
It has 3 unpaired electrons
So magnetic moment = µ=√n(n+2)
µ = √3(3+2)
=√15
=3.87BM
24. Chromium is typical hard metal while mercury in liquid, explain.
Ans- Cr is typically hard metal due to presence of large number of unpaired electrons, metal-metal
interaction is strong whereas mercury does not have unpaired electrons and has large size,
therefore, forms weak metallic bond.
25. Account for the following:
Eu2+ is strong reducing agent
Ans- It is because Eu3+ is more stable.
26. Zn has lowest enthalpy of atomisation. Why?
Ans- It is due to weak metallic bonds due to completely filled d-orbitals.
50
27. Complete the following equations:
2KMnO4 → K2MnO4+ MnO2+ O2
Cr2O72– + 14H+ + 6Fe2+ → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O + 6Fe3+
28. Account for the following:
Transition elements form interstitial compounds.
Ans- Small size atoms B, C, H can occupy voids present in transition metals.
29. Mn3+(3d4) is strongly oxidising, whereas Cr2+(3d4) is strongly reducing.
Ans- Mn3+ gains one electron to form Mn2+ since 3d5 is more stable, whereas Cr2+ loses one electron
for Cr3+(3p which is more stable, so, it acts as reducing agent.
30. Transition metals have high melting points.
Ans- It is due to involvement of unpaired (n-1)d electrons to form strong metallic bond.
31. What is misch metal? Write its one use.
Ans- It contains 95% lanthanoid metal, 5% iron and traces of S, C, Ca and AI.
Use: Its magnesium based alloy is used to produce bullets, shells, flints.
32. What are the different oxidation states exhibited by the lanthanoids?
Ans- Lanthanoids, mostly show +3 oxidation state but some of them show +2 and +4 oxidation
states also due to the stability of electronic configuration (4f°, 4f7 and 4f14), e.g. Eu shows
+2, whereas Ce shows +4 oxidation state
33. Write two characteristics of the transition elements.
Ans- (i) They show variable oxidation states.
(ii) They form coloured compounds.
34. Which of the 3d-block elements may not be regarded as the transition elements and why ?
Ans- Zn may not be regarded as transition metal because neither ‘Zn’ nor Zn2+ ions have
incompletely filled d-orbital.
35. The Mn2+ compounds are more stable than Fe2+ towards oxidation to their +3 state.
Ans- Mn2+ has 3d5 (stable electronic configuration), therefore, it does not get oxidised to Mn3+,
whereas Fe2+ has 3d6 which readily changes to Fe3+ (3d5), which has stable electronic
configuration
36. In the 3d series from Sc (Z = 21) to Zn (Z = 30), the enthalpy of atomization of Zn is the
lowest.
Ans- Zinc does not have unpaired electrons and larger in size, therefore, it has weak metallic bonds.
That is why it has least enthalpy of atomisation.
37. Sc3+ is colourless in aqueous solution, whereas Ti3+ is coloured. Explain.
Ans- Sc3+ is colourless as it does not have unpaired electron and cannot undergo d-d transition,
whereas Ti3+ is coloured due to presence of unpaired electrons and undergoes d-d transition
by absorbing light from visible region and radiate complementary colour.
38. Name the element of 3d transition series which shows maximum number of oxidation states.
Why does it show so?
Ans- Mn because it has five unpaired electrons and 2 electrons in s-orbital which can take part in
bond formation, therefore, it shows maximum number of oxidation states.
39. Which transition metal of 3d series has positive E°(M2+/M) value and why?
Ans- E°Cu2+/Cu has +ve value due to high ionisation enthalpies and sublimation energies and lower
hydration energy
40. Out of Cr3+ and Mn3+, which is a stronger oxidizing agent and why?
Ans- Mn3+ is stronger oxidising agent because it can gain electrons to become Mn2+ which is more
stable due to 3d5 (half filled d-orbitals), whereas Cr3+ is stable due to f3 (half filled orbitals).

51
41. Name a member of the lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit + 2 oxidation state.
Ans- Europium shows +2 oxidation state. Ytterbium (Yb) also shows +2 oxidation state.
42. Complete the following equation:
MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e- ———->Mn2+ +4H2O
43. Account for the following: Transition metals form a large number of complexes.
Ans- It is due to small size, higher charge and presence of vacant d-orbitals of suitable energy.
44. Name a member of the lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +4 oxidation state.
Ans- Ce shows +4 oxidation state.
45. Out of Mn3+ and Cr3+, which is more paramagnetic and why?
(Atomic nos.: Mn = 25, Cr = 24)
Ans- Mn3+ (3d4) has 4 unpaired electrons, therefore, it is more paramagnetic than Cr3+) which has
three unpaired electrons.
46. Which metal in the first transition series (3d series) exhibits +1 oxidation state most frequently
and why?
Ans- Copper exhibits +1 oxidation state frequently due to stable electronic configuration
47. Which of the following cations are coloured in aqueous solutions and why?
Sc3+, V3+, Ti4+, Mn2+
(At. Nos. Sc = 21, V = 23, Ti = 22, Mn = 25)
Ans- V3+ and Mn2+ are coloured, due to the presence of unpaired electrons, they can undergo d-d
transitions. Others are colourless due to the absence of unpaired electrons and cannot undergo
d-d transitions.
48. Transition metals exhibit variable oxidation states. Why?
Ans- It is because electrons from (n – 1 )d and ns take part in bond formation.
49. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have almost identical radii. Why?
Ans- It is due to lanthanoid contraction which is due to poor shielding effect of f-electrons, due to
which effective nuclear charge increases, therefore, Zr and Hf have almost identical radii.
50. Name the element which shows only +3 oxidation state.
Ans- Sc shows only +3 oxidation state.
51. What is lanthanoid contraction? Name an important alloy which contains some of the
lanthanoid metals.
Ans- The decrease in atomic and ionic size with increase in atomic number is called lanthanoid
contraction. Misch metal is an important alloy which contains some of the lanthanoid metals.
52. Cr2+ is a very good reducing agent. Why ?.
Ans- It is because Cr2+ loses an electron to form Cr3+ which is more stable as t2g orbitals are half-
filled, i.e. more stable.
53. The metallic radii of the third (5d) series of transition metals are virtually the same as those
of the corresponding group members of the second (4d) series.
Ans- It is due to lanthanoid contraction.
54. Lanthanoids form primarily +3 ions, while the actinoids usually have higher oxidation states
in their compounds, +4 or even +6 ?
Ans- It is because lanthanoid lose 2 electrons from 6s orbitals and one from 5d – or 4/ orbitals and
are stable in +3 oxidation state. Actinoids can lose electrons from 7s, 6d and 5/ orbitals easily
due to comparable energies and show higher oxidation states +4 and +6.
55. There occurs much more frequent metal-metal bonding in compounds of heavy transition
metals (i.e. 3rd series).

52
Ans- It is due to presence of unpaired electrons which participate in metal-metal bonding in 5d series
(3rd series).
56. The higher oxidation states are usually exhibited by the members in the middle of a series of
transition elements.
Ans- It is due to large number of unpaired electrons in the middle of series of transition metals.
57. Calculate the number of unpaired electrons in the following gaseous state ions:
Mn2+, Cr3+, V3+ and Fe2+
(At. nos. V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26)
Ans-

58. Unlike Cr3+, Mn2+, Fe3+ and the subsequent other M2+ ions of the 3d series of elements, the 4d
and the 5d series metals generally do not form stable cationic species.
Ans- It is because energy required to remove electron is more due to greater effective nuclear charge
which is due to lanthanoid contraction
59. The chemistry of actinoids is not so smooth as that of lanthanoids.Give reason.
Ans- It is because all of them are radioactive and some of them have short half life, therefore, the
chemistry of actinoids is not smooth.
60. Mn(III) undergoes disproportionation reaction easily.why?
Ans- It is unstable, therefore, undergoes disproportionation
61. Co (II) is easily oxidised in the presence of strong ligands. Why?
Ans- Strong ligands provide energy which overcomes 3rd ionisation enthalpy of Co(II) and it gets
oxidised to Co3+ to form more stable complex.
62. Generally there is an increase in density of elements from titanium (Z = 22) to copper (Z = 29)
in the first series of transition elements. Give reason.
Ans- It is because atomic mass increases more than atomic volume, therefore, density increases
from titanium (Z = 22) to copper (Z = 29).
63. Scandium (At. no. 21) salts are white.why?.
Ans- Sc3+ does not have unpaired electrons, therefore, cannot undergo d-d transition by absorbing
light from visible region. Therefore, its salts are white.
64. The E° value for the Mn3+/Mn2+ couple is much more positive than that for Cr3+/Cr2+ couple
or Fe3+/Fe2+ couple.
Ans- It is because Mn2+ is more stable than Mn3+ due to stable half filled 3d° configuration
65. The highest oxidation state of a metal is exhibited in its oxide or fluoride.
Ans- It is because oxygen and fluorine are strong oxidising agents, highly electronegative, small
size and can provide energy for formation of transition metal ion in higher oxidation state
66. Lanthanum and Lutetium do not show colouration in solutions.
(At. No. : La = 57, Lu = 71)Why?
Ans- It is due to absence of unpaired electrons, they do not absorb light from visible region and do
not radiate colour.
67. The lowest oxide of a transition metal is basic, the highest is amphoteric/ acidic.Give reason.

53
Ans- It is because transition metals in lowest oxidation state are more metallic and in higher
oxidation state are least metallic, therefore, oxides in lower oxidation state are basic, whereas
in higher oxidation state are amphoteric/acidic
68. Cobalt (II) is stable in aqueous solution but in the presence of complexing agents, it is easily
oxidised.why?
Ans- Strong oxidising agents provide energy for loss of one more electron from Co2+.
69. Although Co2+ ion appears to be stable, it is easily oxidised to Co3+ ion in the presence of a
strong ligand.
Ans- Strong ligand provides energy which overcomes third ionisation energy to form Co3+ ion which
forms more stable complex than Co2+.
70. The EMn2+/Mn, value for manganese is much more than expected from the trend for other
elements in the series
Ans- It is due to low sublimation energy, low and ionisation enthalpy and high hydration energy..
71. What is meant by ‘disproportionation’?
Ans- Disproportionation: In a disproportionation reaction an element undergoes self-oxidation as
well as self-reduction forming two different compounds.
72. Give an example of a disproportionation reaction in aqueous solution’

73. What happens when (NH4)2Cr2O7 is heated? (Delhi 2017)

Ans:

74. Copper atom has completely filled d orbitals (3d10) in its ground state, yet it is regarded as a
transition element.
Ans- Copper atom has completely filled d orbitals (3d10) in its ground state, yet it is regarded as a
transition element due to incompletely filled d-orbital in its ionic states i.e. Cu2+ (3d9).
75. Silver atom has completely filled d-orbitals (4d10) in its ground state, yet it is regarded as a
transition element.
Ans- Because silver has incomplete d-orbital (4d9) in its +2 oxidation state, hence it is a transition
element
76. Explain the following observation :
Zn2+ salts are colourless.
Ans- Zn2+ salts are colourless due to absence of unpaired electrons in its ground state and ionic state
i.e Zn2+ = [Ar] 3d104s04p0
77. Mn2+ is much more resistant than Fe2+ towards oxidation.
Ans- The 3d orbital in Mn2+ is half-filled and is more stable compared to Fe2+ has 6 electrons in the
3d orbital. Mn2+ prefer to lose an electron or get oxidised whereas Fe2+ will readily loose one
electron or get oxidised. Therefore, Mn2+ is much more resistant than Fe2+ towards oxidation.
78. Among lanthanoids, Ln (III) compounds are predominant. However, occasionally in solutions
or in solid compounds, + 2 and + 4 ions are also obtained.
Ans- Among lanthanoids, Ln (III) compounds are predominant. However +2 and +4 ions in solution
or in solid compounds are also obtained. This is because they have empty, half-filled and
completely filled 4/ sub-shell respectively which show extra stability.
79. Sc (21) is a transition element but Ca (20) is not.
54
Ans- Sc (21) is regarded as a transition element due to the presence of incomplete d- subshell
(3d14s2) but Ca (20) does not have any d-subshell
80. The Fe2+ is much more easily oxidised to Fe2+ than Mn2+ to Mn3+.
Ans- Fe+2[Ar] 3d6 can be easily oxidised to Fe+3 [Ar] 3d5, which is half filled and is more stable but
Mn+2 is d5 in configuration which is again half filled configuration and Mn+3 is d4 in
configuration.
81. What is lanthanoid contraction?
Ans- Lanthanoid contraction : The overall decrease in atomic and ionic radii with increasing atomic
number is known as lanthanoid contraction.
82. Mention the main consequences of lanthanoid contraction.
Ans- a) the size of elements which follow (Hf – Hg) are almost similar to the size of the elements ,
of previous row (Zr – Cd) and hence these are difficult to separate.
b) Due to small change in atomic radii, the chemical properties of lanthanoids are very similar
due to which separation of lanthanoid becomes very difficult.
c) Due to lanthanoid contraction, the size decreases from La+3 to Lu+3. Thus covalent character
increases. Hence basic character of hydroxides also decreases i.e. why La(OH)3 is most basic
while Lu(OH)3 is least basic.
83. Write the balanced ionic equation for the reaction between ferrous sulphate and acidified
potassium permanganate solution.
Ans- Balanced ionic equation :
MnO4– + 5Fe+2 + 8H+ → Mn+2 + 5Fe+3 + 4H2O
84. Write balanced chemical equation showing oxidizing nature of potassium permanganate.:
Ans- Reaction showing oxidising nature of KMnO4
2KMnO4 + 5SO2 + 2H2O → K2SO4+ 2MnSO4 + 2H2SO4
85. In the 3d series (Sc = 21 to Zn = 30) :
(i) Which element shows maximum number of oxidation states?
(ii) Which element shows only +3 oxidation state?
(iii) Which element has the lowest enthalpy of atomization?
Ans- (i) Mn
(ii) Sc
(iii) Zn
86. Calculate the magnetic moment of a divalent ion in aqueous medium if its atomic number is
26.
Ans- Divalent ion with atomic number 26 is Fe2+

87. With the same d-orbital configuration d4, Cr2+ ion is a reducing agent but Mn3+ ion is an
oxidising agent.
Ans- Cr2+ has the configuration 3d4 which easily changes to d3 due to stable half filled t2g orbitals.
Therefore Cr2+ is reducing agent. While Mn2+ has stable half filled d5 configuration. Hence
Mn3+ easily changes to Mn2+ and acts as oxidising agent.
88. How would you account for the following :
Ans- The oxidising power of oxoanions are in the order VO+2<Cr2O7−2<MnO4−
The ions in which the central metal atom is present in the highest oxidation state will have the
highest oxidising power. As the oxidation state of the central metal atom increases in the order
55
 V < Cr < Mn, therefore the oxidising power of the oxoanions increases in the order VO2+ <
Cr2O72- < MnO4–
89. What is the effect of change of pH on dichromate ion?
Ans- The chromate ion and dichromate ion are interconvertible in aqueous solution depending
upon pH of the solution:
2CrO4-2 + 2H+ → Cr2O7-2 + H2O
Cr2O7-2 + 2OH–→ 2CrO4-2 + H2O
90. Orange solution of potassium dichromate turns yellow on adding sodium hydroxide to it.
Ans- The orange coloured potassium dichromate solution when treated with basic NaOH solution,
is converted to chromate which gets a faint colour like yellow. The reaction is given as:
K2Cr2O7 + 2NaOH → K2CrO4 + Na2CrO4 + H2O.
This formation of chromate (CrO4–) ion converts the colour of solution to yellow
91. Zn, Cd and Hg are soft metals.Why?
Ans- Zn, Cd and Hg are soft metals because they do not exhibit covalency due to completely filled
d-orbitals. Absence of unpaired d electrons causes weak metallic bonding.
Following are the transition metal ions of 3d series:
Ti4+, V2+, Mn3+, Cr3+
(Atomic numbers: Ti = 22, V= 23, Mn = 25, Cr = 24)
Answer the following:
92. Which ion is most stable in an aqueous solution and why?
Ans- Cr3+ is most stable because of its small size and t32g configuration
93. Which ion is a strong oxidising agent and why?
Ans- Mn3+ is a strong oxidising agent because after gaining one electron it is converted into
Mn2+ which has stable d5 configuration
94. Which ion is colourless and why?
Ans- Ti4+ is colourless due to d° configuration, i.e., no unpaired electrons.
95. HCl is not used to acidify KMnO4 solution.why?
Ans- HCl is not used to the acidify KMnO4 solution because KMnO4 is a very strong oxidizing
agent and it can oxidize HCl to liberate chlorine gas.
96. Complete the following chemical equation

97. Suggest reason for the following-The transition metals and their compounds are usually
paramagnetic.
Ans- The transition metals and their compounds are usually paramagnetic because of the presence
of unpaired electrons in their d-orbitals.
98. Both oxygen and flourine stabilize high oxidation states of transition metals but the ability of
oxygen to do so exceeds that of fluorine.why.
Ans- The ability of oxygen to stabilize higher oxidation states exceeds that of fluorine because
oxygen can form multiple bonds with metals.
99. Which group metals among d block has lowest melting point.
Ans- Group 12

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100. Electronic configuration of a transition element X in +3 oxidation state is [Ar]3d 5 . What is its
atomic number.
Ans-25
101. Which metal is present in german silver.
Ans- Ni, Cu, Zn
102. Name the oxide of chromium which is the least basic.
Ans- CrO3
103. The electronic configuration of Cu(II) is 3d 9 whereas that of Cu(I) is 3d10. Which is more
stable?
Ans- Cu(II) due to greater charge density.
104. The magnetic nature of elements depends on the presence of unpaired electrons. Identify the
configuration of transition element, which shows highest magnetic moment?
Ans- [Ar] 4s23d7
105. Which oxidation state is common for all lanthanoids ?
Ans- +3
106. What is meant by ‘lanthanoid contraction’?
Ans-The steady decrease in the ionic radius from La3+ to Lu3+ is termed as lanthanoid contraction.
107. Why highest oxidation state are stable with F and O?
Ans-Both have small size and high electronegativity.
108. When KMnO4 solution is added to oxalic acid solution, the decolourisation is slow in the
beginning but becomes instantaneous after some time why?
Ans- CO2 is formed as the product .
109. How many elements are there in actinoid series?
Ans- 14 elements
110. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. It’s atomic number is 64. What is the correct electronic
configuration of gadolinium?
Ans [Xe] 4f 75d 1 6s 2,
111. When are Interstitial compounds formed .
Ans-When small atoms are trapped inside the crystal lattice of metals.
112. Write one characteristic property of interstitial compounds ?
Ans - They retain metallic conductivity..
113. Write the formula to calculate magnetic moment.
Ans- 𝜇 = √𝑛(𝑛 + 2)
114. When alkaline KMnO4 is treated with KI, iodide ion is oxidised to which compound.
Ans- IO3- solution.
115. When acidified K2Cr2O7 solution is added to Sn2+ salts then Sn2+ changes to which ion.
Ans-Sn4+
116. which elements are not considered as transition elements.
Ans- Zn, Cd and Hg
117. Scandium is a transition element but Zinc is not.
Ans-Zinc has fully filled d orbitals.
118. Transition elements exhibit higher enthalpy of atomization.
Ans- Due to the presence of unpaired electrons, and metallic bonding.
119. Hardness of transition metal is due to
Ans- Metallic bonding
120. Why Ce+4is a good oxidising agent?

