Part-FCL Question Bank

PPL(A)
Acc. (EU) 1178/2011
and
AMC FCL.115, .120, 210, .215

(Excerpt)

10 – Air Law
 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

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 10 Air Law ECQB-PPL(A)

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1 Which of the following documents have to be on board for an international flight?

a) Certificate of aircraft registration

b) Certificate of airworthiness
c) Airworthiness review certificate
d) EASA Form-1
e) Airplane logbook
f) Appropriate papers for every crew member
g) Technical logbook (1,00 P.)
 a, b, e, g
 b, c, d, e, f, g
 d, f, g
 a, b, c, e, f

2 Which area could be crossed with certain restrictions? (1,00 P.)

 No-fly zone
 Dangerous area
 Restricted area
 Prohibited area

3 Where can the type of restriction for a restricted airspace be found? (1,00 P.)
 AIP
 ICAO chart 1:500000
 NOTAM
 AIC

4 What is the status of the rules and procedures created by the EASA?
(e.g. Part-FCL, Part-MED) (1,00 P.)
 Only after a ratification by individual EU member states they are legally binding
 They have the same status as ICAO Annexes
 They are not legally binding, they only serve as a guide
 They are part of the EU regulation and legally binding to all EU member states

5 Which validity does the "Certificate of Airworthiness" have? (1,00 P.)

 12 months
 12 years
 Unlimited
 6 months

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6 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "ARC"? (1,00 P.)

 Airspace Restriction Criteria

 Airworthiness Recurring Control

 Airspace Rulemaking Committee

 Airworthiness Review Certificate

7 The "Certificate of Airworthiness" is issued by the state... (1,00 P.)

 in which the airworthiness review is done.
 in which the aircraft is constructed.
 of the residence of the owner.
 in which the aircraft is registered.

8 A pilot license issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is valid in... (1,00 P.)
 those countries that have accepted this license on application.
 the country where the license was issued.

 all ICAO countries.

 the country where the license was acquired.

9 What is the subject of ICAO Annex 1? (1,00 P.)

 Flight crew licensing
 Air traffic services
 Rules of the air
 Operation of aircraft

10 What is the period of validity of a private pilot license (PPL)? (1,00 P.)
 Unlimited
 24 months
 60 months
 48 months

11 What is the minimum age to obtain a private pilot license? (1,00 P.)
 18 years
 16 years
 17 years
 21 years

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12 What are the minimum requirements among others to acquire a rating for VFR night
flights? (1,00 P.)
 At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour
cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
 At least 10 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1
hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
 At least 5 additional flight hours at night, four of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour
cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings

 At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1 hour
cross-country flight plus 10 solo take-offs and full-stop landings

13 The validity of a medical examination certificate class 2 for a 62 years old pilot is...
(1,00 P.)
 12 Months.
 48 Months.

 60 Months.

 24 Months.

14 In which way is a SEP (land) rating renewed if you do not meet the required flight
time? (1,00 P.)
 The required flight experience has to be accumulated under supervision of a flight instructor
 The ATO can renew the rating after a training flight with a flight instructor
 A proficiency check with an examiner
 According to the flight experience there have to be several training flights under supervision of
an ATO

15 The possession of a european PPL(A) entitles the holder to... (1,00 P.)
 act as PIC on non-commercial flights without compensation as well as to receive compensation
as a flight instrucor.
 act as pilot on a commercial flight when there are at most 4 people on board.
 act as PIC, and only for flights in aircraft with a MTOW of maximum 2000 kg a compensation
may be obtained.
 act as pilot in commercial and non-commercial flights with single engine aircraft.

16 What is the minimum age to start a private pilot training at a flight school? (1,00 P.)
 17 years
 21 years
 16 years
 18 years

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17 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SERA"? (1,00 P.)

 Selective Radar Altimeter
 Standard European Routes of the Air
 Specialized Radar Approach
 Standardized European Rules of the Air

18 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "TRA"? (1,00 P.)

 Temporary Radar Routing Area
 Temporary Reserved Airspace
 Terminal Area
 Transponder Area

19 What has to be done before entering a TMZ? (1,00 P.)

 Switch on the transponder and activate mode A and C or mode S
 Request a clearance before entering
 File a flight plan before the flight
 Switch on the transponder, activate mode A, and squawk "IDENT"

20 What is the meaning of an area marked as "TMZ"? (1,00 P.)

 Transportation Management Zone
 Touring Motorglider Zone
 Transponder Mandatory Zone
 Traffic Management Zone

21 According to ICAO Annex 2, the term "aerodrome traffic" is defined as: (1,00 P.)
 All traffic on the apron and on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in
the vicinity of an aerodrome.
 All traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an
aerodrome.
 All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an
aerodrome except aircraft in a visual circuit.
 All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of an
aerodrome.