57
Ans - Due to high reduction potential of Ce+4/Ce+3 which is 1.74 V.
121. Transition metals show paramagnetic behaviour.
Ans-Due to the presence of unpaired electrons..
122. Transition metals form complexes.
Ans- Due to small size, high ionic charge and vacant d orbital.
123. Which is the most abundant transition metal?
Ans- Iron
124. Why do Zn and Hg not form coloured ions?
Ans-Their inner d orbitals are completely filled.
125. Transition metals form interstitial compounds.
Ans-Tendency to entrap smaller atoms in their interstitial sites
126. Most of the transition metals form alloys.
Ans- Due to Similar atomic radii,
127. Transition elements generally form coloured compounds.
Ans- d-d transition
128. Transition elements show variable oxidation states.
Ans-Due to the participation of (ns) and (n -1) d electrons
129. Why actinoid contraction is more than lanthanoid contraction?.
Ans-This is due to poor screening of 5f orbital.
130. Write the formula of an oxo-anion of manganese (Mn) in which it shows the oxidation state
equal to its group number.
Ans-Permanganate ion, i.e., Mno4– with oxidation number +7.
131. Write the formula of an oxo-anion of chromium (Cr) in which it shows the oxidation state
equal to its group number.
Ans-Cr2O72- in which oxidation state of Cr is +6 which equal to its group number 6.
132. Most of the transition metals and their compounds possess catalytic properties.
Ans-Variable oxidation state,to provide suitable surface for reaction.
133. Chromium has highest melting point amongst 3d-series elements.
Ans- Half filled and very stable d orbital
134. In general the atomic radii of transition elements decreases with atomic number in the given
series.
Ans-The nuclear charge increases, the electros entering (n-1)d orbital reduces nuclear attraction on
the outer electrons.
135. Members of second (4d) and the third (5d) series in each group of transition elements have
similar radii.
Ans- Due to filling of 4f orbitals which have poor shielding effect (lanthanoid contraction)
136. Zr and Hf exhibit similar properties.
Ans- Due to lanthanoid contraction.
137. There is in general increase in density of element from titanium to copper.
Ans- As the atomic radii decreases its volume will decrease and density is expected to increase.
138. Mn2+ exhibits maximum paramagnetism.
Ans- The Mn(II) ion has 5 unpaired electrons in 3d sub shell which is a maximum value for a transition
metal ion.
139. Zn+2 salts are white but Cu+2 are coloured.
Ans- No d-d transition in Zn+2.
140. E0 value for the Mn3+ /Mn2+ couple much for positive than that for Cr3+/ Cr2+

58
Ans-Mn2+ is 3d5. Mn3++e−→Mn2+ corresponds to 3d4→3d5. 3d5 is half filled and stable.
141. Of the d species, Cr2+ is strongly reducing while Mn+3 is strongly oxidising.
Ans-Cr2+ has a d4 configuration. While acting as a reducing agent, it gets oxidized to Cr3+.
142. Cr2+ is a stronger reducing agent Fe2+
Ans-After losing an electron Fe has d5 configuration which is stable as it is half-filled configuration.
143. CrO42- is a strong oxiding agent while MnO-4 is not.
Ans-Due to higher standard reduction potential of Cr.
144. The greatest number of oxidation states are exhibited by the elements in the middle of
transition series.
Ans-Because of participation of 2( ns) electron and (n-1)d electron in the bond formation in
middle
145. The third ionization enthalpy of manganese (Z=25) is exceptionally high.
Ans-Because in Mn+2 where d-orbital is half filled and thus vey stable
146. Cu+ ion has d10 configuration while Cu+2 has d9 still Cu+2 is stable in aqueous solutions.
Ans-Because of more negative enthalpy of hydration
147. E0 value for the Mn2+/ Mn much more than expected.
Ans-Because it is half filled and it gives them stability to not get reduced.
148. E0 value for the Cu2+ / Cu is positive.
Ans-Because Cu has low enthalpy of hydration and the high energy to transform Cu(s) to Cu+2
is not balanced by hydration enthalpy.
149. Although Co2+ ion appears to be stable it is easily oxidized to Co3+ ion in the presence of
a strong ligand.
Ans-Because the CFT stabilization energy of ions with a d6 configuration is higher than d7
configuration.
150. The increasing oxidizing power of Oxo anions are in the order VO 2+ < Cr2O7-2 <MnO4-
ion in the presence of a strong ligand.
Ans-Because oxidizing power increases with increase in oxidation number.
151. What is the colour of light absorbed by an aqueous solution of CuSO4 .
Ans Orange Red.
152. MnO is basic while Mn2O7 is acidic in nature.
Ans- lower oxidation state of a Mn is basic and in the higher oxidation is acidic.
153. Metal-metal bonding is more frequent for the 4d & 5d series of transition metals than that
for the series.
Ans-Due to their greater enthalpies of atomisation.
154. Chromium is a typical hard metal while mercury is a liquid.
Ans- Due to absence of unpaired electrons in Hg result in it being a liquid
155. Cobalt (II) is stable in aqueous solution but in the presence of complexing reagents it is
easily oxidized.
Ans-Because it undergoes change in oxidation state from +2 to+3 and is easily oxidised.
156. K2[PtCl6] is well known compound where as the corresponding Ni compound is not
known.
Ans- Pt+4 is more stable than Ni+4 as the sum of 4 ionisation energies of Pt is less than Ni.
157. In the titration of FeSO4 with KMnO4, in acidic medium, why is dil H2SO4 used instead
of dil HCl.
Ans-HCl reacts with KMnO4 to form chlorine.
158. KMnO4 is a stronger oxidizing Agent in an acidic medium than in alkaline medium.

59
Ans- The MnO4– ion is reduced to Mn2+ ions, and the number of electrons transferred is 5.
159. Chemistry of all the lanthanoids is quite similar.
Ans-because their valence shell configuration remains the same .
160. Size of trivalent lanthanoid cations decreases with increase in the atomic number
Ans- due to lanthanide contraction.
161. It is difficult to separate lanthanoid elements in pure state.
Ans-due to lanthanoid contraction.
162. Ce4+ in aqueous solution is a good oxidizing agent.
Ans-Because it can give an electron to become more stable at +3state
163. Ce3+ can be easily oxidized to Ce4+.
Ans-The config. of Ce3+ can easily loose electron to acquire stable config. and form Ce4+
164. d-block elements exhibit more oxidation states than f block elements.
Ans-because of less energy gap between d and s subshells
165. Actinoids contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid contraction.
Ans-Actinoid experience greater effective nuclear charge than lanthanoids
166. The actinoids exhibit larger number of oxidation states than the corresponding
lanthanoids.
Ans-becauseof the very small energy gap between 5f 6d and 7s subshells.
167. La3+ and Lu3+ do not show any colour in solutions.
Ans-They have completely filled F orbitals.
168. Complete and balance the following chemical reactions :
Cu+2 + I- →Cu+ +I2
169. Copper is regarded as transition metal though it has completely filled d-orbitals.
Ans-It exhibits +2 oxidation state wherein it will have incompletely filled d-orbitals.
170. The ionization energies of 5d elements are greater than 3d elements.
Ans-Because 5d elements have much more nuclear charge and weakest shielding of valence
electrons.
171. Mn 2+ compounds are more stable than Fe 2+ towards oxidation to their +3 state.
Ans-Due to half filled d-orbitals.
172. Zn 2+ salts are colourless but Ni 2+ salts are coloured.
Ans-Because zn 2+ have all paired electrons.
173. Transition elements exhibit higher enthalpies of atomization.
Ans-Due to presence of strong metallic bond which is due to unpaired electron in the (n-1)d subshell.
174. The melting points of Zn, Cd and Hg are low.
Ans-Because metallic bonds present in them are weak.
175. Fe3+ is more stable than Fe2+.
Ans-Due to half filled d-orbital Fe3+ is more stable.
176. Lanthanide contraction is due to
Ans- Poor shielding of 4f electrons.
177. Q79-Vanadium pentaoxide acts as a good catalyst.Why?
Ans-It exhibits multiple oxidation states and forms unstable intermediate.
178. Name the transitional metals which do not show variation in their oxidation state in the
compounds?
Ans-Scandium Sc
179. What are different oxidation states exhibited by lanthanoids?
Ans- +2,+3,+4

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180. What are the transition elements?
Ans-Elements that have partially filled d-orbitals.
181. Why are the transition elements called d-block elements?
Ans-Becausethe last electron of these elements enters the very last d-subshell.
182. Copper, silver and gold have completely filled d-orbital but they are known as transition
elements. Why?
Ans-They have incompletely filled d-orbitals in their common oxidation states.
183. Write the name of the one ore each of manganese and chromium.
Ans-Mn- MnO2 Cr- chromite
184. With the increase in atomic number the atomic radius does not change very much in the
transition series. Why?
Ans-Due to increased shielding effect of the electrons in the d-orbitals.
185. Among the first transition metals which divalent metal ion has maximum paramagnetic
character and why?
Ans-Mn+2
186. What is the basic difference between the electronic configuration of the transition and inner
transition metals?
Ans-transition metals have last electron in the outermost d orbital and inner transition have in anti-
penultimate shell.
187. The equivalent weight of KMnO4 (formula weight ) in neutral medium is:
Ans- 158/5=31.6
188. Which ion is detected by Nessler’s reagent?
Ans-NH4+
189. Which reactions represents “developing” in photography
Ans- AgBr + 2Na2S2O3 Na3[Ag(S2O3)2] + NaBr
190. What does manganese dioxide give when fused with KOH in air
Ans-Potassium manganate
191. Which element among lanthanides has the smallest atomic radius.
Ans-Lutetium
192. What is the electronic configuration of lanthanum
Ans- [Xe ]5d16s2
193. Name the first synthetic element of LANTHANIDE SERIES
Ans-Tc
194. In which oxidation state cerium acts as agood oxidising agent.
Ans- +4
195. Write one use of misch metal.
Ans-Used in making gun bullets.
196. Name any two transition metals which exhibit oxidation state of +8
Ans-Ru and Os
197. Name the element in first transition series with highest melting point
Ans-Chromium Cr-24
198. Why is E0value for the Mn+3/Mn+2 couple much more positive than that for Cr+3/cr+2 or
fe+3/fe+2?
Ans-Much larger third ionisation energy of Mn(d5 to d4) is responsible for this.

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 UNIT-V
COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

1. What is a coordination compound?

Ans: coordination compound is a compound in which a central metal ion is bonded to a number
of ligands through coordinate covalent bonds.
2. What is the Werner theory of coordination compounds?
Ans: The Werner theory of coordination compounds states that the central metal atom in a
coordination compound is surrounded by a number of ligands, which are bonded to the metal
atom through coordinate covalent bonds.
3. What were the two valences given by Werner for coordination compounds?
Ans. Werner gave the concept of two valences-
(a) Primary or ionisable valences.
(b) Secondary or non ionisable valences
4. What is the difference between a complex and a double salt?
Ans: Double salts dissociate into ions completely when dissolved in water. On the other hand,
in complexes, the complex ion does not dissociate.
5. Enlist the common shapes of Werner’s complexes.
Ans. The common shapes given by Werner were – octahedral, tetrahedral and square planar.
6. What do you understand by stability of a complex and instability constant of coordination
compounds?
Ans. The stability of a complex in solution is the degree of association between the two species
involved in the state of equilibrium. The instability constant is reciprocal of the formation
constant. It is also called dissociation constant.
7. What do you mean by homoleptic complexes? Give two examples.
Ans: When the metal atom/ion is bound to only one type of donor groups (ligands) in a
complex, it is known as homoleptic complex. For example [CO(NH3 )6]3+ or [Fe(H2O)6 ] 2+ are
homoleptic complexes.
8. What is the difference between homoleptic and heteroleptic complexes?
Ans: Homoleptic complexes have all the ligands of the same type. Heteroleptic complexes have
ligands of different types.
9. Complete the following statements for coordination entity (complex ion) [CrCl2 (OX)2 ] 3+.
(a) OX is abbreviation for ...............
(b) ..............is. a bidentate ligand.
Ans:(a) OX is the abbreviation for oxalate ion.
(b) Oxalate ion is a bidentate ligand.
10. What is the difference between a ligand and a chelating agent?
Ans : A ligand is a molecule or ion that donates an electron pair to a central metal ion. A
chelating is a ligand that can bond to a central metal ion through two or more donor atoms.
11. What are the different types of chelating agents?
Ans: The different types of chelating agents include bidentate, tridentate, quadridentate, and
polydentate chelating agents
12. Chelates are generally more stable than the complexes of unidentate ligands. Explain.
Ans: Chelates are cyclic compounds so they are more stable than normal complexes. In chelates
ligands are held by two or more bonds with the transition metals.
62
13. Why CO is a stronger ligand for many metals?
Ans: Due to greater magnitude of Δ0, CO produces strong fields which cause more splitting of
d-orbitals and moreover it is also able to form π bond due to back bonding.
14. Which of the following is more stable complex and why?
[Co(NH3)6]3+ and [Co(en)3]3+
Ans:[Co(en)3]3+ is more stable complex than [CO(NH3)6]3+ because of chelate effect.
15. Ammonia acts as a very good ligand but ammonium ion does not form complexes. Why?
Ans: NH4 + ion does not have any lone pair of electrons which it can donate to central metal ion
hence it does not form complexes.
16. What are the factors that affect the coordination number of a central metal ion?
Ans: The coordination number of a central metal ion is affected by the size of the metal ion,
the size and charge of the ligands, and the electronic configuration of the metal ion.
17. What is the difference between coordination number and oxidation number?
Ans: Coordination number is the number of ligands bonded to a central metal ion. Oxidation
number is the number of electrons lost or gained by an atom to form a compound.
18. Write the state of hybridization of the Compound [Cr(NH3 )6 ]3+
Ans: d2sp3 geometry octahedral
19. Give the formula of the given Co‐ordination compound Ni ion is bound to two water molecules
and two oxalate ions.
Ans: [Ni(H2O)2(Ox)2 ]2– Diaquadioxalatonickelate (II)
20. Write the formula for the coordination compound Tetraamineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride
Ans: [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2
21. Write the formula for the following coordination compound- Potassium tetrahydroxozincate(II)
Ans: K2[Zn(OH)4]
22. Write the formula for the following coordination compound- Potassium
trioxalatoaluminate(III)
Ans. K3[Al(C2O4)3]
23. Write the formula for the following coordination compound- Potassium tetrahydroxozincate(II)
Ans: K2[Zn(OH)4]
24. Write the formula for the coordination compound Dichloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine)
cobalt(III)
Ans: [CoCl2(en)2]+
25. Write the formula for the following coordination compound:Tetracarbonylnickel(0)
Ans: [Ni(CO)4]
26. Write the formula of tetraamminechloridonitroplatinum(IV) sulphate
Ans: Tetraamminechloridonitroplatinum(IV) sulphate can be written as [Pt(NH3)4(NO2)Cl]SO4
27. Write the formula of the following coordination compound: Iron (III) hexacyanoferrate(II)
Ans: Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
28. Write the IUPAC name of the coordination compound: [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)]
Ans: Diamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum(II)
29. Write the IUPAC name of the coordination compound: K3[Cr(C2O4)3]
Ans: Potassium trioxalatochromate(III)
30. Write the IUPAC name of the coordination compound: [CoCl2(en)2]Cl
Ans: Dichloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine) cobalt(III) chloride
31. Write the IUPAC name of the coordination compound: [Co(NH3)5(CO3)]Cl
Ans: Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt(III) chloride

63
32. Write the IUPAC name of the coordination compound: Hg[Co(SCN)4]
Ans: Mercury tetrathiocyanatocobaltate(III)
33. What is the IUPAC name of the complex ion [Fe(CN)6]3-?
Ans: Hexacyanoferrate(III) ion
34. Write down the IUPAC name of the following complex: [Cr(NH3)2Cl2(en)] Cl
Ans: Diamminedichlorido(ethane-1,2-diamine) chromium(III)chloride
35. FeSO4 solution mixed with (NH4)2SO4 solution in 1:1 molar ratio gives the test of Fe2+ ion but
CuSO4 solution mixed with aqueous ammonia in 1:4 molar ratio does not give the test of Cu2+
ion. Explain
Ans : FeSO4, when reacted with (NH4)2SO4, does not form any complex whereas they form a
double salt, (Mohr salt) which dissociates into ions in the solution. So, it gives the test of Fe2+
ions. CuSO4 solution when mixed with aqueous ammonia in 1: 4 molar ratio forms a complex
which does not dissociate to give Cu2+ ions. Therefore, it does not give the tests of the Cu2+
ion.
36. Write the coordination number and oxidation state of platinum in the complex [Pt(en)2Cl2].
Ans -Coordination number and oxidation state of Pt in the complex [Pt(en)2Cl2] are 6 and +2
because en is a bidentate and neutral ligand
37. Give the formula of the coordination entity Co 3+ ion bound to one Cl-, one NH3 molecule and
two ethylene diamine molecules.
Ans: [Co (NH3)Cl (en)2]2+
38. Give the formula of the coordination entity: Ni 2+ ion is bound to two water molecules and two
oxalate ions.
Ans: Ni(H2O)2(ox)2]
39. Give the oxidation state and coordination number of the central metal ion in the K3[Co(C2O4)3]
complex.
Ans: K3[Co(C2O4)3] =>[Co(C2O4)3] 3-.
x + 3 (-2) = -3
Oxidation state x= +3
Coordination number is also 6 as C2O42- is bidentate.
40. Give the d orbital occupation of the central metal ion in the following complex (NH4)2[COF4]
Ans: (NH4)2[COF4] = (NH4)22+[COF4]2- x - 4 = -2. Oxidation state x = + 2 Co2+ is a d5 case,
paramagnetic
41. What is the magnetic nature of [Ni(CN)4]2-?
Ans: The nickel atom in [Ni(CN)4]2- has no unpaired electrons, so the compound is
diamagnetic.
42. What is the hybridization of the central metal atom in [Fe(H2O)6]3+?
Ans: d2sp3
43. What is the magnetic nature of a high spin octahedral complex?
Ans: Paramagnetic.
44. Which of the following is a strong field ligand? F-, H2O, CN-, NH3
Ans: CN-
45. Define – isomerism.
Ans. Isomerism is the phenomenon of existence of two or more compounds with same chemical
formula but a different arrangement of atom
46. What is geometrical isomerism?

64
 Ans: Geometrical isomerism is a type of isomerism in which the coordination complex has
different spatial arrangements of its ligands.
47. Which of the following is an example of geometrical isomerism? [Co(en)3] 3+, [Cr(NH3)6]3+,
[PtCl2(NH3)2], [Ni(en)3]2+
Ans: [PtCl2(NH3)2]
48. For the complex [Fe(en)2Cl2], Cl, (en = ethylene diamine), identify the number of geometrical
isomers.
Ans: The number of geometrical isomers are two:

49. Whether the complex [Fe(en)2Cl2], Cl shows an optical isomerism?

Ans: In coordination complex of [Fe(en)2Cl2] Cl, only cis-isomer shows optical isomerism

50. What type of isomerism is exhibited by the complex [Co(en)3]3+?

Ans: Optical isomerism is exhibited by the [Co(en)3]3+ complex.
51. For the [Co(en)2Cl2]+ coordination entity draw the structures of their stereoisomers.
Ans: The geometrical isomers of [CoCl2(en)2]+ (2 isomers)

52. For the [Cr(C2O4)3]3- coordination entity draws the structures of their stereoisomers.
Ans:

53. For the [Co(NH3)3Cl3] coordination entity draws the structures of their stereoisomers.
Ans: The geometrical isomers of [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (2 isomers) :

54. Indicate the type of isomerism exhibited by the complex [Co(en)3]Cl3

65
 (en = ethylene diamine)
Ans: [Co(en)3]Cl3 shows optical isomerism

55. Indicate the type of isomerism exhibited by the complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]

Ans: Pt(NH3)2Cl2] shows geometrical isomerism

56. How many geometrical isomers are possible in the coordination entity [Cr(C2O4)3]3– ?
Ans: No geometrical isomer is possible for [Cr(C2O4)3]3–
57. How many geometrical isomers are possible in the coordination entity [Co(NH3)3Cl3] ?
Ans: There are two types of ligands present i.e NH3 and Cl-. Coordination number is 6.
Therefore 2 isomers possible for the complex - facial and Meridional.
58. What is the difference between cis and trans isomers?
Ans: Cis isomers have the same ligands on adjacent coordination sites, while trans isomers
have the same ligands on opposite coordination sites.
59. What is the difference between geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism?
Ans: Geometrical isomerism is a type of isomerism in which the coordination complex has
different spatial arrangements of its ligands. Optical isomerism is a type of isomerism in which
the coordination complex is not superimposable on its mirror image.
60. A complex of the type [M(AA)2X2 ] n+ is known to be optically active. What does this indicate
about the structure of the complex? Give one example of such complex.
Ans: An optically active complex of the type [M(AA)2X2] n+ indicates cis-octahedral structure,
e.g. cis-[Pt (en)2Cl2 ] 2+ or cis-[Cr(en)2Cl2 ] +
61. What is the difference between valence bond theory (VBT) and crystal field theory (CFT)?
Ans: VBT explains the bonding in coordination compounds using the hybridization of the
central metal ion and the overlap of its orbitals with the orbitals of the ligands. CFT explains
the bonding in coordination compounds using the splitting of the d-orbitals of the central metal
ion in the presence of a ligand field.
62. What is the difference between inner orbital and outer orbital complexes?
Ans: Inner orbital complexes have the d-orbitals of the central metal ion involved in the
hydridisationa are in a lower energy level than s and p orbitals. Outer orbital complexes have
the d-orbitals of the central metal ion involved in the hybridization are in a same energy level
than s and p orbitals
63. What are t2g and eg orbitals?
Ans: In a free transition metal ion, the d orbitals are degenerate. When it form complex, the
degeneracy is split and d orbitals split into t2g and eg orbitals.
64. What is the significance of crystal field splitting energy (Δo)?

66
 Ans: Crystal field splitting energy (Δo) is the difference in energy between the two sets of d-
orbitals.
65. Write electronic configuration of [Cu(NH3)6]2+ on the basis of crystal field splitting theory.
Ans- In [Cu(NH3)6]2+, oxidation state of Cu = +2, Cu2+ = 3d9 3d 9 = t 62g e3g
66. Explain why low spin octahedral complexes of nickel are not known?
Ans: There are four empty orbitals in Ni while octahedral complexes require six empty orbitals.
67. Why the π-complexes are known for transition only?
Ans: Due to presence of empty d-orbitals in transition metals, they can accept electron pairs
from ligands containing π electrons.
68. What is spectrochemical series?
Ans: Spectrochemical series is the arrangement of common ligands in the increasing order of
their field strength. It is an experimentally determined series based on the absorption of light
by complexes with different ligands.
I– < Br– < SCN– < Cl– < S2- < F- < OH- < C2O42- < H2O < NCS- < NH3 < en < CO
69. What is the magnetic moment of a coordination compound?
Ans: The magnetic moment of a coordination compound is a measure of the number of unpaired
electrons in the complex.
70. What are the applications of coordination compounds in catalysis?
Ans: Coordination compounds are used as catalysts in a variety of industrial processes, such as
the polymerization of alkenes and the cracking of petroleum.
71. What is the magnetic nature of a low spin octahedral complex?
Ans: Diamagnetic.
72. What is the hybridization of the central metal atom in a tetrahedral complex?
Ans: sp3.
73. What is the crystal field splitting energy for a tetrahedral complex?
Ans: 2/3 of the crystal field splitting energy for an octahedral complex.
74. Why are low spin tetrahedral complexes not formed?
Ans: Because the crystal field splitting energy for a tetrahedral complex is not large enough to
overcome the pairing energy for the electrons.
75. How does the crystal field splitting energy affect the color of a complex?
Ans: The crystal field splitting energy can cause d-d transitions, which can absorb visible light.
The color of the complex is determined by the wavelength of light that is absorbed.
76. A metal ion Mn+ having d4 valence electronic configuration combines with three didentate
ligands to form a complex compound. Assuming ∆o > P
(i)Write the coordination number of the metal ion.
(ii)Write the electronic configuration of the metal.
Ans : (i) 6 (ii) t2g4 eg
77. On the basis of crystal field theory, write the electronic configuration of d4 ion if ∆o < P.
Ans: t32g e1g .
78. Explain why the coordination-complexes are known for transition elements only?
Ans: Transition metals have vacant d-orbitals which accept lone pair from ligands to form a
bond and give pair of electron to molecular orbital of ligand forming d π -p π -bond.
79. Nickel (II) does not form low spin octahedral complexes.
Ans: Ni2+ has unpaired electrons, therefore, forms high spin complex as pairing of electrons
does not take place because after pairing only one d-orbital will be left which cannot be used
in octahedral complex.

67
80. [Fe(CN)6]4- and [Fe(H20)6]2 + are of different colours in dilute solutions.
Ans: They absorb different wavelengths from visible light, undergo d-d transitions and radiate
complementary colour. CN- is stronger ligand than H2O.
81. [Cr(NH3) 6] 3+ is paramagnetic while [Ni(CN)4] 2– is diamagnetic. Explain why?
Ans: The presence of unpaired electrons in [Cr(NH3)6] 3+ explains its paramagnetic character
while [Ni(CN)4] 2– is diamagnetic, since there is no unpaired electrons.
82. What do you understand by ‘denticity of a ligand’?
Ans: Denticity: The number of coordinating groups present in a ligand is called the denticity of
ligand.
83. Give an example of denticity of a ligand.
Ans: Example, bidentate ligand ethane-1, 2-diamine has two donor nitrogen atoms which can
link to central metal atom
84. What will be the correct order of absorption of wavelength of light in the visible region for the
complexes, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(CN)6]3–, [Co(H2O)6]3+ ?
Ans- The order of absorption of wavelength of light in the visible region: [Co(H2O)6]3+ >
[Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3–
85. Arrange the following complexes in increasing order of conductivity of their solutions.
[Co(NH3)3Cl3] , [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl ,[Co(NH3)6]Cl3 , [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
Ans- [Co(NH3)3Cl3] < [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl < [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 < [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
Reason-Higher the number of ions in the solution, higher is the conductivity. No. of ions:
[Co(NH3)3Cl3] = 0; [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl = 2[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 = 3; [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 = 4
86. When a coordination compound CrCl3.6H2O is mixed with AgNO3, 2 moles of AgCl are
precipitated per mole of the compound. Write structural formula of the complex.
Ans- For one mole of the compound, two moles of AgCl are precipitated which indicates that
two ionisable chloride ions in the complex. Hence, its structural formula is
[CrCl(H2O)5]Cl2.H2O
87. Which complex ion is formed when undecomposed AgBr is washed with hypo solution in
photography?
Ans: Sodium dithiosulphatoargentate (I) complex is formed

88. Why a solution of [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green while a solution of [Ni(CN)4]2– is colourless?(At.no.

Ni = 28)
Ans:In [Ni(H2O)6]2+ complex, d-d transitions are taking place
89. Why CuSO4.5H2O is blue in colour while CuSO4 is colourless?
Ans: In CuSO4.5H2O, water acts as ligand and as a result d-d transition possible in
CuSO4.5H2O. Hence, it is coloured. Due to absence of water (ligand), d-d transition is not
possible in CuSO4
90. Write electronic configuration of d-orbitals in [Ti(H2O)6]3+ ion in an octahedral crystal field.
Ans: In [ Ti (H2O)6]3+, Ti is in +3 oxidation state and there is only one electron in d-orbital E.C
is t2g1 eg0
91. Why Co2+ is easily oxidized to Co3+ in presence of a strong ligand?
Ans: In presence of strong field ligand, Co(II) has electronic configuration t6 2g e1g. It can
easily lose one electron present in eg orbital to give stable t62g configuration.
92. Explain why [Fe(H2O)6 ] 3+ has magnetic moment value of 5.92 BM whereas [Fe(CN)6 ] 3– has
a value of only 1.74 BM.

68
 Ans: [Fe(CN)6 ]3– involves d2 sp3 hybridization with one unpaired electron and [Fe (H2O)6]3+
involves sp3d2 hybridization with five unpaired electrons. This difference is due to the presence
of strong ligand CN– and weak ligand H2O in these complexes
93. How is EDTA used in estimation of hardness of water?
Ans. Hard water is titrated with Na2 ---EDTA complex for estimation of its hardness. During
the process, the Ca2+ and Mg2+ions form complex with EDTA replacing Na+. The method is
based on the difference in the stability constant of calcium and magnesium complexes.
94. Give two examples of ligands which form coordination compounds useful in analytical
chemistry.
Ans :(a) EDTA (Ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid)
(b) Dimethyl glyoxime (DMG)
95. Give two examples of coordination compounds used in industries.
Ans: (a) Pure Ni can be obtained from Ni(CO)4
(b) Gold and Ag are extracted by the use of complex formation like Na[Ag(CN)2].
96. Give names of two complexes which are used in medicines.
(a)Cis – platin[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is used in the treatment of cancer.
(b) EDTA is used in the treatment of lead poisoning.
97. Discuss the role of coordination compounds in extraction metallurgy of metals.
Ans: Extraction metallurgy of metals - Gold and silver are extracted from their ores through
formation of cyanide complexes [Ag(CN)2]– and [(Au(CN)2]– respectively.
98. Discuss the role of coordination compounds in analytical chemistry.
Ans: In analytical chemistry, they are used in qualitative analysis in which basic radicals are
determined by converting them into suitable complexes with specific colour. Ni, Co, Fe, Zn are
determined by converting them into complexes.
99. How is excess of copper and iron removed from body?
Ans. Excess of copper and iron are removed by chelating Ligands D – penicillamine and
desferrioxime B through the formation of coordination compounds.

69
 UNIT-VI
HALOALKANES & HALOARENES

1. Why is sulphuric acid not used during the reaction of alcohols with KI?
Ans. H2SO4 is a strong oxidising agent and it oxidises HI formed during the reaction to I2 which
does not react with alcohol.
2. A hydrocarbon C5H12 gives only one mono-chlorination product on photochemical
chlorination. Identify the hydrocarbon.
Ans.

3. Among the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula C5H12, on photochemical chlorination yields
three isomeric monochlorides.
Ans.

4. Among the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula C5H12, identify the one that on
photochemical chlorination yield four isomeric monochlorides.
Ans.

5. Arrange each set of compounds in order of increasing boiling points:

(i) Bromomethane, bromoform, chloromethane, dibromomethane
Ans. CH3Cl(chloromethane) < CH3Br (bromomethane) < CH2Br2 (dibromomethane) <
CHBr3 (bromoform)
6. Arrange each set of compounds in order of increasing boiling points:
1- Chloropropane, isopropylchloride, 1- chlorobutane.
Ans. (CH3)2CHCl (isopropylchloride or 2-chloropropane) < ClCH2CH2CH3 (1-chloropropane)
< ClCH2CH2CH2CH3 (1-chlorobutane)
7. In the following pair of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes faster SN2 reaction
and why?
CH3Br or CH3I
Ans. CH3I will react faster because I– ion is better leaving group.
8. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their dipole moments?
CH2Cl2, CHCl3, CCl4
Ans. CCl4 < CHCl3 < CH2Cl2
9. In the following pair of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes faster SN2 reaction
and why? (CH3)3CCl or CH3Cl

70
 Ans. CH3Cl will react faster as primary haloalkane has lesser steric hinderance.
10. Predict the alkene that would be formed by dehydrohalogenation of 1-Bromo-1-
methylcyclohexane.
Ans. 1-methylcyclohex-1-ene.
11. In the following pair of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes faster SN1 reaction
and why?

Ans. Following will react faster due to greater stability of tertiary carbonium ion

.
12. Identify A and B in the following:

Ans.

13. Explain why the dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride?
Ans. Chlorobenzene has less tendency to release electrons to Cl than carbon atom of cyclohexyl
chloride as sp2-hybrid carbon in chlorobenzene is more electronegative due to greater s-
character.
14. Alkyl halides, though polar, are immiscible with water. Give reason.
Ans. Alkyl halide are not able to form H- bonds with water.
15. Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions?
Ans. They react with moisture to form alkanes.
R-MgX + HOH → RH + Mg(OH)X
16. Give the use of freon 12.
Ans. Used for refrigeration, and air conditioning purposes.
17. Give the use of carbon tetrachloride.
Ans. Used as an industrial solvent for oil, fats, resins etc.
18. Out of C6H5CH2Cl and C6H5CHClC6H5which is more easily hydrolysed by aqueous KOH
under SN1 conditions.
Ans. The C6H5CHC6H5 carbocation is more stable than C6H5CH2 carbocation, therefore,
C6H5CHCIC6H5 gets hydrolysed more easily than C6H5CH2Cl under SN1 conditions.
19. Why p-dichlorobenzene has higher m.p. than that of o-and m-isomers?
Ans. p- dichlorobenzene is more symmetrical and fits better in crystal lattice.
20. Which catalyst is used in the reaction of a primary alcohol with HCl for preparing chloroalkane?
Ans. Anhydrous ZnCl2
21. Name the best reagent for preparing haloalkanes from alcohols?
Ans. Thionyl Chloride, SOCl2
22. Why SOCl2 is preferred for preparing haloalkanes from alcohols?

71
 Ans. SOCl2 is preferred because the other two products SO2 and HCl are escapable gases. Hence
the reaction gives pure alkyl halides.
23. Why is free radical halogenation not preferred for preparing haloalkanes?
Ans. Free radical halogenation of alkanes gives a complex mixture of isomeric mono- and
polyhaloalkanes, which is difficult to separate as pure compounds.
24. Which out of 1- Bromopropane and 2- Bromopropane has lower boiling point and why?
Ans. 2- Bromo propane has lower boiling point as it decreases with branching for isomeric
haloalkanes due to decrease in surface area.
25. What is the order of reactivity of alkyl halides in Bimolecular Nucleophilic Substitution
(SN2) reactions?
Ans. Primary halide > Secondary halide > Tertiary halide.
26. On what factor reactivity through SN2 mechanism depend?
Ans. Steric hinderance. Lesser the steric hinderance, more will be the reactivity.
27. What is the order of reactivity of alkyl halides in Unimolecular Nucleophilic Substitution
(SN1) reactions?
Ans. Tertiary halide > Primary halide > Secondary halide
28. On what factor reactivity through SN1 mechanism depend?
Ans. Reactivity is directly proportional to the stability of carbocation formed.
29. Allylic and benzylic halides show high reactivity towards the SN1 or SN2 reaction? Why?
Ans. Allylic and benzylic halides show high reactivity towards the SN1 reaction as the
carbocation formed gets stabilised through resonance.
30. For a given alkyl group, what is the order of reactivity of the alkyl halides towards Nucleophilic
Substitution Reactions?
Ans. R–I> R–Br>R–Cl>>R–F (for both SN1 and SN2)
31. Haloalkanes react with KCN to form alkyl cyanides as main product while AgCN forms
isocyanides as the chief product. Why?
Ans. KCN is predominantly ionic and provides cyanide ions in solution while AgCN is covalent
in nature.
32. Define Enantiomers.
Ans. The stereoisomers which are non- superimposable mirror images of each other are called
enantiomers.
33. What is a Racemic mixture?
Ans. Equimolar mixture of d and l isomers of a compound is known as racemic mixture.
34. What is meant by racemisation?
Ans. The process of conversion of enantiomer into a racemic mixture is known as racemisation.
35. Which rule governs dehydrohalogenation reaction?
Ans. Zaitsev or Saytzeff rule
36. Dehydrohalogenation reactions occur in presence of which reagent?
Ans. Alcoholic KOH
37. Why Aryl halides are extremely less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reactions as
compared to halo alkanes?
Ans. C—X bond acquires a partial double bond character due to resonance in haloarenes, hence
bond cleavage is difficult.
38. Identify the compound Y in the following reaction:

72
 Ans.

39. Identify X and Y in the following sequence:

Ans. X = KCN, Y = LiAlH4

40. In the following sequence of reactions:

Ans. C2H5NHCH3
41. Give the IUPAC name of the following compound:

Ans. 4-Bromopent-2-ene
42. Give the IUPAC name of the following compound:

Ans. 1-Bromobut-2-ene
43. Draw the structure of major monohalogen product formed in the following reaction:

Ans.

44. Draw the structure of major monohalogen product in the following reaction:

Ans.

45. What happens when CH3 — Br is treated with KCN?

Ans.

73
46. Write the IUPAC name of:

Ans. IUPAC name: 4-bromo-4-methylpent-2-ene

47. What happens when ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous KOH?
Ans.

48. What happens when ethyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH?
Ans. CH2=CH2 (ethene) is formed as elimination reaction occurs.
49. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound:

Ans. IUPAC name: 2-Chloro-3, 3-dimethylbutane.

50. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound:

Ans. IUPAC name: 2, 4-dinitrochlorobenzene.

51. Out of the following two which is an example of allylic halide?

Ans.

52. Out of the following two which is an example of vinylic halide?

Ans.

53. Out of the following which is an example of a benzylic halide?

and
Ans.

74
54. Draw the structure of p-Bromo chlorobenzene.
Ans.

55. Draw the structure of 1-Chloro-4-ethylcyclohexane.

Ans.

56. State one use each of DDT and iodoform.

Ans. DDT (Dichlorodiphenyl Trichloroethane) - An insecticide.
Iodoform (CHI3) - An antiseptic.
57. Although chlorine is an electron withdrawing group, yet it is ortho-, para-directing in
electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions. How?
Ans. Chlorine withdraws electrons through negative inductive effect (-I) but provides electrons
to the ring through resonance (+R) increasing electron density at ortho and para positions.
58. What is meant by chirality of a compound?
Ans. The objects which are non-superimposable on their mirror image are said to be chiral and
this property is known as chirality.
59. Why is (±) 2-Butanol optically inactive?
Ans. (±)-Butan-2-ol is optically inactive because in racemic mixture dextro-rotation is
cancelled by laevo-rotation as both the enantiomers are equimolar.
60. The presence of nitro group (-NO2) at o/p positions increases the reactivity of haloarenes
towards nucleophilic substitution reactions.
Ans. The presence of nitro group (-NO2) at ortho and para positions withdraws the electron
density from benzene ring and thus facilitating the attack of nucleophile.
61. Give equation for Sandmeyer’s Reaction.
Ans.

62. Give equation for Gattermann Reaction.

Ans.

63. Give equation for Finkelstein Reaction.

75
 𝑑𝑟𝑦 𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑒
Ans. R-X + NaI → R-I + NaX (X=Cl, Br)
64. Give equation for Swarts Reaction.
Ans. H3C-Br + AgF → H3C-F + AgBr
65. Give equation for Wurtz Reaction.
𝑑𝑟𝑦 𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑒
Ans. 2RX + 2Na → R-R + 2NaX
66. Give equation for Wurtz-Fittig reaction.

Ans.
67. Give equation for Fittig reaction.

Ans.

68. Give equation for Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction of chlorobenzene.

Ans.

69. Give equation for Friedel-Crafts acylation reaction of chlorobenzene.

Ans.

70. Give equation for nitration of chlorobenzene.

Ans.

Draw the structures of major products in each of the following reactions from 71 to 83:

71.
Ans.

76
72.
Ans.

73. CH3CH2Br + NaI→

Ans. CH3CH2Br

74.
Ans.

75.
Ans.

76.
Ans.

77.

Ans.
78.
Ans.

79.

Ans.
80.
Ans.

77
81.
Ans.

82.

Ans.

83.

Ans.
Give equation only for Question No. 84 to 89.
84. n-Butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH.

85. Bromobenzene is treated with Mg in the presence of dry ether.

86. Chlorobenzene is subjected to hydrolysis.

87. Ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous. KOH.

88. Methyl bromide is treated with sodium in the presence of dry ether

89. Methyl chloride is treated with KCN.

90. Why is Chloroform stored in dark coloured bottles?

78
 Ans. Chloroform is slowly oxidised by air in the presence of light to an extremely poisonous
gas, carbonyl chloride, also known as phosgene. It is therefore stored in closed dark coloured
bottles completely filled so that air is kept out.
91. Which gas is formed when chloroform is exposed to air? Give reaction.
Ans. Poisonous gas, carbonyl chloride, also known as phosgene is formed.

92. Convert benzene to p- nitrochloro benzene.

93. Convert benzene to m- nitrochloro benzene.

94. Convert Toluene to benzyl alcohol.

95. Convert 1-Bromopropane to 2-bromopropane.

96. Convert Aniline to chlorobenzene.

97. Convert 2-Bromopropane to 1-bromopropane.

For Question No. 98 to 100 identify the chiral molecules in the given pair of compounds.
98.

Ans.

79
99.

Ans.

100.

Ans.