22 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "IFR"?

(1,00 P.)
 Commercial Flight Rules
 Instrument Flight Rules
 Instrument Meteorological Conditions
 Bad Weather Flight Rules

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23 A flight is called a "visual flight", if the... (1,00 P.)

 visibility in flight is more than 5 km.
 flight is conducted under visual flight rules.
 visibility in flight is more than 8 km.
 flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions.

24 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "VMC"? (1,00 P.)

 Visual flight rules
 Instrument flight conditions
 Visual meteorological conditions
 Variable meteorological conditions

25 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "IMC"? (1,00 P.)

 Instrument conditions
 Instrument flight rules
 Instrument meteorological conditions
 Inter meteorological conditions

26 What has to be considered when entering an RMZ? (1,00 P.)

 To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact
 The transponder has to be switched on Mode C and squawk 7000
 To obtain a clearance from the local aviation authority
 To obtain a clearance to enter this area

27 Two engine-driven aircraft are flying on crossing courses at the same altitude.

Which one has to divert? (1,00 P.)

 The lighter one has to climb

 The heavier one has to climb

 Both have to divert to the left

 Both have to divert to the right

28 Two aeroplanes are flying on crossing tracks.

Which one has to divert? (1,00 P.)

 Both have to divert to the left

 The aircraft which flies from right to left has the right of priority
 Both have to divert to the right
 The aircraft which flies from left to right has the right of priority

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29 In airspace "D" a Boeing 737 and a Cessna 152 are flying on crossing courses.

Which aeroplane has to divert? (1,00 P.)

 The Cessna 152, because IFR and commercial flights have priority
 The air traffic control (ATC) has to decide which one has to divert
 The aeroplane flying from right to left has priority, the other one has to divert
 The Boeing 737, because an airliner has greater power reserves

30 Which of the following options is NOT a sufficient reason to fly below the required
minimum height? (1,00 P.)
 An approach without landing at an aerodrome
 Take-off or landing at an aerodrome
 The drop of towed objects at an aerodrome
 Bad weather conditions in the vicinity of an aerodrome

31 A single-engine piston and a turboprop aeroplane are approaching each other

opposite at the same altitude.

Which aeroplane has to change its track to avoid a collision? (1,00 P.)
 The single-engine piston aircraft has to give way to the turboprop aircraft
 Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the right
 The turboprop aircraft has to give way to the single-engine piston aircraft
 Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the left

32 What condition has to be met during a Special VFR flight? (1,00 P.)
 At least 500 m ground visibilty
 A minimum distance to clouds of 2000 m
 Visual reference to the terrain
 Speed not above 115 kt IAS

33 Which distances to clouds have to be maintained during a VFR flight in airpaces C, D

and E? (1,00 P.)
 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically
 1500 m horizontally, 1000 m vertically
 1000 m horizontally, 300 m vertically
 1000 m horizontally, 1500 ft vertically

34 The minimum flight visibility at 5000 ft MSL in airspace B for VFR flights is... (1,00 P.)
 1500 m.
 8000 m.
 5000 m.
 3000 m.

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35 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under
VFR
at 5000 ft MSL? (1,00 P.)
 8000 m
 5000 m
 3000 m
 1500 m

36 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "E" for an aircraft operating under
VFR
at FL75? (1,00 P.)
 8000 m
 5000 m
 1500 m
 3000 m

37 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under
VFR
at FL110? (1,00 P.)
 3000 m
 5000 m
 8000 m
 1500 m

38 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under
VFR
at FL125? (1,00 P.)
 5000 m
 8000 m
 1500 m
 3000 m

39 What are the minimum distances to clouds for a VFR flight in airspace "B"? (1,00 P.)
 Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 1.500 ft
 Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 1.000 m
 Horizontally 1.500 m, vertically 300 m
 Horizontally 1.000 m, vertically 300 m

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40 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" below FL 100 for an aircraft
operating under VFR? (1,00 P.)
 5 km
 10 km
 8 km
 1.5 km

41 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" at and above FL 100 for an aircraft
operating under VFR?

(1,00 P.)
 10 km
 1.5 km

 5 km

 8 km

42 The term "ceiling" is defined as the... (1,00 P.)

 height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 10000
ft.

 height of the base of the highest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000
ft.

 altitude of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000
ft.
 height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below 20000
ft.

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43 State the minimum weather conditions to enter a control zone (airspace "D") under
special VFR conditions for a fixed-wing aircraft? (1,00 P.)
 Ground visibility at least 1,5 km
Flight visibility at least 1,5 km
Ceiling not below 1000 ft
Visual contact to the ground must be maintained
The aircraft must remain always clear of clouds.

 Ground visibility at least 5 km

Flight visibility at least 5 km
Ceiling not below 1500 ft
Visual contact to the ground must be maintained
The aircraft must remain always clear of clouds.
 Ground visibility at least 800 m
Flight visibility at least 800 m
Ceiling not below 600 ft
Visual contact to the ground must be maintained
The aircraft must remain always clear of clouds.

 Ground visibility at least 1,5 km

Flight visibility at least 1,5 km
Ceiling not below 600 ft
Visual contact to the ground must be maintained
The aircraft must remain always clear of clouds.

44 Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the

following signal:

Alternating movement of the ailerons, normally left of the intercepted aircraft,

followed by a smooth turn to the left? (1,00 P.)
 You are clear of any restricted or reserved airspaces, you can continue on your heading
 Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area
 Follow me
 You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately

45 Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the

following signal:

A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft

without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft? (1,00 P.)
 Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area
 You may continue your flight
 You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately
 Follow me, i will bring you to the next suitable airfield

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46 The altimeter is switched from local QNH to 1013.25 hPa... (1,00 P.)
 at 4000 ft.
 when climbing above the transition altitude.
 when descending below FL 100.
 at the decision height.

47 During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be... (1,00 P.)
 local QNH.
 1013.25 hPa.
 1030.25 hPa.
 local QFE.

48 What is the purpose of the semi-circular rule? (1,00 P.)

 To avoid collisions by suspending turning manoeuvres
 To fly without a filed flight plan in prescribed zones published in the AIP
 To avoid collisions by reducing the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude
 To allow safe climbing or descending in a holding pattern

49 Which of the following options are possible SSR-Transponder modes? (1,00 P.)
 B, R, S
 A, C, R

 A, C, S
 B, C, V

50 A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a... (1,00 P.)
 transponder approved for airspace "B".
 mode A transponder.
 pressure-decoder.
 mode C or S transponder.

51 Which transponder code indicates a loss of radio communication? (1,00 P.)

 7600
 7000
 2000
 7700

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52 Which transponder code should be set during a radio failure without any request?
(1,00 P.)
 7500
 7700
 7000
 7600

53 Which transponder code has to be set unrequested during an emergency? (1,00 P.)
 7700

 7600

 7000
 7500

54 The "IDENT" button on the transponder has to be used... (1,00 P.)

 without any request before entering a CTA.
 only once after a direct request by the ATC.
 three times to indicate a radio failure.
 without any request before entering airspace C, D or E.

55 Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights? (1,00 P.)
 AIS (aeronautical information service)
 FIS (flight information service)
 ATC (air traffic control)
 ALR (alerting service)

56 Air traffic control service is conducted by which services? (1,00 P.)

 APP (approach control service)
ACC (area control service)
FIS (flight information service)
 TWR (aerodrome control service)
APP (approach control service)
ACC (area control service)
 ALR (alerting service)
SAR (search and rescue service)
TWR (aerodrome control service)
 FIS (flight information service)
AIS (aeronautical information service)
AFS (aeronautical fixed telecommunication service)

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57 Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace "E"? (1,00 P.)
 VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic
 VFR traffic is separated from VFR and IFR traffic
 IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic
 VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic

58 Which air traffic services can be expected within an FIR (flight information region)?
(1,00 P.)
 FIS (flight information service)
ALR (alerting service)
 AIS (aeronautical information service)
SAR (search and rescue)
 ATC (air traffic control)
FIS (flight information service)
 ATC (air traffic control)
AIS (aeronautical information service)

59 A pilot can contact FIS (flight information service)... (1,00 P.)

 via radio communication.
 by a personal visit.
 via internet.
 via telephone.