101. Arrange each set of compounds in order of increasing boiling points.

Bromoethane, Bromoform, Chloroethane, Dibromoethane.
Ans: Chloroethane <Bromoethane <Dibromoethane < Bromoform
102. 1-Chloropropane, Isopropyl chloride, 1-Chlorobutane.
Ans: Isopropyl chloride < 1-chloropropane < 1- Chlorobutane
103. Why does p-dichlorobenzene have a higher m.p. than its o- and m-isomers?
Ans: p-isomers are comparatively more symmetrical and fit closely in the crystal lattice,
thus require more heat to break these strong forces of attraction. Therefore, higher
melting point than o- and m-isomers.
104. Why is (±)-Butan-2-ol optically inactive?
Ans. CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3 (±)-Butan-2-ol is optically inactive because in racemic
mixture one type of rotation is cancelled by other.
105. Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in SN2 reaction with
—OH?
(a) CH3Br or CH3I (b) (CH3)3 CCl or CH3Cl
Ans: (a) CH3I: Because Iodide is better leaving group than bromide.
(b)CH3Cl: Carbon atom leaving group is less hindered.
106. Explain why: (a) The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl
chloride.
(b) Alkyl halides, though polar, are immiscible with water.
Ans: (a) Chlorobenzene has lower dipole moment than cyclohexyl chloride due to lower
magnitude of -ve charge on the Cl atom and shorter C – Cl distance. Due to greater S
character, a sp2 -hybrid carbon is more electronegative than a sp3-hybrid carbon.
Therefore, the sp2 -hybrid carbon of C – Cl bond in chlorobenzene has less tendency to
release electrons to Cl than a sp3 hybrid carbon of cyclohexyl chloride.
(b) Alkyl halides and polar molecules are held together by dipole-dipole interaction. The
80
 molecules of H2O are held together by H- bonds. Since the new forces of attraction
between water and alkyl halide molecules are weaker than the forces of attraction
already existing between alkyl halide-alkyl halide molecules and water molecules,
therefore alkyl halides are immiscible (not soluble) with water.
107. Account for the following:
a. The C–Cl bond length in chlorobenzene is shorter than that in CH3–Cl
b. Grignard reagent should be prepared under anhydrous conditions.
Ans: (a) In haloalkanes, the halogen atom is attached to sp3 -hybridized carbon while in
haloarenes it is attached to sp2 -hybridized carbon whose size is smaller than sp3 orbital
carbon. Therefore C–Cl bond in chloro-benzene is shorter than alkyl chloride.
(b) Grignard reagents are very reactive. In the presence of moisture, they react to give
alkanes. Therefore, Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions.
RMgX +H2O→ RH +Mg (OH)X
108. Rearrange the compounds of each of the following sets in order of reactivity towards
SN2 displacement:
a. 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-Bromopentane, 2-Bromopentane
b. l-Bromo-3-methylbutane, 2-Bromo-2-methyl-butane, 3-Bromo-2-methylbutane
c. 1-Bromobutane, l-Bromo-2,2-dimethyl-propane, l-Bromo-2-methylbutane Answer:
109. Ans: (a) 1-Bromopentane > 2-Bromopentane > 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane
(b)1-Bromo-3-methylbutane > 3-Bromo-2 methylbutane> 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane
(c)1-Bromobutane > 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane > 1-Bromo-2, 2-dimethylpropane
110. Give reasons for the following:
(a)Ethyl iodide undergoes SN2 reaction faster than ethyl bromide.
(b)It is necessary to avoid even traces of moisture during the use of a Grignard reagent.
(c) C—X bond length in halobenzene is smaller than C—X bond length in CH3—X.
Ans: (a) I, is better leaving group/C—I bond is weaker than C—Br bond.
(b)Grignard reagents are highly reactive and react with water to give corresponding
hydrocarbons.
111. RMgX+H2O → RH + Mg(OH)X
(c)In halobenzene, halogen atom is attached to the sp2 hybrid carbon atom while in
CH3-X halogen atom is attached to sp3 hybrid carbon atom. Hence C-X bond length in
halo benzene is smaller than CH3-X
112. Give reasons:
a. n-Butyl bromide has higher boiling point than t-butyl bromide.
b. Racemic mixture is optically inactive.
c. The presence of nitro group (-NO2) at o/p positions increases the reactivity of
haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution reactions.
Ans: (a) n-Butyl bromide has higher boiling point than t-butyl bromide because it has
larger surface area hence have more Van der Waals’ forces.
(b)Rotation due to one enantiomer is cancelled by another enantiomer.
(c) The presence of nitro group (-NO2) at ortho and para positions withdraws the electron
density’ from benzene ring and thus facilitating the attack of nucleophile
113. Why can aryl halides not be prepared by reaction of phenol with HCl in the presence of
ZnCl2?

81
 Ans: [C—O bond in phenols is more stable due to resonance effect and it has double
bond character, hence breaking of this bond is difficult.]
114. Cyanide ion acts as an ambient nucleophile. From which end it acts as a stronger
nucleophile in the aqueous medium? Give a reason for your answer.
Ans: [It acts as a stronger nucleophile from the carbon end because it will lead to the formation
of C–C bond which is more stable than the C–N bond.]
115. Why Grignard reagent should be prepared under anhydrous conditions?
Ans. Grignard reagent react with water to form alkanes, therefore they are prepared
under anhydrous conditions.
116. Why haloarenes are less reactive than the haloalkanes towards nucleophilic
substitution?
Ans. (i)In haloarenes, there is double bond character between the carbon and hydrogen
due to resonance effect which makes them less reactive.
(ii)In benzene, carbon being sp2 hybridized is smaller than the Sp3 hybridized carbon
in haloalkanes. So, C-Cl bond in aryl halides is shorter and stronger.
117. p- dichlorobenzene has highest m.p. than those of ortho and meta –isomers?
Ans. p- Dichlorobenzene is symmetrical, fits into the crystal lattice more readily and
has higher melting point.
118. What are ambident nucleophiles?
Ans. Nucleophiles which can attack through two different sites are called ambident
nucleophiles. Example: - Cyanide ion
119. Why is sulphuric acid not used during the reactions of alcohols with KI?
Ans. Sulphuric acid is an oxidizing agent. It oxidizes HI produced during the reaction,
to I2.

120. Which one undergoes SN2 substitution reaction faster and why?
CH3(CH2)4Cl or CH3(CH2)4I
Ans: CH3(CH2)4I as I is a better leaving group
121. Why the boiling point of alkyl halide are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable
molecular mass?
Ans. because of grater polarity as well as high molecular mass as compared to the parent
hydrocarbon, the intermolecular forces of attraction are stronger in the halogen
derivatives
122. Allylic and benzylic halide are highly reactive towards SN1 reaction why?
Ans. because the carbocation formed from benzylic and allylic halides is more stable
due to resonance.
123. What are optically active compound?
Ans. Compound which rotate the plane polarized light when it is passed through their
solutions are called optically active compound
124. Haloalkanes with KCN form alkyl cyanide while with AgCN they give alkyl isocyanide.
Ans-CN- is ambidentnucleophile ,KCN provides CN- ions in solution and attack takes
place through C-atom as C-C bond is more stable. AgCN is mainly covalent and N-
atoms attack the alkyl group.
125. Halogen atom attached to benzene ring is o,p- directing and act deactivating.

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 Ans –Due to resonance e- density increase at o,p-positions and due to –I effect of
halogen atom it is deactivating
126. What are enantiomers ?
Ans. Stereo isomers which are non superimposable mirror images of each other are
called enantiomers.
127. Free radical halogenations of hydrocarbons is not a best method to prepare Haloalkanes.
Why?
Ans: Because this method gives mixture of isomeric mono and poly haloalkanes, which
is difficult to separate as pure compounds.
128. What happens to the boiling point of isomeric haloalkanes with increase in branching?
Ans : decreases.
129. Between SN1and SN2 reaction which one proceeds with complete stereo chemical
inversion?
Ans : SN2 reaction.
130. Between SN1 and SN2 reactions which one proceeds with racemisation?
Ans : SN1 reaction.
131. Between α and β- hydrogen which one is removed during dehydrohalogenation of alkyl
halides?
Ans: β - Hydrogen.
132. What happens to the reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution when
electron withdrawing group present at ortho or para position?
Ans: Increases.
133. R-OH + A B→ R – Cl + H2O Identify A and B in the given reaction
Ans: R – OH + HCl ZnCl2 → R-Cl + H2O A = HCl, B = ZnCl2
134. Haloalkanes are less soluble in water even though they are polar in nature. Why?
Ans: For a haloalkane to dissolve in water, energy is required to overcome and break
the hydrogen bond between water molecules. Less energy is released when new
attractions are set up between the haloalkane and water molecules as these are not as
strong as the original hydrogen bonds in water.
135. What are freons? Give an example
Ans: The fluro, chloro compounds of methane or ethane collectively called as freons
Ex: CCl2 F2
136. Which compound will react faster in SN2 reaction with OH---? (CH3)3C-Cl or CH3Cl
Ans: CH3Cl will react faster than 30 halide.

83
 UNIT-VII
ALCOHOL, PHELOS AND EHTERS

1. Phenols are more acidic than alcohols. Why?

Ans: Phenoxide ion is stabilized by resonance whereas alkoxide ion is not.
2. o and p-nitro phenols are more acidic than phenol. Why?
Ans: electron withdrawing group NO2 stabilize phenoxide ion and increase acidic strength.
3. Cresol are less acidic than phenols. Why?
Ans: Electron releasing methyl group destabilize phenoxide ion and decrease acidic strength.
4. Methoxy phenols are less acidic than phenol. Why?
Ans) Electron releasing methoxy group destabilize phenoxide ion and decrease acidic strength
5. Acidic strength of alcohols decrease in the order primary>secondary> tertiary. Why?
Ans: +I effect of alkyl groups decrease polarity of O-H bond hence acidic strength decreases.
6. Boiling point of alcohols and phenols is higher than hydrocarbons. Why?
Ans: Due to intermolecular H- bonding in alcohols and phenols.
7. Boiling point of alcohols increase with increase in number of carbon atoms/molecular mass?
Ans) Due to increase in van der Waals forces.
8. Boiling point of isomeric alcohols decrease with branching. Why?
Ans: Due to decrease in van der Waals forces with decrease in surface area.
9. Ethanol has higher boiling point than methoxymethane. Why?
Ans) Due to intermolecular H- bonding in ethanol.
10. Bond angle in alcohols is slightly less than tetrahedral angle(109.28). Why?
Ans: Due to repulsion between the unshared electron pairs on oxygen.
11. Bond angle in ether is slightly greater than tetrahedral angle(109.28). Why?
Ans: Due to repulsive interaction between two bulky alkyl groups.
12. C-O bond length in phenol is slightly less than that in methanol. Why?
Ans: C-O bond in phenols have partial double bond character due to resonance.
13. Dipole moment of phenol is smaller than methanol. Why?
Ans: C-O in phenol is smaller due to partial double bond character and less polar due to sp2 C.
14. Ethers have a net dipole moment (polar) even if they are symmetrical. Why?
Ans: Due to bent structure of ethers.
15. Which is more acidic ethanol or water. Why?
Ans: Water because +I effect of ethyl group reduces acidic strength.
16. Phenols do not give protonation reaction easily?
Ans: Due to resonance lone pair of electron on oxygen is delocalized in benzene ring.
17. Phenol is acidic but does not react with NaHCO3. Why?
Ans: Phenol is a weaker than H2CO3 hence does not liberate CO2 from NaHCO3.
18. Phenol is more reactive towards electrophilic substitution reaction/nitration than benzene. why?
Ans: Due to +R effect of OH group electron density on benzene ring increases hence reactivity
increases.
19. Phenols do not undergo substitution of -OH group like alcohols.
Ans: C-O bond in phenols has partial double bond character due to resonance hence not
cleaved.
20. t–Butyl methyl ether is not prepared by reaction of t-butyl bromide with sodium methoxide.
Why?
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 Ans: t– Butyl methyl ether in the presence of methoxide ion prefers elimination and form
alkene.
21. Ethyl phenyl ether on reaction with HBr form phenol and ethyl bromide.
Ans: O-CH3 bond is weaker hence cleaved by Br, O-C6H5 bond which has partial double bond
character hence strong.
22. Ortho nitrophenol has lower boiling point than p-nitrophenol. Why?
Ans :O-nitrophenol has intramolecular H-bonding and p-nitrophenol has inter molecular H-
bonding.
23. A mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can be separated by steam distillation. Why?
Ans) o-nitro phenol is steam volatile due to intramolecular hydrogen.
24. Out of 2-chloroethanol and ethanol which is more acidic and why?
Ans: 2-Chloroethanol is more acidic due to -I effect of Cl.
25. Rectified spirit cannot be converted into absolute alcohol by simple distillation. Why?
Ans: Rectified spirit containing 95% ethanol and 5% water is an azeotropic mixture.
26. Preparation of ethers by acid dehydration of 2o or 3o alcohol is not suitable. Why?
Ans: Reaction follow SN2 mechanism, 2o or 3o alcohol undergo elimination and main product
is alkene.
27. Write the reaction involved in Kolbe’s reaction.
Ans:

28. Write the reaction involved in Riemer Tiemann Reaction.

Ans:

29. Explain Williamson synthesis with example.

Ans: R-X + R-O Na ----------> R-O- R + Na X
30. Name a reagent which is used for distinction of primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol.
Ans: Lucas reagent (Conc HCl and ZnCl2)
31. How will you distinguish between Phenol and propan-1-ol.
Ans: Phenol gives violet colour with neutral FeCl3, propan-1-ol does not.
32. How will you distinguish between ethanol and di methyl ether?
Ans: Ethanol gives hydrogen gas with sodium metal whereas ether does not.
33. How will you distinguish between 2-Methyl propan-2-ol and propan-1-ol.
Ans: 2-Methyl propan-2-ol gives turbidity immediately with conc HCl and ZnCl2 and propan-
1-ol does not.
34. How will you distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid?
Ans: Benzoic acid gives effervescence of CO2 with NaHCO3, phenol does not.
For Q No. 35 to 42 name a reagent used in following reaction.

85
35. Oxidation of primary alcohol to carboxylic acid.
Ans: Acidified Potassium dichromate ,K2Cr2O7/H+
36. Oxidation of primary alcohol to aldehydyde.
Ans: Pyridinium chlorochromate ,PCC
37. Dehydration of propan-2-ol to propene.
Ans: Conc. H2SO4 at 443 K
38. Bromination of phenol to 2,4,6- tri bromo phenol.
Ans: Br2/ H2O
39. Benzyl alcohol to benzoic acid.
Ans: acidified or alkaline KMnO4
40. Butan-2-one to butan-2-ol
Ans: Lithium aluminium hydride , LiAlH4
41. Butanal to butanol.
Ans: Lithium aluminium hydride , LiAlH4
42. Friedel -Craft Acetylation of anisole
Ans: Acetyl chloride/ aluminium chloride , CH3COCl/ AlCl3
43. Write IUPAC name of (CH3)2C=C(Br) CH2OH
Ans: 2-Bromo-3-methyl but-2-en -1-ol.
44. Write IUPAC name of : C6H5- CH=CH CH2 OH
Ans:3-Phenyl prop-2-en-1-ol.
45. Write IUPAC name of CH3 -O-C(CH3)3
Ans: 2-Methoxy-2-methyl propane.
46. Write IUPAC name of CH3-O-CH2-CH(OH)CH3
Ans:1- Methoxy Propan-2-ol
47. Give structure and IUPAC name of compound formed when ethanal reacts with
Methylmagnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis.
Ans: (CH3)2CHOH, Propan-2-ol
48. Give structure and IUPAC name of the compound when butanone reacts with ethylmagnesium
chloride followed by hydrolysis.
Ans: 3-Methyl pentan-3-ol

49. Give structure and IUPAC name of the compound when formaldehyde reacts with
methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis.
Ans: CH3CH2OH
50. Give structure and IUPAC name of the compound obtained by catalytic reduction of propanal.
Ans: CH3CH2CH2OH , Propan-1-ol
51. Give structure and IUPAC name of the compound obtained by heating ter-Butyl alcohol at 573
K in the presence of Cu.
Ans: 2- Methyl propene, (CH3)2C=CH2
52. Give structure and IUPAC name of the compound obtained by heating propan-2-ol at 573 K in
the presence of Cu.
Ans: Propanone, CH3COCH3

86
53. Give structure and IUPAC name of the compound obtained by heating propan-1-ol at 573 K in
the presence of Cu.
Ans: Propanal, CH3CHO
54. Give structure and IUPAC name of the compound when 2-Methylbutan-2-ol reacts with SOCl2
Ans:2-chloro-2-methyl butane.

55. Give structure and IUPAC name of the compound when methoxy ethane reacts with HBr.
Ans: CH3I + CH3CH2OH, Methyl iodide and ethanol
56. Give structure and IUPAC name when anisole reacts with HI.
Ans: C6H5OCH3----------> C6H5OH + CH3I
57. Write the product when benzyl phenyl ether is heated with HI.
Ans: C6H5OH + C6H5CH2I , Phenol and benzyl iodide
For Q no. 58 to 65 arrange the given set of compoundS in the increasing order of property
mentioned.
58. Phenol, Nitro phenol and Cresol (acidic nature)
Ans: Cresol, Phenol, Nitro Phenol
59. Alcohol, hydrocarbon, ether (boiling point)
Ans: Hydrocarbon, ether, Alcohol
60. pentan-1-ol,butan-1-ol,butan-2-ol,ethanol, propan-1-ol,methanol (boiling point)
Ans: Methanol,ethanol,propan-1-ol,butan-2-ol,butan-1-ol,pentan-1-ol
61. 2-butanol,1-butanol,2- methyl-2-propanol (reactivity towards Lucas reagent)
Ans: 1- Butanol, 2-Butanol, 2-Methyl-2- propanol
62. Primary alcohol, Secondary alcohol, Tertiary alcohol (ease of dehydration)
Ans: Tertiary alcohol, Secondary alcohol, Primary alcohol
63. Primary alcohol, Secondary alcohol, Tertiary alcohol (Acidic Character)
Ans: Primary alcohol, Secondary alcohol , Tertiary alcohol
64. Phenol, alcohol, water ( Acid strength)
Ans: Alcohol, Water, Phenol
65. HBr, HI, HCl ( Reactivity towards alcohol)
Ans: HCl, HBr, HI
66. Identify Allylic alcohol from the following:
(i) CH3CH2CH=CH-OH (ii) CH2=CH-CH2-CH2-OH (iii) CH2=CH-CH2-OH
Ans: CH2=CH-CH2-OH
67. Identify benzylic alcohol from the following:
(i) C6H5CH2OH (ii) C6H5CH(OH)CH3 (iii) C6H5CH2CH2OH
Ans: (i) and (ii)
68. What is absolute alcohol?
Ans: 100% ethyl alcohol
69. What is Power alcohol?
Ans: 20% Alcohol + 80 % Petrol
70. What is rectified spirit?
Ans: 95% ethyl alcohol + 5% water
71. What is structure and IUPAC name of Glycerol.

87
 Ans: CH2(OH)CH(OH)CH2(OH) , Propan-1,2,3-triol
72. Write equation for the preparation of phenol from Cumene.
Ans)

73. What happens when Phenol reacts with conc. HNO3?

Ans:

74. What happens when phenol is heated with Zinc.

Ans:

75. What happens when propene is treated with B2H6 followed by H2O2/OH-
Ans:

76. How will you convert benzyl chloride to benzyl alcohol.

Ans:

77. How will you convert ethyl magnesium chloride to propan-1-ol.

Ans:

78. How will you convert methanal to ethanol?

Ans: HCHO + CH3MgCl ------> CH3CH2OMgCl --------> CH3CH2OH
79. How will you convert Phenol to benzoquinone.
Ans:

88
80. Write starting material for the preparation of ter-butyl propyl ether.
Ans: CH3CH2CH2I and (CH3)3CONa
81. Write starting material for the preparation of Anisole.
Ans: C6H5ONa + CH3I
82. Alkoxy group is ortho and para directing as well as activates ring towards electrophilic
substitution. Why?
Ans: Due to +R effect of -OR group when attached to benzene ring.
83. Write equation for nitration of anisole.
Ans:

84. Write equation for Friedel Craft alkylation of anisole.

Ans:

𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4 𝐶𝑢/373𝐾
85. Give structure of A and B in CH3COOH → A→ B
Ans: A = CH3CH2OH B= CH3CHO
𝐶𝐻3 𝑀𝑔𝐵𝑟 𝐵
86. Give structure of A and B in CH3CHO → A→ CH3CHOHCH3
Ans: A= CH3CH(CH3) OMgBr B= H2O
𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4 𝑆𝑜𝐶𝑙2
87. Give structure of A and B in CH3COOH → A→ B
Ans: A= CH3CH2OH B= CH3CH2Cl
88. Give structure of A, B and C in :
𝐾𝐶𝑁 𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4 𝐻𝑁𝑂2 /373𝐾
CH3Br → A→ B → C
Ans: A = CH3CN B = CH3CH2 NH2 C= CH3CH2OH
89. What are Grignard reagent?
Ans: Alky magnesium halide example: CH3MgBr
90. Predict major product of acid catalysed dehydration of 1-methyl cyclohexanol.
Ans: 1-methyl cyclohexene

89
91. Give the structure and IUPAC name of monohydric phenol of the formula C7H8O.
Ans:

92. When phenol is treated with bromine water, white precipitate is obtained. Give structure and
IUPAC name.
Ans : 2,4,6-Tri bromophenol

93. Write IUPAC name of

Ans: Cyclo hexyl methanol

94. Write the structures of the major product expected from mononitration of 3- methylphenol.

Ans: and
95. Write the structures of the major product expected from dinitration of 3-methylphenol.
Ans:

96. How will you synthesise 1-Methylcyclohexan-1-ol from a suitable alkene.

97. How will you synthesise 4-Methyl heptanol from a suitable alkene.
Ans:

90
98. CH3)3C—O—CH3 on reaction with HI gives (CH3)3C—I and CH3—OH as the main products
and not (CH3)3C—OH and CH3—I. Why?
Ans: (CH3)3C+ is 3° carbo-cation which is more stable than CH3+ for SN1 reaction.
99. An organic compound ‘A’ having molecular formula C3H6 on treatment with H2O/H+ gives ‘B’
which on treatment with HCl/ZnCl2 gives ‘C’. The compound ‘C’ on treatment with ethanolic
KOH gives back the compound ‘A’. Identify A,B,C.
Ans: A= CH3CH=CH2 B= CH3CH(OH)CH3 C= CH3CH(Cl)CH3
100. How can you obtain phenol from benzene diazonium chloride?
Ans:

101. Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight followed by hydrolysis with aq. NaOH yields_____.
Ans. Benzyl alcohol
102. How many alcohols with molecular formula C4H10O are chiral in nature?
Ans. One
103. Correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the following reaction
𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2
ROH+𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 𝑅𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2𝑂 is _______
0 0 0
Ans. 3 > 2 >1
104. The process of converting alkyl halides into alcohols involves_____________.
Ans. Nucleophilic substitution
105. Give IUPAC name of

Ans. 5-Chlorohexan-2-ol
106. IUPAC name of m-cresol is ___________.
Ans. 3-methylphenol
107. IUPAC name of the compound is

Ans. 2-Methoxypropane
108. Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic character
Phenol, o- Nitrophenol, o- Methoxyphenol
Ans. o- Methoxyphenol, Phenol, o- Nitrophenol
109. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of boiling point.
Ans. Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol
110. Give a chemical test to distinguish between Phenol and Ethanol.
Ans. Phenol gives violet colour with neutral FeCl3 while Ethanol doesnot. OR Phenol gives
white ppt with Bromine water while Ethanol doesnot .
111. Write the IUPAC name of

Ans. 3-Methylpent-2-ene-1,2-diol
112. Out of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol, which is more volatile? Explain.