60 What is the correct phrase with respect to wake turbulence to indicate that a light
aircraft is following an aircraft of a higher wake turbulence category? (1,00 P.)
 Attention propwash
 Be careful wake winds
 Caution wake turbulence
 Danger jet blast

61 Which of the following options states a correct position report? (1,00 P.)
 DEABC reaching "N"
 DEABC over "N" at 35
 DEABC over "N" in FL 2500 ft
 DEABC, "N", 2500 ft

62 What is the meaning of the abbreviation "AIREP"? (1,00 P.)

 Automatic identification report
 Aeronautical instrument requirement report
 Aeronautical information report
 Aircraft report

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63 What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP? (1,00 P.)
 Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees
 Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples
and validity periods
 Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces
 Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi
charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces

64 Which are the different parts of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)? (1,00
P.)
 GEN
AGA
COM
 GEN
ENR
AD
 GEN
MET
RAC
 GEN
COM
MET

65 What information is provided in the part "AD" of the AIP?

(1,00 P.)
 Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces.
 Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees

 Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts
 Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples
and validity periods

66 The shown NOTAM is valid until...

A1024/13 A) LOWW B) 1305211200 C) 1305211400

E) STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE.
(1,00 P.)
 21/05/2014 13:00 UTC.

 13/05/2013 12:00 UTC.

 21/05/2013 14:00 UTC.

 13/10/2013 00:00 UTC.

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67 A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a presentation of current... (1,00 P.)

 ICAO information of operational significance prepared after the flight.
 NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.
 AIC information of operational significance prepared after the flight.
 AIP information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.

68 The term "aerodrome elevation" is defined as... (1,00 P.)

 the highest point of the landing area.

 the lowest point of the landing area.

 the average value of the height of the manoeuvring area.
 the highest point of the apron.

69 The term "runway" is defined as a... (1,00 P.)

 rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopters.
 rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
 round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
 rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.

70 Which statement is correct with regard to the term "taxi holding point"? (1,00 P.)
 A taxi holding point is designed to indicate the beginning of the safety area and may be crossed
when a taxi clearance is given
 A taxi holding point is an area where the aircraft must stop unless further permission to proceed
is given
 A taxi holding point is only to be observed for IFR traffic if instrument weather conditions are
prevailing
 A taxi holding point is the point at which the aircraft must stop unless further permission to
proceed is given

71 What does the reported runway condition "WET" mean? (1,00 P.)
 Some water patches are visible
 The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow
 A large part of the surface is flooded

 The surface of the runway is soaked, but there are no significant patches of standing water

72 What does the reported runway condition "DAMP" mean?

(1,00 P.)
 Wet surface, but no significant puddles are visible
 Change of colour on the surface due to moisture
 The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow
 A large part of the surface is flooded

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73 What does "WATER PATCHES" mean regarding the reported runway condition? (1,00
P.)
 The runway is clear of water, ice, and snow
 Patches of standing water are visible
 A large part of the surface is flooded
 Wet surface, but no significant patches are visible

74 How can a wind direction indicator be marked for better visibility? (1,00 P.)
 The wind direction indicator could be made from green materials.
 The wind direction indicator could be surrounded by a white circle.
 The wind direction indicator could be located on a big black surface.
 The wind direction indicator may be mounted on top of the control tower.

75 What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft in flight? (1,00 P.)
 Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
 Airport unsafe, do not land
 Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time
 Cleared to land

76 What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft in flight? (1,00 P.)
 Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
 Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time
 Airport unsafe, do not land
 Cleared to land

77 What is the meaning of a steady green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft in flight? (1,00 P.)
 Airport unsafe, do not land
 Cleared to land
 Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time
 Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

78 What is the meaning of a flashing white light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft on ground? (1,00 P.)
 Cleared to taxi
 Return to starting point
 Clear the taxiway / runway
 Cleared for take-off

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79 What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft on ground? (1,00 P.)
 Cleared to taxi
 Return to starting point
 Immediately taxi clear of runway in use
 Cleared for take-off

80 What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed
to an aircraft on ground? (1,00 P.)
 Return to starting point
 Cleared for take-off
 Cleared to taxi
 Land at this airport and proceed to the apron

81 Of what shape is a landing direction indicator? (1,00 P.)

 A straight arrow
 T
 L
 An angled arrow

82 What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome? (1,00 P.)

 Aircraft taxi to this square to get light signals for taxi and take-off clearance
 It is a specially marked area to pick up or drop towing objects
 It is an illuminated area on which search and rescue and fire fighting vehicles are placed
 It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying
aircraft

83 In which way should a pilot confirm received light signals in flight? (1,00 P.)
 Apply some fast pitch changes
 Rock the wings (in the daytime)
 Apply some changes of RPM
 Apply some changes of the rudder

84 What is the meaning of a steady red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to
an aircraft on ground? (1,00 P.)
 Clear the taxiway / runway
 Land at this airport and proceed to apron
 Stop
 Return to starting point

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85 How are two parallel runways designated? (1,00 P.)