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 Ans. Ortho nitrophenol due to Intramolecular H bonding is more volatile and P-nitrophenol due
to intermolecular H bonding is less volatile.
113. Write IUPAC name of picric acid.
Ans. 2,4,6-Trinitrophenol
114. Write IUPAC name of carbolic acid.
Ans. Phenol
115. When phenol is treated with bromine water, white precipitate is obtained. Give the name of the
compound formed.
Ans. 2, 4, 6- Tribromophenol
116. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of acidity.
Phenol, o-nitrophenol, o-cresol
Ans. Increasing order of acidity: o-cresol < phenol < o-nitrophenol
117. Name the product obtained when benzene diazonium chloride is heated with water.
Ans. Phenol
118. Dipole moment of phenol is smaller than that of methanol. Why?
Ans. In phenol, C—O bond is less polar due to electron-withdrawing effect of benzene ring
whereas in methanol, C—O bond is more polar due to electron releasing effect of —CH3 group.
119. Why do alcohols dissolve in water?
Ans. Due to intermolecular H bonding with water
120. Explain why p-Nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol.
Ans. Due to electron withdrawing effect of nitro group in p-Nitrophenol .
121. Alcohols have higher boiling point than comparable molecular mass ethers. Justify this
statement.
Ans. Due to intermolecular H bonding alcohols have higher boiling point.
122. Antifreeze used in car engine is-------------------
Ans. Ethylene glycol
123. Give the structures and IUPAC names of the products expected from the Catalytic reduction of
butanal.
Ans. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH Butan-1-ol
124. Give the major products that are formed by heating following with HI.

Ans.

125. Write IUPAC names of

Ans. 2,2,4-Trimethylpentan –3-ol

126. Write structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol

Ans.
127. Explain why Propanol has higher boiling point than that of the hydrocarbon Butane?
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 Ans. Hydrogen bonding in Propanol.
128. Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular
masses. Explain this fact.
Ans. Hydrogen bonding between alcohol and water molecules.
129. While separating a mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols by steam distillation, name the
isomer which will be steam volatile. Give reason.
Ans. o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile because of intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
130. Show how will you synthesise 1-Phenylethanol from a suitable alkene.
Ans.

131. Write the names of reagents and equations for the preparation of the following ethers by
Williamson's synthesis:

Ans. Ethoxybenzene
132. Write the names of reagents and equations for the preparation of the following ethers by
Williamson's synthesis: 2-Methoxy-2-methylpropane

Ans.
133. Write the equation involved in Kolbe’s reaction .
Ans.

134. Write the equation involved in Reimer-Tiemann reaction

135. Complete the following equation

93
 Ans.

136. Give the major products that are formed by heating following HI

Ans.

and CH3CH2CH2OH
137. Predict the products of the following reaction:

Ans.
138. Predict the products of the following reaction:

Ans.
139. Predict the products of the following reaction:

Ans.

140. Write IUPAC name of the following compound:

Ans. Propane –1,2,3,-triol

141. Write IUPAC names of the following compounds:

Ans. 5-Ethylheptane–2,4-diol
142. Write IUPAC name of the following compound: C6H5-O-C2H5.
Ans. Ethoxy benzene
143. Write IUPAC name of the following compound:

94
 Ans. 2,5 – Dimethylphenol
144. Write the structure of 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
Ans.

145. . Write the structure of 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol.

Ans.

146. Write the structure of 3,5-Dimethylhexane –1, 3, 5-triol

Ans.

147. Write the structure of Cyclopent-3-en-1-ol.

Ans.

148. Give a reaction that shows the acidic nature of phenol.

Ans. Reaction of Phenol with Na/NaOH
149. Give a chemical test to distinguish between Carbolic acid and Ethanoic acid.
Ans. Carbolic acid(Phenol gives violet colour with neutral FeCl3 while Ethanoic acid does not
OR Ethanoic acid gives brisk effervescence with sodium bicarbonate while Phenol does not.
150. Explain how does the –OH group attached to a carbon of benzene ring activate it towards
electrophilic substitution?
Ans. -OH increases the electron density at benzene ring through resonance.
151. Oxidation of propan-1-ol with alkaline KMnO4 solution gives------------------
Ans. Propanoic acid
152. Give equation of the reaction: Bromine in CS2 with phenol.
Ans.

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153. Write the structures of the major product expected from the following reaction : Dinitration of
3-methylphenol
Ans.

154. What happens Phenol is treated with Zn dust?

Ans. It forms Benzene
155. Predict the major product of acid catalysed dehydration of 1-methylcyclohexanol.
Ans.

156. Name the major product obtained when Phenol is treated with conc. Nitric acid.
Ans. 2,4,6 -Trinitrophenol OR Picric acid
157. What is denaturation of alcohol?
Ans. The commercial alcohol is made unfit for drinking by mixing in it some copper sulphate
(to give it a colour) and pyridine foul smelling liquid). It is known as denaturation of alcohol.
158. What is rectified spirit?
Ans. Purified Ethanol
159. Give the equations of reactions for the preparation of phenol from cumene.
Ans.

160. What is the structure and IUPAC name of glycerol?

Ans. HO-CH2 –CHOH-CH2OH, Propane-1, 2, 3-triol.
161. Out of 2-chloroethanol and ethanol which is more acidic and why?
Ans. Due to –I- effect of the CI atom, electron density in the O-H bond decreases. As a result,
O-H bond in 2-chloroethanol becomes weaker than in ethanol and hence 2-chloroethanol is a
stronger acid than ethanol.
162. Name the enzymes and write the reactions involved in the preparation of ethanol from sucrose
by fermentation.
Ans. Ethanol is prepared by fermentation of sucrose by yeast which contain the enzymes
sucrose or invertase and zymase

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 UNIT-VIII
ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS

1. What are the bond angle and structure of carbonyl compounds ?

Ans. 120° and trigonal planar.
2. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of
R –CH2—OH → R–CHO
Ans. PCC( Pyridine Chlorochromate)
3. Rosenmund Reduction gives……..
Ans. Aldehydes.
4. Write IUPAC name of the following compound:
CH3COCH2COCH3
Ans. Pentane -2,4-dione.
5. Give IUPAC name of the following compound:
(CH3)2C=CHCOCH3
Ans. 4-Methyl-pent-3-en-2-one.
6. What is Tollens' reagent?
Ans. Ammonical silver nitrate (AgNO3 +NH4OH) solution is known as Tollens' reagent.
7. Write one use of Tollens' reagent.
Ans.Tollens' reagent is used to detect the presence of -CHO group in an organic compound.
8. Name the aldehyde which does not give Fehling solution test.
Ans. Benzaldehyde.
9. Write wolff- Kishner Reduction
Ans. >C=O (+NH2-NH2 , -H2O) → >C=NNH2 (KOH, ethylene glycol,∆) → >CH2 + N2
10. Write Etard reaction.
Ans. C6H5CH3 (CrO2Cl2,CS2) → [C6H5CH(OCr(OH)Cl2)2] (H3O+) → C6H5CHO,
(benzaldehyde)
11. Write Cannizzaro reaction.
Ans.2HCHO(conc.KOH)→ CH3OH + HCOO-K+
2C6H5CHO (conc.NaOH) → C6H5CH2OH + C6H5COO- Na+
12. Write Friedle- crafts alkylation reaction.
Ans.C6H6 +CH3Cl(anhyd.AlCl3) → C6H5CH3 + HCl
13. Write Friedle- crafts acylation reaction.
Ans.C6H6 +CH3COCl (anhyd.AlCl3) → C6H5COCH3 + HCl
14. Write Getterman coach reaction.
Ans. C6H6(CO,HCl,anhyd.AlCl3CuCl)→ C6H5CHO
15. Write Stephen reaction.
Ans.C6H5CN +2[H] + HCl →C6H5CH = NH.HCl (H2O boil) → C6H5CHO + HCl
16. Write Clemmensen reduction reaction.
Ans. >C=O + 4[H] (Zn-Hg,conc.HCl)→ >CH2 +H2O
17. Write Volhard-Zelinsky reaction.
Ans. Carboxylic acids having an Alpha hydrogen are halogenated at the Alpha position on
treatment with chlorine or bromine in the presence of red phosphorus to give alpha halo
carboxylic acid.

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 R-CH2-COOH(i X2,red P,ii H2O) → R-CHX-COOH (X= Cl,Br)
18. pKa of chloro acetic acid is lower than pKa of acetic acid.
Ans. Due to - I effect,O-H bond in chloro acetic acid is weaker than acetic acid and hence
stronger the acid smaller the value of pKa.
19. What is vinegar?
Ans. And 8 to 10% solution of acetic acid in water is known as vinegar.
20. Give the name of the reagent that bring the following transformation: But-2-ene to ethanal.
Ans. O3/H2O-Zn dust
21. How do you convert the Ethanol to Ethanal?
Ans. CH3CH2 OH (PCC,∆) → CH3CHO
22. Write the reagent used in the reaction:
CH3COOH (?)→ CH3 -COCl
Ans.PCl5 or SOCl2
23. Write the reasons used in the reaction:
C6H5-CO-CH3 (?) → C6H5-CH2-CH3
Ans. Zn- Hg, conc.HCl or 2HN-NH2 and KOH/ ethylene glycol, heat.
24. Why oxidation of aldehyde is easier than ketones?
Ans. Aldehydes contain H atom on the carbonyl group but ketones do not. Cleaved of C-H
bond in aldehyde is easier than cleavage of C-C bond in ketones
25. Benzoic acid is stronger acid than acetic acid. Why?
Ans. This is because of greater electronegativity of SP2 hybridise carbonyl to which carboxyl
carbon is attached in benzoic acid.
26. Why methanol is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction then ethanal.
Ans.The methyl group in ethanal due to +ve I effect reduce positive charge on carbonyl carbon
atom, it also hinders the approach of the nucleophile.
27. Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between propanol and propanone.
Ans. Propenal being an aldehyde gives silver mirror with Tollens' reagent while propanone
being a ketone does not give this test.
28. Mention a chemical property in which methanoic acid differs from acetic acid.
Ans. Methanoic acid act as a reducing agent and hence decolourises the pink colour of acidified
potassium permanganate solution but acetic acid does not.
29. Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between acetophenone and benzophenone.
Ans. Acetophenone response to Iodoform test and give the yellow precipitate on addition of
NaOH and iodine but benzophenone does not give this test.
30. Give a test to distinguish between Benzaldehyde and ethanal.
Ans. Ethanal react with NaOH and Iodine to form yellow precipitate of iodoform while
benzaldehyde does not give this test.
31. Presence of alpha hydrogen in aldehydes and ketones is essential for aldol condensation.
Ans. Because Alpha hydrogen of aldehydes and ketones is acidic in nature easily abstracted by
OH- and giving rise to carbanion stabilised by resonance.
32. 3-hydroxy pentane -2-one does not show positive Tollens' test.
Ans. Balance reagent is weak oxidizing agent cannot oxidize ketone by breaking carbon carbon
bond and do not form silver mirror with tollens' reagent.
33. Complete the following reaction
C6H5-CH2-CH3 (KMnO4,KOH,∆) →
Ans.C6H5COOH

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34. Complete the following reaction
C6H6 (CH3COCl,Anhy.AlCl3) →
Ans.C6H5COCH3 + HCl
35. How you will convert benzaldehyde to 3-phenyl propane-1- ol.
Ans.C6H5CHO (iC2H5ONa, ii∆,H+) →C6H5CH=CH-CHO
Cinnamaldehyd (H2/Ni)→C6H5CH2CH2CH2OH(3-phenylpropane-1-ol
36. Why do aldehydes have lower boiling points than alcohols?
Ans. Because Aldehydes are not having hydrogen bond but alcohols are associated with
intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
37. What is formaline?give its use.
Ans. The 40% aqueous solution of HCHO is called formaline.It is used as a preservative for
biological specimens.
38. How you will convert acetaldehyde to lactic acid?
Ans.CH3CHO + HCN →CH3CH(OH)-CN(HO2/H+) →CH3CH(OH)-COOH (Lactic acid)
39. How you will convert propyne to acetone.
Ans.CH3CCH+H2O (H2SO4,HgSO4) → CH3C(OH)=CH2→CH3COCH3
40. Why is CH3COOH less acidic than HCOOH?
Ans.It is because CH3COO- less stable than HCOO- due to electron releasing CH3- group.
41. Why does carboxylic not give reactions of aldehydes and ketones?
Ans. It is due to absence of free >C=O group due to resonance.
42. Out of benzaldehyde and p-tolualdehyde which is more reactive towards electrophilic
substitution and why?
Ans. p-Tolualdehyde is more reactive because -CH3 group is electron releasing,increases
electron density on benzene ring.
43. CH3-CH=CH-CHO(NaBH4) → X, What is X?
Ans. CH3-CH=CH-CH2OH
44. Give chemical test to distinguish between acetophenone and benzophenone.
Ans. Add Iodine and NaOH, acetophenone will give yellow Ppt. of iodoform where as
benzophenone will not react.
45. Give chemical test to distinguish between HCOOH and CH3CH2COOH.
Ans. Add 'S solution.HCOOH will form brick red ppt. Where as propanoic acid will not react.
46. Compare the reactivity of acetone and ethanal towards nucleophilic substitution addition
reactions.
Ans. Ethanal is more reactive than acetone towards nucleophilic addition reaction due to more
polarity and less stearic hindrance.
47. Complete the following reaction:
CH3COCH3 +C6H5NHNH2 →
Ans.CH3COCH3 +C6H5NHNH2 →(CH3)2=N-NHC6H5 +H2O
48. Complete the following reaction:
C6H5-COCl + H2 (Pd-BaSO4) →
Ans.C6H5-COCl + H2 (Pd-BaSO4) →C6H5-CHO + HCl
49. Convert benzyl alcohol to benzaldehyde.
Ans.C6H5-CH2OH (Cu based catalyst air) → C6H5-CHO
50. Which type of alcohols are most difficult to oxidise to aldehydes and ketone and why?
Ans. Tertiary alcohols are most difficult to oxidise because they are we reducing agents.
51. Convert propanoic acid to 2-hydroxy prapanoic acid.

99
 Ans.CH3-CH2-COOH(P4/Cl2) → CH3CH(Cl)COOH (aqKOH) →CH3CH(OH)COOH
52. Oxidation of propanal is easier than propanone.
Ans.It is because it is easier to break C-H bond in aldehydes thanC-C bond in ketones.
53. Alpha hydrogen of aldehydes and ketones is acidic in nature.
Ans. It is because carbanion formed are stabilised by resonances.
54. Complete the following reaction:
CH3–CH= CH–CH2CN (i.DIBL-H,ii.H3O+ )→ 'X' , Identify X.
Ans.CH3–CH= CH–CH2–CHO (Pent-3-en-1-al)
55. Complete the following reaction:
C6H5-CHO + CH3–CHO (OH-,298K) →
Ans.C6H5-CHO + CH3–CHO (OH-,298K)→ C6H5CH(OH)CH2CHO (3- hydroxy-3-phenyl
propanone)
56. complete the following reaction:
CH3CHO + CH3NH2(H+) →
Ans.CH3CH=N–CH3
57. Write Hell-Volhard Zelinsky reaction.
Ans.CH3COOH (P4/ Cl2) → ClCH2 –COOH
58. Write decarboxylation reaction.
CH3COONa + NaOH(CaO,∆) → CH4 + Na2CO3
59. Write the product when p Nitrotoluene react with Cromylchloride/CS2and H3O+
Ans.CHOC6H5NO2 (p-nitrobenzaldehyde)
60. Name the product when benzaldehyde react with conc.HNO3/conc.H2SO4at 273 -283 K.
Ans.3-Nitrobenzaldehyde CHOC6H5NO2
61. Why do carboxylic acid have higher boiling point then alcohols?
Ans. Carboxylic acid exist as dimer due to stronger intermolecular hydrogen bonding as
compared to alcohol. The extent of hydrogen bonding is more in carboxylic acid than alcohol.
62. Why is chloroacetic acid is more acidic than acetic acid?
Ans. Chloro acetate iron is more stable than acetate time therefore chloro acetic acid is stronger
than acetic acid because -Cl group is electron withdrawing.
63. How will you distinguish between:CH3CHO and HCHO.
Ans.Add Iodine and NaOH,CH3CHO will give yellow ppt.of iodoform whereas HCHO will
not.
64. How will you distinguish between:
Ans.Add NaHCO3to each. Benzoic acid will give brisk effervescence due to carbon dioxide
whereas benzaldehyde will not.
65. Convert acetic acid to acetaldehyde
Ans.CH3COOH(PCl5) → CH3COCl (H2/Pd-BaSO4) →CH3CHO(acetaldehyde)
66. Convert toluene to benzoic acid
Ans.C6H5CH3(i.KMnO4/KOH,iiH+∆)→C6H5COOH (Benzoic acid)
67. Write the chemical name of aspirin.
And.Acetylsalicylic acid
68. Acetic acid forms…….. with NH3 which on heating gives………………
Ans. Ammonium acetate,acetamide
69. CnH2nO represents the general formula of………..
Ans. Aldehydes and ketones.
70. Soda Lime decarboxylation of sodium propionate produces………..

100
 Ans. Ethane.
71. The addition reactions of aldehydes and ketones are initiated by………… attack on carbonyl
carbon.
Ans. Nucleophilic
72. A 40% solution of formaldehyde in water is known as……….
Ans. formaline
73. The hybrid state of carbon atom in carbonyl group is……
Ans. sp2
74. Ethanol paper is passed over heated copper and the product is treated with aqueous NaOH.The
product is………….
Ans. Aldol
75. Right structure formula and IUPAC name of terephthalic acid.
Ans.HOOC-C6H5-COOH, Benzene -1,4-dicarboxylic acid
76. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their reactivity in nucleophilic addition
reactions: ethanal, propanal, propanone, butanone.
Ans. Butanone<propanone< propanal< ethanal.
77. Rearrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their boiling points:
CH3-CHO, CH3-CH2-OH, CH3CH2CH3
Ans.CH3CH2CH3 < CH3-CHO < CH3-CH2-OH
78. What are imines?
Ans. The compound containing >C= NH group are called imines. They are produced when
aldehyde and ketones react with ammonia derivatives.
79. What are acetal?
Ans. Gem-dialkoxy alkane compounds in which two alkoxy groups are present on the terminal
carbon atoms are called acetals. They are produced by the action of aldehyde with two
equivalents of monohydric alcohol in the presence of dry HCl gas.
80. What are semicarbazones?
Ans. Semicarbazones are derivatives of aldehyde and ketone and are produced by the action of
semicarbazide on them in a weak acidic medium.
81. Give simple test to distinguish between Butanal and Butane-2-one.
Ans. Butanal being an aldehyde reduces Tollens' reagent to give silver mirror but butan-2-one
being a ketone does not.
CH3CH2CH2CHO +2[Ag(NH3)2] + 3OH—>CH3CH2CH2COO- +Ag+4NH3 + 2H2O
82. Give a simple test to distinguish Benzoic acid and phenol.
Ans. Benzoic acid decompose NaHCO3 produce brisk effervescence due to evolution of carbon
dioxide while phenol does not.
C6H5COOH + NaHCO3→ C6H5COONa + CO2 + H2O
83. Arrange the following in the increasing order of the their boiling point: Ethanol, Acetone,
Ethanoic acid.
Ans. Acetone < Ethanol < Ethanoic acid.
84. Give a chemical test to distinguish between ethanal and ethanoic acid.
Ans. Ethanoic acid being an acid reacts with NaHCO3 solution to give brisk effervescence due
to evolution of carbon dioxide while ethanal does not.
85. Convert Benzoic acid to Aniline.
Ans.C6H5COOH(NH3,∆) →C6H5CONH2 (Br2,KOH) → C6H5NH2
86. Write the structure of main product (s) in the following:

101
 (CH3)3CHO (conc.NaOH) →
Ans.(CH3)3C-CH2OH + (CH3)3COONa
87. Write the structure of main product in the following:
C6H5COOH(NaOH) → Ans. C6H5COONa
88. Write the formula and IUPAC name of terephthalic acid.
Ans.HOOC–C6H4–COOH, IUPAC Name: Benzene -1,4- dicarboxylic acid
89. Write the name of the product when an aldehyde reacts with access alcohol in presence of dry
HCl.
Ans. Gem-dialkoxy compound known as acetal is formed.
90. Why is carboxylic acid a stronger acid than phenol?
Ans. i.Because the resonating structure of carboxylate ion are more stable than phenoxide ion.
OR
ii) negative charge is dispersing on two electronegative oxygen in carboxylate ion whereas it is
on one oxygen atom in phenoxide ion.
91. Give IUPAC name of the compound formed when Acetone undergoes self and aldol
condensation.
Ans.4-methyl-3-en-2-one.
92. Name the compounds that give 1,3 diphenylprop-2- en-1-one after aldol condensation.
Ans. Benzaldehyde and acetophenone.
93. Write the IUPAC name of the following compounds:
CH3CH=CHCHO
Ans. But-2-en-1-al
94. Write the IUPAC name:
CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH2CHO
Ans.4-Methylpentanal.
95. Write the IUPAC name:
CH3COCH2COCH3
Ans.Pentane-2,4-dione
96. Write the IUPAC name:
OHCC6H4CHO-p
Ans.Benzene-1,4-dicarbaldehyde.
97. Write the IUPAC name:
CH3CH2COCH(C2H5)CH2CH2Cl
Ans. 6-Chloro-4-ethylhexan-3-one.
98. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their reactivity in nucleophilic addition
reaction:
Ethanal, propanal, propanone, butanone.
Ans. The reactivity in nucleophilic addition reaction increases in the order:
Butanone < Propanone < Propanal < Ethanal.
99. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their reactivity in nucleophilic addition
reactions:
Benzaldehyde,p-Tolualdehyde, p-Nitrobenzaldehyde, Acetophenone
Ans. Acetophenone < p-Tolualdehyde < Benzaldehyde < p-Nitrobenzaldehyde.
100. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their property as indicated:
Acetaldehyde, Acetone, di-tert butyl ketone, methyl tert- butyl ketone (reactivity towards
HCN).

102
 Ans.di-tert butyl ketone < methyl tert- butyl ketone < Acetone < Acetaldehyde.
101. What is the common name of methanal?
Ans. Formaldehyde
102. Name an aldehyde which does not give Fehling test.
Ans. Benzaldehyde.
103. Which acid is present in ant bite?
Ans. Methanoic acid.
104. Why methanal does not give aldol condensation?
Ans. Does not have alpha hydrogen.
105. Why ethanal does not give Cannizaro reaction?
Ans. It has alpha hydrogens.
106. Which types of ketones give iodoform test?
Ans. Methyl ketones.
107. Which reaction is used to prepare Alpha substituted carboxylic acids?
Ans. HVZ reaction.
108. Which type of alcohols on oxidation give ketones?
Ans. Secondary alcohols.
109. Which type of alcohols on oxidation give aldehydes?
Ans. Primary alcohols.
110. Which hydrocarbon is produced when sodium benzoate is treated with soda lime?
Ans. Benzene.
111. What is the nature of carboxylic group in benzoic acid?
Ans. Carboxylic acid is electron withdrawing group.
112. What is the IUPAC name of acetic acid?
Ans. Ethanoic acid.
113. Name a chemical test to distinguish between ethanal and methanal.
Ans. Iodoform test.
114. What is the oxidation state of silver in Tollens reagent?
Ans. +1
115. What is the oxidation state of copper in Fehling's reagent?
Ans. +2
116. Why ketones do not give Tollen's test?
Ans. Ketones are difficult to oxidized by mild oxidizing agents.
117. Which carboxylic acid will be produced on vigorous oxidation of butan-2-one?
Ans. Ethanoic acid.
118. What is the IUPAC name of diethyl ketone?
Ans. Pentan- 2- one
119. Which acid is present in vinegar?
Ans. Acetic acid
120. Name the compound produced on nitration of benzoic acid.
Ans. M- nitro benzoic acid.
121. Which aldehyde gives primary alcohol on reaction with Grignard reagent followed by
hydrolysis?
Ans. Methanal
122. Which aldehyde gives secondary alcohol on reaction with Grignard reagent followed by
hydrolysis?

103
 Ans. All aldehydes except methanal.
123. Which type of alcohols are produced when ketones react with Grignard reagent followed by
hydrolysis?
Ans. Tertiary alcohol
124. What are the reducing agents used in Clemmensen's reduction?
Ans. Zn/Hg, HCl
125. Which carboxylic acid gives Tollen's test?
Ans. Methanoic acid
126. How are oximes produced from aldehydes or ketone?
Ans. By reaction with hydroxyl amine
127. How are cyanohydrins produce from aldehydes or ketones?
Ans. By reaction with HCN
128. What is the formula of hydrazine?
Ans. NH2NH2
129. Name the aldehyde which gives iodoform test.
Ans. Ethanal
130. Which aldehyde is produced on ozonolysis of ethene?
Ans. Methanal
131. Name the product formed when methanal is reduced in presence of amalgamated zinc and HCl.
Ans. Methane
132. Name the catalyst used in Friedel craft reaction.
Ans. Anhydrous AlCl3
133. Which group imports polar nature in aldehydes?
Ans. Carbonyl group
134. Out of Acetophenone and Benzophenone, which gives iodoform test?
Ans. Acetophenone.
135. Out of methanoic acid and ethanoic acid, which is stronger?
Ans. Methanoic acid is stronger acid.
136. Why is chloro acetic acid stronger acid than acetic acid?
Ans. Due to -I effect of chlorine.
137. Name the reducing agent to convert ethanoic acid to ethanol.
Ans. LiAlH4
138. Name the reaction used for conversion of acid chloride to corresponding aldehydes.
Ans. Rosenmund reaction
139. Why don't carboxylic acids give characteristic reactions of carbonyl group?
Ans. Due to resonance
140. Out of methanoic acid and ethanoic acid, which will give HVZ reaction?
Ans. Ethanoic acid
141. Why do carboxylic acids have higher boiling point than corresponding aldehydes?
Ans. Due to hydrogen bonding.
142. Why are carboxylic acids soluble in water?
Ans. Due to hydrogen bonding with water
143. What is the name given for the reaction between carboxylic acids and alcohols?
Ans. Esterification
144. How is toluene produced from benzaldehyde?
Ans. By Etard reaction

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145. Which gas is produced when carboxylic acids are treated with sodium bicarbonate?
Ans. CO2
146. Why are aldehydes more reactive than ketones towards nucleophilic addition reaction?
Ans. Positive inductive effect of two alkyl groups in ketone reduces magnitude of positive
charge on carbon
147. Nucleophilic addition reactions of methanal are faster than ethanal.Why?
Ans. Methanal does not have alkyl group which reduce rate of reaction.
148. Name the alkene which on ozonolysis gives ethanal only.
Ans. Ethene.
149. Benzaldehyde is less reactive than ethanal towards nucleophilic addition reactions. why?
Ans. Due to resonance in benzaldehyde.
150. Which compound is produced on ozonolysis of benzene?
Ans. Ethane 1,2 dial
151. Write structure of benzophenone.
Ans. C6H5COC6H5
152. Write structure of 4-oxopentanal.
Ans. CH3COCH2CH2CHO
153. Name the electrophile produced in the reaction of benzene with benzoyl chloride in presence
of anhydrous AlCl3.
Ans. Benzoylium ion
154. Name the reaction in which methanal undergoes oxidation as well as reduction.
Ans. Cannizzaro reaction
155. How is ethyl benzene converted to benzoic acid?
Ans. By oxidation with KMnO4/KOH
156. Which type of carboxylic acids are used for the preparation of soaps?
Ans. Higher carboxylic acids such as palmitic acid.
157. What is the use of esters of benzoic acid?
Ans. In perfumery
158. Name the products formed when benzaldehyde is treated with concentrated sodium hydroxide.
Ans. Benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate.
159. Name the functional groups present in an aldol.
Ans. Aldehyde and alcohol
160. Name the product formed when ethanal is treated with dilute NaOH.
Ans. 3-Hydroxy butanal.
161. What is the other name of Tollen's test?
Ans. Ammonical silver nitrate.
162. Benzoic acid does not give Friedel craft reaction. Why?
Ans. Carboxylic group is deactivating in nature.
163. Electrophilic substitution reactions of benzoic acid are slower than benzene. Why?
Ans. Carboxylic group is deactivating in nature.
164. How are carboxylic acids produced from alkane nitriles?
Ans. By hydrolysis
165. Reactions of aldehydes and ketones with ammonia derivatives are done under control pH
conditions. Why?
Ans. Ammonia derivatives are weak nuleophile.
166. Red precipitate of which compound is produced when aldehydes react with Fehling’s solution?

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 Ans. Cuprous oxide.
167. Which compound is produced on oxidation of benzyl alcohol?
Ans. Benzaldehyde which further oxidizes to benzoic acid.
168. What is cross aldol condensation?
Ans. Aldol condensation between different aldehydes or different ketone.
169. What is Rochelle salt?
Ans. Cu+2 ions complexed with tartarate ion.
170. Which compound is produced on Wolff Kishner reduction of acetone?
Ans. Propane.
171. Which type of gem dihalides give aldehydes on hydrolysis with aqueous KOH?
Ans. Terminal gem dihalides.
172. Which type of gem dihalides give ketones on hydrolysis with aqueous KOH?
Ans. Non terminal gem dihalides.
173. Which aldehyde is produced on hydration of ethyne in presence of mercuric salt?
Ans. Ethanal.
174. Which ketone is produced on hydration of propyne in presence of mercuric salt?
Ans. Acetone
175. How is pKa related with Ka?
Ans. pKa = -logKa
176. What is the chemical formula of Tollen's reagent?
Ans. [ Ag (NH3)2]OH
177. p-Hydroxybenzoic acid has higher boiling point than o- Hydroxybenzoic acid. Why?
Ans. Due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding in o- hydroxybenzoic acid.
178. Why are carboxylic acids called fatty acids?
Ans. Obtained by saponification of oils and fats.
179. How is methanol obtained from methanal without using a reducing agent?
Ans. By reaction with conc, NaOH.
180. Why is benzoic acid less soluble in water than acetic acid?
Ans. Non polar effect of phenyl group.
181. Name the conjugate base of benzoic acid.
Ans. Benzoate ion.
182. Which carboxylic acid reduces Fehling solution?
Ans. Methanoic acid
183. Write IUPAC name of lactic acid.
Ans. 2-hydroxy propanoic acid.
184. Why pKa of methanoic acid is lower than ethanoic acid?
Ans. Methanoic acid is stronger acid.
185. Why benzoic acid is stronger acid than phenol?
Ans. Negative charge is shared by two oxygen atoms in benzoate ion.
186. How are alkyl benzenes converted to benzoic acid?
Ans. By reaction with KMnO4/KOH
187. Name a chemical test to distinguish between benzoic acid and phenol.
Ans. Sodium bicarbonate test.
188. How many alpha hydrogens are there in acetone?
Ans. 6 alpha hydrogens.
189. Ethanal is soluble in water. Why?

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 Ans. Polar carbonyl group forms hydrogen bond with water.
190. What is Benedict’s solution?
Ans. Cu+2 ions complexed with citrate ions.
191. Which compound is formed on Etard reaction of toluene?
Ans. Benzaldehyde.
192. Write the hydrolysis products of ethyl ethanoate.
Ans. Ethanol and ethanoic acid.
193. Which compounds is formed by esterification of phenol and benzoic acid?
Ans. Phenyl benzoate
194. What is the conjugate acid of acetate ion?
Ans. Acetic acid
195. Write chemical formula of iodal.
Ans. CI3CHO
196. Write name of functional isomer of acetic acid.
Ans. Methyl methanoate.
197. Which type of isomerism is shown by aldehydes and ketones?
Ans. Functional isomerism.
198. Name the salt which on reaction with soda lime give methane.
Ans. Sodium ethanoate.
199. Which compound is formed on bromination of benzoic acid?
Ans. M-Bromobenzoic acid
200. Which compound is formed on cross aldol condensation of ethanal and methanal?
Ans. 3- Hydroxy propanal.

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 UNIT-IX
AMINES

1. Why is an alkylamine more basic than ammonia?

Ans: Due to electron releasing inductive effect (+I) of alkyl group, the electron density on the
nitrogen atom increases and thus, it can donate the lone pair of electrons more easily than
ammonia.
2. Arrange the following compounds in an increasing order of basic strengths in their aqueous
solutions: NH3, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N
Ans: Basicity order (due to stability of ammonium cation)
(CH3)2 NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3 N > NH3
3. What are Amines derived from?
Ans: Amines are made from ammonia that is formed when hydrogen is replaced with aryl or
alkyl groups.
4. Give the IUPAC name of H2N — CH2—CH2—CH = CH2.
Ans: IUPAC name : But-3-ene-1-amine
5. Arrange the following compounds in an increasing order of their solubility in water:
C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, C2H5NH2
Ans: C6H5NH2 < (C2H5)2NH < C2H5NH2
6. Give a chemical test to distinguish between ethylamine and aniline.
Ans: By Azo dye test: It involves the reaction of any aromatic primary amine with HNO2
(NaNO2 + dil. HCl) at 273-278 K followed by treatment with an alkaline solution of naphthol
when a brilliant yellow, orange or red coloured dye is obtained.
7. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their basic strength in aqueous solutions:
CH3NH2, (CH3)2 NH, (CH3)3N and NH3
Ans: (CH3)2 NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3 N > NH3
8. Arrange the following in increasing order of their basic strength in aqueous solution:
CH3.NH2, (CH3)3N, (CH3)2NH
Ans:

9. Write the structure of 2-aminotoluene.

Ans:

10. Write the structure of N-methylethanamine.

Ans.: Structure of n-methylethanamine : H3C—H2C—NH—CH2
11. Write the structure of prop-2-en-l-amine.
Ans: H2C=CH—H2C—NH2
12. How may methyl bromide be preferentially converted to methyl isocyanide?

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 Ans

13. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of solubility in water :

C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, C2H5NH2
Ans: C6H5NH2 < (C2H5)2NH < C2H5NH2,
14. Arrange the following in increasing order of basic strength :
C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H5CH2NH2
Ans: C6H5NH2 < C6H5NHCH3 < C6H5CH2NH2
15. Arrange the following in increasing order of basic strength :
C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H5N(CH3)2
Ans: C6H5N(CH3)2 > C6H5NHCH3 > C6H5NH2
16. The conversion of primary aromatic amines into diazonium salts is known as
Ans: Diazotization.
17. N-ethylethanamine boils at 329.3K and butanamine boils at 350.8K, although both are isomeric
in nature Give reason.
Ans: Due to the presence of two hydrogen atoms, the intermolecular association is more in
primary amines than in secondary amines.
18. Out of CH3—NH2 and (CH3)3N, which one has higher boiling point?
Ans: CH3—NH2 has higher boiling point than (CH3)3N.
19. Write chemical equations for the Reaction of ethanolic NH3 with C2H5Cl.
Ans:

20. Arrange the following in increasing order of basic strength

Aniline, p-Nitroaniline and p-Toluidine
Ans:

21. Write the IUPAC name of the given compound:

Ans: 2, 4, 6-Tribromoaniline
22. Write IUPAC name of the following compound: (CH3CH2)2NCH3
Ans: N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine
23. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound:
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 CH3NHCH(CH3)2
Ans: IUPAC name: N-Methylpropan-2-amine
24. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound:
(CH3)2N-CH2CH3
Ans: IUPAC name: N, N Dimethylamine
25. Aniline cannot be prepared by the ammonolysis of chlorobenzene under normal conditions.
Give reason.
Ans: In case of chlorobenzene, the C—Cl bond is quite difficult to break as it acquires a partial
double bond character due to conjugation.
26. Write the structure of p-toluidene.
Ans:

27. Name two alkaloids present in neurotransmitters.

Ans: Dopamine , Epinephrine
28. Write the structure of N-methyl ethanamine.
Ans: H3C—H2C—NH—CH3
29. Which diazonium salt is insoluble in water?
Ans: C6H5N2+BF4 – (Benzene diazonium fluoro borate) Benzene diazonium flouroborate is
slable at room temperature and is insoluble in water due to its high lattice enthalpy.
30. Why are aliphatic diazonium salts unstable?
Ans: Since there is no resonance in aliphatic diazonium salts, so these are highly unstable and
readily convert to corresponding alcohols.
31. Aniline does not undergoes Friedel-Crafts reaction. Why?
Ans: due to salt formation with aluminium chloride, the Lewis acid, which is used as a catalyst
32. Aniline is less basic than cyclohexylamine.Give reason.
Ans: Due to +I effect of cyclohexyl group electron density increases on N-atom of -NH2 group,
which increases basic strength of cyclohexylamine
33. Aromatic amines cannot be synthesized by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.why?
Ans: Because aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the phthalimide-
formed anion, which restricts further reaction.
34. Write IUPAC name of the following compound :

Ans: IUPAC name : N, N-Dimethylbutanamine.

35. Give the chemical tests to distinguish between Ethyl amine and Aniline.
Ans: By Azo dye test: It involves the reaction of any aromatic primary amine with
HNO2(NaNO2 + dil. HCl) at 273-278 K followed by treatment with an alkaline solution of 2-
naphthol when a brilliant yellow, orange or red coloured dye is obtained.
36. What is the role of HNO3 in the nitrating mixture used for the nitration of benzene?

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 Ans: HNO3 acts as a base in the nitrating mixture and provides the electrophile NO2+ ion for
the nitration of benzene.
37. Why is the NH2 group of aniline acetylated before carrying out nitration?
Ans: NH2 group of aniline is acetylated first so that controlled nitration can occur at the para
position. If the NH2 group of aniline is not acetylated, then a mixture of ortho, meta and para
products will form.
38. What is the best reagent to convert nitrile to primary amine?
Ans: LiAlH4 and Sodium/Alcohol are the best reagents
39. What is Hinsberg reagent?
Ans: Hinsberg reagent is an alternative name for benzene sulfonyl chloride (C6H5SO2Cl). It is
used to detect and distinguish primary, secondary, and tertiary amines in a given sample.
40. Under what reaction conditions (acidic/basic) the coupling reaction of aryl diazonium chloride
with aniline is carried out?
Ans: Coupling reaction of aryl diazonium chloride with aniline is carried out in mildly acidic
conditions, i.e. pH=4−5.
41. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of dipole moment. CH3CH2CH3,
CH3CH2NH2, CH3CH2OH.
Ans: CH3CH2CH3 < CH3CH2NH2 < CH3CH2OH
42. How can you distinguish between Methylamine and Dimethylamine
Ans: By Carbylamine test: Methylamine being a primary amine gives this test but
Dimethylamine being a secondary amine does not.
43. How can you distinguish between Aniline and N-methylaniline
Ans: By Carbylamine test : Aniline is a 1° aromatic amine while N-methylaniline is a secondary
aromatic amine. Therefore only 1° aromatic amine gives this test.

44. Describe Carbylamine reaction giving the relevant chemical equation.

Ans: Carbylamine reaction : Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines on heating with chloroform
and ethanolic KOH form isocyanides or carbylamines which are foul smelling substances. This
reaction is known as carbylamines reaction.

45. Describe Hofmann’s bromamide reaction with relevant chemical equation

Ans: Hofmann’s bromamide reaction : Primary amines can be prepared by treating an amide
with Br2 in an aqueous or alcoholic soln of NaOH.