 The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway remains unchanged

 The left runway remains unchanged, the right runway designator is increased by 1
 The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway "R"
 The left runway gets the suffix "-1", the right runway "-2"

86 According to ICAO Anex 14, which is the colour marking of a runway? (1,00 P.)
 White
 Blue
 Yellow
 Green

87 What is indicated by a pattern of longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed

symmetrically about the centerline of a runway? (1,00 P.)
 Do not touch down behind them
 At this point the glide path of an ILS hits the runway
 A ground roll could be started from this position
 Do not touch down before them

88 Which runway designators are correct for 2 parallel runways? (1,00 P.)
 "26" and "26R"
 "18" and "18-2"
 "06L" and "06R"
 "24" and "25"

89 What is a "PAPI" (Precision Approach Path Indicator)? (1,00 P.)

 A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct
glidepath to an aerodrome or an airport
 An instrumental aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the
correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport
 A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct
departure track when departing from an aerodrome or an airport
 A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a tower controller acquire and maintain
the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport

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90 An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a... (1,00 P.)

 rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from
the air.
 rotating beacon installed at the beginning of the final approach to indicate its location to aircraft
pilots from the air.
 fixed beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from the
air.
 rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots from
the ground.

91 Which is the colour of runway edge lights? (1,00 P.)

 Blue
 Green
 Red
 White

92 Which is the colour of runway end lights? (1,00 P.)

 Blue
 White
 Red
 Green

93 What is shown on the printed sign?

See figure (ALW-019) (1,00 P.)

 Taxiway A
 Parking position A
 Part A of the runway
 Point A on a taxiway

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94 What is shown on the printed sign?

See figure (ALW-020)

(1,00 P.)
 The complete length of the runway in the stated direction is 2500 m
 2500 m in the stated direction till reaching the departure point of the runway
 2500 m in the stated direction till reaching the parking area
 From this intersection the available runway length is 2500 m in the stated direction

95 Which meaning has a yellow cross on red ground signal as shown in the signal area
of an aerodrome?

See figure (ALW-010)

(1,00 P.)
 Caution, manoeuvring area is poor.
 Ground movement restricted to hard surfaces.
 After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right.
 Prohibition on landing for a longer period.

96 What is the meaning of this sign at an aerodrome?

See figure (ALW-011) (1,00 P.)

 Caution, manoeuvring area is poor
 Glider flying is in progress
 After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right
 Landing prohibited for a longer period

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97 What is the meaning of the illustrated ground signal as shown in the signal area of an
aerodrome?

See figure (ALW-012) (1,00 P.)

 Prohibition on landing for a longer period
 Ground movement restricted to hard surfaces
 After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right
 Caution, manoeuvring area is poor

98 What is the meaning of "DETRESFA"? (1,00 P.)

 Uncertainty phase
 Alerting phase

 Distress phase
 Rescue phase

99 Who provides search and rescue service? (1,00 P.)

 Only military organisations
 International approved organisations
 Both military and civil organisations
 Only civil organisations

100 How can a pilot confirm a search and rescue signal on ground in flight? (1,00 P.)
 Rock the wings
 Fly in a parabolic flight path multiple times
 Push the rudder in both directions multiple times
 Deploy and retract the landing flaps multiple times

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101 With respect to aircraft accident and incident investigation, what are the three
categories regarding aircraft occurrences? (1,00 P.)
 Incident
Serious incident
Accident
 Happening
Event
Serious event
 Event
Crash
Disaster
 Event
Serious event
Accident

102 What is the primary purpose of an aircraft accident investigation? (1,00 P.)
 To clarify questions of liability within the meaning of compensation for passengers
 To work for the public prosecutor and help to follow-up flight accidents
 To Determine the guilty party and draw legal consequences
 To identify the reasons and work out safety recommendations

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