46. Complete the reaction :

C6H5N2Cl + H3PO2 + H2O →
Ans: C6H5N2Cl + H3PO2 + H2O →C6H6 + N2 + H3PO3 + HCl
47. Give IUPAC names of the following compounds :

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 Ans:
(a) IUPAC name : Methyl prop-2-en-1-amine (b) IUPAC name : Phenyl acetamide
48. Electrophilic susbstitution in case of aromatic amines takes place more readily than benzene.
Ans: Aniline exists as a resonance hybrid of five structures. The electron density is maximum
at ortho and para positions to the – NH2 group.
49. Illustrate Sandmeyer’s reaction
Ans:

50. What is Coupling reaction?

Ans:

51. Why Methylamine in aqueous medium gives reddish-brown precipitate with FeCl3.
Ans:

52. Ethanamide is a weaker base than ethanamine.Give reason.

Ans: In ethanamide the lone pair of electron of N-atom is not available due to resonance
structure.

53. Explain why MeNH2 is a stronger base than MeOH?

Ans: Nitrogen is less electronegative than oxygen; therefore lone pairs of electrons on nitrogen
are readily available for donation. Hence, MeNH2 is more basic than MeOH.
54. What is the role of pyridine in the acylation reaction of amines?
Ans: Pyridine acts as an acceptor for the acid by-product formed in the reaction. Thus, it
removes the side product, i.e. HCl, from the reaction mixture
55. Under what reaction conditions (acidic/basic) the coupling reaction of aryl diazonium chloride
with aniline is carried out?

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 Ans: Coupling reaction of aryl diazonium chloride with aniline is carried out in mildly acidic
conditions, i.e. pH=4−5.
56. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of dipole moment.
CH3CH2CH3, CH3CH2NH2, CH3CH2OH.
Ans: CH3CH2CH3 < CH3CH2NH2 < CH3CH2OH
57. A compound Z with molecular formula C3H9N reacts with C6H5SO2Cl to give a solid, insoluble
in alkali. Identify Z.
Ans: C3H9N reacts with C6H5SO2Cl or Hinsberg’s reagent to give a solid, insoluble in alkali,
which means that C3H9N is a secondary amine. The product obtained in this reaction has no
replaceable hydrogen attached to the nitrogen atom of the amine group
58. Why is aniline soluble in aqueous HCI?
Ans: Aniline forms the salt anilinium chloride, which is water-soluble.
C6H5NH2 + HCl → [C6H5NH3]+Cl–
59. Give one use of quaternary ammonium salts.
Ans. Quaternary ammonium salts are widely used for manufacture of synthetic detergents
60. The correct order of boiling point is:
RCH2NH2, RCOOH , RCH2OH
Ans: RCH2NH2 < RCH2OH < RCOOH
61. CH3NH2 + CHCl3 +3KOH → X + Y + 3H2O here compounds 'X' and 'Y' are:
Ans: CH3NC + 3KCl
62. Give one example of Hoffmann – Bromamide reaction.
Ans. In Hoffmann – Bromamide reaction an acid amide is reacted with Bromine in presence of
a base to give a primary amine having one carbon less than the starting amide.

63. The IUPAC name of secondary amine having lowest molecular mass is _________.
Ans. N- Methylmethanamine.
64. Give an example of diazotization.
Ans: During diazotization benzene diazonium chloride is prepared by the reaction of aniline
with nitrous acid at 273 – 278 K.

65. Write one use of diazonium salt.

Ans: Diazonium salts are used in preparation of substituted aromatic compounds.
66. How can the reactivity of aromatic amines be controlled?
Ans: The reactivity of aromatic amines can be controlled by acylation.
67. Give one use of tertiary amines.
Ans: Tertiary amines like trimethylamine are used as insect attractants.
68. Name a reagent which can distinguish between primary, secondary and tertiary amine
Ans: P-Toluenesulphonyl chloride Hinsberg reagent can be used as a distinguishing reagent for
primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
69. Give IUPAC name of

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 Ans. N,N–dimethylaniline
70. Write structure of following
Aminobut-2-ene
Ans. H2NCH2CH=CHCH3
71. Write the n-methylethanamine structure.
An: H3C—H2C—NH—CH3 is the structure of n-methylethanamine.
72. Give one chemical test to differentiate between Dimethylamine and Ethylamine.
Ans: CH3–NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH → CH3–NC + 3KCl + 3H2
(CH3)2NH + CHCl3 + 3KOH → Δ No reaction
73. How many isomers will be possible for compound having molecular formula C7H9N?
Ans: 5
74. Give one chemical test to differentiate between Secondary and tertiary amines
Ans: Hinsberg’s reagent (Benzenesulphonyl chloride test.
75. In Hinsberg's test, the product of which amine does not dissolve in NaOH?
Ans: CH3NHCH3
76. Give one chemical test to differentiate between Aniline and ethylamine
Ans: The azo-dye test can distinguish between ethylamine and aniline
77. Give Reasons, Optical activity is found in quaternary ammonium salts with four different alkyl
groups.
Ans: Because nitrogen atoms lack a lone pair of electrons, there is no rapid inversion in
quaternary ammonium compounds. The nitrogen atom’s optical activity is due to its sigma
bonding to four alkyl groups.
78. What is the product obtained on acidic hydrolysis of methyl isocyanide.
Ans: CH3NH2 + HCOOH
79. Give reason, Gabriel phthalimide synthesis cannot produce aniline.
Ans. Because aryl halides cannot undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion produced by
phthalimide, the Gabriel phthalimide synthesis technique cannot yield phthalimide.
80. Give reason, Ethylamine is water soluble, but aniline is not.
Ans. Intermolecular hydrogen bonds are formed when ethylamine is mixed with water.
However, because of the presence of a large hydrophobic C6H5 group, aniline does not form
many hydrogen bonds with water
81. Give reason, Amines dissolve in diluted HCl.
Ans. When the amines receive a H + ion from the acid, they become charged, allowing them to
form (strong) ion-dipole interactions with water molecules. It basically turns into salt and
dissolves in a glass of water in the same way that table salt does.
82. Amines have a lower boiling point than comparable molecular mass alcohols. Why?
Ans. Amines have lower boiling points than alcohols because nitrogen is less electronegative
than oxygen. Because of this, the N-H bond is less polar than the OH bond, and the hydrogen
bond between amines and alcohols is weaker.
83. Give reason. When aniline reacts with bromine water, it readily forms 2,4,6-tribromoaniline.

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 Ans. Aniline is a highly activating group due to the nitrogen atom and the low + I impact of
hydrogen. This produces a dense electron cloud in benzene, resulting in a strong reaction with
Br water and the formation of 2, 4, 6-Tribromoaniline.’
84. Aromatic amine diazonium salts are more stable than aliphatic amine diazonium salts. Why?
Ans. Because of resonance, the positive charge on the benzene ring disperses. This resonance
is responsible for the diazonium ion’s stability. Aromatic amine diazonium salts are therefore
more stable than aliphatic amine diazonium salts.
85. Despite the fact that the amino group is o, p-directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution
reactions, aniline on nitration produces a significant amount of m-nitroaniline. Why?
Ans. Nitration occurs in an acidic environment. In an acidic medium, aniline is protonated to
produce anilinium ion (which is meta-directing).
86. Explain why The pKb value of aniline is greater than that of methylamine.
Ans: Unavailable for protonation due to resonance in aniline, which is absent in alkylamine,
aniline is less basic than methylamine.
87. What is Diazotization?
Ans: Diazotization is the process by which Benzene diazonium chloride is produced when
aniline reacts with nitrous acid. This occurs between 273 and 278 K
88. What is the Gatterman Reaction?
Ans: The Gatterman reaction occurs when bromine or chlorine is introduced into the benzene
ring. In the presence of copper powder, the diazonium salt solution treats this while it
corresponds to the halogen acid.
89. Arrange the following compounds in an increasing order of their solubility in water:
C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, C2H5NH2
Ans: CH3NH2 < (C2H3)2NH < C2H2NH2
90. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their basic strength in aqueous solutions:
CH3NH2, (CH3)2, NH, (CH3)3N and NH3
Ans: (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3 N > NH3
91. Write the structure of n-methylethanamine.
Ans: H3C - H2C - NH - CH3
92. Write the structure of prop-2-en-1-amine.
Ans: H2C = CH - H2C - NH2
93. How may methyl amine be preferentially converted to methyl isocyanide?
Ans: By carbylamine reaction
94. arrange the following in increasing order of basic strength:
C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H5CH2NH2
Ans: C6H5NH2 < C6H5NHCH3 < C6H5CH2NH2
95. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of solubility in water:
C6H5NH2, (C2H3)2NH, C2H5NH2
Ans: C6H5NH2 < (C2H3)2NH < C2H5NH2
96. The conversion of primary aromatic amines into diazonium salts is known as .............
Ans: Diazotization.
97. Out of CH3-NH2 and (CH3)3N, which one has higher boiling point?
Ans: CH3-NH2 has higher boiling point than (CH3)3N.
98. Complete the following reaction equation:
C6H5N2Cl + H3PO2 + H2O
Ans: C6H5N2Cl + H3PO2 + H2O → C6H6 + N2 + H3PO3 + HCl

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 Benzene diazonium chloride Hypophosphorous acid Benzene Phosphorous acid.
99. Arrange the following in increasing order of basic strength
Aniline, p-Nitroaniline and p-Toluidine
Ans: p-Nitroaniline < Aniline < p-Toluidine
(Show - I effect) (Show + I effect)
100. Write IUPAC name of the following compound:
(CH3CH2)2NCH3
Ans: N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine
101. Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not soluble in water.
Ans: Ethylamine is soluble in water due to its capability to form H-bonds with water while
aniline isinsoluble in water due to larger hydrocarbon part which tends to retard the formation
of H-bonds.
102. Which one is more basic Ammonia or Methyl ammine?
Ans. Methyl ammine
103. Pure ammines are cannot be prepared easily by ammonolysis of R-X?
Ans. Separation of mixture is difficult.
104. Aromatic primary ammines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis. why?
Ans. Ar-X (Aryl halide) do not undergo nucleophillic substitution reaction.
105. Name the product when BDC reacts with KI solution.
Ans. Iodobenzene
106. What is the importance of Hoffmann Bromamide reaction?
Ans. To degrade no. of carbon atoms from primary amide.
107. Ethyl ammine is soluble in water but aniline not?
Ans. Due to ability of intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethyl ammine
108. Aniline does not undergo Friedal craft reaction.
Ans Due to salt formation.
109. How will you convert BDC into Benzoic acid?
Ans. By Sandmayer reaction followed by hydrolysis.
110. Name the reagent to convert alkane nitrile to primary ammine.
Ans. Na /Ethyl alcohol
111. An amino group of aniline is preserved before its nitration.
Ans. To deactivate benzene ring, amino group is converted into acetamide group which
prevents salt formation.
112. What is Hinsberg reagent?
Ans. Benzene sulphonyl chloride.
113. Name the product form if BDC reacts with phenol in alkaline medium.
Ans. P- hydroxyl azo-benzene
114. Which reagent is used in Gattermanreaction.
Ans. To form haloarenes Cu/HCl is used.
115. Write the basicity order of amines in aqueous solution .
Ans. 20 > 10 > 3 0
116. How will you test R-NH2 compound in the lab.
Ans. Carbyl amine reaction, foul smelling R-NC is identified.
117. Which compound is formed when acetamide is treated with bromine solution in presence of
KOH solution?
Ans Methyl amine (Hoffmann Bromamide reaction)

116
118. In case of gas phase reaction of amines containing ethyl group which is more stable 10, 20 and
30
Ans: 30
119. Aromatic Diazonium salt are more stable than alipahaticdiazonium salt why?
Ans. Due to resonance stabilisation in aromatic diazonium salt.
120. Which product is formed when BDC is treated with warm water?
Ans Phenol
121. What is application of quarternary ammonium salt in our everyday life?

122. Write the name of C6H5N2 F.

Ans. Benzennediazoniumfloride.
123. Which diazonium salt is stable at room temprature.
Ans. Benzene diazonium floro borate(C6H5N2 F).
124. Which diazonium salt is insoluble in water at room temprature?
Ans. Benzene diazonium floro borate (C6H5N2 F).
125. What is diazotitatioan write any example
Ans. The conversion of primary aromatic amins into diazoniumsalts is known as
diazotitatio.

126. What is coupling reaction with example

Ans. Benzene diazonium chloridereacts with phenol in which the phenol molecule at its
para position iscoupled with the diazonium salt to form p-hydroxyazobenzene. Thistype of
reaction is known as coupling reaction. Similarly the reaction ofdiazonium salt with
aniline yields p-aminoazobenzene.

127. Write the structure and IUPAC name of t-butylamine

Ans.

2-Methylpropan-2-amine
128. Which one is more basic CH3NH2 or (CH3)3N in gaseous phase and why ?
Ans. (CH3)3N is more basic because greater numberof alkyl groups increase the
magnitude of +I effect so increase the basicity .
129. Out of Butan-1-ol and butan-1-amine ,which will be more soluble in water and why?
Ans. Butan-1-ol are more polar than amines and forms stronger intermolecular hydrogen
bonds with water molecules than amines.
130. Out of CH3NH2and CH3CH2NH2 which has higher boiling point and why ?
Ans. CH3CH2NH 2because bigger the alkyl group more is the surface area higher is the
magnitude of van der Waals force.
131. Why are primary amines higher boiling than tertiary amines ?
Ans. Primary amines have two hydrogen atoms on the N atom and therefore form
intermolecular hydrogen bonding. Tertiary amines do not have hydrogen atoms on the N
atom and therefore,these do not form hydrogen bonds.

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 UNIT-X
BIOMOLECULES

1. In both DNA and RNA, heterocyclic base and phosphate ester linkages are at which carbon
atom ?
Ans- Between C1 and C5 carbon atoms
2. What is meant by ‘reducing sugars’?
Ans. Reducing sugar contains aldehydic or ketonic group in the hemiacetal and hemiketal forms
and can reduce Tollen’s reagent or Fehlmg’s solution.
3. What are monosaccharides?
Ans. These are the simplest carbohydrates which cannot be hydrolysed to smaller molecules.
Their general formula is (CH2O)n where n = 3 – 7
Example : glucose, fructose etc.
4. Write the structure of the product obtained when glucose is oxidised with nitric acid.
Ans.

5. Write a reaction which shows that all the carbon atoms in glucose are linked in a straight chain.
Ans. On prolonged heating with HI, it forms n-hexane, shows that all the six carbon atoms are
linked in a straight chain:

6. What are the expected products of hydrolysis of lactose?

Ans. On hydrolysis, lactose gives P-D-galactose and p-D-glucose.
7. Where does the water present in the egg go after boiling the egg?
Ans. The white of the egg coagulates which is known Denaturation of protein is the coagulation
of albumin present in the white of an egg.
8. Name a water-soluble vitamin which is a powerful antioxidant. Give its one natural source.
Ans. Water soluble Vitamin C, Natural source: Amla
9. What are biomolecules?
Ans. Biomolecules are organic molecules that are essential for the structure, function, and
regulation of living organisms.
10. Name the four major classes of biomolecules.
Ans.Proteins, carbohydrates, nucleic acids, and lipids.
11. What is the basic building block of proteins?
Ans. Amino acids.
12. How many different amino acids are commonly found in proteins?
Ans. 20.
13. What is the primary function of proteins in cells?

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 Ans. Proteins serve as enzymes, structural components, and are involved in cell signaling,
transport, and defense.
14. What is the primary function of carbohydrates in cells?
Ans. Carbohydrates provide energy and serve as structural components in cell walls and
membranes.
15. Name the two types of nucleic acids.
Ans. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (Ribonucleic acid).
16. What is the function of DNA in cells?
Ans. DNA carries genetic information and is responsible for heredity.
17. What is the function of RNA in cells?
Ans. RNA is involved in protein synthesis and various other cellular processes.
18. Define monosaccharide.
Ans. Monosaccharides are the simplest carbohydrates, consisting of a single sugar molecule.
19. Give an example of a monosaccharide.
Ans. Glucose.
20. What is the general formula of a monosaccharide?
Ans. (CH2O)n, where n is usually 3, 5, or 6.
21. What. is the main function of disaccharides?
Ans. Disaccharides are a source of readily available energy when broken down into
monosaccharides.
22. Name a common disaccharide.
Ans. Sucrose (table sugar), which consists of glucose and fructose.
23. What is the primary structural difference between DNA and RNA?
Ans. DNA has deoxyribose sugar, while RNA has ribose sugar.
24. How does RNA differ from DNA in terms of nucleotide bases?
Ans. RNA contains uracil (U) instead of thymine (T) found in DNA.
25. What are the building blocks of nucleic acids?
Ans. Nucleotides.
26. What are the three components of a nucleotide?
Ans. A sugar molecule, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.
27. Name the four nitrogenous bases found in DNA.
Ans. Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Cytosine (C), and Guanine (G).
28. What are the base-pairing rules in DNA?
Ans. Adenine (A) pairs with Thymine (T), and Cytosine (C) pairs with Guanine (G).
29. What type of bond holds the complementary base pairs together in DNA?
Ans. Hydrogen bonds.
30. What is the role of ribosomes in protein synthesis?
Ans. Ribosomes are cellular structures where protein synthesis occurs. They read the mRNA
and help assemble amino acids into proteins.
31. What is an enzyme?
Ans. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in living organisms.
32. What is denaturation of a protein?
Ans. Denaturation is a process in which a protein loses its structure and function due to changes
in temperature, pH, or other environmental factors.
33. What is the primary structure of a protein?
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 Ans. The primary structure of a protein is its linear sequence of amino acids.
34. How is the secondary structure of a protein stabilized?
Ans. By hydrogen bonds between amino acid residues.
35. What are the two common types of secondary protein structure?
Ans. Alpha helix and beta sheet.
36. What is the tertiary structure of a protein?
Ans. The tertiary structure is the three-dimensional arrangement of amino acid residues in a
protein, including interactions between R-groups.
37. What is quaternary structure in proteins?
Ans. Quaternary structure refers to the arrangement of multiple protein subunits in a multi-
subunit protein.
38. What is the difference between a purine and a pyrimidine base in nucleic acids?
Ans. Purines (adenine and guanine) have a double-ring structure, while pyrimidines (thymine,
cytosine, and uracil) have a single-ring structure.
39. What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of sugar molecules?
Ans. DNA contains deoxyribose sugar, while RNA contains ribose sugar.
40. What is the primary function of glycogen in animals and starch in plants?
Ans. They serve as storage forms of glucose for energy.
41. What is the structural difference between DNA and RNA?
Ans. DNA is usually a double-stranded helix, while RNA is typically single-stranded.
42. What is a nucleoside?
Ans. A nucleoside consists of a nitrogenous base and a sugar molecule (ribose or deoxyribose)
but lacks a phosphate group.
43. What is a nucleotide?
Ans. A nucleotide consists of a nitrogenous base, a sugar molecule (ribose or deoxyribose), and
a phosphate group.
44. What is the genetic material of some viruses if not DNA or RNA?
Ans. Some viruses use RNA as their genetic material.
45. What is a polypeptide?
Ans. A polypeptide is a linear chain of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
46. What is a peptide bond?
Ans. A peptide bond is a covalent bond that links two amino acids in a protein chain.
47. Define monosaccharide.
Ans. Monosaccharides are the simplest carbohydrates, consisting of a single sugar molecule.
48. Write an example of non reducing sugar?
Ans. Sucrose
49. Which mono saccharides unit is given by sucrose by hydrolysis?
Ans. α-D-Glucose and β-D-I8 fructose
50. How many H-bond formed between guanine and cytocine in doble strands helix structure for
DNA?
Ans. Three
51. Write an example of essential amino acid?
Ans. Lusine or any other
52. Write the other name of glucose.
Ans. Dextrose

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53. How do you explain the presence of five-OH groups in glucose molecules?
Ans. Acetylation of glucose with acetic anhydride gives glucose pentaacetate, confirming the
presence of five−OH groups
54. Why must vitamin C be supplied regularly in diet?
Ans. Vitamin C should be consumed regularly because it is water-soluble and cannot be stored
in the body. It gets flushed from our body; hence it should be consumed daily.
55. Which enzyme is used for hydrolysis of sucrose?
Ans. Invertase
56. What do you understood by the term glycosidic linkage ?
Ans. Two mono saccharide units linked in an Oligosaccharide or a polysaccharide through
oxygen atom
57. What products would be formed when a nucleotide from DNA containing thymine is
Hydrolysed
Ans. Thymine base (2) pentose sugar (3) H3PO4
58. What percent of amylopectin present in starch?
Ans. 80 to 85 %
59. At which position of the sugar unit is the phosphoric acid linked in a nucleoside to give a
nucleotide?
Ans. Phosphoric acid is linked at the fifth position of the nucleoside’s sugar moiety to give a
nucleotide.
60. Under what conditions glucose is converted to gluconic and saccharic acid?
Ans. Glucose is converted to gluconic acid by oxidation with bromine water and saccharic acid
when oxidation is carried by conc. HNO3.
61. Monosaccharides contain carbonyl groups and hence are classified as aldose or ketose. The
number of carbon atoms present in the monosaccharide molecule is also considered for
classification. In which class of monosaccharides will you place fructose?
Ans. Since fructose has six carbon atoms and contains a keto group, fructose is called
ketohexose
62. Why cannot Vitamin C be stored in our body
Ans. Vitamin C is soluble in water, hence it is readily excreted in urine.
63. α Helix is a secondary structure of proteins formed by twisting the polypeptide chain into right-
handed screw-like structures. Which type of interactions is responsible for making the α -helix
structure stable?
Ans. Hydrogen bonding
64. During milk curdling, what happens to the sugar present in it?
Ans. When milk is curdled, its sugar oxidises to form lactic acid
65. Name the sugar present in milk?
Ans. Lactose
66. What are such oligosaccharides called having two units
Ans. Disaccharides
67. How many monosaccharide units are present in lactose?
Ans. Two
68. Name the linkage connecting monosaccharide units in polysaccharides
Ans. In polysaccharides, the linkage connecting monosaccharides is known as a glycosidic
linkage

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69. Amino acids behave like salts rather than simple amines or carboxylic acids.
Ans. an amine group can accept a proton, giving rise to a dipolar ion called the Zwitter ion.
70. Which moieties of nucleosides are involved in the formation of phosphodiester linkages present
in dinucleotides?
Ans. In the formation of dinucleotides, the 3−OH group of the pentose sugar of one nucleotide
unit and the 5−OH group of the pentose sugar of the other nucleotide unit are involved in
generating the phosphodiester linkage.
71. What does the word diester in the name of linkage indicate?
Ans. The word ‘diester’ in this linkage indicates that two −OH groups of phosphoric acid are
involved in forming two ester linkages.
72. Which acid is involved in the formation of this linkage?
Ans. Phosphoric acid is involved in the formation of phosphodiester linkage.
73. What are glycosidic linkages?
Ans. Two molecules of monosaccharides are joined together by an oxide linkage formed by the
loss of water molecules. A linkage between two monosaccharide units through an oxygen atom
is called glycosidic linkage
74. In which type of biomolecules are glycosidic linkages present
Ans. It is present in disaccharides, trisaccharides and polysaccharides
75. Which monosaccharide units are present in starch, cellulose and glucose and which linkages
link these units?
Ans. In starch and glycogen, glycosidic α-linkage is present, and cellulose, glycosidic β-linkage
is present between glucose units.
76. Describe the terms D- and L- configuration used for amino acids with examples.
Ans. D-form means that the amino (−NH2) Group is present towards the right-hand side. L-
form shows the amino (−NH2) Group on the left-hand side.
77. How will you distinguish 1° and 2° hydroxyl groups present in glucose?
Ans. 1° and 2° hydroxyl groups present in glucose can be identified by the reaction of glucose
with nitric acid. Primary OH group present in glucose oxidise quickly to -COOH group while
secondary OH group does not.
78. Name the deficiency diseases resulting from lack of Vitamins A and E in the diet.
Ans. Deficiency of Vitamin A causes Xerophthalmia and deficiency of Vitamin E causes
Sterility
79. Name one oil soluble vitamin which is a powerful antioxidant
Ans. Oil soluble Vitamine : Vitamin D
80. Name the only vitamin which can be synthesized in our body. Name the disease caused due to
the deficiency of this vitamin.
Ans. Vitamin which can be synthesized in our body : Vitamin A. Its deficiency causes
Xerophthalmia.
81. Mention one important function of nucleic acids in our body.
Ans. Nucleic acids control the transmission of hereditary characters from one generation to
another.
82. Which of the two components of starch is water soluble?
Ans. Amylose is water soluble component of starch.
83. Which component of starch is a branched polymer of a-glucose and insoluble in water?
Ans. Amylopectin
84. What are the products of hydrolysis of maltose?

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 Ans.

85. Define a ‘Peptide linkage’.

Ans. Peptide linkage: It is an amide linkage formed between – COOH group of one α-amino
acid and NH2 group of the other α-amino acid by loss of a molecule of water. – CO – NH –
bond is called Peptide linkage.
86. Define Invert sugar
Ans. Invert sugar: An equimolar mixture of glucose and fructose obtained by hydrolysis of
sucrose in presence of an acid such as dil. HCl or the enzyme invertase or sucrase is called
invert sugar
87. What are essential and non-essential amino acids in human food? Give one example of each
type.
Ans. Essential amino acids : Amino acids which the body cannot synthesize are called essential
amino acids.
Example : Valine, leucine etc. Therefore they must be supplied in diet.
Non-essential amino acids : Amino acids which the body can synthesize are called non-
essential amino acids. Therefore, they may or may not be present in diet.
Example : Glycine, alanine etc.
88. What is essentially the difference between a-form of glucose and p-form of glucose?
Ans. In a-α-glucose, the OH group at C1 is towards right while in p-D-glucose, the OH group
at C1 is towards left.
89. Name the bases present in RNA. Which one of these is not present in DNA?
Ans.The four bases present in RNA are :
Purines – Adenine (A) and Guanine (G) Pyrimidines – Uracil (U) and Cytosine (C)
Uracil is not present in DNA.
90. Write any two reactions of glucose which cannot be explained by the open chain structure of
glucose molecule.
Ans.Despite having the aldehyde group, glucose does not give 2, 4-DNP test or Schiff’s test.
It does not form the hydrogen sulphite addition product with NaHSO3.
91. Write down the name of the product formed when D-glucose is treated with Hydroxylamine
Ans. D-glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form oxime.
92. Write down the name of the product formed when D-glucose is treated with Acetic anhydride
Ans. D-glucose reacts with acetic anhydride to give penta-acetate.
93. Name the only vitamin which can be synthesized in our body. Name one disease that is caused
due to the deficiency of this vitamin.
Ans. Vitamin that can be synthesized Vitamin B12
Disease due to the deficiency of Vitamin B12: Pernicious anaemia.
94. State two functions of carbohydrates
Ans. Two functions of glucose:
1. Carbohydrates such as glucose, starch, glycogen etc. provide energy for functioning of living
organisms.
2. Carbohydrates, especially cellulose in the form of wood is used for making furniture, houses
etc. by us.
95. Write down the name of the product formed when D-glucose is treated with Bromine water.
Ans. Gluconic acid.
96. Why are vitamin A and vitamin C essential for us?
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 Ans. Because deficiency of vitamin A and vitamin C causes night blindness and scurvy
respectively.
97. Write any one reaction of glucose which cannot be explained by its open chain structures.
Ans. Glucose does not form NaHS03 addition product. Despite having aldehyde-ammonia
group, it does not give 2,4-DNP test and does not respond to Schiff’reagent test.
98. Amino acids may be acidic, alkaline or neutral. How does this happen?
Ans. Depending on the number of —NH2 group and — COOH group.
99. Write one difference between fibrous proteins and globular proteins.
Ans. Globular proteins have almost spheroidal shape due to folding of the polypeptide chain.
Polypeptide chains of fibrous proteins consist of thread like molecules which tend to lie side
by side to form fibres.
100. What is meant by pyranose structure of glucose?
Ans. The six membered cyclic structure of glucose is called pyranose structure.
101. --------------- may be defined as optically active polyhyroxy aldehydes or ketones or the
compounds which produce such units.
Ans. Carbohydrates
102. Monosaccharides contain---------simple sugar unit/ units.
Ans. One
103. Give an example of disaccharide.
Ans. Cane sugar, lactose, maltose.
104. Oligosaccharides yield how many simple sugar units on hydrolysis.
Ans. 2 to 10 simple sugar units.
105. Name the type of bond that joins sugar molecules together to make saccharides
Ans. Glycosidic bond.
106. Which simple molecule is released with the formation of each glycosidic bond.
Ans. Water.
107. Name the monosaccharides units obtained on hydrolysis of cane sugar.
Ans. Glucose and fructose.
108. Out of the two monosaccharides in cane sugar name the one that is laevorotatory.
Ans. Fructose
109. Out of the two monosaccharides in cane sugar name the one that is dextrorotatory.
Ans. Glucose.
110. Which product is obtained when glucose is treated with HI?
Ans. n-Hexane
111. How many OH groups are present in glucose?
Ans. 6 OH groups
112. Natural glucose is found to have which configuration D or L and which rotation of plane
polarized light?
Ans. Natural glucose have D configuration and is dextrorotatory?
113. What will you get if glucose is treated with Acetic anhydride?
Ans. Glucosepentacetate.
114. Anomers are a pair of organic compounds which differ in configuration at ----carbon
Ans At first carbon.
115. Glucose is correctly named as α-D-(+)-Glucopyranose where (+) represents what?
Ans (+) represents that glucose is dextrorotatory

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116. Name a polysaccharide which is generally present in potato, rice and corn etc and gives blue
violet colour with iodine solution.
Ans. Starch.
117. Name water soluble component of starch.
Ans. Amylose
118. Name the monosaccharides units obtained on hydrolysis of lactose.
Ans. Galactose and glucose
119. Name the monosaccharides units obtained on hydrolysis of Maltose.
Ans. Two units of Glucose
120. Name water insoluble component of starch.
Ans Amylopectine
121. Which carbohydrate is also called as animal starch?
Ans. Glycogen
122. Name fat soluble vitamins.
Ans. Vitamin A,D,E,K
123. Name a water-soluble vitamin.
Ans. Vitamin C.
124. Which vitamin is responsible for clotting of blood?
Ans. Vitamin K
125. Name a simplest non essential amino acid.
Ans. Glycine or alanine.
126. Zwitter ions are formed by--------
Ans. Amino Acids
127. A bond that joins two or more amino acids to form a protein is called as ------
Ans. Peptide linkage.
128. Name the simple molecule that is released on formation of each peptide bond.
Ans. Water
129. Name the main heriditery molecule in animals.
Ans. DNA
130. What will be the product when glucose is treated with bromine water?
Ans. Gluconic acid.
131. Name the different types of RNA found in the cell.
Ans. m-RNA, t-RNA and r-RNA
132. Which RNA is responsible for transportation of amino acids during protein synthesis?
Ans. t-RNA
133. Which RNA is responsible for transfer of message during protein synthesis?
Ans. m-RNA
134. Which RNA is found in ribosomes of cell?
Ans. r-RNA
135. Which nucleic acid is not found in RNA?
Ans. Thymine
136. Name the enzyme responsible for the inversion of cane sugar during its hydrolysis?
Ans. Invertase.
137. Into how many groups proteins can be classified on the bases of their molecular shape? Also
Name them.
Ans. Two. Globular and fibrous proteins.

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138. Give an example of fibrous protein.
Ans. Hair, Silk, muscle fibre etc
139. What is the name of the monomer of protein?
Ans. Amino Acid
140. Write down the name of the amino acid that does not show any optical activity.
Ans. Glycine
141. Which enzyme is responsible for transforming maltose into glucose?
Ans. Maltase
142. Give two common examples of nucleic acids that generally act as genetic material in plants and
animals.
Ans. DNA and RNA
For questions 143 to 146 read the following statements and mark T if they are true otherwise
F if they are False.
143. Glycosidic bond join two or more amino acids to make proteins. -F
144. Oligosaccharides contain more than 12 simple sugar units. -F
145. Presence of protein in a given sample can be confirmed with the help of biurette test. - T
146. Presence of starch in a food sample can be confirmed by iodine test. - T
For questions 147 to 150 contain one assertion and one reason statement. Read them carefully
and mark your answer as
(a) if both Assertion(A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.
(b) if both Assertion(A) and Reason (R) are correct but Reason is not correct explanation
of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion (A) statement is true but Reason (R) statement is false.
(d) If Assertion (A) statement is false but Reason (R) statement is true.
147. Assertion(A):DNA undergoes replication.
Reason (R): DNA contain cytocin and thyamin as pyrimidine bases.
Ans. b
148. Assertion(A): Maltose is a reducing sugar.
Reason (R):maltose has a 1,4 βglycosidic linkage.
Ans. c
149. Assertion(A):Distruction of natural function of protein is called as denaturation.
Reason (R): Denaturation is caused due to change in ph or temperature of protein.
Ans. b
150. Assertion(A):Sucrose is a non reducing sugar.
Reason (R): It has glycosidic linkage.
Ans. b
151. Name one water soluble vitamin which is a powerful antioxidant. Give its one natural source.
Ans. Vitamin C. Source: Amla
152. State the basic structural difference (linkage between glucose units) between amylose and
amylopectin.
Ans Amylose contain C1-C4 glycosidic linkage(α-linkage) whereas Amylopectin contain C1-
C6 glycosidic linkage(β-linkage).
153. Name a water-soluble vitamin and why it cant be stored in body?
Ans. Vitamin C. It can not be stored in body as it is excreted in urine when its level rises in the
body.

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154. What is meant by denaturation of proteins?
Ans. Loss of biological activity of proteins when they are subjected to change in pH or temp
etc.
155. What is meant by hypervitaminosis? How can it be cured?
Ans. A disease which is caused by excess of a vitamin in the body. It can be cured by regulating
the intake of that particular vitamin. Eg blurred vision due to excess of vit A.
156. How are monomeric units in DNA and RNA held together
Ans. The phosphodiester bond holds the monomers of DNA and RNA together.
157. What is the significance of vitamin K in the coagulation of blood?
Ans. Vitamin K helps in the coagulation of blood by synthesising the blood-clotting protein
prothrombin.
158. Vitamin B enriched foods must be included in our diet chart. Why is vitamin B required?
Ans. Vitamin B is crucial for the processes of metabolism, the formation of new blood cells,
and maintaining healthy skin. So, we need vitamin B enriched food to let natural activities run
smoothly.
159. Mention one structural difference between oligosaccharides and polysaccharides.
Ans. Oligosaccharides are made up of a limited number of monosaccharides (namely 3 to 10).
Polysaccharides are lengthy chains of monosaccharides linked together with glycosidic
connections. They generally contain large number of monomer units.
160. Write down the industrial preparation of glucose.
Ans. Glucose is prepared in industries by the process of hydrolysis. Starch is heated with dilute
H2SO4 at 393 K temperature to produce glucose from it.
161. What are essential amino acids and non-essential amino acids? Give examples.
Ans. Those amino acids that cannot be synthesised in the body and are acquired through food
are called essential amino acids. For example, valine and tryptophan. The amino acids that the
body can synthesize are known as non-essential amino acids. For example, glycine and
glutamic acid.
162. Which nucleic acid is crucial for the protein synthesis of our cells?
Ans. Ribonucleic acid, or RNA, is crucial for the protein synthesis of our cells.
163. How many chiral carbon atoms are present in D(+) glucose?
Ans. Chiral carbons are those carbon atoms that contain four different atoms or groups.
In D(+) glucose, four such carbon atoms are present.
164. Proteins are both fibrous and globular. How are they different from each other?
Ans. Fibrous proteins are long fibre like proteins generally insoluble in water like hair. Globular
proteins are round in shape and generally soluble in water, acids and alcohols. Eg Haemoglobin
165. Write down the nitrogenous bases present in DNA.
Ans. Adenine, thyamin, guanine and cytocin.
166. Mention one function of each: DNA and RNA.
Ans. The function of DNA: It carries the genetic code that is transmitted through genes from
one generation to another.
The function of RNA: It facilitates the process of translation of DNA.
167. Define the term “specificity” of an enzyme.
Ans. The specificity of an enzyme refers to its ability to choose a specific substrate to work on.
Only a few enzymes show this property. Specificity can be of four types, such as absolute
specificity, group specificity, linkage specificity, and stereochemical specificity.

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168. A child is diagnosed with a bone deformity. A deficiency of which vitamin probably may be
the cause of it? What kind of diet should be preferred for the child.
Ans. Probably it could be due the deficiency of vitamin D. Child should get a diet rich in
calcium, phosphorus and sufficient exposure to sun.
169. Why do carbohydrates often act as reducing agents?
Ans. Carbohydrates act as reducing agents because of the presence of aldehydic groups (-
CHO) and ketol groups (- CO-CH2OH) in them. Carbohydrates containing aldehyde groups
are glucose, mannose, and galactose, and carbohydrates containing ketol groups are fructose.
170. Write a reaction which shows that all the carbon atoms in glucose are linked in a straight chain.
Ans.

171. Give the structure of fructofuranose.

Ans.

172. Give the structure of glucopyranose.

Ans.

173. Similarity with furan is used to name which monosachharide unit. Which element is a member
of ring in it other than carbon.
Ans. Fructose is named after Furan due to its similarity. Oxyggen is the member of the ring in
Furan.
174. Similarity with pyran is used to name which monosachharide unit. Which element is a member
of ring in it other than carbon.
Ans. Glucose is named after pyran due to its similarity. Oxyggen is the member of the ring in
pyran.
175. How many types of pyrimidine bases are there in human cells?
Ans. Cytosine, uracil and thyamin are pyrimidine bases.
176. How many types of purine bases are there in DNA in human cells?
Ans. adenine and guanine
177. Which vitamin is also known as retinol?
Ans.Vitamin a is also known as retinol.
178. Which vitamin is also known as ascorbic acid?
Ans. Vitamin C is also known as ascorbic acid.
179. Which vitamin is also known as riboflavin.
Ans. Vitamin B2 is also known as riboflavin.
180. Tocopherol is a chemical name of which vitamin?

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 Ans. Vitamin E which is essential for good skin is also known as tocopherol.
181. Name deficiency disease of vitamin C.
Ans. Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of vitamin C.
182. Name deficiency disease of vitamin A?
And. Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of vitamin D.
183. What are Zwitter ions?
Ans. Zwitter ions are formed due to internal proton transfer between amino group and
carboxylic group.
184. Write down the structures and names of the products formed when D-glucose is treated with
Hydroxylamine
Ans. D-glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form oxime.

185. Write the main structural difference between DNA and RNA. Of the two bases, thymine and
uracil, which one is present in DNA?
Ans. DNA: The sugar present in DNA is 2-deoxy-(-) ribose. DNA has double standard α-helix
structure
RNA: The sugar present in RNA is D-(-) ribose. RNA has single stranded α-helix structure.
186. Write such reactions and facts about glucose which cannot be explained by its open chain
structure.
Ans. Limitations of the open chain structure of glucose :
Glucose does not form NaHSO3 addition product. Despite having aldehyde-ammonia group, it
does not respond to 2,4-DNP test and does not respond to Schiff’s reagent test.
Glucose penta acetate does not react with NH2OH due to absence of aldehydic group.
187. Describe what you understand by primary structure of proteins.
Ans. Primary structure of proteins : Proteins may have one or more polypeptide chains. Each
polypeptide in a protein has amino acids linked with each other in a specific sequence which is
known as primary structure of protein.
188. Describe what you understand by secondary structure of proteins.
Ans. Secondary structure of proteins : The conformation which the polypeptide chains assume
as a result of hydrogen bonding is called the secondary structure of the protein.
189. What is a nucleoside?
Ans. A nucleoside contains only two basic components of nucleic acids i.e. a pentose sugar and
a nitrogenous base. During their formation 1-position of the pyrimidine or 9-position of the
purine moitey is linked to C1 of the sugar (ribose or deoxyribose) by a β-linkage
190. What is a nucleotide?
Ans. A nucleotide contains all the three basic components of nucleic acids, i.e. a phosphoric
acid group, a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base. These are formed by esterification of C5‘ –
OH of the sugar of the nucleoside with phosphoric acid.
191. What are polypeptides? Give a suitable example.
Ans. They are formed when several molecules of a-amino acids are joined together by peptide
bonds.

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192. What is a glycosidic linkage?
Ans. The two monosaccharide units are joined together through an etheral or oxide linkage
formed by loss of a molecule of water. Such a linkage between two monosaccharide units
through oxygen atom is called glycosidic linkage.
193. What are enzymes?
Ans. Enzymes are protein molecules which act as catalyst in biochemical reaction.
194. Define a ‘Peptide linkage’. (Comptt. All India 2014)
Ans. Peptide linkage : It is an amide linkage formed between – COOH group of one α-amino
acid and NH2 group of the other α-amino acid by loss of a molecule of water. – CO – NH –
bond is called Peptide linkage.
195. What are non-reducing sugars? Give a suitable example.
Ans. Sugars that do not reduce tollens and Fehlings solutions are called as non reducing
sugars.eg
196. What are reducing sugars? Give a suitable example.
Ans. Sugars that can reduce tollens and Fehlings solutions are called as reducing sugars.eg

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